HPAS2010General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

HPAS Prelims 2010 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 100 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

100
Questions
6
Subjects
17
Himachal Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography2525%
  • Polity and Governance2222%
  • Economy2020%
  • History1919%
  • Science and Technology1111%
  • Art and Culture33%
1Geography
Carbon dioxide absorbs strongly in infrared region and its presence in atmosphere decreases the loss of heat from earth by radiations. This is called :
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Answer: (D) Greenhouse effect

Explanation

The greenhouse effect is the process by which certain gases in the Earth's atmosphere trap thermal energy. Incoming solar radiation consists mainly of short-wavelength visible light, which passes through the atmosphere and warms the Earth's surface. The surface then re-radiates this energy back into space as longer-wavelength infrared radiation. Carbon dioxide strongly absorbs this outgoing infrared radiation because the vibrational frequencies of its molecular bonds match the frequency of the infrared light. This absorbed energy is subsequently re-emitted in all directions, including back toward the Earth, keeping the planet's atmosphere significantly warmer than it would be otherwise.

2Geography
Freons cause great environmental damage. They are :
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Answer: (B) Mixed chlorofluorohydrocarbons

Explanation

Freons are a group of halogenated aliphatic organic compounds containing carbon, fluorine, chlorine, and often hydrogen. Chemically, they are mixed chlorofluorohydrocarbons, commonly referred to as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs). These compounds are highly stable in the lower atmosphere but migrate to the stratosphere, where solar ultraviolet radiation breaks them down to release free chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms act as catalysts in destroying ozone molecules, leading to the depletion of the ozone layer and contributing significantly to global warming.

3Science and Technology
Which of the following is not a plant hormone ?
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Answer: (C) Calcium

Explanation

Calcium is a chemical element and an essential inorganic plant nutrient rather than a plant hormone. It is classified as a macronutrient because plants require it in relatively large quantities for structural and physiological processes. Specifically, calcium is a key structural component of the plant cell wall, where it forms calcium pectate in the middle lamella to bind cells together and provide mechanical strength. It also functions as an important secondary messenger in cell signaling pathways and contributes to membrane stability. Unlike phytohormones, which are organic signaling molecules synthesized by the plant in minute concentrations to regulate growth and development, calcium is an inorganic mineral absorbed by plant roots from the soil.

4Science and Technology
Asbestos is no longer preferred for commercial use because :
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Answer: (A) It causes lung cancer

Explanation

Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring silicate minerals that were widely used for their thermal insulation and fire-resistant properties. However, inhalation of fine asbestos fibers is highly carcinogenic. When inhaled, these microscopic fibers lodge deep within the lungs, causing progressive inflammation and scarring (asbestosis). Over time, this cellular damage frequently leads to malignant mesothelioma and lung cancer. Consequently, its commercial application has been phased out or banned worldwide due to these severe occupational and public health hazards.

5Science and Technology
Iodine is obtained from :
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Answer: (B) Laminaria

Explanation

Laminaria is a genus of brown algae, commonly referred to as kelp, which is highly efficient at accumulating iodine from seawater. It contains a high concentration of iodine in the form of iodide, making it a major commercial source for the extraction of this essential element.

6Geography
The term Biomagnification refers to:
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Answer: (D) increase in concentration of non-biodegradable pollutants

Explanation

Biomagnification refers to the progressive increase in the concentration of non-biodegradable toxic substances, such as heavy metals or persistent organic pollutants like DDT, at successive trophic levels in a food chain. Because these chemical substances cannot be easily metabolized or excreted by organisms, they accumulate within their body tissues. When organisms at higher trophic levels consume lower-level organisms, they ingest these accumulated toxins, leading to significantly higher concentration levels in predators near the top of the food chain.

7Geography
Which part of the world has a high density of organisms ?
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Answer: (D) Tropical rain forests

Explanation

Tropical rain forests exhibit an exceptionally high density and diversity of organisms because of their highly favorable climatic conditions. Situated near the equator, these regions receive consistent, high-intensity solar radiation and maintain warm temperatures year-round, typically between 20°C and 30°C. They also experience abundant rainfall, usually exceeding 2000 mm annually. This continuous supply of warmth and moisture prevents seasonal water or temperature stress, enabling uninterrupted vegetative growth throughout the year. The resulting high primary productivity supports a complex, multi-layered canopy structure, which creates a vast array of ecological niches, microclimates, and food resources that sustain an unparalleled concentration of plant, animal, and microbial life.

8Science and Technology
Haemorrhagic dengue fever is spread by :
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Answer: (C) Aedes aegyptii

Explanation

Dengue haemorrhagic fever is a severe manifestation of dengue fever, which is caused by the dengue virus. The primary vector responsible for transmitting this virus to humans is the female Aedes aegypti mosquito. This species of mosquito is highly adapted to urban environments, breeding primarily in artificial water containers, and bites during the daytime, transmitting the virus from one infected individual to another.

9GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
What is roughly the ratio between population density of Himachal Pradesh and India as per the provisional figures of 2011 Census of India ?
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Answer: (B) 1:3

Explanation

As per the provisional figures of the 2011 Census of India, the population density of India was 382 persons per square kilometer, whereas the population density of Himachal Pradesh was 123 persons per square kilometer.

The ratio of the population density of Himachal Pradesh to that of India is 123 : 382, which simplifies to approximately 1 : 3.1. Therefore, the ratio is roughly 1:3.

10Geography
What is the name given to forces that shape and reshape the earth's crust ?
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Answer: (D) Tectonic

Explanation

Tectonic forces originate from deep within the Earth, driven primarily by convective heat transfer within the mantle. These internal forces drive the movement of lithospheric plates, causing them to collide, pull apart, or slide past one another. The resulting processes—including mountain building, continental deformation, folding, faulting, and volcanic activity—are the primary mechanisms responsible for constantly shaping and reshaping the Earth's crust.

11Geography
Which type of cloud causes the heaviest downpour ?
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Answer: (C) Cumulo-Nimbus

Explanation

Cumulonimbus clouds are dense, towering vertical clouds associated with thunderstorms and atmospheric instability. They form from water vapor carried by powerful upward air currents. These clouds are capable of producing extremely heavy downpours, severe lightning, thunder, and sometimes hail or tornadoes, as they hold a massive amount of moisture and undergo rapid, intense convective activity.

12Geography
Which trench is located in the Pacific Ocean ?
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Answer: (A) Marianus

Explanation

The Mariana Trench, sometimes referred to as the Marianus Trench, is located in the western Pacific Ocean, just east of the Mariana Islands. It is the deepest oceanic trench on Earth, formed by the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the Mariana Plate. Its deepest point, the Challenger Deep, plunges to a depth of nearly 11,000 meters.

13Geography
Which term is used for the imaginary lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?
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Answer: (B) Isohyet

Explanation

An isohyet is an imaginary line drawn on a map that connects places receiving equal amounts of rainfall or precipitation during a specified period. Derived from the Greek words isos, meaning equal, and huetos, meaning rain, these lines are widely used in meteorology and climatology to represent and analyze the spatial distribution of rainfall across a geographic region.

14Polity and Governance
Which one among the following countries is not a member of SAARC ?
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Answer: (D) Myanmar

Explanation

Myanmar is not a member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). Established in 1985 in Dhaka, Bangladesh, the regional intergovernmental organization comprises eight member countries, which are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Afghanistan joined as the eighth member of the association during the fourteenth SAARC summit held in New Delhi in April 2007. Myanmar holds observer status in SAARC but is a member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).

15Economy
What is the Silicon Valley of United States of America famous for ?
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Answer: (C) Electronics

Explanation

Silicon Valley, located in the southern San Francisco Bay Area in California, is globally renowned as the leading hub for high-tech innovation, microprocessor development, and the microelectronics industry. The region earned its name in the early 1970s due to the heavy concentration of silicon chip manufacturers and semiconductor developers operating in the area, which laid the foundation for the modern computer and electronics industry.

16Geography
Which country has the largest number of Spanish speaking population ?
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Answer: (A) Mexico

Explanation

Mexico has the largest Spanish-speaking population in the world. As of 2010, the country had a population of over 112 million people, with the vast majority speaking Spanish as their primary language, making it the most populous nation where Spanish is the official and dominant language.

17Art and Culture
In which Indian State is the Tawang Buddhist Monastery located ?
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Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

The Tawang Buddhist Monastery is located in the Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh in northeastern India. Founded by Merak Lama Lodre Gyatso in 1680–1681 in accordance with the wishes of the 5th Dalai Lama, it is the largest monastery in India and the second largest in the world after the Potala Palace in Lhasa, Tibet. Known in Tibetan as Galden Namgey Lhatse, which translates to celestial paradise in a clear night, the monastery belongs to the Gelugpa sect of Mahayana Buddhism and sits at an elevation of about 3000 meters above sea level, serving as a prominent center for Buddhist cultural and spiritual studies.

18Economy
What is relevant to the Golden Quadrilateral in India ?
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Answer: (C) Roadways

Explanation

The Golden Quadrilateral is a prestigious national highway network project in India that connects the country's four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. Launched in 1999 under the administration of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, this major infrastructure initiative is managed by the National Highways Authority of India. It constitutes a massive network of multi-lane highways designed to improve connectivity, reduce transportation costs, and accelerate economic growth across major industrial, agricultural, and cultural hubs of the nation.

19Geography
Which port is located on an estuary ?
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Answer: (D) Cochin

Explanation

Cochin (Kochi) Port is located on the southwest coast of India, situated in the Cochin Estuary (also known as the Vembanad Estuary) in Kerala. The estuary is a bar-built system fed by six major rivers, including the Periyar and Muvattupuzha rivers, before opening into the Laccadive Sea. The port lies on Willingdon Island and Vallarpadam Island within this estuarine water body, making it a natural harbour situated on an estuary.

20Geography
What is an archipelago ?
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Answer: (D) A group of large number of islands

Explanation

An archipelago is a geographical term used to describe a chain, cluster, or collection of closely spaced islands, along with the body of water that surrounds them. The word originates from the Greek terms archi, meaning principal, and pelagos, meaning sea, which historically referred to the Aegean Sea and its dense collection of islands. Over time, the usage evolved to denote any large group of islands. Prominent global examples of archipelagos include Indonesia, Japan, the Philippines, and the Maldives.

21Geography
Which of the following countries is divided into the largest number of time zones ?
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Answer: (B) Russia

Explanation

Russia spans an immense geographical area across Northern Eurasia, stretching about 9000 kilometers from west to east. Because of this massive longitudinal extent, the country is divided into 11 different standard time zones, ranging from UTC+2 in Kaliningrad to UTC+12 in Kamchatka. This is the highest number of time zones for any contiguous landmass of a single country.

22History
Match the items in List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale | (1) Indian National Conference | | (b) Sivnarayan Agnihotri | (2) Servants of India Society | | (c) Mahadev Govind Ranade | (3) Dev Samaj | | (d) Dayanand Saraswati | (4) Arya Samaj | Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (2) (3) (1) (4)

Explanation

Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to train national missionaries for the service of India and promote social and humanitarian development.

Sivnarayan Agnihotri established the Dev Samaj in 1887 at Lahore, which emphasized high moral standards, social reform, and the worship of the guru.

Mahadev Govind Ranade founded the Indian National Conference in 1887 as a platform to address social reforms alongside the political work of the Indian National Congress.

Dayanand Saraswati established the Arya Samaj in 1875 to revive Vedic teachings, promote monotheism, and advocate for social and religious reform.

23History
Match the items in List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Dinbandhu | (1) K.N. Natarajan | | (b) Maratha | (2) G.C. Agarkar | | (c) Indian Social Report | (3) N.M. Lokhande | | (d) Shodhak | (4) B.G. Tilak | Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (3) (4) (1) (2)

Explanation

Dinbandhu was a weekly Marathi newspaper edited by Narayan Meghaji Lokhande, who used the publication to represent and champion the issues of the working class and factory laborers in Bombay.

Maratha was an influential English-language weekly newspaper founded and edited by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1881 to spread nationalist ideas and criticize colonial policies.

Indian Social Reformer, which is listed as Indian Social Report, was a weekly journal edited by K. Natarajan that focused on advocating social reforms, education, and women's rights.

Sudharak, which is listed as Shodhak, was a Marathi newspaper founded in 1888 by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, who used it as a platform to propagate rationalism, social reforms, and individual freedom.

24History
Who was the founder of Satyashodhak Samaj ?
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Answer: (B) Jyotiba Phule

Explanation

Jyotiba Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj on September 24, 1873, in Pune, Maharashtra. The society was established with the primary objective of liberating Shudras and Ati-Shudras from oppression and religious exploitation. It promoted equal rights, modern education, and social justice, while strongly challenging the caste-based hierarchy and the authority of the priestly class.

25History
Where was the Headquarters of Ghadar Party ?
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Answer: (C) San Francisco

Explanation

The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary organization founded in 1913 by expatriate Indians, primarily Punjabi Sikhs, with the goal of securing India's independence from British rule. The party established its headquarters in San Francisco, California, and named it Yugantar Ashram. From this headquarters, the party published its weekly revolutionary newspaper, Ghadar, which served as a major vehicle to mobilize support and coordinate activities among the Indian diaspora in North America and beyond.

26Polity and Governance
By which Act was system of 'Dyarchy' introduced during British rule in India ?
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Answer: (B) Govt. of India Act, 1919

Explanation

The Government of India Act, 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced the system of dyarchy, or dual government, in the provinces of British India. Under this system, the provincial executive subjects were divided into two distinct categories: transferred subjects and reserved subjects. Transferred subjects, which included departments like education, public health, and local self-government, were administered by the Governor with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial Legislative Council. Reserved subjects, which included critical departments like finance, law and order, land revenue, and police, were administered directly by the Governor and his Executive Council without any responsibility to the legislature. This dual division of executive responsibility represented the first significant step towards introducing representative government in India.

27History
During whose viceroyality was the Vernacular Press Act enacted ?
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Answer: (C) Lord Lytton

Explanation

Lord Lytton, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880, enacted the Vernacular Press Act in 1878. This legislation was introduced to curtail the freedom of the Indian-language press and prevent the expression of criticism against British colonial policies, especially during the Second Anglo-Afghan War and the devastating famine of 1876 to 1878. The act targeted only non-English publications, allowing the government to confiscate printing presses and other equipment if they published material deemed seditious, which earned it the moniker of the Gagging Act.

28Polity and Governance
Who was the Chairman of the First Union Commission of Backward Classes of India ?
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Answer: (B) Kaka Kalelkar

Explanation

The First Backward Classes Commission was appointed by a presidential order under Article 340 of the Constitution of India on 29 January 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka Kalelkar. Popularly known as the Kaka Kalelkar Commission, it was established to determine the criteria for identifying socially and educationally backward classes in India, other than Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and to recommend steps for their social and educational advancement. The commission submitted its comprehensive report on 30 March 1955.

29Geography
What is the density of population at national level in India according to 2011 Census ?
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Answer: (C) 382 persons per square kilometre

Explanation

The density of population is defined as the number of persons per unit of area, typically expressed per square kilometre. It is calculated using the relation: Population Density = Total Population ÷ Total Land Area. According to the 2011 Census of India, the total population of India was approximately 1.21 billion spread over a total geographical area of about 3.28 million square kilometres, resulting in a national population density of 382 persons per square kilometre. This represents an increase from the density of 324 persons per square kilometre recorded during the 2001 Census.

30Art and Culture
Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) R. Vineet Krishna | (1) Collector of Malkhangiri District | | (b) Anant Pal | (2) Classical dancer | | (c) Yamini Krishnamurthy | (3) Author of Amar Chitra Kantha | | (d) Mitali Madhumita | (4) First Woman Indian Army officer to win a Gallantry Medal | Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (1) (3) (2) (4)

Explanation

The correct matching of the individuals with their respective descriptions is:

R. Vineet Krishna (R. Vineel Krishna) served as the District Collector of Malkangiri in Odisha. Anant Pal (Anant Pai) is the creator and author of the popular comic series Amar Chitra Katha. Yamini Krishnamurthy is a highly acclaimed classical dancer of Bharatnatyam and Kuchipudi. Mitali Madhumita is the first female officer in the Indian Army to receive a gallantry award (Sena Medal).

31Polity and Governance
For which of the following functions was V.K. Shunglu Committee constituted ?
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Answer: (D) to probe financial irregularities in Commonwealth Games

Explanation

The V.K. Shunglu Committee was appointed by the Prime Minister of India in October 2010 as a high-level committee to investigate allegations of corruption, bribery, misappropriation of funds, and severe financial irregularities associated with the organization and execution of the Delhi 2010 Commonwealth Games. Led by former Comptroller and Auditor General V.K. Shunglu, the committee was mandated to examine systemic lapses, delays, and escalation of costs in various infrastructure projects and the procurement of goods and services for the games, eventually submitting detailed reports on the findings.

32Polity and Governance
Who among the following was the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha ?
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Answer: (B) G.V. Mavalankar

Explanation

Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar, popularly known as Dadasaheb, was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. He served in this position from 15 May 1952 until his demise on 27 February 1956. Before the constitution of the first Lok Sabha, he had also served as the Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly from 1946 to 1947 and the Constituent Assembly of India (Legislative) from 1947 to 1952.

33Polity and Governance
Which of the following Schedules of Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding disqualification of MPs/MLAs on the ground of defection ?
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Answer: (D) X

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law, contains provisions regarding the disqualification of Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of State Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) on the ground of defection. It was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, to bring stability to governments by discouraging unprincipled and opportunistic political defections.

34Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
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Answer: (D) Biju Janata Dal—Bihar

Explanation

The Biju Janata Dal is a regional political party based in the state of Odisha, founded by Naveen Patnaik in December 1997, and has no political presence or alignment with the state of Bihar.

35History
Which ancient Indian king wrote the three dramas, i.e. Ratnavali, Priyadarshika and Nagananda ?
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Answer: (C) Harsha Vardhana

Explanation

Harsha Vardhana, the prominent ruler of the Vardhana dynasty who reigned over northern India from 606 to 647 CE, was a great patron of learning and an accomplished author himself. He is credited with composing three exemplary Sanskrit plays. Priyadarshika and Ratnavali are romantic comedies centering around the legend of King Udayana, showcasing intricate courtly intrigues and romance. Nagananda is a unique Buddhist-themed play depicting the self-sacrifice of prince Jimutavahana to save the Nagas from Garuda, reflecting Harsha Vardhana's deep inclination toward Buddhism in his later life.

36History
Match the items in List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Vishakhadatta | (1) Daekumaracharita | | (b) Subandhu | (2) Harshabarita | | (c) Dandin | (3) Mudra Rakshasan | | (d) Banabhatta | (4) Vasavandatta | Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (3) (4) (1) (2)

Explanation

Vishakhadatta is the author of Mudrarakshasa, a historical play in Sanskrit depicting the political ascension of Chandragupta Maurya with the help of Chanakya.

Subandhu is the author of Vasavadatta, a classical Sanskrit romantic novel written in highly ornate prose.

Dandin authored Dashakumaracharita, a prose romance detailing the adventures of ten young princes.

Banabhatta was the court poet of King Harsha and wrote the Harshacharita, a historical biography of the emperor.

37History
Who built the old fort (Purana Qila) in Delhi ?
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Answer: (A) Sher Shah

Explanation

Purana Qila (Old Fort) in Delhi was built by the Suri dynasty founder, Sher Shah Suri, during his reign from 1540 to 1545. After defeating the Mughal Emperor Humayun, Sher Shah demolished Humayun's city of Dinpanah and established his own capital, Shergarh, on the same site, with Purana Qila serving as its citadel. Sher Shah completed the fort's massive stone walls, bastions, and grand gateways, and also constructed magnificent structures inside, such as the Qila-i-Kuhna Mosque, which stands as a masterpiece of late Afghan architectural style.

38History
In 19th century Moplah peasants revolted against the tyranny of which of the following :
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Answer: (C) Hindu Zamindars

Explanation

In the Malabar region of Kerala during the nineteenth century, the land ownership system was highly exploitative. The landlords, known as Jenmis, were predominantly upper-caste Hindu Zamindars who enjoyed absolute ownership of the land under British administration. The cultivating tenants, known as Moplahs, were mostly Muslims who faced severe oppression from these landlords, including exorbitant rent hikes, insecure tenures, forced evictions, and various illegal levies. This systematic tyranny and economic exploitation by the Hindu Zamindars, who were backed by the British police and courts, triggered a series of violent agrarian uprisings by the Moplah peasantry throughout the nineteenth century.

39History
Match List-I which contains the names of European Companies with List-II which contains the names of their settlements in India and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Dutch | (1) Goa | | (b) English | (2) Publicat | | (c) Portuguese | (3) Bugli | | (d) French | (4) Chinsura | Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (2) (3) (1) (4)

Explanation

The correct match for each European company with its respective settlement is as follows:

Dutch matches Pulicat (2) as the Dutch established their earliest settlements on the Coromandel Coast at Pulicat in 1609, making it their primary administrative center.

English matches Hugli (3) because the English East India Company established a vital factory at Hugli in Bengal in 1651.

Portuguese matches Goa (1) because Goa was captured by Afonso de Albuquerque in 1510 and served as the administrative capital of the Portuguese State of India.

French matches Chinsura (4) to complete the pairs in the given options.

40History
Match the organisations in List-I with persons associated with them given in List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) British India Society | (1) Lala Lajpat Rai | | (b) Landholders Society | (2) William Adams | | (c) Servants of People Society | (3) George Thompson | | (d) Bengal British India Society | (4) Dwarkanath Tagore | Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (2) (4) (1) (3)

Explanation

British India Society was founded in London in 1839 by William Adam, an associate of Raja Ram Mohan Roy, to inform the British public about Indian grievances.

Landholders Society, also known as the Zamindari Association, was founded in Calcutta in 1838 by prominent landlords including Dwarkanath Tagore to safeguard their land-owning interests.

Servants of the People Society was established in Lahore in 1921 by Lala Lajpat Rai to secure social, educational, and political advancement for the masses.

Bengal British India Society was founded in Calcutta in 1843, heavily influenced by the lectures of George Thompson, who arrived in India to help mobilize public opinion and advocate for administrative reforms.

41Geography
According to 2011 Census which of the following districts of the state of Haryana has the lowest sex ratio?
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Answer: (D) Jhajjar

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census, Jhajjar recorded a sex ratio of 862 females per 1000 males, which is the lowest among the districts listed. For comparison, the sex ratio of Ambala stands at 885, Mahendragarh at 895, and Rewari at 898.

42Geography
Match the items in List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) 30 January | (1) World Wetland Day | | (b) 2 February | (2) World TB Day | | (c) 5 June | (3) Martyrs Day | | (d) 24 March | (4) World Environment Day | Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (3) (1) (4) (2)

Explanation

30 January matches with Martyrs Day as it commemorates the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi on this date in 1948.

2 February matches with World Wetland Day because the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands was adopted on this date in 1971.

5 June matches with World Environment Day which was established by the United Nations in 1972 to stimulate global awareness of environmental issues.

24 March matches with World TB Day to commemorate Dr. Robert Koch's discovery of the tuberculosis bacillus in 1882.

43Polity and Governance
With which of the following movements is Arvind Kejariwal associated ?
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Answer: (C) Parivartan/RTI

Explanation

Arvind Kejriwal co-founded the Delhi-based citizens movement Parivartan in 1999 to assist citizens in navigating government departments and using the Right to Information (RTI) to fight corruption. His significant contributions to the RTI movement and community empowerment through Parivartan led to him being awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Emergent Leadership in 2006.

44Economy
To commemorate which of the following events is the Reserve Bank of India planning to issue a coin of denomination of Rs. 150 ?
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Answer: (C) Birth Anniversary of Rabindra Nath Tagore

Explanation

To commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of the Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore, who was born on 7 May 1861, the Reserve Bank of India planned the release of a special commemorative coin of Rs. 150. Tagore was a towering literary figure, poet, philosopher, and the composer of India's national anthem. This commemorative release marked the first time that a coin of the Rs. 150 denomination was introduced in India.

45Economy
According to recent listing who among the following is the richest woman of India ?
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Answer: (D) Savitri Jindal

Explanation

Savitri Jindal was listed as the richest woman in India according to the Forbes India Rich List in 2010. She serves as the chairperson emeritus of the O.P. Jindal Group, a conglomerate with major interests in steel, power, mining, and infrastructure. In the 2010 rankings, her net worth reached approximately 14.4 billion US dollars, making her the wealthiest woman in the country.

46Polity and Governance
In which one of the following cases has the Preamble been accepted as a part of the Indian Constitution ?
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Answer: (B) Koshavanand Bharti case

Explanation

In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973, the Supreme Court of India explicitly held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Indian Constitution. The Court observed that the Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in it. This historic ruling overruled the earlier 1960 Berubari Union judgment, establishing that the Preamble can be amended under Article 368 as long as the basic structure of the Constitution is not destroyed.

47Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following is empowered to declare emergency under the Indian Constitution ?
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Answer: (B) The President

Explanation

Under Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, from Article 352 to 360, the President of India is vested with the authority to declare three types of emergencies. These are National Emergency under Article 352 on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion; State Emergency or President's Rule under Article 356 in case of the failure of constitutional machinery in a state; and Financial Emergency under Article 360 if the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. This power allows the Central government to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country during abnormal situations.

48Polity and Governance
Under the Constitution of India who is the guardian of fundamental rights ?
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Answer: (C) Judiciary

Explanation

The judiciary, specifically the Supreme Court and the High Courts, acts as the guardian and guarantor of the fundamental rights of Indian citizens. Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court is directly vested with the responsibility and authority to protect and enforce these rights. It is empowered to issue various writs, including Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto, to redress any violation of fundamental rights. Similarly, Article 226 grants parallel writ jurisdiction to the High Courts within their respective territories, ensuring a robust judicial mechanism to safeguard individual liberties against any state transgression.

49Polity and Governance
Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not ?
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Answer: (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation

Under Article 110(3) of the Constitution of India, if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. Furthermore, Article 110(4) mandates that every Money Bill, when it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha and when it is presented to the President for assent, must carry an endorsement of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha signed by them certifying that it is a Money Bill. This constitutional provision ensures that the Speaker's determination is conclusive and cannot be questioned in any court of law, by either House of Parliament, or by the President.

50Polity and Governance
Match the constitutional provisions of Indian Constitution given in List-I with countries from which these have been taken in List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Concurrent list | (i) USA | | (b) Parliamentary system | (ii) Canada | | (c) Impeachment of President | (iii) Australia | | (d) Federal structure | (iv) UK | Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (3) (4) (1) (2)

Explanation

The provisions of the Indian Constitution are inspired by various constitutional systems around the world. The Concurrent List, which includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State governments, was borrowed from the Constitution of Australia. The Parliamentary system of government, featuring a Prime Minister and a cabinet accountable to the legislature, was adopted from the constitutional traditions of the United Kingdom. The procedure for the impeachment of the President, which ensures accountability of the highest executive office, was sourced from the Constitution of the United States of America. The federal system with a strong central government was modeled after the federal structure of Canada.

51Polity and Governance
Under which of the following circumstances can an emergency be declared in India ? 1. External aggression 2. Armed rebellion 3. Internal unrest 4. Financial crisis Codes :
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Answer: (D) (1), (2) and (4)

Explanation

Under the Constitution of India, emergencies can be declared under specific provisions. A National Emergency can be proclaimed by the President under Article 352 on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 replaced the term internal disturbance with armed rebellion, thereby excluding general internal unrest as a ground for a national emergency. Additionally, a Financial Emergency can be declared under Article 360 if the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Therefore, external aggression, armed rebellion, and financial crisis are the valid circumstances under which an emergency can be declared.

52Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not properly matched ?
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Answer: (D) 84th Constitutional Amendment-Centre-State Relations

Explanation

The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001, amended Articles 81, 82, 170, 330, and 332 of the Constitution of India. It extended the freeze on the undertaking of delimitation of constituencies, meaning the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies remained unchanged until the year 2026. It also allowed for the rationalisation of territorial constituencies based on the 1991 census. It is not associated with Centre-State Relations.

53Polity and Governance
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee is related to :
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Answer: (A) Punchayati Raj System

Explanation

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better performance. In its report submitted in November 1957, the committee recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system for democratic decentralisation. This system consisted of the Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zilla Parishad at the district level. This paved the way for the modern Panchayati Raj System in India.

54Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following can be the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission ?
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Answer: (C) A retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

Explanation

Under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission must be a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India. This statutory requirement ensures that the Commission is led by an individual with the highest level of judicial experience, integrity, and stature, enabling independent and authoritative oversight of human rights violations in the country.

55Economy
MNREGA programme is related to :
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Answer: (A) rural employment

Explanation

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), enacted in 2005, is a social security measure that guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by generating wage employment opportunities.

56Science and Technology
Which one of the following is non-toxic ?
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Answer: (D) Sodium

Explanation

Sodium is an essential nutrient and the primary extracellular cation required by the human body to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance, regulate blood volume and blood pressure, and facilitate proper nerve transmission and muscle contraction. It is consumed daily in the diet and is non-toxic under normal physiological conditions, as the kidneys efficiently regulate and excrete any excess sodium to maintain homeostasis in the body.

57Science and Technology
Which of the following properties is not related to LASER ?
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Answer: (D) High optical activity

Explanation

Optical activity is the physical property of certain chiral substances, such as sugar solutions or quartz, to rotate the plane of polarization of linearly polarized light as it passes through them. This is an intrinsic characteristic of a material medium through which light travels, rather than a property of the laser light source itself.

58Economy
In which form is phosphorus predominantly found in soil ?
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Answer: (A) Orthophosphate

Explanation

Phosphorus in soil is primarily found in the form of orthophosphate. This includes both the soil solution where plant-available phosphorus exists as orthophosphate ions (mainly H₂PO₄⁻ and HPO₄²⁻, depending on the pH of the soil) and the solid-phase inorganic phosphorus present as calcium, iron, or aluminum orthophosphate minerals. Because phosphorus is highly reactive, it does not exist in its elemental form in nature but readily binds with oxygen to form these orthophosphates, which are the fundamental chemical structures of naturally occurring phosphorus in soils.

59Science and Technology
Carbohydrates are not used in :
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Answer: (D) paint industry

Explanation

The paint industry predominantly relies on synthetic resins, polymers, oils, solvents, and pigments to manufacture various paint formulations. Carbohydrates do not serve as primary binders, active constituents, or major raw materials in this sector. Therefore, carbohydrates do not find significant application in the paint industry.

60Science and Technology
Nanotechnology is where particles of the following size are used :
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Answer: (B) 10⁻⁹ ~m

Explanation

Nanotechnology involves the understanding, control, and manipulation of matter at the nanoscale, which generally ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers. One nanometer is equal to one-billionth of a meter, which is mathematically represented as 10⁻⁹ m. At this scale, materials exhibit unique physical, chemical, and biological properties that differ significantly from their bulk counterparts.

61Geography
Siul stream is a tributary of river :
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Answer: (C) Ravi

Explanation

The Siul stream is the largest right-bank tributary of the Ravi river. It originates near the Padri Pass in the Pir Panjal range. The river flows through the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh before merging with the Ravi river downstream of Chamba town. It is predominantly fed by snowmelt and seasonal rainfall, contributing significantly to the overall water volume of the Ravi river basin.

62History
What figure is found on the coins of Audumbara rulers ?
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Answer: (B) Trident

Explanation

The Audumbaras were an ancient tribal republic that inhabited the lower hill regions of Himachal Pradesh, particularly around Kangra, Chamba, and Pathankot. They were staunch followers of Shaivism, and their devotion is highly reflected in their coinage.

The copper and silver coins issued by Audumbara rulers feature distinct Shaivite symbols. A prominent feature on these coins is a multi-storeyed temple structure accompanied by a trident-battleaxe (Trisula) on the side. The trident is a sacred attribute of Lord Shiva, whom the Audumbara rulers revered as Mahadeva. Other common symbols found on their coins include a humped bull, an elephant, a tree-in-railing, and a figure representing Sage Vishwamitra.

63History
Arrange the following authors who wrote about the Himalayan region in correct chronological order : (i) Ptolemy (ii) Chandragomin (iii) Panini (iv) Varahamihira
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Answer: (A) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

Explanation

Panini lived during the 5th century BCE and is famous for his work Astadhyayi, where he described the ancient republics of the Himalayan region, such as Trigarta and Audumbara.

Ptolemy was a Greco-Roman writer and geographer of the 2nd century CE who documented the Himalayan river systems and the Kulindas in his work Geographia.

Chandragomin was a Buddhist grammarian and philosopher of the 5th century CE who composed the Chandra-vyakarana, referencing northern regional groups.

Varahamihira was a polymath of the 6th century CE whose encyclopedic work Brihat Samhita details the geography and tribes of the Himalayas, including the Kulutas of Kullu.

64GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
On the basin of which river is Dodra Kawar situated ?
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Answer: (B) Tons

Explanation

Dodra Kwar is a remote sub-division located in the Shimla district of Himachal Pradesh. This region is situated in the valley of the Rupin River, which flows through the area and separates the twin villages of Dodra and Kwar. The Rupin River is a principal tributary of the Tons River, joining the Supin River at Netwar in Uttarakhand to form the main flow of the Tons River. Because of this direct hydrological connection, the entire Dodra Kwar region lies within the catchment and drainage basin of the Tons River.

65Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
What is the architectural style of Jawahamukhi Temple in Kangra District ?
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Answer: (D) Domed style

Explanation

The Jwalamukhi Temple in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh is constructed in the domed style of temple architecture. This architectural style represents a relatively modern addition to the traditional hill temple designs of the region, heavily influenced by Indo-Sikh and Mughal architectural elements. Characterized by rounded, flat, or elongated domes, the main shrine features a prominent gilt dome and golden spires. This style gained significant popularity and patronage during the 18th and 19th centuries, during which local rulers constructed several such domed structures in the Western Himalayan region.

66GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
In which District of Himachal Pradesh is Surajital lake ?
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Answer: (B) Lahaul and Spiti

Explanation

Suraj Tal lake, also known as Surya Taal, is located in the Lahaul valley of the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh. Situated at an altitude of about 4,883 meters above sea level, it lies just below the Bara-lacha-la pass. The lake is highly revered and serves as the primary source of the Bhaga River, which later joins the Chandra River at Tandi to form the Chandrabhaga (Chenab) River.

67GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which mountain range separates Sirmaur from Shimla ?
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Answer: (A) Choor Chandni

Explanation

The Choor Chandni (also known as Churdhar) mountain range acts as a natural geographic boundary separating the Sirmaur district from the Shimla district in Himachal Pradesh. Reaching an elevation of 3,647 meters, it is the highest peak in the Shivalik range and serves as a major watershed and divide between these two districts.

68HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who founded the Guler state ?
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Answer: (B) Hari Chand

Explanation

Raja Hari Chand of the Katoch dynasty of Kangra founded the Guler state in 1405 CE. According to historical chronicles, Hari Chand fell into a dry well during a hunting expedition and was presumed dead by his subjects, leading to the coronation of his younger brother as the ruler of Kangra. After being rescued by a merchant several days later, Hari Chand chose not to reclaim the Kangra throne to avoid conflict. Instead, he moved to the valley below and established his own independent state of Guler, building his fort and capital at Haripur.

69HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which ruler of Chamba defied Aurangzeb's order to demolish the Hindu temples in his state ?
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Answer: (C) Chatar Singh

Explanation

Raja Chatar Singh (also known as Chhatar Singh), who ruled the princely state of Chamba from 1664 to 1690 AD, famously defied the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb's decree in 1678 AD that ordered the demolition of all major Hindu temples in his territory. Instead of complying with the imperial command, Chatar Singh openly challenged the Mughal authority by ordering the installation of gilded pinnacles and copper-gilt umbrellas on the roofs of Chamba's prominent temples, including the Laxmi Narayan Temple. He subsequently formed a confederacy with neighboring hill chiefs to defend their kingdoms and successfully protected these sacred structures from destruction.

70Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which village Panchayat in Kinnaur District of Himachal Pradesh unanimously elected all women members only, during the December 2010-January 2011 elections ?
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Answer: (A) Kamru

Explanation

During the Panchayati Raj elections held in December 2010 to January 2011, the remote village Panchayat of Kamru, located in the Kalpa block of Kinnaur district in Himachal Pradesh, made history by unanimously electing an all-woman Panchayat. All seven positions, including that of the Pradhan, Up-Pradhan, and five ward members, were filled by women candidates who were elected unopposed. This collective decision by the voters aimed to empower local women and ensure they lead community-driven developmental initiatives.

71GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
In which District of Himachal Pradesh is Uhal Hydroelectric Project located ?
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Answer: (A) Mandi

Explanation

The Uhl Hydroelectric Project is situated in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh, specifically around the Jogindernagar region. The project harnesses the power of the Uhl River, a prominent tributary of the Beas River. It has been developed in successive stages, including the Shanan Power House (Stage-I), Bassi Power House (Stage-II), and Uhl Stage-III, all of which are located in the Mandi district to utilize the hydrological potential of the Uhl River basin.

72GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
According to 2011 Census which District of Himachal Pradesh has the highest sex ratio ?
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Answer: (C) Chamba

Explanation

Among the choices provided, Chamba district has the highest sex ratio according to the 2011 Census of India. The sex ratios of the given districts in Himachal Pradesh are:

Chamba: 986 females per 1000 males Kullu: 942 females per 1000 males Sirmaur (listed as Simmarr): 918 females per 1000 males Lahaul and Spiti: 903 females per 1000 males

73EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
In which year was 'Swarna Jayant Gram Swarozgar Yojana' launched in Himachal Pradesh ?
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Answer: (B) 1999-2000

Explanation

The Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched in Himachal Pradesh, as in the rest of India, on April 1, 1999, corresponding to the financial year 1999-2000. This comprehensive self-employment scheme merged several existing programmes, including the Integrated Rural Development Programme and the Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas. The scheme aims to assist poor families in rural areas to cross the poverty line by organizing them into Self Help Groups, providing them with capacity building, training, credit, technology, and market support to establish sustainable micro-enterprises.

74Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
'Mukhya Mantri Bal Uddhar Yojana' of Himachal Pradesh Government is restricted to children belonging to :
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Answer: (C) BPL families

Explanation

The Mukhya Mantri Bal Uddhar Yojana of the Himachal Pradesh Government is a social welfare initiative designed to provide financial assistance, rehabilitation, education, and career development opportunities to children from economically marginalized backgrounds, specifically restricted to children belonging to Below Poverty Line families.

75HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
To whom was Kangra bestowed as Jagir by Mughal emperor Akbar ?
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Answer: (B) Birbal

Explanation

In 1572 AD, Mughal Emperor Akbar bestowed the territory of Kangra as a jagir to Raja Birbal. After the ruler of Kangra, Raja Jai Chand, was detained by Akbar, his son Bidhi Chand rebelled against the Mughal authority. In response, Akbar sent a large army led by Hussain Quli Khan, the Viceroy of Punjab, along with Birbal, to suppress the rebellion, capture the territory, and establish Birbal's control over the newly assigned jagir.

76HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who commanded the Mughal forces which subdued Kangra fort in 1620 AD ?
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Answer: (D) Nawab Ali Khan

Explanation

In November 1620 AD, the formidable Kangra Fort was successfully subdued and captured by the Mughal forces sent by Emperor Jahangir. The prolonged siege was commanded by Nawab Ali Khan, who was subsequently appointed as the first Mughal Governor of the fort. Under his leadership and with the critical military assistance of Raja Jagat Singh of Nurpur, the Mughal army successfully forced the Katoch garrison inside the fort to surrender. This historic conquest marked the beginning of direct Mughal control over the fort and the surrounding hill states, which lasted until 1783 AD.

77HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who was the Chairman of joint meeting of Shimla Hill States Rulers and Praja Mandal representatives held in January 1948 at Solan ?
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Answer: (D) Durga Singh

Explanation

The joint meeting of the Shimla Hill States Rulers and the Praja Mandal representatives was held from January 26 to 28, 1948, at the historic Darbar Hall in Solan. This conference was convened to discuss the political future and merger of the hill states into the Indian Union. Raja Durga Singh, the ruler of the Baghat State, presided over this assembly as its Chairman. Under his chairmanship, the name "Himachal Pradesh" was proposed and formally agreed upon for the newly integrated province.

78Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which was the main opposition group in the Himachal Pradesh Legislature during 1950s ?
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Answer: (D) Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party

Explanation

In the first legislative assembly elections held in Himachal Pradesh in 1951–1952, the Indian National Congress won a majority with 24 of the 36 seats. The Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party (KMPP) emerged as the largest organized opposition party, winning 3 seats and securing 14.69% of the popular vote, making it the main opposition group in the state legislature during the 1950s.

79Polity and Governance
Who headed the committee of Government of India which recommended the transfer of more subjects to the Territorial Council in 1962 ?
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Answer: (D) Hukam Singh

Explanation

The Hukam Singh Committee, constituted in 1962 by the Government of India, recommended transferring more subjects to the Territorial Councils of Union Territories, including Himachal Pradesh. Hukam Singh, a senior parliamentarian who became Speaker of the Lok Sabha in 1962, chaired this committee; its recommendations directly led to the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963. Ashok K. Sen (option B), though Law Minister at the time, did not head this particular committee.

80EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
With whose assistance is the Himachal Pradesh Government's 'organic farming and water harvesting project' being implemented ?
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Answer: (C) Japan

Explanation

The Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) provides financial and technical assistance to the Himachal Pradesh government for agricultural development, including organic farming and water harvesting. This assistance has been directed through initiatives like the Himachal Pradesh Crop Diversification Promotion Project (HPCDP), which focus on building sustainable minor irrigation and rainwater harvesting systems, expanding organic farming practices, and promoting high-value crop cultivation to improve farmers' income across the state.

81Economy
Indian agriculture has the following features : (1) Dependence of agriculture on the monsoons (2) Abolition of Zamindari (3) Absence of trade unions in the agricultural sector (4) Heavy pressure of population on land Which of the above is responsible for disguised unemployment in agriculture ?
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Answer: (D) (4) alone

Explanation

Heavy pressure of population on land is the primary driver of disguised unemployment in Indian agriculture. Since a large percentage of the population depends on agriculture for their livelihood and alternative employment opportunities in industrial and service sectors are limited, more people are employed on agricultural holdings than are actually required to cultivate them. This excess labor force contributes nothing to the total agricultural output, meaning their marginal productivity is zero, which is the defining characteristic of disguised unemployment.

82Economy
Consider the following taxes : (1) Sales tax (2) Income tax (3) Corporate tax (4) Entertainment tax Which of the above taxes are levied by the State government and not shared by Central Government ?
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Answer: (D) (1) and (4) only

Explanation

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the power to levy taxes is distributed between the Union and the State governments. Sales tax on intra-state trade and entertainment tax fall under the State List (List II). These taxes are levied, collected, and entirely retained by the respective State Governments to finance their expenditures, and they are not shared with the Central Government.

83Economy
Consider the following in relation with Corporate tax : (1) Total turnover of the company (2) Profit after distribution of dividend (3) Profit before distribution of dividend (4) Capital employed in the company Which one of the above is the basis of corporate tax ?
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Answer: (C) (3) alone

Explanation

Corporate tax is a direct tax levied on the net income or profit that a corporation or business generates. This taxable profit is calculated by deducting allowable expenses, such as cost of goods sold, operating expenses, and depreciation, from the gross revenue. Since dividends are a distribution of profits to shareholders after corporate taxes have been calculated, the corporate tax is levied on the company's profit before the distribution of dividends.

84Economy
India is at which of the following stages of Demographic Transition ?
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Answer: (D) Reduction in mortality rate while birth rate continues to be high

Explanation

India is widely placed in Stage 2 of the Demographic Transition Model, where sharp reductions in the mortality rate (due to improved healthcare, sanitation, and nutrition) have occurred while the birth rate has remained comparatively high, producing rapid net population growth. Option D directly captures this defining characteristic of Stage 2: falling death rates alongside persistently high birth rates.

85Economy
Male literacy in the recent Census 2011 has increased to :
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Answer: (C) 81.14%

Explanation

The male literacy rate in India as per Census 2011 was 82.14%; this exact figure does not appear among the options. Option C (81.14%) is confirmed as the accepted answer by official HPAS 2010 solved keys, and is the closest option below the actual value. Option D (83.14%) overshoots the actual figure and is not supported by official answer keys.

86Economy
Which one of the following treaties was not covered by the Uruguay Round Negotiations, which established WTO ?
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Answer: (D) General agreement on Environment Protection

Explanation

The General Agreement on Environment Protection is not a WTO treaty and was not a part of the Uruguay Round Negotiations. The Uruguay Round, which took place from 1986 to 1994 and culminated in the Marrakesh Agreement establishing the World Trade Organization, did not produce or include a dedicated multilateral treaty on environmental protection. While environmental issues are discussed within the WTO framework through its Committee on Trade and Environment, no agreement by this name exists under the WTO.

87Economy
The second largest trade partner of India with their total trade (sum of imports and exports) for the year 2009-2010 is :
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Answer: (B) China

Explanation

For FY 2009-10, the UAE was India's largest bilateral trade partner (total trade approximately USD 43 billion, driven by India's strong merchandise exports to the Gulf), while China ranked second (approximately USD 41–42 billion, dominated by imports of Chinese goods). The United States came third. Hence China was the second largest trade partner by total trade for 2009-10.

88Economy
Which of the following is the highest export-oriented handicrafts (in value terms) in Indian exports ?
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Answer: (A) Gems and Ornaments

Explanation

Gems and Ornaments represent the largest segment in India's export-oriented handicrafts sector in value terms. The sector is highly labor-intensive and employs millions of skilled artisans across India who are involved in the intricate processes of cutting, polishing, and designing traditional and modern jewelry. Due to the high value addition, exquisite craftsmanship, and immense global demand, especially in major markets like the United States, Europe, and the Middle East, gems and ornaments generate the highest export revenue among all handcrafted items exported from India.

89Economy
Consider the following in the context of food inflation in India : (1) Ban on transaction in agricultural products in 'Future Commodities Exchange Market' (2) Restrictions on import of agricultural products (3) Unruly weather conditions (4) Hoarding and Trader Cartel Which of the above are the possible reasons for food inflation ?
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Answer: (C) (3) and (4)

Explanation

Unruly weather conditions, such as droughts, floods, or unseasonal rainfall, disrupt crop cultivation and lead to significant supply-side shortages, which directly spike food prices.

Hoarding and cartelization among traders in wholesale markets artificially restrict the flow of agricultural goods to the market, creating artificial scarcity and leading to a rapid escalation of food prices.

90Economy
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
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Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)-Credit Policy

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India, as the central bank of the country, is the statutory authority responsible for formulating, implementing, and monitoring the monetary and credit policy of India. Through this policy, the central bank regulates the cost, availability, and distribution of credit in the economy to ensure price stability while supporting economic growth. It employs various quantitative instruments, such as the cash reserve ratio, statutory liquidity ratio, repo rate, and open market operations, alongside qualitative measures to control credit expansion and contraction in the financial system.

91Economy
Which one of the following represents at least in part investment in human capital ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Investment in human capital refers to any expenditure or effort directed towards improving the productive capacity, skills, and overall capabilities of the workforce. Formal education builds a strong foundation of literacy, logical thinking, and specialized knowledge, while on-the-job training enhances specific work-related skills and technical proficiency, directly translating to higher productivity in professional environments. Better health care and nutrition ensure that individuals remain healthy, physically fit, and mentally active, which reduces illness, prevents absenteeism, and increases the span of an individual's productive working life. Together, education, training, and health are the core pillars that develop and refine the stock of skills, knowledge, and health attributes in a population.

92Economy
Which one of the following led the Malegam Committee to recommend for interest rate cap for micro-finance institutions ?
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Answer: (B) High interest rate leading to suicides

Explanation

In October 2010, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted a Sub-Committee under the chairmanship of Y.H. Malegam to investigate the issues and concerns surrounding the micro-finance sector. The crisis was triggered by micro-finance institutions (MFIs) charging exorbitant interest rates and using coercive, aggressive recovery methods. This exploitative environment had tragically led to a spate of suicides among heavily indebted rural borrowers, particularly in Andhra Pradesh. To prevent such over-indebtedness and protect vulnerable low-income borrowers, the Malegam Committee recommended a regulatory framework that included a direct cap on the interest rates charged by MFIs.

93Polity and Governance
Consider the following related to Sarva Shiksha Abhiyam (SSA) being implemented in partnership with the States for addressing the needs of children : (1) Enrolment of all children in school (2) Addressing the need of child in the age group of 6-10 (3) Setting up Education Guarantee Centres (EGC), Alternate Schools etc. (4) Bridging of gender and social category gaps in enrolment with retention and learning Which of the above is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) (2) alone

Explanation

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is a flagship program of the Government of India aimed at achieving the universalization of elementary education. The program specifically targets and addresses the needs of children in the age group of 6 to 14 years, in alignment with the fundamental right to free and compulsory education under Article 21A of the Constitution of India. Consequently, statement (2), which limits the age group to 6 to 10 years, is incorrect.

94Science and Technology
Antibodies are found in :
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Answer: (C) Lymphocytes

Explanation

Lymphocytes, specifically B-lymphocytes, are the specialized white blood cells responsible for humoral immunity. When activated by an antigen, B-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells, which synthesize and secrete large quantities of antibodies (immunoglobulins) to identify and neutralize foreign pathogens in the body.

95Science and Technology
Night-blindness is caused by the deficiency of :
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Answer: (A) Vitamin A

Explanation

Vitamin A is a crucial nutrient required for the synthesis of rhodopsin, a light-sensitive photopigment located in the rod cells of the retina. Rod cells are responsible for detecting light under low-illumination conditions. A deficiency in Vitamin A prevents the adequate regeneration of rhodopsin, which directly impairs the eye's ability to adapt to darkness, resulting in the condition known as night-blindness or nyctalopia.

96Science and Technology
Human eye is sensitive to wavelength in the range of :
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Answer: (C) 380-760 nm

Explanation

The human eye is sensitive to electromagnetic radiation within a specific range of wavelengths known as the visible spectrum. This visible light spectrum extends from approximately 380 nm to 760 nm. Light with wavelengths below 380 nm falls into the ultraviolet region, while wavelengths above 760 nm enter the infrared region, both of which are invisible to the unaided human eye. Within this visible range, the human eye perceives different wavelengths as different colors, ranging from violet at the shorter wavelength end near 380 nm to red at the longer wavelength end near 760 nm.

97Geography
The definition of biosphere is :
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Answer: (A) The earth and its atmosphere which is inhabited by living organisms

Explanation

The biosphere represents the global ecological system integrating all living beings and their relationships. It is the zone of life on Earth, encompassing the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere where living organisms exist, interact, and survive. It refers to the entire region of the Earth and its atmosphere that is inhabited by living organisms.

98Geography
Rhododendron is the characteristic vegetation of :
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Answer: (B) Alpine zone

Explanation

Rhododendron is a genus of woody plants characteristic of the alpine and sub-alpine zones. In India, they are extensively distributed throughout the Himalayan region. While taller rhododendron tree species grow in the lower temperate forests, dwarf woody shrubs (such as Rhododendron anthopogon and Rhododendron lepidotum) form the dominant vegetation of the higher-altitude moist alpine scrub and alpine tundra zones, typically thriving in cold, high-altitude climates.

99Geography
Some reliable indicators of pollution are :
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Answer: (C) Lichens and mosses

Explanation

Lichens and mosses are highly reliable bioindicators of environmental pollution, particularly air pollution. Lichens, which are symbiotic associations of fungi and algae, lack a protective outer cuticle and root systems, meaning they absorb water and nutrients directly from the atmosphere. This makes them extremely sensitive to toxic gases, particularly sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and fluorides. In areas with high levels of atmospheric pollution, lichens fail to survive or show significant physiological damage, making their presence, absence, or species composition a direct measure of air quality. Similarly, mosses lack a well-developed vascular system and a cuticle, causing them to absorb moisture and air pollutants across their entire surface. They easily accumulate heavy metals and acidic substances from precipitation and dry deposition, making them excellent tools for monitoring heavy metal pollution and acid rain in an ecosystem.

100History
Gas released during Bhopal gas tragedy was :
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Answer: (D) Methyl isocyanate

Explanation

The Bhopal gas tragedy occurred on the night of December 2 to 3, 1984, at the Union Carbide India Limited pesticide plant in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. The disaster was caused by the accidental release of highly toxic methyl isocyanate (CH₃NCO) gas, which was used as an chemical intermediate in the production of carbamate pesticides like carbaryl. The massive leakage exposed over half a million people to the toxic fumes, leading to thousands of immediate and long-term deaths, making it one of the worst industrial disasters in history.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4A
  5. 5B
  6. 6D
  7. 7D
  8. 8C
  9. 9B
  10. 10D
  11. 11C
  12. 12A
  13. 13B
  14. 14D
  15. 15C
  16. 16A
  17. 17B
  18. 18C
  19. 19D
  20. 20D
  21. 21B
  22. 22B
  23. 23C
  24. 24B
  25. 25C
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28B
  29. 29C
  30. 30B
  31. 31D
  32. 32B
  33. 33D
  34. 34D
  35. 35C
  36. 36B
  37. 37A
  38. 38C
  39. 39C
  40. 40A
  41. 41D
  42. 42C
  43. 43C
  44. 44C
  45. 45D
  46. 46B
  47. 47B
  48. 48C
  49. 49C
  50. 50D
  51. 51D
  52. 52D
  53. 53A
  54. 54C
  55. 55A
  56. 56D
  57. 57D
  58. 58A
  59. 59D
  60. 60B
  61. 61C
  62. 62B
  63. 63A
  64. 64B
  65. 65D
  66. 66B
  67. 67A
  68. 68B
  69. 69C
  70. 70A
  71. 71A
  72. 72C
  73. 73B
  74. 74C
  75. 75B
  76. 76D
  77. 77D
  78. 78D
  79. 79D
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82D
  83. 83C
  84. 84D
  85. 85C
  86. 86D
  87. 87B
  88. 88A
  89. 89C
  90. 90B
  91. 91D
  92. 92B
  93. 93B
  94. 94C
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97A
  98. 98B
  99. 99C
  100. 100D

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