HPAS2018General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

HPAS Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 100 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

100
Questions
6
Subjects
14
Himachal Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography2121%
  • Economy1919%
  • Polity and Governance1818%
  • History1717%
  • Science and Technology1717%
  • Art and Culture88%
1HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
In which year Swiss envoy W.P. Blazer put up a sign board, which formally and officially, declared Khajjiar as 'Mini Switzerland' ?
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Answer: (A) 7th July, 1992

Explanation

On 7th July, 1992, the Swiss envoy Willy P. Blazer, who was serving as the Vice-Counselor and Head of Chancery of Switzerland in India, officially declared the hill station of Khajjiar in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh as Mini Switzerland. He installed a yellow Swiss hiking footpath signboard at the location, which showed the distance from Khajjiar to the Swiss capital of Bern as 6194 km. This recognition made Khajjiar the 160th tourist destination worldwide to receive this title due to its striking topographical and scenic resemblance to Switzerland.

2GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (i) Kiara-dun Valley | (a) Dhualadhar and Shivalik Range | | (ii) Balh Valley | (b) Markanda and Dharti Ranges | | (iii) Kangra Valley | (c) Shimla Ridge and Shivalik Hills | | (iv) Bara Bhangal Valley | (d) Dhualadhar and Pir Panjal Ranges | Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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Answer: (B) (b) (c) (a) (d)

Explanation

Kiara-dun Valley, also known as the Paonta Valley, lies in the south-eastern corner of the Sirmaur district, situated precisely between the Markanda and Dharti mountain ranges.

Balh Valley, also known as the Sundernagar Valley in the Mandi district, is a broad, open, dun-type valley nestled between an offshoot of the Shimla Ridge in the north and the Shivalik Hills in the south.

Kangra Valley is an extensive, fertile valley located in the Western Himalayas, stretching predominantly between the towering Dhauladhar range in the north and the lower Shivalik hills in the south.

Bara Bhangal Valley is an extremely remote, isolated Gaddi shepherd region located at the northern tip of the Kangra district, positioned deep within the Ravi river valley between the Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal mountain ranges.

3GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which of the following Himalayan Zone has the highest 36½ percentage of total geographical area of H.P. ?
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Answer: (C) Lower Himalayan Zone

Explanation

The Lower Himalayan Zone, encompassing the major districts of Mandi, Kangra, Shimla, Solan, and parts of Chamba, constitutes approximately 36.5% of Himachal Pradesh's total geographical area of 55,673 sq. km. This is the highest single-zone coverage at the 36½% figure cited in standard HP geography textbooks. The Sub-Himalayan (Shivalik) Zone is the smallest of the zones and cannot account for 36.5%.

4Art and Culture
'Chola and Dora' are the popular traditional dress of which of the following tribes ?
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Answer: (C) Gaddi

Explanation

The Gaddi tribe, primarily residing in the Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal mountain ranges of Himachal Pradesh, traditionally wears the chola and dora.

The chola is a loose, knee-length woolen coat or gown made from hand-spun white wool. The dora is a long, black rope made of sheep's wool, typically 15 to 20 meters in length, which is wrapped tightly around the waist to secure the chola. The fold of the chola above the dora forms a large pocket or pouch, which Gaddi shepherds use to carry essential items, food, and even newborn lambs during their long migrations.

5Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (i) Swangla | (a) Pith-Chuk or Chori | | (ii) Gaddi | (b) Phaktum or Phanktum | | (iii) Khampa | (c) Jhanjara | | (iv) Pangwal | (d) Rusa-te-byah | ## Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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Answer: (A) (d) (c) (b) (a)

Explanation

The correct matches between the tribes of Himachal Pradesh and their respective marriage customs are:

Swangla - Rusa-te-byah: Rusa-te-byah is a traditional marriage by elopement practiced within the Swangla tribal community of Lahaul and Spiti.

Gaddi - Jhanjara: Jhanjara is a recognized form of marriage custom, often involving a simpler or secondary ceremony, prevalent among the Gaddi tribe.

Khampa - Phaktum or Phanktum: Phaktum refers to the traditional negotiated marriage custom among the Khampa tribe where the union is arranged by an intermediary.

Pangwal - Pith-Chuk or Chori: Pith-Chuk or Chori is a distinctive form of marriage by capture or consensual elopement traditional to the Pangwal community of the Pangi Valley.

6HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
In 'Vayu Purana', the following tribe is said to be the inhabitants of 'Mahand Mountains' ?
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Answer: (D) Kinnauras

Explanation

According to ancient Hindu scriptures and Puranic mythology, the Kinnauras (or Kinners) are a distinct race of people mentioned as divine or semi-divine beings. In the Vayu Purana, they are specifically described as the inhabitants of the Mahand (or Mahanand) Mountains. They are also referenced in other ancient texts, such as the Mahabharata where they are grouped with the Gandharvas, and the Matsya Purana which connects them to the Yakshas and Kiratas.

7GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Out of total 55673 sq. km. geographical area of H.P., what is the area, which falls in scheduled area ?
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Answer: (A) 23655 sq. km.

Explanation

The scheduled area of Himachal Pradesh covers 23,655 sq. km., which constitutes approximately 42.49% of the state's total geographical area of 55,673 sq. km. This area is designated under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. It comprises the entire districts of Kinnaur and Lahaul-Spiti, as well as the Pangi and Bharmour subdivisions of Chamba district. These regions are characterized by a predominantly tribal population, remote and rugged mountainous terrain, and unique cultural traditions that receive special administrative protection.

8Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which is the earliest specimen of 'Nagara design' found in H.P. ?
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Answer: (A) Bajaura Temple

Explanation

The Basheshar Mahadev Temple at Bajaura in the Kullu district, dated to approximately the 7th–8th century CE, is consistently identified in HP heritage and archaeological literature as the earliest surviving specimen of constructed Nagara-style temple architecture in Himachal Pradesh. The Masrur structures are monolithic rock-cut excavations, not free-standing Nagara temples, and therefore do not qualify as the earliest Nagara design specimen.

9Art and Culture
The 'Basholi School of Painting' came into prominence from the time of :
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Answer: (A) Raja Kirpal Pal

Explanation

The Basholi School of Painting, which is the earliest known school of Pahari miniature painting, came into prominence under the patronage of Raja Kirpal Pal (who ruled from 1678 to 1693). During his reign, the school developed its distinctive artistic style, characterized by the use of vibrant primary colors, bold lines, expressive faces with large lotus-shaped eyes, and beetle-wing fragments to depict glistening jewelry. One of the most famous works created under his patronage was the illustrated manuscript of Bhanudatta's Rasamanjari, painted by the artist Devi Das in 1694.

10GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which of the following national parks/sanctuaries of H.P. occupies 1171 sq. km. of area ?
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Answer: (B) The Great Himalayan National Park

Explanation

The Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP), located in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh, spans a total area of 1171 square kilometers. Established in 1984, the park contains a diverse range of altitude zones ranging from 1500 to 6000 meters, supporting highly rich Western Himalayan biodiversity. In June 2014, the Great Himalayan National Park was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in recognition of its outstanding significance for biodiversity conservation.

11Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
The Govt. of H.P. has changed the name of 'Kanya Sashaktikaran and Kalyan Board Himachal Pradesh' to that of :
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Answer: (C) Saksham Gudia Board, H.P.

Explanation

The Government of Himachal Pradesh renamed the Kanya Sashaktikaran and Kalyan Board Himachal Pradesh to Saksham Gudia Board, H.P. The board was reconstituted with the key objectives of making recommendations to empower girl children and adolescent girls, and reviewing laws, policies, and programmes related to their safety, security, and protection. The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Directorate of Women and Child Development serve as the nodal departments for this board.

12HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
The stone inscriptions found in the Chamba region have mostly been written in which script ?
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Answer: (B) Sharda and Tankri

Explanation

The stone inscriptions found in the Chamba region, which represent a significant archaeological source of regional history, have mostly been written in the Sharda and Tankri scripts. Chamba has yielded the highest number of ancient inscriptions in Himachal Pradesh, totaling around 36 major records. These inscriptions include rock inscriptions, fountain slabs, and temple inscriptions, which were primarily recorded in Sharda from the 9th to 14th centuries, and subsequently in Tankri, an offshoot of Sharda used as the official administrative script in the hill states.

13History
Who was the signatory for East India Company in the Treaty of Sugaudi ?
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Answer: (C) Lt. Col. Paris Bradshaw

Explanation

The Treaty of Sugauli was drafted and signed on December 2, 1815, and ratified on March 4, 1816, establishing the boundary line between British India and the Kingdom of Nepal after the Anglo-Nepalese War of 1814–1816. Lieutenant Colonel Paris Bradshaw was the official signatory who signed the treaty on behalf of the British East India Company, while Raj Guru Gajaraj Mishra and Chandra Shekhar Upadhyaya signed on behalf of Nepal.

14GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
'Lanjī', 'Saro' and 'Rajnagar' in Chamba district are the centres for development of the following :
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Answer: (C) Olive

Explanation

The Department of Horticulture in Himachal Pradesh identified specific regions suitable for olive cultivation, particularly under bilateral development programs such as the Indo-Italian Olive Project. To systematically promote olive growing, propagate high-quality planting material, and conduct field demonstrations, three dedicated Olive Development Centres were established in the Chamba district at Lanji, Saro, and Rajnagar. These centres leverage the regional climate and loamy soils of the Chamba valley to foster olive production and assist local farmers with technical guidance.

15EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
What amount of hydro-power has been harnessed out of 27436 MW identified potential in H.P. ?
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Answer: (C) 10519 MW

Explanation

According to the Himachal Pradesh Economic Survey 2017-2018, the state possesses an estimated total identified hydropower potential of 27,436 MW across its five major river basins: Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej, and Yamuna. Out of this total potential, approximately 24,000 MW is classified as harnessable. Up to that period, a total capacity of 10,519 MW had been successfully harnessed under various public, central, and private sectors, which constitutes about 38.34% of the state's overall identified potential.

16Polity and Governance
Under which scheme all women in the age group of 10 to 75 years, living below poverty line are covered, in case of their death or disability ?
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Answer: (A) Matri Shakti Bima Yojna

Explanation

The Matri Shakti Bima Yojana is a social security scheme launched by the Government of Himachal Pradesh in September 2000 to provide financial support to women from Below Poverty Line families. Under this scheme, all women in the age group of 10 to 75 years are provided insurance coverage. It offers financial assistance to the insured woman or her dependents in the event of her death or permanent disability caused by accidents, surgical complications during sterilization, mishaps during childbirth, drowning, landslides, floods, or snakebites. The scheme also provides financial relief to a married woman in the event of her husband's accidental death.

17Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which of the following has been declared as public service by State Govt. under H.P. Public Service Guarantee Act, 2011 ?
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Answer: (C) Soil Testing

Explanation

The Government of Himachal Pradesh notified Soil Testing as a public service under Section 3 of the Himachal Pradesh Public Service Guarantee Act, 2011. Under this notification, the designated Soil Testing Officer of the area is required to process and deliver the soil test results or Soil Health Cards to the applicant within a stipulated time limit of 60 days. This inclusion ensures the time-bound delivery of soil analysis to help farmers determine soil nutrient levels and optimize fertilizer usage.

18Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
Arrange the following with its correct combination and accordingly give answer as per codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (i) Gaiety Theatre | (a) Samual Evans Stokes | | (ii) Kalka-Shimla Railway | (b) Mortimer Durand | | (iii) Satyakam | (c) H.S. Harrington | | (iv) Old Shimla Bank | (d) Henry Irwin | | | (e) Messors Barrett | Co. | ## Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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Answer: (C) (d) (c) (a) (e)

Explanation

Gaiety Theatre (i) was designed by the renowned British architect Henry Irwin (d) in the Gothic style and opened in 1887.

Kalka-Shimla Railway (ii) was constructed under the supervision of Chief Engineer H.S. Harrington (c), under whose guidance major landmarks like the Barog Tunnel were completed.

Satyakam (iii) is a philosophical book written by Samuel Evans Stokes (a), who is well-known for transforming the economy of the Himachal hills by introducing commercial apple cultivation.

Old Shimla Bank (iv) was the first banking institution established in Shimla in 1844 by Messrs Barrett | Co. (e).

This aligns perfectly with the sequence (d) (c) (a) (e).

19Art and Culture
'Black Nude', 'Sitting Nude' and 'Young Girls' are some of the famous works of which artist ?
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Answer: (B) Amrita Shergil

Explanation

Amrita Sher-Gil (1913–1941) was an eminent Hungarian-Indian painter and a pioneer of modern Indian art. During her formative years of training at the École des Beaux-Arts in Paris between 1929 and 1934, she produced several significant academic works, including Black Nude, Sitting Nude, and Young Girls. Her masterpiece Young Girls (1932) earned her widespread critical acclaim and led to her election as an Associate of the Grand Salon in Paris in 1933, making her the youngest artist and the only Asian to receive this prestigious honor.

20History
The important decision to invade Afghanistan in 1938 and after four years the same decision was criticised at Shimla by the British was taken in the :
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Answer: (B) Auckland House

Explanation

The decision to invade Afghanistan was formalized through the historic Simla Manifesto, which was signed on October 1, 1838, by the Governor-General of India, Lord Auckland. This manifesto was issued from his residence in Shimla, known as the Auckland House. The military campaign, which marked the beginning of the First Anglo-Afghan War, ended in a disastrous defeat for the British forces. Exactly four years later, in October 1842, the decision was severely criticized, and a subsequent proclamation of withdrawal and peace was signed under Lord Ellenborough.

21Science and Technology
Who has been awarded 2018 Einstein Prize ?
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Answer: (A) Abhay Ashtekar

Explanation

Abhay Ashtekar, an eminent Indian-American theoretical physicist, was awarded the Einstein Prize by the American Physical Society in recognition of his outstanding accomplishments in gravitational physics. He was honored for his numerous and seminal contributions to general relativity, which include developing the theory of black holes, canonical quantum gravity, and quantum cosmology. He is famously known for introducing Ashtekar variables, a reformulation of general relativity that laid the foundation for the theory of loop quantum gravity.

22Polity and Governance
'eDrishti' software is launched to facilitate :
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Answer: (B) To help railway minister to keep track of punctuality of trains

Explanation

The eDrishti software was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS) and launched in 2018 to facilitate the Union Railway Minister and key railway officials in monitoring railway operations. The software functions as a comprehensive digital dashboard that provides real-time information and analytics on various critical parameters, most notably the daily punctuality of passenger and freight trains. In addition to train schedules and punctuality monitoring, the platform tracks financial earnings, project implementation, and live feeds from IRCTC base kitchens to ensure cleanliness and service quality.

23Science and Technology
Which of the following won the Fields Medal in Mathematics ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The Fields Medal, officially known as the International Medal for Outstanding Discoveries in Mathematics, is awarded every four years to exceptionally talented mathematicians under forty years of age. At the International Congress of Mathematicians held in Rio de Janeiro in 2018, four mathematicians were decorated with this prestigious honor. The recipients of the 2018 Fields Medal were Akshay Venkatesh, Caucher Birkar, Peter Scholze, and Alessio Figalli, making all the listed individuals laureates of the award.

24Science and Technology
In 2018, which of the following has been awarded Nobel Prize in Chemistry ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The 2018 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded to Frances H. Arnold, George P. Smith, and Sir Gregory P. Winter for their revolutionary work in harnessing the power of evolution. Frances Arnold was awarded one-half of the prize for her pioneering research on the directed evolution of enzymes, which has enabled the green manufacture of chemical substances like pharmaceuticals and renewable fuels. George Smith and Gregory Winter shared the other half of the prize for their development of phage display, a method where a bacteriophage is used to evolve new proteins and antibodies, leading to breakthrough treatments for autoimmune diseases and metastatic cancer.

25Polity and Governance
Who is appointed as Chairman, Competition Commission of India ?
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Answer: (B) Ashok Kumar Gupta

Explanation

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet approved the appointment of former IAS officer Ashok Kumar Gupta as the Chairman of the Competition Commission of India in November 2018. A 1981-batch IAS officer of the Tamil Nadu cadre, he succeeded Devender Kumar Sikri and was appointed to lead the fair trade regulator for a term until he attained the age of 65 years.

26Economy
Which state in India was given FAO's Future Policy Award, 2018 for its 100% organic state ?
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Answer: (C) Sikkim

Explanation

Sikkim won the prestigious Future Policy Gold Award in 2018, co-organized by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, the World Future Council, and IFOAM - Organics International. Often referred to as the Oscar for best policies, the award recognized Sikkim's State Policy on Organic Farming (2004) and the Sikkim Organic Mission (2010), which enabled it to become the first 100% organic state in the world. The state-level policy successfully phased out chemical fertilizers and pesticides, achieving a total ban on their sale and use while transitioning all of its farmland to certified organic status.

27Polity and Governance
What is QUAD ?
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Answer: (A) It is an informal mechanism between India, USA, Australia and Japan for the security in Pacific Region.

Explanation

The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, known as the Quad, is an informal strategic forum maintained by talks, information exchanges, and joint military exercises between India, the United States, Australia, and Japan. Initiated in 2007 and actively revived in 2017, the partnership is not a formal military alliance or structured treaty-based organization. Instead, it serves as an informal cooperative mechanism focused on ensuring maritime security, freedom of navigation, and a free, open, and prosperous Indo-Pacific region, addressing common security challenges in the Pacific and Indian Oceans.

28Economy
What is Blue economy ?
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Answer: (B) It is sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth

Explanation

The blue economy represents the sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of ocean ecosystems. As defined by international organizations like the World Bank, it integrates economic development, social inclusion, and environmental sustainability in ocean-based sectors such as fisheries, maritime transport, tourism, and renewable energy.

29History
ASI is undertaking renovation of which three temple groups in Vietnam ?
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Answer: (B) My Son Temple

Explanation

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is undertaking the conservation and restoration of the My Son Sanctuary, an ancient Hindu temple complex in the Quang Nam province of Vietnam. Built between the 4th and 13th centuries CE by the Champa Kingdom, the UNESCO World Heritage Site comprises several temple groups. Under a bilateral developmental partnership between India and Vietnam, the ASI has successfully carried out extensive preservation and restoration works across three major temple groups at this site, namely groups A, H, and K.

30Art and Culture
Where is the Nongkrem dance festival being celebrated ?
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Answer: (C) Meghalaya

Explanation

The Nongkrem dance festival, also known as Ka Pomblang Nongkrem, is an annual five-day religious festival celebrated by the Khasi tribe of Meghalaya. It takes place at Smit, the cultural headquarters of the Khyrim Syiemship near Shillong, to thank the almighty Goddess Ka Blei Synshar for a bountiful harvest, peace, and prosperity for the community. The celebration is marked by traditional dances performed by young men and women in exquisite ethnic attire.

31Polity and Governance
Who has been awarded 2018 Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development ?
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Answer: (D) Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)

Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 2018 was awarded to the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE).

The New Delhi-based independent research and advocacy think tank was selected for its pioneering work over nearly four decades in environmental education, protection, and sustainability. The international jury, chaired by former President Pranab Mukherjee, recognized CSE for its steadfast advocacy in combating environmental degradation, influencing public policies to benefit socio-economic development, and keeping environmental issues at the forefront of the national public consciousness.

32Economy
What is the theme of International Energy Agency's publication — World Energy Outlook, 2018 ?
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Answer: (C) Electricity

Explanation

The International Energy Agency dedicated a major portion of its flagship publication, the World Energy Outlook 2018, to a special focus on electricity. The report highlighted that the global energy system is undergoing a major transformation towards electrification, with global electricity demand projected to grow at twice the pace of energy demand as a whole. It examined how low-carbon technologies are reshaping the power sector, how governments can ensure reliable electricity supply and incentivize investment, and introduced the Future is Electric Scenario to explore the expanding share of electricity in final energy consumption, especially in transport, residential, and industrial sectors.

33Science and Technology
What is the name of first microprocessor developed by IIT, Madras ?
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Answer: (A) Shakti

Explanation

Shakti is the first indigenous industrial-grade microprocessor designed and developed in India by the Reconfigurable Intelligent Systems Engineering group at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras. Developed as an open-source initiative, the processor is based on the RISC-V Instruction Set Architecture. It was created to reduce the country's dependency on imported microchips and to mitigate cybersecurity risks in the communications, defence, and consumer electronics sectors.

34History
Recently USA announced its withdrawal from INF treaty with Russia. When was this treaty signed ?
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Answer: (B) 1987

Explanation

The Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty was signed on December 8, 1987, by US President Ronald Reagan and Soviet General Secretary Mikhail Gorbachev. This landmark arms control treaty banned all ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles with ranges between 500 and 5,500 kilometers, marking a major step forward in de-escalating Cold War tensions and reducing nuclear arsenals.

35Economy
What do you mean by Mariculture ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Mariculture represents a specialized branch of aquaculture dedicated to cultivating marine organisms rather than freshwater ones. It encompasses the cultivation of marine plants, such as seaweed, and marine animals, including fish and shellfish. Because these cultivation activities take place in open oceans, estuaries, or coastal areas, they are directly associated with water bodies experiencing tidal influences. These tides provide essential water circulation, nutrient supply, and waste dispersal for the cultured organisms.

36Economy
Which are the projects selected by World Economic Forum to be launched as Centre for Fourth Industrial Revolution in India ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The World Economic Forum (WEF) launched the Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR) in India in October 2018. Headquartered in Maharashtra, the centre operates in collaboration with NITI Aayog to co-design policy frameworks for emerging technologies.

For its launch, the centre selected three primary focus areas for its pilot projects: Drones: Focused on mapping, disaster management, and supply delivery, particularly within the agriculture sector. Blockchain: Aimed at utilizing distributed ledger technology and smart contracts to boost transparency and efficiency. Artificial Intelligence: Designed to expand data access to enhance outcomes in key socio-economic sectors like healthcare and education.

37Geography
Where is Banni Grassland situated ?
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Answer: (A) Gujarat

Explanation

The Banni Grassland Reserve is situated along the southern edge of the Rann of Kutch in the Kutch district of Gujarat. Spanning over an area of approximately 3,847 square kilometres, it is one of the largest and finest natural grasslands in the Indian subcontinent. Formed by the alluvial deposition from the Indus and other Himalayan rivers over thousands of years, the grassland is home to rich biodiversity, unique seasonal wetlands, and the traditional pastoralist communities known as Maldharis, who breed the highly resilient Banni buffalo.

38Geography
Match List-I and List-II and give correct answer with the help of codes given below : | List-I (Country) | List-II (Time Zones) | |---|---| | (i) France | (1) 11 | | (ii) USA | (2) 12 | | (iii) South Africa | (3) 09 | | (iv) UK | (4) 02 | Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
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Answer: (C) (2) (1) (4) (3)

Explanation

France, along with its overseas territories, spans 12 different time zones, which is the highest number of time zones for any country. The United States of America possesses 11 time zones, including those of its fifty states and its inhabited and uninhabited overseas territories. South Africa has 2 time zones, representing the South African Standard Time on the mainland (UTC+2) and the Prince Edward Islands in the sub-Antarctic Indian Ocean (UTC+3). The United Kingdom has 9 time zones when including all of its various overseas territories located across the globe.

39Polity and Governance
UN observes which day as International Rural Women's Day ?
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Answer: (C) 15 October

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly established 15 October as the International Day of Rural Women through its resolution 62/136 on 18 December 2007. First officially observed on 15 October 2008, this day recognizes the critical role and contribution of rural women, including indigenous women, in enhancing agricultural and rural development, improving food security, and eradicating rural poverty worldwide.

40Art and Culture
"Bathukamma" festival is related to :
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Bathukamma is a vibrant floral festival celebrated by the women of Telangana, symbolizing the state's cultural identity. In Telugu, Bathukamma translates to Mother Goddess, come alive, representing the celebration of life and femininity. During the nine-day festivities, colorful local seasonal flowers are arranged in beautiful concentric layers to worship the goddess. In October 2018, the Parliament of New South Wales in Sydney, Australia, hosted the celebration of the festival for the first time, bringing together members of the local Telugu diaspora and Australian parliamentarians to celebrate Telangana's ethnic heritage.

41Polity and Governance
Who propounded the idea of Partyless democracy ?
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Answer: (D) Jai Prakash Narayan

Explanation

Jayaprakash Narayan propounded the concept of partyless democracy, advocating for Lokniti (politics of the people) over Rajniti (politics of power). He believed that the system of political parties creates division, encourages corruption, and distances power from the common citizens. Instead, he envisioned a decentralized democracy where power flows from the grassroots level upward, starting with village assemblies (Gram Sabhas) making decisions collectively without party lines, ultimately leading to a participatory and self-governing society.

42Polity and Governance
By which Act an element of election was introduced in India for the first time ?
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Answer: (B) Indian Council Act, 1892

Explanation

The Indian Councils Act of 1892 introduced an element of election in India for the first time, although the word election was not explicitly used in the text of the act. It authorized the nomination of some non-official members to both the central and provincial legislative councils on the recommendation of specific bodies, such as district boards, municipalities, universities, zamindars, and chambers of commerce. This recommendation process effectively served as an indirect system of election, marking the initial step toward representative governance in British India.

43History
Match the items in List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Drain of wealth theory | (1) C.R. Das | | (b) Swaraj as my birth right | (2) Moh. Ali Jinnah | | (c) Separate Communal electorate | (3) B.G. Tilak | | (d) Entry into legislation | (4) Dadabhai Naoroji | | | (5) Subhash Chandra Bose | Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (4) (3) (2) (1)

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji propounded the Drain of wealth theory to explain how India's wealth and resources were systematically siphoned off to Britain without any equivalent economic return.

Bal Gangadhar Tilak coined and popularized the powerful slogan Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it to inspire the masses during the Indian national movement.

Muhammad Ali Jinnah championed the demand for separate communal electorates to ensure distinct political representation for Muslims in the legislative bodies.

Chittaranjan Das, as a co-founder of the Swaraj Party, advocated for entry into legislative councils to oppose British policies and obstruct government machinery from within.

44Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and identify the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (I) Formation of Village Panchayat | (1) Article 50 | | (II) Uniform Civil Code | (2) Article 48 | | (III) Agriculture and Animal Husbandry | (3) Article 40 | | (IV) Separation of Judiciary from Executive | (4) Article 44 | Codes : (I) (II) (III) (IV)
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Answer: (A) (3) (4) (2) (1)

Explanation

The provisions mentioned in List-I are fundamental principles under the Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution of India.

Article 40 directs the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Article 44 directs the State to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.

Article 48 directs the State to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.

Article 50 directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

45Polity and Governance
What constitute definition of Money Bill under Article 110 of Indian Constitution ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Under Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India, a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with certain specified financial matters. These matters explicitly include the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. They also encompass the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, as well as the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India and the appropriation of moneys out of this fund.

46Polity and Governance
Under which Article of Indian Constitution amendment process has been given ?
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Answer: (C) 368

Explanation

Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution of India grants Parliament the power to amend the Constitution and details the procedure for doing so. Under this article, Parliament can add, vary, or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the prescribed procedure, subject to the limitation that it cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution.

47Polity and Governance
Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to 15 per cent of the total members of the Lok Sabha ?
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Answer: (C) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003

Explanation

The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, restricted the size of the Council of Ministers to prevent excessively large cabinets and ensure administrative efficiency. This amendment inserted Article 75(1A) into the Constitution of India, which stipulates that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Union Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha. A similar provision was also added under Article 164(1A) for the States, limiting the size of the State Council of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, to 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly, with a minimum threshold of 12 ministers.

48Polity and Governance
What is the security deposit amount which a candidate contests election for the posts of President and Vice-President of India has to tender ?
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Answer: (D) Rs. 15,000 each

Explanation

According to the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952, as amended in 1997, a candidate contesting the election for the office of the President of India as well as the Vice-President of India is required to make a security deposit of ₹15,000. This sum must be deposited either in cash with the Returning Officer at the time of filing the nomination paper, or by enclosing a receipt showing that the said sum has been deposited by the candidate or on their behalf in the Reserve Bank of India or in a government treasury. The security deposit is forfeited if the candidate fails to secure more than one-sixth of the valid votes cast in the election.

49Polity and Governance
Which Article of Indian Constitution mention about President's power of pardon ?
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Answer: (C) Article 72

Explanation

Article 72 of the Constitution of India empowers the President of India to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence. This judicial power of the President is an executive power that extends to all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial, in all cases where the sentence is for an offence against a Union law, and in all cases where the sentence is a death sentence.

50Polity and Governance
Financial emergency under Article 360 has been imposed in India in the year :
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Article 360 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to proclaim a financial emergency if they are satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or of any part of its territory is threatened. To date, a financial emergency has never been declared or imposed in India, even during the severe balance of payments crisis in 1991.

51History
Who was Taluqdar ?
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Answer: (B) A large landlord

Explanation

A taluqdar was a prominent landholder and revenue collector in medieval and British India, particularly in regions like Awadh and Bengal. The term is derived from the Arabic word taluq, meaning connection or estate, and the Persian suffix dar, meaning possessor. Taluqdars held vast estates comprising several villages and were responsible for collecting land revenue on behalf of the state, effectively functioning as large landlords who wielded significant social, political, and economic power over their territories.

52History
Which Congress Session supported the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement for Bengal in 1905 ?
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Answer: (D) Benaras

Explanation

The Benaras session of the Indian National Congress, held in December 1905, was presided over by Gopal Krishna Gokhale. This session formally resolved to support the Swadeshi and Boycott Movement for Bengal in protest against the partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon earlier that year. The Congress leadership endorsed the call for boycotting foreign goods and promoting indigenous industries, marking a significant step in the early nationalist struggle against British colonial policies.

53History
Who chartered the ship Komagatu Maru for taking the Indians to Vancouver ?
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Answer: (A) Hardit Singh

Explanation

Baba Gurdit Singh chartered the Japanese steamship S.S. Komagata Maru in April 1914 to transport Indian passengers to Vancouver. The voyage was organized to challenge the discriminatory Canadian immigration laws, particularly the Continuous Journey regulation, which effectively barred Indians from entering Canada. The vessel carrying 376 passengers arrived in Vancouver in May 1914 but was forced to return to India after a two-month-long standoff with Canadian authorities.

54History
Consider the following GovernorGenerals and arrange them in chronological order by choosing the correct code : (i) Lord Lytton (ii) Lord Curzon (iii) John Lawrence (iv) Lord Dufferin Codes :
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Answer: (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Explanation

Sir John Lawrence served as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1864 to 1869. Lord Lytton followed later, holding office from 1876 to 1880. Lord Dufferin then served as the Viceroy from 1884 to 1888. Lord Curzon served much later, from 1899 to 1905. This places the administrators in the correct chronological order of John Lawrence (iii), Lord Lytton (i), Lord Dufferin (iv), and Lord Curzon (ii).

55History
The President of the Moderate faction of Congress Session in Lucknow (1916), who welcomed Tilak and his supporters back into the Congress, was :
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Answer: (A) Ambika Charan Mazumdar

Explanation

Ambika Charan Mazumdar presided over the Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress in 1916. This session witnessed the historic reunification of the Moderate and Extremist wings of the Congress, which had split at the Surat session in 1907. As the president, Mazumdar welcomed Bal Gangadhar Tilak and his group back into the party, marking a significant step toward national unity and reinforcing the national movement.

56History
As a compromise with the planters, Gandhi agreed that they refund the money they had taken illegally from the peasants. What percentage was being refunded by them ?
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Answer: (D) 25%

Explanation

During the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, Mahatma Gandhi agreed to a compromise where the European planters would refund 25% of the money they had illegally extorted from the peasants. Gandhi accepted this 25% refund because he believed that the monetary value of the refund was secondary to the symbolic defeat of the planters. Forcing the landlords to surrender a portion of their money also meant forcing them to surrender their prestige and authority over the peasants, which effectively broke the fear of the British planters and paved the way for the eventual abolition of the exploitative tinkathia system.

57History
In whose Viceroyalty, Gandhi launched the Individual Satyagraha and the Quit India Movement and the Cripps Mission arrived in India ?
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Answer: (B) Marquess of Linlithgo

Explanation

Lord Linlithgow served as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1936 to 1943, which was the longest tenure in this position. Under his administration, several pivotal events of the Indian national movement occurred. Mahatma Gandhi initiated the Individual Satyagraha in October 1940 to protest against India being dragged into World War II without the consent of its people. In March 1942, the Cripps Mission led by Sir Stafford Cripps arrived in India with constitutional proposals to secure Indian cooperation in the war effort. Following the failure of this mission, Gandhi launched the historic Quit India Movement in August 1942, demanding an immediate end to British rule.

58History
Who says that if the religion does not sanction social reforms, it should be changed as it is man-made ?
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Answer: (A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh

Explanation

Gopal Hari Deshmukh, widely known by his pen name Lokhitawadi, was a pioneer of social and religious reform in Maharashtra. He advocated for a thorough reorganization of Indian society based on rational, modern, and secular values. In his writings, particularly in the collection of letters titled Shatapatre published in the weekly Prabhakar, he attacked religious orthodoxy and argued that religion is a human creation. He asserted that if a religion does not sanction social reform to eliminate social evils, then that religion itself should be changed.

59Geography
Which theory/concept on the "Origin of Monsoon" states that the "monsoons are produced due to differential heating of continents and ocean basins"?
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Answer: (B) Thermal concept of Halley

Explanation

The Thermal Concept of Monsoon was propounded by Sir Edmund Halley in 1686. According to this classical theory, monsoons are essentially land and sea breezes on a gigantic, seasonal scale. It states that monsoons are produced due to the differential heating and cooling of continental landmasses and the surrounding ocean basins. During summer, the landmass heats up rapidly compared to the ocean, creating a thermal low-pressure area over land and driving moist, high-pressure oceanic winds towards the continent. Conversely, during winter, the land cools faster than the ocean, establishing a high-pressure zone on land that blows cold, dry winds back towards the sea.

60Geography
Arrange the following soil types of India from high to low in terms of percent share in total area : (a) Black Soil (b) Red Soil (c) Laterite Soil (d) Desert Soil Select the correct code :
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Answer: (C) (b) - (a) - (d) - (c)

Explanation

According to the Indian Council of Agricultural Research, the major soil types of India occupy distinct percentage shares of the total geographical area. Red Soil (b) is the second most abundant soil type in India, covering approximately 18.5% of the total area. Black Soil (a) occupies about 15% of the total area, primarily across the Deccan Plateau. Desert Soil (d) constitutes around 4.4% of the land area, mainly found in the arid tracts of western India. Laterite Soil (c) accounts for about 3.7% of the total area, developing in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. Therefore, the correct sequence from the highest to the lowest percentage share is (b) - (a) - (d) - (c).

61Geography
Which of the following is the largest tribal group of India ?
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Answer: (A) Bhils

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, the Bhils are the largest tribal group in India, comprising around 37.7% of the total Scheduled Tribe population. This community is predominantly found in the western and central parts of the country, spanning across states such as Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, and Tripura.

62Geography
Which of the following pair is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) Norwester—Haryana

Explanation

Norwesters, also known as Kalbaisakhi, are violent thunderstorms and localized rainfall that occur during the pre-monsoon hot weather season in eastern and northeastern India, particularly in West Bengal, Assam, Bihar, and Odisha. These convective storms originate over the Chota Nagpur Plateau and blow towards the eastern states. Haryana, situated in northwestern India, does not experience Norwesters; its summer season is instead characterized by dry, hot winds called Loo and dust storms known as Andhi.

63Geography
Match the forest types with their percent share in total forest cover of India : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Tropical Evergreen | (i) 37.0% | | (b) Subtropical | (ii) 28.8% | | (c) Tropical Moist deciduous | (iii) 12.1% | | (d) Tropical dry deciduous | (iv) 9.5% | Select the correct code : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Explanation

According to Forest Survey of India data, Tropical Moist Deciduous forests are India's largest category (~37.0%), followed by Tropical Dry Deciduous (~28.8%), Tropical Evergreen (~12.1%), and Subtropical (~9.5%). Option B correctly maps (a) Tropical Evergreen → (iii) 12.1%, (b) Subtropical → (iv) 9.5%, (c) Tropical Moist Deciduous → (i) 37.0%, (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous → (ii) 28.8%; option D incorrectly swaps (c) and (d).

64Geography
Which of the following pair does not match correctly ?
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Answer: (D) Point Calimere-Kerala

Explanation

Point Calimere, also known as Cape Calimere or Kodiakkarai, is a low headland of the Coromandel Coast situated in the Nagapattinam district of Tamil Nadu, not Kerala. It is located at the southeastern tip of the Kaveri River delta along the Palk Strait where it meets the Bay of Bengal, and is well-known for the Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary.

65Geography
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Cape Leeuwin | (i) Russia | | (b) Ozark Plateau | (ii) United States | | (c) Katanga Plateau | (iii) Australia | | (d) Kamchatka Peninsula | (iv) Democratic Republic of Congo | Select the correct code : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Explanation

Cape Leeuwin is the southwesternmost mainland point of Australia, situated in Western Australia.

The Ozark Plateau is a physiographic highland region in the United States, spanning across Missouri, Arkansas, Oklahoma, and Kansas.

The Katanga Plateau is a mineral-rich highland region located in the southern part of the Democratic Republic of Congo.

The Kamchatka Peninsula is a large volcanic peninsula located in the Far East region of Russia.

66Economy
Match the following mining regions for which it is famous for : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Carajas | (i) Coal | | (b) Kalgoorlie | (ii) Copper | | (c) Salobo | (iii) Gold | | (d) Haerwusu | (iv) Iron ore | Select the correct code : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Explanation

Carajas is located in Brazil and represents the largest iron ore mine in the world.

Kalgoorlie is located in Western Australia and is world-famous for its massive gold mining operations, notably the Super Pit.

Salobo is situated in Brazil and contains one of the largest copper deposits and active mines on Earth.

Haerwusu is located in Inner Mongolia, China, and is one of the largest open-cast coal mines globally.

67Geography
The world's highest tides occur at which of the following places ?
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Answer: (C) Bay of Fundy

Explanation

The Bay of Fundy, located between the Canadian provinces of Nova Scotia and New Brunswick, experiences the highest tides in the world, with a tidal range that can reach up to 16 meters. This extreme tidal range is caused by a phenomenon known as tidal resonance. The bay has a unique funnel-like shape, becoming narrower and shallower toward its head, and its natural length and depth give it an oscillation period of about 12 to 13 hours. Because this closely matches the 12.4-hour gravitational tidal cycle of the Atlantic Ocean, the two waves reinforce each other, drastically amplifying the height of the tides twice daily.

68Geography
Match the following ocean currents with which they are named : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Canary Current | (i) A Sea Coast | | (b) Labrador Current | (ii) A Country | | (c) Agulhas Current | (iii) A Sea | | (d) Peruvian Current | (iv) An Island | Select the correct code : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Explanation

The Canary Current is named after the Canary Islands (iv — an island); the Labrador Current after the Labrador Sea (iii — a sea); the Agulhas Current after Cape Agulhas on the southern tip of Africa (i — a sea coast); and the Peruvian Current after Peru (ii — a country). This gives the code (iv)(iii)(i)(ii), which is option D. Option C incorrectly assigns Agulhas to a country and Peruvian to a sea coast.

69Geography
Which of the following rivers does not cross equator, tropic of cancer and tropic of capricorn twice ?
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Answer: (B) Negro

Explanation

The Negro River is a major tributary of the Amazon River flowing through Colombia, Venezuela, and Brazil in South America. It drains a massive basin near the equatorial region but its course does not cross the Equator, the Tropic of Cancer, or the Tropic of Capricorn twice. It flows generally southeastward to its confluence with the Amazon River near Manaus, making only a single crossing of the Equator near its mouth and never reaching either of the Tropics.

70Geography
Which of the following pair does not match correctly ?
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Answer: (C) Sunda Strait — Gulf of Aden

Explanation

The Sunda Strait lies between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra, connecting the Java Sea to the Indian Ocean. It has no geographical connection with the Gulf of Aden, which is situated in the Middle East between Yemen and Somalia, connecting the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea via the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.

71Economy
Which one is incorrect regarding sustainable development ?
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Answer: (B) Economic development refers to the flow of goods and services in the economy for a long period of time only.

Explanation

Economic development is a comprehensive, multidimensional process that encompasses not only quantitative growth in the flow of goods and services but also qualitative improvements such as structural changes, institutional reforms, reduction in inequality, and poverty eradication. In the framework of sustainable development, defining economic development solely as the long-term flow of goods and services is highly restrictive and incorrect because it completely ignores environmental degradation, resource depletion, social welfare, and the well-being of future generations.

72Economy
Sustainable Development Goals and targets are to be achieved by :
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Answer: (C) 2030

Explanation

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by all United Nations Member States in September 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. This global framework consists of 17 goals and 169 targets aimed at addressing urgent global challenges, such as poverty, inequality, climate change, and environmental degradation, with a designated timeline for completion by the year 2030.

73Economy
Which one of the following is not a part of the strategy of direct attack on poverty ?
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Answer: (B) Family Planning Programme

Explanation

The Family Planning Programme, launched in 1952, is primarily a health and demographic policy aimed at population control and reproductive health. While population management has indirect, long-term socio-economic benefits, it is not categorized as a direct poverty alleviation scheme. Direct attack strategies on poverty focus on immediate income generation, asset creation, and employment guarantees specifically targeted at individuals living below the poverty line.

74Economy
Over the years, the government has been following approach/es to reduce poverty in India : (I) Specific poverty alleviation programmes (II) Growth oriented development (III) Meeting the minimum needs of the poor. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) I, II and III all

Explanation

The government of India has historically adopted a three-dimensional strategy to address and reduce poverty.

The growth-oriented development approach, emphasized in the early Five-Year Plans, operates on the expectation that rapid economic growth, industrialization, and agricultural transformation would create a trickle-down effect to benefit the poorest sections of society.

The specific poverty alleviation programmes approach was introduced to directly target poverty through self-employment and wage-employment schemes, such as the Integrated Rural Development Programme and the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

The approach of meeting the minimum needs of the poor focuses on providing social consumption goods and basic amenities, including subsidized food grains, primary education, healthcare, drinking water, and housing through initiatives like the Minimum Needs Programme and the Public Distribution System.

75Economy
Poverty Gap reflects :
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Answer: (B) The difference between poverty line and actual income level of all those living below that line

Explanation

The poverty gap is an economic indicator used to measure the depth and intensity of poverty within a population. It is calculated as the mean distance by which the income or consumption of poor households falls below the established poverty line. Rather than simply counting the number of poor individuals, this metric quantifies the average shortfall of resources among all those living below the poverty line. This measurement provides a clearer picture of the severity of deprivation and helps estimate the volume of financial transfers required to elevate the incomes of all impoverished households up to the poverty threshold.

76Economy
NITI Aayog's Action Agenda for enhancing digital connectivity is based on : (I) Developing software for services that can be provided digitally (II) Enhancing digital infrastructure (III) Empowering citizens digitally Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) I, II and III only

Explanation

NITI Aayog's Three Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20) outlines three core strategic objectives to enhance digital connectivity and drive economic growth. The first objective focuses on enhancing digital infrastructure, which involves establishing robust soft and hard infrastructure including broadband networks, fiber optic cables, cloud computing, and regulatory frameworks. The second objective centers on developing software for services that can be provided digitally to minimize transaction costs, reduce inefficiencies, and improve governance transparency. The third objective aims at empowering citizens digitally by enhancing digital literacy and expanding connectivity to enable participation in the digital economy.

77Economy
Which of the following is not an indicator of economically underdeveloped countries ?
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Answer: (C) Low proportion of labour force in the primary sector

Explanation

A low proportion of the labour force in the primary sector is characteristic of developed economies. In economically underdeveloped countries, the majority of the population depends on agriculture and allied activities, resulting in a high proportion of the workforce being employed in the primary sector. As a country undergoes economic development, structural transformation occurs, causing the labor force to shift away from agriculture toward the manufacturing and service sectors. Consequently, a low share of employment in the primary sector indicates a higher level of economic development rather than underdevelopment.

78Polity and Governance
What is/are the objectives of Competition Commission of India (CCI)? (I) To ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants in markets in India. (II) To protect the interests of consumers. (III) To promote and sustain competition in markets. (IV) To prevent practices having an adverse effect on competition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (D) I, II, III and IV all

Explanation

The Competition Commission of India is the statutory body responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002 throughout India. Under the Preamble and Section 18 of the Act, the Commission is duty-bound to prevent practices that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition in Indian markets, protect the interests of consumers, and ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants in markets in India. All four statements represent the core legislative mandates and objectives of the Commission to ensure fair play and competitive fairness in the market.

79Economy
Which year is known as the year of demographic divide ?
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Answer: (C) 1921

Explanation

The year 1921 is regarded as the year of the demographic divide in India because it marks a crucial transition point in the country's demographic history. Before 1921, India's population growth was erratic, slow, and characterized by high birth rates accompanied by high death rates due to widespread famines, epidemics, and lack of healthcare. During the decade 1911 to 1921, India recorded a negative population growth rate of -0.31%. After 1921, improved control over famines and epidemics led to a progressive decline in the death rate while the birth rate remained high. This initiated a phase of steady, continuous, and rapid population growth in India, making 1921 the defining dividing line between a stagnant population phase and a steadily growing population phase.

80Economy
The total fertility rate is :
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Answer: (C) The number of children a woman will likely bear in her lifetime

Explanation

The total fertility rate (TFR) is the average number of children that would be born to a woman over her lifetime if she were to experience the exact current age-specific fertility rates through her childbearing years, typically defined as ages 15 to 49. It is a key demographic metric used to assess the growth or decline of a population over time.

81Economy
The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) aims to enhance the production of : (I) Pulses (II) Vegetables (III) Rice (IV) Wheat (V) Fruits (VI) Coarse cereals Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (B) I, III, IV and VI only

Explanation

The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) was launched in 2007-08 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to increase the production of rice, wheat, and pulses through area expansion and productivity enhancement. During the Twelfth Five Year Plan, the mission was expanded to include coarse cereals (nutri-cereals). Horticultural crops, which include fruits and vegetables, are not covered under the NFSM but are instead supported under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).

82Economy
Which of the following schemes aims at creating 300 rural clusters across India to strengthen financial, job and lifestyle facilities in rural areas ?
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Answer: (C) Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission

Explanation

The Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission was launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Rural Development with the objective of stimulating local economic development, enhancing basic services, and creating well-planned Rurban clusters. The mission specifically targets the development of 300 rural clusters across India to bridge the rural-urban divide. These clusters are contiguous villages with populations of about 25,000 to 50,000 in plain and coastal areas, and 5,000 to 15,000 in desert, hilly, or tribal regions. By promoting social, financial, infrastructure, and economic development in these clusters, the scheme aims to reduce migration to cities by improving job prospects and lifestyle facilities in rural India.

83Geography
Which of the following concentrations of Ozone in ambient air is considered good ?
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Answer: (A) upto 0.06 ppm

Explanation

Ground-level ozone is a key air pollutant that can cause respiratory health issues at elevated levels. According to environmental and health standards, including guidelines set by the World Health Organization (WHO) and various national air quality indexing systems, an ozone concentration of up to 0.06 ppm (parts per million), which is approximately 120 μg/m³, in ambient air is considered good. At or below this concentration, the ambient air quality is safe for the general public, including sensitive groups such as children, the elderly, and individuals with pre-existing respiratory conditions like asthma, ensuring minimal risk of airway irritation or reduced lung function.

84Science and Technology
The intensity of a normal conversation in decibel is between :
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Answer: (B) 60-80

Explanation

Normal conversation is universally standardised at approximately 60–65 decibels in physics and environmental science references used in Indian competitive examinations. Option B (60–80 dB) correctly captures this range starting at 60 dB; option C (35–60 dB) tops out at 60 dB and encompasses whisper/library levels rather than typical conversation.

85Economy
The impacts caused by construction of dams and reservoirs include all, except :
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Answer: (D) desertification

Explanation

Desertification is the degradation of land in arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid areas, typically driven by climate variations and unsustainable land management practices such as overgrazing, deforestation, and poor irrigation. Because the construction of dams and reservoirs involves flooding large areas of land, storing massive volumes of water, and raising local water tables, it does not cause desertification.

86Geography
Which of the following processes does not occur in the water cycle ?
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Answer: (D) composition

Explanation

Composition refers to the chemical constitution of a substance, representing the elements and compounds that form it. It is a fundamental chemical characteristic rather than a dynamic physical pathway or mechanism of water movement. Because it is not a physical process involving the transport, phase change, or circulation of water through the atmosphere, land, and oceans, it does not occur as a step in the hydrological cycle.

87History
Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below : | List-I (Events) | List-II (Names) | |---|---| | (I) Appiko Movement | (i) Maneka Gandhi | | (II) Narmada Bachao Andolan | (ii) Appu and Mamtha | | (III) People for Animals | (iii) Balbir Singh Seechewal | | (IV) Resurrection of Kali Bein Rivulet | (iv) Medha Patkar | Codes : (I) (II) (III) (IV)
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Answer: (D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

Explanation

The Appiko Movement, a forest conservation movement in Karnataka inspired by the Chipko movement, was initiated by Appu and Mamtha in the village of Gubbi Gadde near Sirsi.

The Narmada Bachao Andolan, a massive social movement protesting against the construction of large dams across the Narmada river, was led by the social activist Medha Patkar.

People for Animals is India's largest animal welfare organization and was founded by the politician and environmentalist Maneka Gandhi.

The resurrection of the Kali Bein Rivulet, a highly successful community-led initiative to clean and restore the polluted river in Punjab, was spearheaded by the environmentalist Balbir Singh Seechewal.

88Geography
Match the items given in Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below : | Column-I | Column-II | |---|---| | (P) The Montreal Protocol | (i) 1992 | | (Q) The Paris Agreement | (ii) 1995 | | (R) The Rio Summit | (iii) 1987 | | (S) First UN IPCC Conference | (iv) 2015 | Codes : (P) (Q) (R) (S)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Explanation

The Montreal Protocol: An international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of substances responsible for ozone depletion. It was adopted on 16 September 1987.

The Paris Agreement: A legally binding international treaty on climate change adopted by 196 parties at COP 21 in Paris on 12 December 2015.

The Rio Summit: Officially known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development or the Earth Summit, it was held in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992.

First UN IPCC Conference: The first Conference of the Parties to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, which is strongly linked with IPCC assessments, was held in Berlin in 1995.

89Science and Technology
Which of the following is not derived from wild cabbage ?
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Answer: (D) Spinach

Explanation

Spinach (Spinacia oleracea) belongs to the Amaranthaceae family, which is entirely distinct from the Brassicaceae family to which wild cabbage (Brassica oleracea) belongs. Because it comes from a completely different plant family and evolutionary lineage, spinach is not a cultivar derived from the selective breeding of wild cabbage.

90Science and Technology
Which of the following scientists is associated with the theory of natural selection during evolution of life ?
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Answer: (B) Darwin

Explanation

Charles Darwin proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection. According to this theory, individuals within a population who possess traits that are better adapted to their environment have a higher likelihood of surviving, reproducing, and passing those beneficial traits on to their offspring. Over generations, this differential reproductive success leads to the gradual adaptation and evolution of the species.

91Science and Technology
In which of the following conditions bio-gas is produced ?
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Answer: (C) Action of anaerobic microorganisms

Explanation

Bio-gas is produced through the biological process of anaerobic digestion, which occurs in the absence of oxygen. Anaerobic microorganisms, specifically methanogenic bacteria or methanogens, break down organic matter such as animal manure, sewage, municipal waste, and plant materials. During this decomposition, these specialized microbes convert the organic compounds into a mixture of gases, primarily consisting of methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂), which serves as a renewable energy source.

92Science and Technology
Why do ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria ?
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Answer: (B) Ventricles have to pump blood into various organs

Explanation

The ventricles have thicker muscular walls because they are responsible for pumping blood out of the heart to various organs of the body. The left ventricle must pump blood throughout the entire systemic circulation to reach all body tissues, while the right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs for oxygenation. This requires generating significantly higher pressure to overcome vascular resistance over long distances. In contrast, the atria only need to pump blood a very short distance into the adjacent ventricles under much lower pressure, requiring less muscular force.

93Science and Technology
Which of the following is not a reflex action ?
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Answer: (D) Movement of hand

Explanation

The movement of the hand is a voluntary action that is consciously controlled by the motor cortex of the brain. It involves deliberate intent, planning, and conscious execution through the somatic nervous system, which distinguishes it from automatic and involuntary reflex actions.

94Science and Technology
Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body ?
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Answer: (C) Hind-brain

Explanation

The hindbrain contains the cerebellum, which is the primary center for regulating muscle tone, coordinating voluntary movements, and maintaining the posture and equilibrium of the body. It processes sensory inputs from the inner ear, visual system, and musculoskeletal receptors to make real-time adjustments in muscle contraction, ensuring stable balance during both static positions and dynamic movement.

95Science and Technology
What is the color of Litmus solution when it is neither acidic nor basic ?
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Answer: (D) Purple

Explanation

Litmus solution is a natural purple dye extracted from lichens, which are plants belonging to the division Thallophyta. In its neutral state, when the solution is neither acidic nor basic, it retains its natural purple color.

96Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (A) All bases are soluble in water

Explanation

Bases that are soluble in water are known as alkalis, but many bases do not dissolve in water. For instance, metal oxides and hydroxides such as copper(II) oxide (CuO), ferric hydroxide (Fe(OH)₃), and aluminium hydroxide (Al(OH)₃) exhibit basic properties but remain insoluble in water.

97Science and Technology
What does 'p' represent in pH ?
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Answer: (D) Potenz

Explanation

The letter p in pH stands for the German word potenz, which translates to power or exponent. The concept of pH was introduced in 1909 by the Danish biochemist Søren Peter Lauritz Sørensen. He designed the scale to express the extremely small concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution using negative powers of 10. In his original scientific papers, which were published in German, the term potenz was used to describe the magnitude of these mathematical exponents.

98Science and Technology
Which of the following does not represent refractive defect of vision ?
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Answer: (D) Cataract

Explanation

Cataract is a medical condition characterized by the gradual clouding or opacification of the eye's natural crystalline lens, which blocks light from reaching the retina and causes a progressive loss of vision. It is caused by the clumping of proteins within the lens due to aging, trauma, or medical conditions, rather than an error in how the eye focuses or refracts light. Because it is a physical obstruction of the lens rather than a focusing or refractive error, it cannot be corrected with ordinary prescription eyeglasses and is instead treated through surgical replacement of the cloudy lens with an artificial intraocular lens.

99Science and Technology
During dispersion of white light by the glass prism, which of the following light of the spectrum bends the most ?
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Answer: (B) Violet

Explanation

Cauchy's dispersion formula relates the refractive index (n) of a material to the wavelength (λ) of light passing through it:

n ≈ A + B/λ²

where A and B are constants. Violet light has the shortest wavelength in the visible spectrum, which results in the glass prism having the highest refractive index for violet light.

The angle of deviation (δ) for light passing through a thin prism of angle A is given by:

δ = (n - 1)A

Since the refractive index (n) is greatest for violet light, it undergoes the maximum deviation and bends the most during dispersion.

100Science and Technology
Which of the following phenomena is responsible for twinkling of stars ?
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Answer: (B) Refraction of starlight

Explanation

The twinkling of stars is caused by the atmospheric refraction of starlight as it passes through the layers of the Earth's atmosphere. The atmosphere is not uniform; it consists of layers of varying density and temperature that are constantly in motion. As starlight travels through these turbulent layers, the light rays are bent, or refracted, continuously and in random directions. This rapid variation in the bending of light causes both the apparent position and the brightness of the star to fluctuate rapidly, which is perceived as twinkling.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4C
  5. 5A
  6. 6D
  7. 7A
  8. 8A
  9. 9A
  10. 10B
  11. 11C
  12. 12B
  13. 13C
  14. 14C
  15. 15C
  16. 16A
  17. 17C
  18. 18C
  19. 19B
  20. 20B
  21. 21A
  22. 22B
  23. 23D
  24. 24D
  25. 25B
  26. 26C
  27. 27A
  28. 28B
  29. 29B
  30. 30C
  31. 31D
  32. 32C
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35D
  36. 36D
  37. 37A
  38. 38C
  39. 39C
  40. 40D
  41. 41D
  42. 42B
  43. 43C
  44. 44A
  45. 45D
  46. 46C
  47. 47C
  48. 48D
  49. 49C
  50. 50D
  51. 51B
  52. 52D
  53. 53A
  54. 54C
  55. 55A
  56. 56D
  57. 57B
  58. 58A
  59. 59B
  60. 60C
  61. 61A
  62. 62D
  63. 63B
  64. 64D
  65. 65B
  66. 66D
  67. 67C
  68. 68D
  69. 69B
  70. 70C
  71. 71B
  72. 72C
  73. 73B
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76D
  77. 77C
  78. 78D
  79. 79C
  80. 80C
  81. 81B
  82. 82C
  83. 83A
  84. 84B
  85. 85D
  86. 86D
  87. 87D
  88. 88C
  89. 89D
  90. 90B
  91. 91C
  92. 92B
  93. 93D
  94. 94C
  95. 95D
  96. 96A
  97. 97D
  98. 98D
  99. 99B
  100. 100B

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