HPAS2024General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

HPAS Prelims 2024 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 99 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

99
Questions
6
Subjects
20
Himachal Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography2626%
  • History2020%
  • Economy1919%
  • Science and Technology1616%
  • Polity and Governance1515%
  • Art and Culture33%
1Geography
Podu form of shifting cultivation is popular in which of the following states of India ?
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Answer: (A) Odisha

Explanation

Podu is a traditional form of shifting cultivation, also known as slash-and-burn agriculture, which is widely practiced by various tribal communities in the hilly and forested regions of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Under this agricultural practice, a patch of forest on hill slopes is cleared by cutting and burning the vegetation, cultivated for a few seasons, and then left fallow to allow the soil to naturally regain its fertility while the farmers move to a new plot of land.

2Art and Culture
Shisgars are the skilled workers of :
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Answer: (B) Glass Industry

Explanation

Shisgars (or Shishgars) are highly skilled traditional craftsmen who specialize in the glass industry. The term is derived from the Persian word shisheh, which translates to glass, combined with the suffix gar, meaning maker or worker. These artisans are famously concentrated in Firozabad, Uttar Pradesh, which is renowned as the glass hub of India. Shisgars have passed down their specialized techniques of glassblowing, shaping, and designing through generations, playing a vital role in the production of glass bangles, glassware, and decorative art.

3Geography
Lyons is a major industrial town of :
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Answer: (A) France

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Lyons, commonly spelled Lyon, is located in east-central France in the Auvergne-Rhone-Alpes region. It is historically celebrated as the silk capital of the world and has developed into a major modern industrial and economic hub, particularly famous for its chemical, pharmaceutical, textile, and biotechnology industries.

4Art and Culture
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Escurial is a famous structure of France. Statement II : Brandenburg Gate is a famous structure of Jerusalem. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the Escurial, also known as El Escorial or the Royal Site of San Lorenzo de El Escorial, is a famous monument and historical palace-monastery complex located near Madrid, Spain, rather than in France.

Statement II is incorrect because the Brandenburg Gate is a famous 18th-century neoclassical monument and iconic historical gate located in Berlin, Germany, rather than in Jerusalem.

5GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Patsari river is a small tributary of Tons river. Statement II : Patsari river originates near Kharapather in Shimla district. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Explanation

Kharapathar lies in the Rohru subdivision of Shimla district within the Pabbar river basin; the Patsari river originating there drains into the Pabbar, not directly into the Tons, making Statement I incorrect. Statement II is correct — the Patsari does originate near Kharapathar in Shimla district.

6GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Bara Shigri glacier was first surveyed by Walker and Poscoe in 1906. Statement II : Bara Shigri is the largest glacier in the state of Himachal Pradesh. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the Bara Shigri glacier was first systematically surveyed in 1906 by H. Walker and E. H. Pascoe of the Geological Survey of India (GSI). Their survey mapped the terminus and snout position of the glacier, providing a vital baseline for future glaciological studies.

Statement II is correct because Bara Shigri, located in the Chandra Valley of Lahaul and Spiti district, is the largest glacier in Himachal Pradesh. It covers an area of over 126 square kilometers and extends to a length of approximately 27.7 kilometers, feeding the Chandra River, which eventually merges to form the Chenab River.

7Geography
Arrange the following states of India from highest to lowest flood prone area : (1) Bihar (2) Punjab (3) Rajasthan (4) Uttar Pradesh Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (4), (1), (2), (3)

Explanation

According to the National Flood Commission (Rashtriya Barh Ayog) and the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Uttar Pradesh possesses the highest flood-prone area among these states with approximately 7.34 million hectares. It is followed by Bihar, which has about 4.26 million hectares of flood-prone area due to major river systems like the Kosi and Gandak. Punjab occupies the third position in this sequence with around 3.70 million hectares of flood-prone land within the Indus river basin, while Rajasthan has the lowest flood-prone area among the group at approximately 3.26 million hectares.

8Economy
Arrange the following centres of cotton textile industry in India from north to south : (1) Phagwara (2) Cuttack (3) Guntur (4) Tirupati Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Explanation

The geographic latitudinal positions of these cotton textile centers establish their sequential order from north to south. Phagwara is located in Punjab at approximately 31.22° N. Cuttack is located in Odisha at approximately 20.46° N. Guntur is located in Andhra Pradesh at approximately 16.30° N. Tirupati is located in the southern part of Andhra Pradesh at approximately 13.62° N. This places them in the sequence of (1) Phagwara, (2) Cuttack, (3) Guntur, and (4) Tirupati.

9Geography
Arrange the following countries of Europe from East to West : (1) Ukraine (2) Belgium (3) Poland (4) Germany Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (3), (4), (2)

Explanation

Ukraine is located in Eastern Europe, with its territory extending between approximately 22° E and 40° E longitude. Moving westward, Poland is situated in Central Europe, primarily between 14° E and 24° E longitude, sharing a border with Ukraine to its east. Further west lies Germany, also in Central Europe, located between 5° E and 15° E longitude. Belgium is situated in Western Europe, lying between 2° E and 6° E longitude, which is to the west of Germany. This geographic positioning establishes the sequence of countries from East to West as Ukraine, Poland, Germany, and Belgium.

10Geography
Consider the following statements : (1) Simplial biosphere reserve is in Tamil Nadu. (2) Panna biosphere reserve is in Madhya Pradesh. (3) Bhadrak mangroves pertain to Odisha. (4) Gulf of Kutch is the largest mangrove of India. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) (2) and (3) only

Explanation

Panna Biosphere Reserve is situated in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. It was notified as a biosphere reserve by the Government of India in 2011 and is recognized globally under the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme.

Bhadrak mangroves are located in the coastal Bhadrak district of Odisha. These mangrove ecosystems thrive along the estuarine deltas and mudflats created by rivers such as the Baitarani and Dhamra on the eastern coast of India.

11Geography
Consider the following statements : (1) Tel is a right bank tributary of Mahanadi. (2) The delta of the Godavari river is lobate type. (3) Bhima river originates from Raj Mahal Hills. (4) The Penganga river is 300 km long and rises from Satpura Hills. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (2) only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Tel River is one of the principal right-bank tributaries of the Mahanadi River, which converges with it at Sonepur in Odisha. The other major right-bank tributaries of the Mahanadi are the Jonk and Ong.

Statement 2 is correct because the Godavari delta is a lobate-type delta. It is characterized by a rounded, lobe-shaped bulge projecting into the sea with multiple branching distributaries.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Bhima River originates near the Bhimashankar Temple in the Western Ghats in Pune district of Maharashtra, rather than the Rajmahal Hills located in Jharkhand.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the Penganga River rises from the Ajanta Range in Maharashtra, not the Satpura Hills. Additionally, its total length is approximately 495 to 676 km, which is significantly longer than 300 km.

12Geography
Consider the following statements : (1) Essex city is famous for engineering works. (2) Leeds city is famous for watches production. (3) Baku city is known for cutlery industry. (4) Abadan city is known for oil refinery. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (4) only

Explanation

Statement (1) is correct because Essex is historically renowned for its diverse engineering works, including agricultural implements, electrical engineering, and manufacturing.

Statement (4) is correct because Abadan, situated in Iran, is globally famous for the historic Abadan Refinery, which commenced operations in 1912 as the first major oil refinery in the Middle East and was once the largest in the world.

The other statements are incorrect as Leeds is historically famous for its woollen textile industry rather than watches, and Baku is famous for its pioneering role in the petroleum and oil industry rather than cutlery.

13Geography
Match List I with List II : | List I (Glacier) | List II (Range/Region) | |---|---| | (a) Baltoro | (i) Pir Panjal | | (b) Sonapani | (ii) Kanchenjunga-Everest | | (c) Milam | (iii) Karakoram | | (d) Zemu | (iv) Kumaon-Garhwal | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Explanation

Baltoro Glacier is situated in the Karakoram range in the Gilgit-Baltistan region, forming one of the longest valley glaciers outside the polar regions.

Sonapani Glacier is a prominent glacier located in the Chandra Valley of Lahaul and Spiti, which lies in the Pir Panjal range area.

Milam Glacier is located in the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand, making it a major glacier of the Kumaon-Garhwal Himalaya region.

Zemu Glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya, situated at the base of the Kanchenjunga-Everest region in Sikkim.

14GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match the forest cover area/type with their total area in Himachal Pradesh (2021) : | List I (Density/Total Forest Cover) | List II (Area in sq. kms.) | |---|---| | (a) Very dense forest above 70 percent | (i) 7,100 | | (b) Moderate dense forest 40 to 70 percent | (ii) 5,180 | | (c) Open forest 10 percent to 40 percent | (iii) 15,443 | | (d) Total forest cover | (iv) 3,163 | Choose the correct options : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Explanation

According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, the forest cover in Himachal Pradesh is categorized as follows:

Very dense forest with tree canopy density above 70 percent covers 3,163 sq. kms.

Moderate dense forest with canopy density between 40 to 70 percent covers 7,100 sq. kms.

Open forest with canopy density between 10 to 40 percent covers 5,180 sq. kms.

Total forest cover, which is the sum of these three classes (3,163 + 7,100 + 5,180), equals 15,443 sq. kms.

This gives the correct sequence of matches as (a) with (iv), (b) with (i), (c) with (ii), and (d) with (iii).

15Geography
Match List I with List II : | List I (City) | List II (River) | |---|---| | (a) Warsaw | (i) Vistula | | (b) Lisbon | (ii) Tagus | | (c) Hamburg | (iii) Elbe | | (d) Bristol | (iv) Avon | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Explanation

Warsaw, the capital of Poland, is situated along the banks of the Vistula River, the longest and largest river in Poland.

Lisbon, the capital of Portugal, is located at the mouth of the Tagus River, which is the longest river in the Iberian Peninsula.

Hamburg, a major port city in northern Germany, is located on the River Elbe, which connects the city directly to the North Sea.

Bristol, a city and ceremonial county in South West England, is situated on the River Avon, which has historically been crucial for its trade and maritime history.

16Economy
Who described the Indian economy as "Bullock Cart Economy" ?
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Answer: (C) Lloyd and Sussane Rudolph

Explanation

The political scientists Lloyd Rudolph and Susanne Hoeber Rudolph described the Indian economy using the term bullock-cart capitalism (often referred to in academic and examination contexts as the bullock cart economy) in their seminal 1987 book, In Pursuit of Lakshmi: The Political Economy of the Indian State.

They used this term to characterize the dominant role of the self-employed agrarian middle class, whom they called bullock capitalists. These are small-to-medium landholding farmers who own capital in the form of land, implements, and draft animals (bullocks), relying primarily on family labor rather than hired agricultural laborers. This segment forms a key interest group and political force in the Indian democratic and economic structure, representing a centrist economic force that balances both traditional and modern sectors.

17Polity and Governance
Council of Ministers' size has been restricted to 15 percent of membership of Lok Sabha by which constitutional amendment ?
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Answer: (A) 91st Amendment

Explanation

The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 introduced Article 75(1A) to the Constitution of India, which restricts the size of the Union Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, to 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This measure was implemented to prevent the creation of oversized cabinets for political accommodation and to promote effective governance.

18Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who among the following was not a member of the Advisory Council for Himachal Pradesh which was constituted on Sept. 30, 1948 ?
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Answer: (D) Satya Dev Bushahri

Explanation

Satya Dev Bushahri was not a member of the nine-member Advisory Council of Himachal Pradesh constituted on September 30, 1948, to advise the Chief Commissioner. The council comprised three representatives from the erstwhile princely states, namely the Raja of Mandi, the Raja of Chamba, and the Raja of Baghat, along with six public representatives who were Dr. Y. S. Parmar, Pandit Padam Dev, Lala Shiv Chand Das, Smt. Lilavati, Swami Purnanand, and Mehta Avtar Chand.

19Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Finance Minister is final authority to decide whether a bill is money bill or not. Statement II : In Indian system of 'dyarchy' was introduced by Government of India Act, 1935 during British period. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because under Article 110(3) of the Constitution of India, the final authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Finance Minister.

Statement II is incorrect because the system of dyarchy (dual government) was first introduced in India at the provincial level by the Government of India Act, 1919. The Government of India Act, 1935 actually abolished provincial dyarchy and replaced it with provincial autonomy, while proposing dyarchy at the federal level which was never implemented.

20History
Given below are two statements : Statement I : B. R. Ambedkar started Vaikam Satyagrah in 1924 for temple entry of untouchables. Statement II : Jyotiba Phule was not associated with Republican Party. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the Vaikom Satyagraha of 1924 in Kerala was launched by local leaders including T. K. Madhavan, K. P. Kesava Menon, and K. Kelappan to secure temple entry rights and access to public roads for lower-caste groups. B. R. Ambedkar was not the leader or initiator of this movement, although he supported the cause of temple entry elsewhere, such as during the Kalaram Temple Satyagraha.

Statement II is correct because Jyotiba Phule passed away in 1890, decades before the Republican Party of India was envisioned and founded in 1957 by the followers of B. R. Ambedkar. Thus, Jyotiba Phule had no association with the Republican Party.

21Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements regarding Panchayati Raj system in Himachal Pradesh. Statement I : In 1949, the Punjab Village Panchayat Act of 1939 was enforced and 132 panchayats were established in Himachal. Statement II : By the end of 1956, there were 466 Gram Panchayats and 26 Tehsil Panchayats in Himachal. Choose the correct option from the following :
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Answer: (A) Both statements are correct

Explanation

Prior to the formal integration of local self-government laws in the region, Himachal Pradesh adopted the Punjab Village Panchayat Act of 1939 in the year 1949. This adaptation resulted in the establishment of the first 132 panchayats in the territory, providing a structured system of local administration.

Following the enactment of the Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj Act of 1952, the state organized its first formal local elections in 1954. Through this process, the administrative structure expanded significantly, leading to the functioning of 466 Gram Panchayats and 26 Tehsil Panchayats across the state by the end of 1956.

22Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct in relation to Right to Information Act ? (1) This act came into force on 12 October 2005. (2) It repealed the Official Secret Act, 1923. (3) It replaced the Freedom of Information Act, 2002. (4) It does not protect freedom of expression and speech under Article 19. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (3), (4), (1)

Explanation

The Right to Information Act, 2005 came into force on 12 October 2005, which makes statement 1 correct.

The Act replaced and repealed the earlier Freedom of Information Act, 2002 under Section 31, which makes statement 3 correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Right to Information Act, 2005 did not repeal the Official Secrets Act, 1923. Section 22 of the RTI Act only states that its provisions shall have overriding effect in case of any inconsistency with the Official Secrets Act, 1923, but the latter remains active.

Statement 4 is correct because the protection of freedom of speech and expression is a constitutional guarantee under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, and the RTI Act itself is a statutory framework enacted to set out a practical regime for citizens to secure access to information, rather than a mechanism to protect the broader freedom of speech and expression under Article 19.

Eliminating the incorrect statement 2 leaves statements 1, 3, and 4 as the correct statements.

23HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements : (1) Baba Kansi Ram was a great freedom fighter of Himachal Pradesh. (2) He was influenced by Gadar Party. (3) He took oath to wear Black Clothes till India gets independence. (4) He was given name of "Pahari Gandhi" by Sarojini Naidu. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (3) only

Explanation

Baba Kanshi Ram was a prominent freedom fighter, social reformer, and revolutionary poet born on July 11, 1882, in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh. He was deeply associated with the Indian National Congress and was not affiliated with the Gadar Party, although a different activist named Pandit Kanshi Ram Maroli was associated with it.

In 1931, deeply affected by the execution of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev, he took a solemn vow to wear only black clothes until India achieved independence. This earned him the title of Siyahposh Jarnail (General in Black).

The title of Pahari Gandhi was conferred upon him by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru at a political conference in Garhdiwala in 1937. Sarojini Naidu had previously given him the title of Bulbul-e-Pahar (Nightingale of the Hills) in 1927 at Daulatpur Chowk for his melodious and soulful voice.

24HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements : (1) Mandi was first state in Shimla Hill States in which Panchayati Raj Act was passed. (2) During freedom movement Lala Lajpat Rai never visited Mandi. (3) Non-cooperation Movement did not start in Himachal Pradesh. (4) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur from Shimla conducted Quit India Movement. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) (4) and (1) only

Explanation

Mandi was the first princely state among the Shimla Hill States to pass a Panchayati Raj Act, following the establishment of its Legislative Council in 1933. This marked a significant administrative reform in the hill region, paving the way for local self-governance.

During the Quit India Movement in 1942, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur led and conducted the movement from Shimla. She organized protest processions and sustained the political momentum in the region, operating from her residence at Manorville in Shimla.

25Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : (1) Constitution amendment bill can be introduced in any house of the parliament. (2) Centre and States have equal power to amend the constitution. (3) Amendment in the seventh schedule requires the ratification by the legislatures of not less than half of the states. (4) Basic structure of the constitution can also be amended. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (3) only

Explanation

Under Article 368 of the Constitution of India, an amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, meaning it can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. Furthermore, for amendments affecting the federal structure of the Constitution, such as any change in the Lists of the Seventh Schedule, ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is mandatory by resolutions passed to that effect before the Bill is presented to the President for assent.

26Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of Supreme Court ? (1) A dispute between Govt. of India and one or more states. (2) A dispute regarding elections to either House of Parliament. (3) A dispute between Govt. of India and a Union Territory. (4) A dispute between two or more states. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (4) only

Explanation

Article 131 of the Constitution of India vests exclusive original jurisdiction in the Supreme Court to resolve disputes of a federal nature. This jurisdiction directly applies to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States, as well as any dispute between two or more States, provided the dispute involves a question of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

27Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : (1) There is no mention of no-confidence motion in the Constitution of India. (2) A motion of no-confidence can be introduced in any house of the Parliament. (3) A money bill can be tabled in either house of Parliament. (4) The President cannot return a money bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (4) only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Constitution of India does not explicitly mention a no-confidence motion. The concept is derived from Article 75(3), which mandates that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The actual procedure for moving a no-confidence motion is governed by Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

Statement 4 is correct because under Article 111 of the Constitution, when a Money Bill is presented to the President, the President can either give assent or withhold assent, but is constitutionally barred from returning it to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration. This is because a Money Bill is introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.

28Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II : | List I | List II | |---|---| | (a) Habeas Corpus Writ | (i) Re-examining Lower Court records by Superior Court | | (b) Mandamus Writ | (ii) Exercising Power under which authority | | (c) Certiorari Writ | (iii) Restricting officials to act | | (d) Quo Warranto Writ | (iv) To produce in person | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Explanation

Habeas Corpus literally means to have the body of, which corresponds to producing a detained person in person before the court to check the legality of their detention.

Mandamus translates to we command, which represents restricting officials to act or directing a public authority to perform a mandatory duty that they have failed to perform.

Certiorari means to be certified, representing the process of re-examining lower court records by a superior court to review and potentially quash their orders.

Quo Warranto means by what authority or warrant, which is used to inquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office, examining under which authority they are exercising power.

29Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II : | List I (Commissions) | List II (Years of Establishment) | |---|---| | (a) National Commission for Women | (i) 1953 | | (b) National Human Rights Commission | (ii) 1992 | | (c) Kaka Kalelker Commission | (iii) 2005 | | (d) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights | (iv) 1993 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Explanation

National Commission for Women was established in January 1992 under the provisions of the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.

National Human Rights Commission was established in October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Kaka Kalelker Commission, which was the first Backward Classes Commission, was set up by a presidential order in January 1953.

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights was statutory established under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005.

30HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match the Members of Legislative Assembly of Part 'C' state of Himachal Pradesh from Mandi District (1952-56) with respective constituencies : | List I (Name of the Members) | List II (Constituencies) | |---|---| | (a) Gauri Prasad | (i) Jogindernagar | | (b) Karam Singh Thakur | (ii) Karsog | | (c) Besar Ram | (iii) Rewalsar | | (d) Rattan Singh | (iv) Mahadev | Select the correct choice : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Explanation

The correct matching of the Members of the Legislative Assembly (1952-56) from the Mandi district with their respective constituencies is:

Pandit Gauri Prasad was elected from the Rewalsar constituency. Karam Singh Thakur was elected from the Mahadev constituency. Besar Ram was elected from the Jogindernagar constituency. Rattan Singh was elected from the Karsog constituency.

31Economy
Till when the Indian government has extended the Pradhan Mantri Gharib Kalyan Anna Yojana ?
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Answer: (C) December 2028

Explanation

In November 2023, the Union Cabinet approved the extension of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) for a period of five years. This extension became effective on 1 January 2024 and is scheduled to continue until 31 December 2028. Under this initiative, the central government provides free foodgrains to approximately 81.35 crore beneficiaries eligible under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) to ensure long-term food and nutritional security.

32Economy
Economic Growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if :
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Answer: (C) There is capital formation in country X

Explanation

Capital formation refers to the process of building up the stock of real capital assets, such as machinery, infrastructure, buildings, and technology, in an economy. When country X undergoes capital formation, it directly increases its physical and human productive capacity. This expansion of the capital stock enhances labor productivity and facilitates higher levels of output of goods and services. Consequently, capital formation serves as a direct internal driver that guarantees economic growth within that country.

33Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Trickle Down Theory says that let business flourish, since their profits ultimately trickle down to lower income individuals. Statement II : Economic Theory predicts that inequality will increase during recessions and decline during economic booms. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the Trickle-Down Theory is an economic proposition that advocates for policies, such as tax cuts for businesses and high-income earners, to stimulate investment and economic growth. The core premise of this theory is that when businesses and the wealthy flourish, the economic benefits and profits will eventually trickle down to lower-income individuals through job creation, wage increases, and broader economic expansion.

Statement II is correct because economic theory generally predicts that income inequality is counter-cyclical, meaning it rises during recessions and falls during economic booms. During recessions, lower-income and low-skilled workers face a disproportionately higher risk of unemployment, job insecurity, and wage stagnation, which widens the inequality gap. Conversely, during economic booms, increased demand for labor leads to tighter labor markets, rising wages, and higher employment rates for lower-income groups, which helps reduce overall inequality.

34Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : As of December 2023, around 1.3 crore candidates have received training under PMKVY. Statement II : Out of these candidates around 60 lakh individuals have been placed. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is correct because according to official government data and the Interim Union Budget 2024-25, around 1.3 crore candidates (and close to 1.4 crore including orientation under Recognition of Prior Learning) have received skill training under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana since its launch in 2015.

Statement II is incorrect because out of these candidates, around 24.39 lakh individuals (not 60 lakh) have been placed in various sectors under the Short-Term Training component, where placements are tracked and incentivized. This translates to a placement rate of approximately 42% of the certified candidates under this component.

35Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The volume of E-way bill generation in India continues to grow steadily. Statement II : Rail freight traffic and port cargo traffic are growing at a healthy pace. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

Both statements are correct and are directly based on the "Indian Economy: A Review" report released by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, in January 2024:

Statement I is correct because the steady growth in the volume of E-way bill generation reflects a sustained rise in economic activity, internal trade, and goods movement across the country. Statement II is correct as both rail freight traffic and port cargo traffic have continued to grow at a healthy pace, serving as strong high-frequency indicators of robust domestic logistics and active international trade.

36Polity and Governance
Consider the following Health programmes and policy : (1) The National Health Policy (2) National Health Mission (NHM) (3) National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) (4) National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) With reference to the Health programmes and policy mentioned above, in terms of their starting year which one of the following is the correct order year ? Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (3), (2), (4)

Explanation

The National Health Policy was first formulated in 1983 to establish a framework for primary healthcare services, and was subsequently revised in 2002 and 2017.

The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched on April 12, 2005, to provide accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to the rural population, especially in vulnerable sections.

The National Health Mission (NHM) was launched in 2013 as an overarching flagship program by the Government of India, encompassing both rural and urban health components.

The National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) was approved by the Union Cabinet in May 2013 as a sub-mission under the newly established overarching National Health Mission (NHM) to meet the healthcare needs of the urban poor.

Arranging these in chronological order of their starting years yields the sequence of (1), (3), (2), (4).

37Economy
What is the correct order of various social service schemes in India according to year of origin ? (1) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (2) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (3) Rashtriy Swasthya Bima Yojana (4) National Social Assistance Scheme Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (4), (3), (1), (2)

Explanation

The chronological order of these social service schemes is determined by their respective years of introduction.

National Social Assistance Scheme (NSAP) was launched on 15 August 1995 to provide social assistance benefits to elderly, widows, and disabled persons from Below Poverty Line households.

Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) was launched on 1 April 2008 to provide health insurance coverage for Below Poverty Line families and unorganized sector workers.

Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched on 28 August 2014 as a national mission for financial inclusion to ensure access to financial services like savings accounts, remittances, credit, insurance, and pensions.

Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) was launched on 22 January 2015 as a small deposit scheme for the girl child under the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao campaign to promote her savings and education.

38Economy
With reference to the steady decline in the mortality rate over the years, consider the following statements : (1) Control of epidemics such as cholera and smallpox (2) Expansion in incidence of malaria and tuberculosis (3) Contraction of education and decreased literacy (4) Improved sanitation and hygiene. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (4) only

Explanation

The steady decline in the mortality rate over the years is primarily driven by advancements in public health, medical infrastructure, and overall living standards. The successful control and near-eradication of devastating epidemics, such as cholera and smallpox, significantly minimized large-scale loss of life that was historically prevalent during outbreaks. Alongside these medical achievements, systematic improvements in environmental sanitation, waste disposal, and hygiene practices have drastically reduced the transmission of infectious and waterborne pathogens, contributing directly to a continuous reduction in death rates.

39EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements : (1) Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 1200 crore rupees for economic services during 2022-23. (2) Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 267 crore rupees for rural development during 2022-23. (3) Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 140 crore rupees for Mahatma Gandhi National Employment Guarantee Scheme during 2022-23. (4) Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 22 crore rupees for Forestry and Wildlife during 2022-23. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (2) and (3) only

Explanation

During the financial year 2022-23, the Himachal Pradesh Government approved an outlay of 267.14 crore rupees (approximately 267 crore rupees) for Rural Development, which makes statement (2) correct.

Additionally, the state government approved an outlay of 140 crore rupees specifically for the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) for the year 2022-23, making statement (3) correct.

The outlays mentioned in statements (1) and (4) for economic services and forestry and wildlife respectively do not match the approved budget figures.

40Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II : | List I | List II | |---|---| | (a) Sandeep Shastri | (i) "Gender Demographics and Empowerment in India" | | (b) Kalpana Srivastava | (ii) "Demographic Profile and Health Status of Older Adults in India" | | (c) N. Neetha | (iii) "Demographic Dividend in India : Myth or Reality" | | (d) Mridul Eapen | (iv) "Demographic Shift and its Impact on Indian Politics" | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Explanation

The scholars and their corresponding publications on Indian demographics, development, and politics are matched as follows:

Sandeep Shastri matches with "Demographic Shift and its Impact on Indian Politics". He is a well-known political scientist whose academic research focuses on Indian elections, voting patterns, federalism, and the political implications of demographic transitions.

Kalpana Srivastava matches with "Demographic Profile and Health Status of Older Adults in India". As a specialist in health psychology and behavioral sciences, her research frequently addresses geriatric health, mental well-being, and quality of life among the elderly.

N. Neetha matches with "Gender Demographics and Empowerment in India". She is a prominent feminist economist whose work centers on women's employment, gender inequalities, labor demographics, and social empowerment.

Mridul Eapen matches with "Demographic Dividend in India : Myth or Reality". She is a development economist recognized for her extensive work in labor studies, gender issues, and regional economic transitions, specifically analyzing the challenges in realizing India's demographic dividend.

41Economy
Arrange the following Committees in proper chronological order of their establishment : (1) Alagh Committee (2) Tendulkar Committee (3) Rangarajan Committee (4) Lakdawala Committee Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (4), (2), (3)

Explanation

The chronological order of the establishment of these committees on poverty estimation is:

The Alagh Committee, formally known as the Task Force on Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand, was constituted by the Planning Commission in 1977 under the chairmanship of Y. K. Alagh.

The Lakdawala Committee, an expert group chaired by D.T. Lakdawala, was constituted in 1989 to look into the methodology for estimation of poverty.

The Tendulkar Committee, an expert group chaired by Suresh Tendulkar, was constituted in 2005 to review the methodology for estimation of poverty.

The Rangarajan Committee, chaired by C. Rangarajan, was set up in 2012 to review the poverty estimation methodology.

This places the committees in the chronological sequence of (1) Alagh Committee, (4) Lakdawala Committee, (2) Tendulkar Committee, and (3) Rangarajan Committee.

42Economy
Arrange the following events in proper chronological order : (1) Mahbul-ul-Haq prepared the HDI (Human Development Index) (2) Morris D. Morris developed the PQLI (Physical Quality of Life Index) (3) Alkire and Foster developed the MPI (Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index) (4) The term 'Gross National Happiness' coined by Bhutan's king Jigme Singye Wangchuck Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (4), (2), (1), (3)

Explanation

The chronological timeline of these developmental indices and concepts is as follows:

The term Gross National Happiness was coined by Bhutan's fourth king, Jigme Singye Wangchuck, in 1972 to prioritize holistic well-being over purely economic indicators.

Economist Morris David Morris developed the Physical Quality of Life Index in 1979, using infant mortality, life expectancy, and basic literacy as indicators of development.

Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq designed the Human Development Index in 1990 for the first Human Development Report published by the United Nations Development Programme.

Sabina Alkire and James Foster developed the multidimensional measurement methodology in 2007, which led to the creation of the Multidimensional Poverty Index in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative and the United Nations Development Programme.

43Economy
Match List I with List II : | List I | List II | |---|---| | (a) SDG 2 | (i) Decent Work | | (b) SDG 5 | (ii) Zero Hunger | | (c) SDG 8 | (iii) Gender Equality | | (d) SDG 10 | (iv) Reduced Inequality | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Explanation

SDG 2 aims to end hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition, and promote sustainable agriculture, matching with Zero Hunger.

SDG 5 focuses on achieving gender equality and empowering all women and girls, matching with Gender Equality.

SDG 8 aims to promote sustained, inclusive, and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment, and decent work for all, matching with Decent Work.

SDG 10 focuses on reducing inequalities within and among countries, matching with Reduced Inequality.

44Economy
Match List I with List II : | List I | List II | |---|---| | (a) Chronic Poor | (i) Below the poverty line most of the time | | (b) Churning Poor | (ii) Rich most of the time but sometimes, out of a business fluctuation become poor | | (c) Non-Poor | (iii) Always above the poverty line | | (d) Occasionally Poor | (iv) Regularly move in and out of poverty | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Explanation

Chronic Poor (a) corresponds to (i) since this category includes people who are usually poor and spend most of their time below the poverty line.

Churning Poor (b) corresponds to (iv) because they regularly fluctuate, moving in and out of poverty, often due to seasonal employment.

Non-Poor (c) corresponds to (iii) as they are never poor and remain consistently above the poverty line.

Occasionally Poor (d) corresponds to (ii) because they are well-off most of the time but experience temporary spells of poverty due to business fluctuations or unforeseen circumstances.

45Economy
The marginal productivity of disguised unemployed workers is :
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Answer: (A) Zero

Explanation

Disguised unemployment refers to a phenomenon where more workers are employed in an activity than are actually required to perform it. This is typically observed in the agricultural sector of developing economies, where entire families work on a single plot of land even if fewer people could manage the work. Since the additional labor does not contribute to any incremental increase in the total output, the marginal productivity of these surplus workers is zero. Removing them from the production process has no impact on the overall level of production.

46EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
What percent agriculture and its allied industries account for the total Gross State Value Added (GSVA) of Himachal Pradesh ?
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Answer: (A) 13.70%

Explanation

According to the Himachal Pradesh Economic Survey 2023-24, agriculture and its allied activities account for around 13.70% of the total Gross State Value Added (GSVA) of the state. While the contribution of this sector to the state economy has decreased over the decades due to structural transitions toward industries and services, it remains a vital pillar of the rural economy, employing over 58% of the total workforce in Himachal Pradesh.

47GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Arrange the following years based on the number of foreign tourist arrivals in Himachal Pradesh in descending order : (1) 2020 (2) 2021 (3) 2022 (4) 2023 (up to December 2023) Choose the correct option :
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Answer: (A) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Explanation

HP Economic Survey data shows foreign tourist arrivals as approximately 2023 > 2022 >> 2020 > 2021, making the factual order (4),(3),(1),(2). No option matches exactly; Option A — (4),(3),(2),(1) — correctly ranks the top two years (2023 then 2022) and is the closest available match, differing only in the swap of the two COVID-year minima (2020 and 2021, both negligibly small).

48EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
For the year 2022-23, match the Industry sub-sector in Himachal Pradesh with the percentage of workers employed in them : | List I (Industry Sub-sector) | List II (Percentage of workers employed) | |---|---| | (a) Mining and Quarrying | (i) 2 | | (b) Manufacturing | (ii) 41 | | (c) Electricity and Other Utilities | (iii) 50 | | (d) Construction | (iv) 7 | Choose the correct option : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Explanation

For the year 2022-23, the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) details the distribution of workers aged 15 to 59 years employed across different sub-sectors of the industry sector in Himachal Pradesh. According to this data, Mining and Quarrying accounts for 2% of these workers, Manufacturing accounts for 41%, Electricity and Other Utilities accounts for 7%, and Construction accounts for 50%. This distribution matches the sequence of list items (i), (ii), (iv), and (iii) respectively, making option a the correct choice.

49EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
For the year 2023-24, match the type/name of banks with their total number of branches in Himachal Pradesh : | List I (Type/Name of Bank) | List II (No. of Branches in HP) | |---|---| | (a) Public Sector Banks (PSBs) | (i) 267 | | (b) Private Sector Banks (PSBs) | (ii) 568 | | (c) Himachal Pradesh Gramin Bank (HPGB) | (iii) 1,170 | | (d) Himachal Pradesh Co-operative Sector Banks | (iv) 274 | Choose the correct option : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Explanation

According to the Himachal Pradesh Economic Survey 2023-24, the bank branches in the state as of September 2023 match as follows:

Public Sector Banks (PSBs) have a total of 1,170 branches, making up over 51% of the state's total banking network.

Private Sector Banks have 267 branches operating across the state, including major players like HDFC and ICICI.

Himachal Pradesh Gramin Bank (HPGB), which is the state's sponsored Regional Rural Bank, has a network of 274 branches.

Himachal Pradesh Co-operative Sector Banks have 568 branches, which includes the State Apex Co-operative Bank, Kangra Central Co-operative Bank, and other co-operative institutions.

50Geography
Gir National Park was established in the year :
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Answer: (C) 1975

Explanation

The Gir Wildlife Sanctuary was originally established in 1965 to protect the declining population of Asiatic lions. Subsequently, in 1975, a core area of approximately 258.71 square kilometers within the sanctuary was formally declared and established as the Gir National Park to provide a fully protected habitat for the species.

51Geography
In Japan, a cyclone is called as :
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Answer: (B) Typhoon

Explanation

Tropical cyclones that develop in the Northwest Pacific Basin, which includes Japan, China, and the Philippines, are known as typhoons. These intense circular storms originate over warm tropical oceans and are characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain.

52Geography
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Directorate of Forest Education is located at Agartala. Statement II : Tropical Forestry Research Institute is located at Jabalpur. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the Directorate of Forest Education (DFE) is headquartered in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, where it is responsible for the training and education of State Forest Service officers and Forest Range Officers in the country.

Statement II is correct because the Tropical Forest Research Institute (TFRI) is a prominent regional research institute situated in Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh, functioning under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE).

53Geography
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Teak is the dominant species in vast saline regions of India. Statement II : Babul vegetation pertains to tropical evergreen rain forests. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because teak is a dominant species of tropical deciduous forests, which are widely distributed across regions with moderate rainfall in India. Saline regions, such as coastal marshes and tidal flats, are instead dominated by salt-tolerant halophytic vegetation like mangroves.

Statement II is incorrect because babul is a classic xerophytic species adapted to arid and semi-arid environments. It is a defining component of tropical thorn forests, which receive very low rainfall. Tropical evergreen rain forests, on the other hand, thrive in regions with high rainfall and are dominated by species like rosewood, mahogany, and ebony.

54Geography
Arrange the following National Parks of India from East to West : (1) Corbett National Park (2) Kanger Ghati National Park (3) Rohla National Park (4) Valvadoro National Park Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (2), (1), (3), (4)

Explanation

The geographical location of the given National Parks from East to West can be determined by their respective longitudes:

Kanger Ghati National Park (Chhattisgarh) is located at approximately 81.9° E longitude.

Jim Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand) is located at approximately 78.9° E longitude.

Rohla National Park (Himachal Pradesh) is located at approximately 77.5° E longitude.

Velavadar National Park (Gujarat) is located at approximately 72.0° E longitude.

Arranging these from East to West gives the sequence: (2) Kanger Ghati National Park, (1) Jim Corbett National Park, (3) Rohla National Park, and (4) Velavadar National Park.

55Science and Technology
Arrange the following Institutes of India from North to South : (1) National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (2) National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (3) National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (4) National Bureau of Agricultural Insect Resources Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Explanation

The geographical locations and latitudes of these institutes are:

National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources is located in Karnal, Haryana at approximately 29.68° N latitude.

National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources is located in New Delhi at approximately 28.61° N latitude.

National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh at approximately 26.85° N latitude.

National Bureau of Agricultural Insect Resources is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka at approximately 12.97° N latitude.

Arranging these locations from North to South gives the sequence of (1), (2), (3), (4).

56Geography
Consider the following statements : (1) Travancore agrobiodiversity Hot spot pertain to Rajasthan. (2) Konkan agrobiodiversity Hot spot is in Maharashtra and Goa. (3) National Herbarium of cultivated plants is at New Delhi. (4) Triveni agrobiodiversity Hot spot pertain to Assam. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (2) and (3) only

Explanation

The Konkan agrobiodiversity hotspot is located along the western coast of India, primarily spanning the states of Maharashtra and Goa. The National Herbarium of Cultivated Plants (NHCP), which preserves germplasm and specimens of cultivated plants and their wild relatives, was established in 1985 and is housed at the ICAR-National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) in New Delhi.

57GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements : (1) Monkey valley lies in Chamba. (2) Kiarda Dun valley lies in Kangra. (3) The Great Himalayas are referred as Alpine zone in Himachal Pradesh. (4) Churadhar pertain to Zanskar range in Himachal Pradesh Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (1) and (3) only

Explanation

Monkey Valley (Bandar Ghati) lies along the Manimahesh Yatra route in Chamba district, making statement (1) correct; and the Great Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh are classified as the Alpine zone due to their high-altitude climate and vegetation, making statement (3) correct. Kiarda Dun lies in Sirmour (not Kangra), so statement (2) is incorrect. Churadhar peak belongs to the Dhauladhar/Outer Himalayan range in Sirmour, not the Zanskar range, so statement (4) is also incorrect.

58Geography
Match List I with List II : | List I (Ramsar Site) | List II (Name of State) | |---|---| | (a) Rudrasagar lake | (i) Punjab | | (b) Harike lake | (ii) Assam | | (c) Deepor Beel lake | (iii) Tripura | | (d) Vembanand wetland | (iv) Kerala | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Explanation

Rudrasagar Lake is a natural wetland located in the Sipahijala district of Tripura.

Harike Lake is a man-made wetland located at the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers in Punjab.

Deepor Beel is a permanent freshwater lake and an important bird area located in Assam.

Vembanand Wetland is the largest lake in Kerala and the longest wetland system in India.

59GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II : | List I (Waterfall) | List II (District) | |---|---| | (a) Rahla | (i) Solan | | (b) Bhagsu | (ii) Kangra | | (c) Badri | (iii) Shimla | | (d) Chadwick | (iv) Kullu | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Explanation

Rahla waterfall is a prominent scenic spot located near Manali in the Kullu district.

Bhagsu waterfall is situated at Bhagsunag near McLeod Ganj in the Kangra district.

Badri waterfall is a lesser-known waterfall located in the Solan district.

Chadwick waterfall is situated in the Summer Hill area of the Shimla district.

60GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Arrange the following climatic zones of Himachal Pradesh according to rainfall amount from lowest to highest : (1) Frigid aridic zone (2) Wet temperate zone (3) Humid sub-tropical zone (4) Sub-humid sub-tropical zone Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (1), (4), (3), (2)

Explanation

The climatic zones of Himachal Pradesh show distinct variations in precipitation based on elevation and geographical features.

Frigid aridic zone covers high-altitude dry tracts like the Spiti sub-division of Lahaul and Spiti and parts of Kinnaur. It receives the lowest precipitation in the state, averaging about 250 mm annually, primarily in the form of snowfall.

Sub-humid sub-tropical zone includes regions such as Una, Sirmaur, and parts of Kangra, receiving a mean annual precipitation of about 1000 mm.

Humid sub-tropical zone covers districts like Hamirpur, Bilaspur, and major parts of Mandi and Sirmaur, with a mean annual precipitation ranging from 1180 mm to 1900 mm.

Wet temperate zone comprises areas like Palampur, Dharamshala, and parts of Chamba and Mandi. This zone receives the highest annual rainfall in the state, ranging between 2500 mm and 3900 mm.

Arranging these zones from the lowest to highest average rainfall yields the sequence: Frigid aridic zone (1), Sub-humid sub-tropical zone (4), Humid sub-tropical zone (3), and Wet temperate zone (2).

61Science and Technology
Which of the following processes is not related to nutrition ?
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Answer: (D) Scouring

Explanation

Scouring is a process in the wool industry where sheared fleece is thoroughly washed in tanks with water and detergent to remove grease, dust, and dirt. It is a cleaning step in fiber processing and has no relation to the biological processes of nutrition.

62Science and Technology
The process by which the heat comes to us from the sun is called :
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Answer: (B) Radiation

Explanation

Radiation is the process of heat transfer that does not require any material medium for its propagation. The vast space between the Sun and the Earth is a vacuum, meaning there are no atoms or molecules to conduct or convectionally transfer heat. Instead, heat from the Sun travels through this empty space in the form of electromagnetic waves, primarily infrared waves, which move at the speed of light and are absorbed by the Earth to warm its surface.

63Science and Technology
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Upper jaw is an immovable joint. Statement II : The cartilages are harder than bones. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation

The upper jaw is fixed and fused directly to the bones of the skull, which makes it an immovable joint. Unlike the lower jaw, which can move up, down, and sideways, the upper jaw remains completely stationary during chewing and speaking.

Bones are significantly harder than cartilage. Bones contain a dense, rigid matrix mineralized with calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate, providing structural support to the body. Cartilage, on the other hand, is a flexible, softer, and elastic connective tissue that lacks this heavy mineralization, functioning instead to cushion joints and provide flexible structure to parts like the nose and outer ear.

64Science and Technology
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Rusting of Iron is a chemical change. Statement II : The process of depositing a layer of Zinc on Iron is called galvanisation. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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Rusting of iron is a chemical change because iron reacts with atmospheric oxygen and moisture to form a new substance, hydrated iron(III) oxide (Fe₂O₃·xH₂O). This process involves a chemical reaction that alters the chemical composition of the iron, and the reaction cannot be easily reversed.

Galvanisation is the metallurgical process of depositing a protective layer of zinc on iron or steel surfaces. The zinc layer acts as a physical barrier and a sacrificial anode, corroding in place of the underlying iron to prevent it from rusting. Thus, both statements are scientifically accurate.

65Science and Technology
Arrange the following gases according to speed of sound in them from lowest to highest : (1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Helium (3) Oxygen (4) Hydrogen Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (1), (3), (2), (4)

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The speed of sound in an ideal gas is given by the formula v = √(γRT / M), where γ is the adiabatic index, R is the universal gas constant, T is the absolute temperature, and M is the molar mass of the gas. At a constant temperature, the speed of sound in a gas is primarily determined by its molar mass and is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass.

The molar masses of the given gases are: Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) has a molar mass of approximately 64 g/mol. Oxygen (O₂) has a molar mass of approximately 32 g/mol. Helium (He) has a molar mass of approximately 4 g/mol. Hydrogen (H₂) has a molar mass of approximately 2 g/mol.

Since a lower molar mass results in a higher speed of sound, the speed of sound increases in the order of decreasing molar mass. Therefore, the speed of sound is lowest in Sulphur dioxide (1), followed by Oxygen (3), Helium (2), and is highest in Hydrogen (4).

66Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : (1) The innermost part of flower is called ovary. (2) Leaf usually has a lamina. (3) Roots absorb water and minerals from the soil. (4) Petals is not the part of a flower. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (2) and (3) only

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The broad, green, and flat part of a leaf is called the lamina or leaf blade, which is typically attached to the stem by a stalk called the petiole. This makes the lamina a key characteristic structure present in a leaf. Additionally, roots play a crucial role in plant physiology by anchoring the plant firmly in the ground and absorbing water and essential mineral nutrients from the soil, which are subsequently transported to the leaves and other parts of the plant.

67Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : (1) Insulin regulates blood sugar level. (2) Secretion of estrogen occurs in males. (3) Deficiency of iodine may cause dwarfism. (4) Thyroid gland regulates metabolism for body growth. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (4) only

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Insulin is a hormone secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It is the primary regulator of blood glucose levels, helping to lower blood sugar by facilitating its transport into cells for energy production or storage as glycogen.

The thyroid gland secretes thyroid hormones, primarily thyroxine, which play a fundamental role in regulating the body's basal metabolic rate. These hormones stimulate the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, ensuring balanced energy utilization that is crucial for normal physical growth and development.

68Science and Technology
Match List I with List II : | List I (Acid) | List II (Found in) | |---|---| | (a) Lactic | (i) Curd | | (b) Oxalic | (ii) Spinach | | (c) Tartaric | (iii) Ant's sting | | (d) Formic | (iv) Grapes | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

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Lactic acid matches with curd because lactobacillus bacteria ferment lactose in milk into lactic acid, which gives curd its characteristic sour taste.

Oxalic acid matches with spinach as spinach is a leafy green vegetable naturally rich in oxalic acid.

Tartaric acid matches with grapes because grapes are well-known natural sources of tartaric acid, which provides them with their sharp, tart flavor.

Formic acid matches with ant's sting because ants secrete formic acid as a defense mechanism, which is injected during a sting and causes a burning sensation.

69Science and Technology
Match List I with List II : | List I (Scientist) | List II (Country) | |---|---| | (a) Galileo | (i) Germany | | (b) Hertz | (ii) England | | (c) Robin Warren | (iii) Italy | | (d) Edward Jenner | (iv) Australia | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

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Galileo Galilei was a pioneering astronomer and physicist from Italy who played a key role in the scientific revolution.

Heinrich Hertz was a physicist from Germany who first proved the existence of electromagnetic waves.

John Robin Warren was a pathologist from Australia who co-discovered the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which causes peptic ulcers.

Edward Jenner was a medical scientist from England who created the smallpox vaccine, establishing the field of vaccinology.

70Geography
According to the latest Air Quality Report (2024) which Indian City emerged as the most polluted ?
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Answer: (C) Begusarai

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According to the 6th Annual World Air Quality Report released in March 2024 by the Swiss air-monitoring organization IQAir, Begusarai in Bihar emerged as the most polluted metropolitan area globally. The city recorded an average annual PM2.5 concentration of 118.9 micrograms per cubic meter, which is nearly 24 times higher than the World Health Organization (WHO) annual PM2.5 safety guideline of 5 micrograms per cubic meter.

71Polity and Governance
Which position India got in EIU's Democracy Index-2023 ?
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Answer: (C) 41st

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In the Economist Intelligence Unit's (EIU) Democracy Index 2023, India is ranked 41st globally with an overall score of 7.18. This represents an improvement of five positions from its 46th rank in the 2022 index. The EIU categorizes India as a flawed democracy, evaluating countries based on five key categories: electoral process and pluralism, functioning of government, political participation, political culture, and civil liberties. India tied for the 41st position alongside Poland.

72Science and Technology
Who has been selected for the Bob Jones Award, the highest honour of the US Golf Association ?
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Answer: (A) Tiger Woods

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The United States Golf Association (USGA) selected fifteen-time major champion Tiger Woods to receive the 2024 Bob Jones Award. This is the highest honour bestowed by the USGA, recognizing an individual who demonstrates outstanding sportsmanship, personal character, and respect for the game and its traditions. Tiger Woods is a nine-time USGA champion, matching the record held by Bobby Jones himself.

73GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The Shinkun La tunnel is at an altitude of 15,855 ft. Statement II : The length of Atal tunnel is about 6.02 km. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

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The Shinkun La tunnel's south portal is situated at 15,855 ft per NHIDCL project data, making Statement I correct. The Atal Tunnel (Rohtang Tunnel) is 9.02 km long — not 6.02 km — making Statement II incorrect.

74Art and Culture
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Ram Mandir is designed in Maru-Gurjara sub-style. Statement II : Ram Mandir is designed by the Sompura Family of Ahmedabad. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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Statement I is correct because the Ram Mandir in Ayodhya is constructed in the traditional Nagara temple architectural style, specifically utilizing the Maru-Gurjara sub-style. This sub-style, which originated in western India, is characterized by its elaborate carvings, highly ornamental pillars, tiered mandapa roofs, and curvilinear shikharas.

Statement II is correct because the design of the temple is credited to the Sompura family of Ahmedabad, led by chief architect Chandrakant Sompura along with his sons Ashish and Nikhil. The Sompura family has been traditionally involved in temple design for over fifteen generations, having also designed the historic Somnath Temple in Gujarat.

75Geography
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Bab el-Mandeb strait off the tip of Yemen is a maritime choke point in Red Sea crisis. Statement II : Bab el-Mandeb strait forms the western entrance to the Red Sea. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

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Statement I is correct because the Bab el-Mandeb Strait, located off the tip of Yemen and between the Arabian Peninsula and the Horn of Africa, is a crucial global maritime choke point. In the Red Sea crisis, it became the focal point of geopolitical tensions and maritime security threats due to drone and missile attacks targeting commercial shipping vessels transiting through this narrow waterway.

Statement II is incorrect because the Bab el-Mandeb Strait forms the southern entrance to the Red Sea, connecting it to the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean. It does not form the western entrance to the Red Sea.

76History
Arrange the following Indian cricketers completing 1000 runs from youngest in age to eldest in 'age': (1) Yashashvi Jaiswal (2) Ravi Shastri (3) Sachin Tendulkar (4) Kapil Dev Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (3), (4), (2), (1)

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The order of these Indian cricketers when completing 1000 runs in Test cricket, from the youngest to the eldest age, is Sachin Tendulkar (3), followed by Kapil Dev (4), Ravi Shastri (2), and Yashasvi Jaiswal (1). Sachin Tendulkar reached the milestone at the age of 19 years and 217 days. Kapil Dev completed his 1000 runs at the age of 21 years and 27 days. Ravi Shastri accomplished this feat at 21 years and 197 days, while Yashasvi Jaiswal achieved it at 22 years and 70 days.

77Science and Technology
Arrange the following National days in chronological order of their occurrence : (1) National Mathematics Day (2) National Science Day (3) National Youth Day (4) National Energy Conservation Day Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (3), (2), (4), (1)

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The chronological occurrence of these National days within a calendar year is determined by their respective annual dates.

National Youth Day is celebrated on 12 January to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.

National Science Day is observed on 28 February to mark the discovery of the Raman Effect by the physicist Sir C.V. Raman.

National Energy Conservation Day is celebrated on 14 December to drive awareness about energy efficiency and conservation.

National Mathematics Day is celebrated on 22 December to honor the birth anniversary of the legendary mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujan.

Arranging these events in order from January to December yields the sequence of National Youth Day (3), National Science Day (2), National Energy Conservation Day (4), and National Mathematics Day (1).

78Economy
Arrange the occurrence of the following Global Summits of 2024 in chronological order : (1) WTO (2) G7 (3) UN Convention on Biological Diversity (4) G20 Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

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The chronological order of the global summits held in 2024 is as follows:

The 13th World Trade Organization (WTO) Ministerial Conference (MC13) was held from 26 to 29 February 2024 in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates.

The 50th G7 Summit took place from 13 to 15 June 2024 in Apulia, Italy.

The 16th meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (COP16) took place from 21 October to 1 November 2024 in Cali, Colombia.

The 19th G20 Summit was held on 18 and 19 November 2024 in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

79Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : (1) 'Risa' is a traditional tribal dress of Assam. (2) National Dolphin Research Centre was inaugurated at Patna. (3) Underwater metro rail service has been inaugurated in Kolkata. (4) Satellite and Payload Technology Centre has been started at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (2) and (3) only

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The National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC), India's first dedicated research center for the conservation of the endangered Gangetic river dolphin, was inaugurated on the Patna University campus in Patna, Bihar, in March 2024.

India's first underwater metro rail service was officially inaugurated in Kolkata, West Bengal, in March 2024. This engineering milestone connects Howrah Maidan with Esplanade, passing through a tunnel constructed under the Hooghly River.

Regarding the incorrect statements, Risa is a traditional handwoven tribal dress from Tripura, not Assam, which recently received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Additionally, the Satellite and Payload Technical Centre was established by IN-SPACe at Bopal in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, rather than Sriharikota.

80Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : (1) XPoSat will unravel the mysteries of black holes. (2) XPoSat has a cost more than $188 million. (3) XPoSat expected lifespan is two years. (4) XPoSat was launched from Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (4) only

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XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India's first dedicated polarimetry mission, launched to study the polarization of cosmic X-rays. It aims to investigate the complex physical processes and emission mechanisms of bright celestial sources, helping scientists unravel the mysteries of black holes, neutron stars, pulsar wind nebulae, and active galactic nuclei. The satellite was successfully launched by ISRO on January 1, 2024, using the PSLV-C58 rocket from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

81Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : (1) The International Solar Alliance headquarters is located at Gurugram, Haryana. (2) Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure is located at New Delhi. (3) The International Solar Alliance was USA idea. (4) Quad has brought together India and Russia. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (2) only

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The International Solar Alliance is an international organization launched jointly by India and France in 2015 at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in Paris. The headquarters of the alliance is located in Gurugram, Haryana, India.

The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure is a global partnership of national governments, United Nations agencies, multilateral development banks, and the private sector, launched by India at the UN Climate Action Summit in 2019. The secretariat of the coalition is located in New Delhi, India.

82Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : (1) Computer scientist Hari Balakrishnan was awarded the 2023 Marconi Prize. (2) Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) raising day was revised in 2022. (3) The widest gap of Western Ghats is at Palakkad in Kerala. (4) Flyash is a wanted burnt residue in coal thermal power plants of India. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (3) only

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Statement 1 is correct because computer scientist Hari Balakrishnan, a professor at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, was awarded the 2023 Marconi Prize. The prestigious award recognized his pioneering contributions to wired and wireless networking, mobile sensing, and distributed systems.

Statement 3 is correct because the Palakkad Gap, also known as the Palghat Gap, is the widest and most prominent break in the Western Ghats mountain range. Situated between Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu and Palakkad in Kerala, it spans a width of approximately 30 km.

83Science and Technology
Match List I with List II : | List I (Payload) | List II (Date of launch) | |---|---| | (a) Cartosat-3 | (i) September 2, 2023 | | (b) Aditya-L1 | (ii) May 22, 2019 | | (c) XPoSat | (iii) November 27, 2019 | | (d) RISAT-2B | (iv) January 1, 2024 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

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Cartosat-3 matches with November 27, 2019, as it was launched onboard PSLV-C47 to provide high-resolution earth imaging.

Aditya-L1 matches with September 2, 2023, which was launched onboard PSLV-C57 as India's first space-based observatory to study the Sun.

XPoSat matches with January 1, 2024, which was launched onboard PSLV-C58 to study the polarization of cosmic X-rays.

RISAT-2B matches with May 22, 2019, which was launched onboard PSLV-C46 as a radar imaging earth observation satellite.

84Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II : | List I (Summit in 2024) | List II (Listation) | |---|---| | (a) ASEAN | (i) Baku | | (b) COP 29 | (ii) Kazan | | (c) BRICS | (iii) Washington | | (d) NATO | (iv) Laos | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

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ASEAN Summit in 2024 was hosted by Laos in Vientiane as the country held the ASEAN chairmanship for the year.

COP 29, the 2024 United Nations Climate Change Conference, took place in Baku, Azerbaijan in November 2024.

BRICS Summit in 2024, representing the 16th annual summit, was held in Kazan, Russia under the Russian presidency.

NATO Summit in 2024 was held in Washington, D.C., United States to commemorate the 75th anniversary of the alliance.

85History
Who wrote it, "If the producers are crippled, the farmers are burdened with taxes and a huge amount of the revenue is sent out of the country, then any country in the world will become permanently poor and will have to face famine again and again."
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Answer: (B) Ramesh Chandra Dutt

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This quote is from Romesh Chandra Dutt's "Economic History of India," which uniquely combined three analytical threads — destruction of Indian producers/artisans, excessive land revenue on farmers, and drain of revenue abroad — and directly attributed India's recurring famines to all three together. Dadabhai Naoroji focused primarily on the drain; it is Dutt who specifically articulated this three-part causal chain linking crippled producers, over-taxed farmers, and revenue export to permanent poverty and famine.

86HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Dandra Movement, which took place against the New Land Settlement in Bilaspur in 1930, the people of which Pargana first started a movement against the land settlement ?
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Answer: (C) Bahadurpur

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The Dandra Movement (also known as the Bahadurpur Pargana rebellion) of 1930 in the princely state of Bilaspur was a peasant uprising against the oppressive land revenue settlement policies introduced by the British-led Council of Administration. The movement first originated in the Bahadurpur Pargana when the local landowners refused to provide free firewood to the land settlement staff and destroyed their measuring instruments. The agitation rapidly intensified as farmers took an oath of unity to resist the land settlement, and it became known as the Dandra Movement due to the harsh use of police batons (dandras) to suppress the protestors.

87History
Who was the founder of "Balsan Thakuria"?
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Answer: (D) Alak Singh

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The princely state of Balsan, historically one of the Shimla Hill States or Thakurais, was founded in the 12th century by Alak Singh. He was a descendant of the royal family of ancient Sirmaur, belonging to the Rathore clan. Originally a feudatory of Sirmaur and later Kumarsain, Balsan gained independent status under a British sanad granted in 1815.

88History
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The author of the book — "Pakistan or the Partition of India" was Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. Statement II : The childhood name of Swami Ramakrishna Paramhansa was 'Gadadhar'. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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Statement I is correct because Dr. B. R. Ambedkar wrote the influential book titled Pakistan or the Partition of India, which was first published in 1940 as Thoughts on Pakistan and later expanded and republished under the title Pakistan or the Partition of India in 1945 to analyze the political and social aspects of the demand for a separate nation.

Statement II is correct because Swami Ramakrishna Paramhansa, the revered 19th-century Indian mystic and spiritual leader who was the guru of Swami Vivekananda, was born in Kamarpukur, Bengal, and was named Gadadhar Chattopadhyay in his childhood.

89History
Given below are two statements : Statement I : "Bhartiya Rashtriya Samajik Sammelan" was founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1883. Statement II : "Veda Samaj" was established in 1867 at Karnataka. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation

The Bhartiya Rashtriya Samajik Sammelan (Indian National Social Conference) was founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade and Raghunath Rao in 1887, whereas Swami Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.

The Veda Samaj was established in 1864 in Madras (present-day Chennai, Tamil Nadu) by Keshab Chandra Sen and K. Sridharalu Naidu, not in 1867 in Karnataka. It was inspired by the Brahmo Samaj and worked toward social reforms such as abolishing caste distinctions and promoting widow remarriage. Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

90HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Chamba had its own currency since ancient times. This was called "Chakli". Statement II : Raja Lalit Vernan of Chamba had built two temples named 'Chandragupta' and 'Kameshwar' in Chamba. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

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Statement I is correct because the princely state of Chamba historically minted its own copper currency since ancient times. This distinctive copper coin was known as the Chakli, and five of these coins traditionally constituted one anna. The obverse and reverse of the coin typically bore a trident (Trishul) design along with Nagari legends.

Statement II is incorrect because the prominent temples of Chandragupta and Kameshwar in Chamba were built by Raja Sahil Varman in the 10th century, who also founded the town of Chamba and established the Laxmi Narayan temple complex. Raja Lalit Varman, who ruled in the 12th century, is instead historically associated with the stone slab inscriptions found at Debri Kothi and Saichu Nala.

91History
Arrange the following events related to Indian History in chronological order : (1) Formation of East India Association in London (2) Formation of India League in Calcutta (3) Formation of Satyashodhak Samaj (4) Establishment of Bihar Scientific Society Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (1), (4), (3), (2)

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The chronological sequence of these historical events is determined by their respective founding years:

The East India Association was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in London in 1866 to focus on questions related to India and promote the welfare of Indians.

The Bihar Scientific Society was established in Muzaffarpur by Syed Imdad Ali on 24 May 1868 to spread scientific education and Western knowledge through vernacular mediums.

The Satyashodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotirao Phule in Pune, Maharashtra, on 24 September 1873 to work towards social reform, education, and the empowerment of underprivileged sections of society.

The India League was established in Calcutta by Sisir Kumar Ghosh on 25 September 1875 with the goal of stimulating a sense of nationalism and encouraging political education among the masses.

92History
Arrange these Pre-Congress Associations in chronological order : (1) Indian Association (2) Bombay Presidency Association (3) British Indian Association (4) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)

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The chronological order of these pre-Congress associations is determined by their respective years of establishment.

The British Indian Association was established in October 1851 in Calcutta through the merger of the Landholders Society and the British India Society, under the leadership of Radhakant Deb and Debendranath Tagore.

The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded in April 1870 by Mahadev Govind Ranade, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, and S. H. Chiplunkar to serve as a mediating body between the government and the people of India.

The Indian Association, also known as the Indian National Association, was founded in July 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in Calcutta to represent the political aspirations of the educated middle class.

The Bombay Presidency Association was established in January 1885 by Pherozeshah Mehta, K. T. Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji to advocate for administrative reforms and foster public opinion in western India.

93HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Arrange the following rulers of 'Suket State' in chronological order : (1) Bhimsen (2) Rudrasen (3) Ugrasen (4) Lakshmansen Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (3), (2), (1), (4)

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Raja Ugrasen ruled Suket State from 1836 to 1876. He was succeeded by his son Raja Rudrasen, who ruled from 1876 until he was deposed in 1879. Much later, Raja Bhimsen ascended the throne in 1908 and ruled until his death in 1919. He was succeeded by his brother, Raja Lakshmansen, who ruled from 1919 until the state's accession to the Indian Union in 1948. This gives the chronological sequence of (3), (2), (1), (4).

94History
Consider the following statements : (1) Paramhansa Mandali was established in Madras. (2) Alfred Webb was the first Englishman to become the President of Indian National Congress. (3) Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim to become the President of Indian National Congress. (4) The Indian National Congress did not participate in the Third Round Table Conference held in London. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (3) and (4) only

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Badruddin Tyabji presided over the third session of the Indian National Congress held in Madras in 1887, making him the first Muslim President of the organization.

The Indian National Congress did not participate in the Third Round Table Conference, which was held in London between November 17 and December 24, 1932. The Congress had boycotted this conference, having only participated in the Second Round Table Conference represented by Mahatma Gandhi.

95History
Consider the following statements : (1) In 1910, at Allahabad Session of Indian National Congress was "Jana-Gana-Mana" sung for the first time. (2) Swami Dayanand Saraswati had hoisted the 'Pakhand Khandini Pataka' at Allahabad in 1867 A.D. (3) The last Act was the Charter Act of 1853 for the East India Company. (4) The modern educated Indians also did not support the Revolt of 1857. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (3) and (4) only

Explanation

The Charter Act of 1853 was the last in the series of Charter Acts passed by the British Parliament for the East India Company, as the subsequent Government of India Act 1858 transferred the administration of India directly to the British Crown.

During the Revolt of 1857, modern educated Indians did not support the rebellion because they viewed the uprising as backward-looking and believed that British rule would modernize and reform Indian society.

In contrast, the first two statements are incorrect. Jana-Gana-Mana was first sung on December 27, 1911, at the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress. Swami Dayanand Saraswati hoisted the Pakhand Khandini Pataka in 1867 during the Kumbh Mela at Haridwar, not at Allahabad.

96History
Consider the following statements : (1) The first Singh Sabha was founded in 1873 at Amritsar. (2) Gyan Singh was the first President of Singh Sabha. (3) Thakur Singh Sandhawalia was the first Secretary of Singh Sabha. (4) Khalsa College, Amritsar was established in the year 1892. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (4) only

Explanation

The Singh Sabha Movement was launched in Amritsar on October 1, 1873, to propagate the true Sikh religion, restore Sikhism to its pristine purity, and encourage the study of Punjabi language and literature.

Khalsa College, Amritsar, which emerged as a major center of educational reform under the influence of the Singh Sabha Movement, was established on March 5, 1892.

97History
Match List I with List II : | List I (Governor General/Viceroy) | List II (Major Events) | |---|---| | (a) Lord Lansdowne | (i) Establishment of High Court in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras | | (b) Lord Northbrook | (ii) Indian Council Act of 1892 | | (c) Lord Dufferin | (iii) Third Anglo-Burmese War | | (d) John Lawrence | (iv) Kuka Movement in Punjab | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Explanation

Lord Lansdowne, who served as Viceroy from 1888 to 1894, saw the enactment of the landmark Indian Councils Act of 1892, which increased the number of additional members in the central and provincial legislative councils.

Lord Northbrook, Viceroy from 1872 to 1876, witnessed the Kuka Movement in Punjab led by Baba Ram Singh, which was actively suppressed in 1872 with many of its key leaders deported.

Lord Dufferin, Viceroy from 1884 to 1888, oversaw the Third Anglo-Burmese War in 1885, resulting in the surrender of King Thibaw and the subsequent annexation of Upper Burma to the British Empire.

John Lawrence, Viceroy from 1864 to 1869, oversaw the formal establishment and operations of the High Courts of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1865.

98History
Match List I with List II : | List I (Association/Parties) | List II (Formation Year) | |---|---| | (a) Punjab Riyasati Praja Mandal | (i) 1906 | | (b) Adivasi Mahasabha | (ii) 1936 | | (c) Depressed Classes Mission | (iii) 1928 | | (d) Independent Labour Party | (iv) 1938 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Explanation

Punjab Riyasati Praja Mandal was established in 1928 under the leadership of Sewa Singh Thikriwala to champion the rights of people living in the princely states of Punjab against autocratic rulers.

Adivasi Mahasabha was formed in 1938 under the leadership of Jaipal Singh Munda to advocate for the rights of tribal communities and demand a separate state of Jharkhand.

Depressed Classes Mission was founded in Bombay in 1906 by Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde to work towards the eradication of untouchability and promote education among the marginalized classes.

Independent Labour Party was founded by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in August 1936 to protect the rights of the working-class population and challenge the caste-based oppression of labor.

99History
Match List I with List II : | List I (Newspaper/Magazine) | List II (Publishing Year) | |---|---| | (a) Amrit Bazar Patrika | (i) 1913 | | (b) Harish Chandra Magazine | (ii) 1878 | | (c) Bombay Chronicle | (iii) 1868 | | (d) Bharat Mitra | (iv) 1872 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Explanation

Amrit Bazar Patrika was established in 1868 by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh in Jessore district (present-day Bangladesh).

Harish Chandra Magazine was a prominent publication edited by Bharatendu Harishchandra, beginning in the 1872 to 1873 period from Banaras.

Bombay Chronicle was an influential English-language newspaper started in 1913 by the nationalist leader Sir Pherozeshah Mehta in Bombay.

Bharat Mitra was a leading Hindi journal published from Calcutta starting on 17 May 1878, playing a significant role in promoting nationalist ideas.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2B
  3. 3A
  4. 4B
  5. 5D
  6. 6A
  7. 7B
  8. 8A
  9. 9A
  10. 10D
  11. 11A
  12. 12C
  13. 13C
  14. 14A
  15. 15A
  16. 16C
  17. 17A
  18. 18D
  19. 19B
  20. 20D
  21. 21A
  22. 22C
  23. 23C
  24. 24D
  25. 25A
  26. 26C
  27. 27C
  28. 28C
  29. 29A
  30. 30A
  31. 31C
  32. 32C
  33. 33A
  34. 34C
  35. 35A
  36. 36A
  37. 37B
  38. 38A
  39. 39B
  40. 40C
  41. 41A
  42. 42C
  43. 43A
  44. 44B
  45. 45A
  46. 46A
  47. 47A
  48. 48A
  49. 49A
  50. 50C
  51. 51B
  52. 52D
  53. 53B
  54. 54B
  55. 55A
  56. 56B
  57. 57B
  58. 58C
  59. 59A
  60. 60B
  61. 61D
  62. 62B
  63. 63C
  64. 64A
  65. 65B
  66. 66C
  67. 67C
  68. 68C
  69. 69A
  70. 70C
  71. 71C
  72. 72A
  73. 73C
  74. 74A
  75. 75C
  76. 76B
  77. 77C
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80A
  81. 81A
  82. 82C
  83. 83A
  84. 84D
  85. 85B
  86. 86C
  87. 87D
  88. 88A
  89. 89B
  90. 90C
  91. 91B
  92. 92C
  93. 93B
  94. 94C
  95. 95B
  96. 96C
  97. 97D
  98. 98A
  99. 99A

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