HPAS2014General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

HPAS Prelims 2014 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 100 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

100
Questions
6
Subjects
19
Himachal Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography2929%
  • Economy1919%
  • History1818%
  • Science and Technology1616%
  • Polity and Governance1515%
  • Art and Culture33%
1Geography
The latitude that pass through Sikkim also pass through :
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Answer: (C) Rajasthan

Explanation

The state of Sikkim is located between the latitudes of 27°04' N and 28°07' N. The state of Rajasthan has a latitudinal extent stretching from 23°03' N to 30°12' N. As a result, the 28° N latitude line that passes through Sikkim also traverses the northern region of Rajasthan.

2GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which of the following peaks are in Himachal Pradesh ? (i) Abi gamin (ii) Reo-Purjil (iii) Rangrik Range (iv) Gya The correct answer is :
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Reo Purjil (ii) is the highest peak in Himachal Pradesh, located in Kinnaur district; Rangrik Range (iii) and Gya (iv) are both in the Spiti Valley of Himachal Pradesh. The question setter also treated Abi Gamin (i) as being within HP, making D (All of the above) the intended answer. Among the four options provided, D is the best available choice as three of the four peaks are definitively in Himachal Pradesh.

3Economy
Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency ?
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Answer: (B) SDR

Explanation

The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an international reserve asset created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969 to supplement its member countries' official reserves. It is widely referred to as an artificial currency or "paper gold" because it is not a physical currency that circulates in the global economy. Instead, the SDR operates as a unit of account for the IMF and other international organizations, representing a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF member states. Its value is calculated based on a basket of key international currencies.

4Economy
Disguised unemployment generally means :
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Answer: (C) Marginal productivity of labour is zero

Explanation

Disguised unemployment is a phenomenon where more people are employed in an activity than are actually required. It is highly prevalent in the agricultural sector of developing economies, where multiple family members work on a small piece of land because of a lack of alternative employment opportunities. Since the extra labor does not add to the total agricultural output, removing these surplus workers does not reduce production. Consequently, the marginal productivity of this excess labor is zero.

5Economy
In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities :
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Answer: (A) Commercial Banks

Explanation

Commercial Banks hold the highest share in the disbursement of institutional credit to agriculture and allied activities in India. Under the multi-agency approach, Scheduled Commercial Banks account for approximately 70% to 75% of the total flow of agricultural credit. This leading position is primarily driven by their extensive nationwide branch network, substantial capital base, and the priority sector lending norms mandated by the Reserve Bank of India, which require domestic commercial banks to allocate 18% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit to the agricultural sector.

6Science and Technology
Mars Orbitor Mission is called:
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Answer: (C) Mangalyan

Explanation

The Mars Orbiter Mission, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation on 5 November 2013, is popularly and officially called Mangalyan. The name translates to Mars-craft in Sanskrit, combining Mangala meaning Mars and yana meaning vehicle or craft. This historic mission successfully entered Martian orbit on 24 September 2014, making India the first nation to achieve this feat on its very first attempt.

7Economy
Almost all major oil producers including Saudi Arabia have become dependent on high prices, with break-even levels usually over $ 90 per barrel to meet their fiscal obligations. Consider the following can be termed as explanations for the present decline in oil prices ? (i) The world markets are flush with supplies for which there are not enough consumers. (ii) The global economic slowdown is the Principal culprit : with China's national growth projected at around 7% per year, increase in oil demand is negligible. (iii) Europe is also not expected to contribute to increased demand due to its sluggish growth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The decline in global crude oil prices in 2014 was driven by a combination of supply-side surplus and weakening global demand.

The world markets were flush with excess supplies because of a massive surge in United States shale oil production alongside OPEC, led by Saudi Arabia, maintaining high output levels to protect their market share.

At the same time, the global economic slowdown dampened demand. China, which had been the primary driver of oil demand growth for years, saw its annual economic growth adjust downwards to around 7%, resulting in a negligible increase in its oil consumption.

Additionally, Europe's sluggish economic growth and stagnation further reduced expectations for any meaningful demand recovery from Western markets.

8Economy
Modi Government relaunched the Your Personal Exams Guide Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) investment scheme to tap household savings for funding infrastructure development in the country. Consider the following statements about this and pick the correct statement: (i) The saving instrument will be available in the denomination of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 5,000, Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 50,000. (ii) There will be no upper ceiling on investment. (iii) No tax benefits would be available on these investment. Answer(s) is/are :
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) was reintroduced by the government in November 2014 as a small savings instrument to encourage household savings and channel them into nation-building and infrastructure development.

Under the rules of the relaunched scheme:

Statement (i) is correct as the KVP certificates are issued in specific denominations of Rs. 1,000, Rs. 5,000, Rs. 10,000, and Rs. 50,000.

Statement (ii) is correct because while the minimum investment is fixed at Rs. 1,000, there is no upper limit or maximum ceiling on the total amount an individual can invest in the scheme.

Statement (iii) is correct because the scheme does not offer any tax benefits. Investments made in KVP do not qualify for deductions under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, and the interest income earned on these certificates is fully taxable under the investor's applicable income tax slab, although the maturity proceeds are exempt from Tax Deduction at Source (TDS).

9History
Based upon the relations between India and Pakistan, Khurshid M. Kasuri, the Ex-foreign Minister of Pakistan has recently penned down a book. What is the title of the book :
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Answer: (B) Neither a Hawk nor a Dove

Explanation

Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri, who served as the Foreign Minister of Pakistan from 2002 to 2007, authored the book titled Neither a Hawk nor a Dove: An Insider's Account of Pakistan's Foreign Policy. The book provides a comprehensive insider's perspective on Pakistan's foreign relations, with a significant portion dedicated to the peace initiatives, backchannel diplomacy, and bilateral relations between India and Pakistan during his tenure.

10Economy
Shanta Kumar Committee has submitted its report on restructuring of Food Corporation of India (FCI) to Mr. Modi. Read the following recommendations and find the incorrect ones: (i) FCI Procurement should focus on the Western belt, where farmers get the minimum support price. (ii) FCI should hand over the procurement of Wheat and Rice to four states which include Punjab, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. (iii) Proposed uniform tax of minimum 3% and maximum 4% on Wheat and Rice and the same to be included in the minimum support price. Answer is :
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Answer: (B) (i) and (iii)

Explanation

Statement (i) is incorrect: the Shanta Kumar Committee recommended FCI focus on Eastern and deficit states where MSP is not reaching farmers, not on the Western belt where procurement is already well-established. Statement (iii) is also incorrect: the committee proposed a single uniform levy cap, not a variable range of 3–4%, and the characterisation of it as a "tax" rather than a rationalised levy is also inaccurate. Statement (ii) is broadly correct as the committee did recommend that FCI hand over procurement operations to efficiently functioning states including Punjab, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.

11Geography
Read the following statements regarding the recently released NTCA report on the status of Tigers in India, 2014. Find out the incorrect ones: (i) The report showed a 30% increase in tiger population to 2226 from 1706 in 2010. (ii) The largest increase was recorded in Kerala, Karnataka, Goa and Tamil Nadu. (iii) The Mudumalai-Bandipur-Nagarhole-Wayarad Complex holds the world's largest tiger population currently estimated at over 570 tigers. The correct answer is :
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

According to the Status of Tigers in India, 2014 report published by the National Tiger Conservation Authority, India's tiger population registered a 30.5% increase, rising to 2,226 from 1,706 in 2010.

The Western Ghats landscape complex, which covers the states of Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, and Tamil Nadu, recorded the largest increase in the country, reaching a total of 776 tigers.

Furthermore, the contiguous forest tract of the Mudumalai-Bandipur-Nagarhole-Wayanad complex was identified as holding the world's single largest wild tiger population, with an estimate of over 570 tigers.

Since all three statements are factually correct, none of them are incorrect.

12Polity and Governance
India has recently signed an agreement on transfer of sentenced persons with the Hong-Kong special administrative region. Which among the following statement/s is/are correct ones in this regard: (i) The agreement will mostly apply to Hong-Kong prisoners. (ii) Most of the Indian prisoners have been jailed for serious crimes like drug dealing. (iii) India has similar agreement with several other countries but none with Mainland China. The correct answer is :
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Answer: (C) (iii)

Explanation

Statement (i) is incorrect because such agreements primarily facilitate the repatriation of a country's own nationals, not the host country's prisoners. Statement (iii) is the correct and verifiable fact: as of 2014, India had signed prisoner transfer agreements with several countries but had not concluded any such treaty with Mainland China. Statement (ii), while broadly accurate, does not match any option on its own without combining it with other statements.

13History
Who among the following translated Kalhana's Rajatarangini into English ?
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Answer: (B) Sir Aurel Stein

Explanation

Sir Aurel Stein translated Kalhana's Rajatarangini, an influential Sanskrit chronicle of the kings of Kashmir, into English. His scholarly translation was published in two volumes in 1900 under the title Kalhana's Rajatarangini: A Chronicle of the Kings of Kasmir. This work remains the definitive English translation of the historical text, containing exhaustive commentaries, geographical notes, and historical analysis.

14HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
What is the script of the earliest epigraphical rock inscriptions at Pathyar and Kanhiyara in Kangra ?
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Answer: (C) Brahmi and Kharoshthi

Explanation

The rock inscriptions found at Pathyar and Kanhiyara in the Kangra valley of Himachal Pradesh represent some of the earliest epigraphical records in the region. The Pathyar inscription dates back to the 3rd to 2nd century BCE, while the Kanhiyara inscription is estimated to date from the 1st to 2nd century CE. Both of these ancient epigraphs are written in two lines, with one line inscribed in the Brahmi script and the other in the Kharoshthi script. The dual use of these scripts in the same inscriptions provides important historical evidence regarding the coexistence and parallel development of the Brahmi and Kharoshthi alphabets in the western Himalayan region during the ancient period.

15History
Which Mughal ruler was said to have given the title of 'Mian' to the Rajput princes of Punjab Hill states who were held hostages in the royal court ?
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Answer: (B) Jahangir

Explanation

The practice of keeping Rajput princes of the Punjab Hill states as hostages at the Mughal court to ensure the loyalty and fidelity of the hill chiefs was initiated by Akbar. During the reign of Jahangir, there were twenty-two young Rajput princes from these hill states residing as hostages at the imperial court. Emperor Jahangir bestowed the title of Mian upon these hostage princes. Over time, this title became a highly regarded distinctive appellation for all the members of the twenty-two royal clans belonging to these hill states.

16HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Rulers of which of the following hill states were from a common ancestor ?
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Answer: (C) Mandi, Suket and Keonthal

Explanation

Mandi and Suket are both historically documented as having been founded by princes of the Sen dynasty, who were Chandravanshi Rajputs sharing a common ancestor. Keonthal's ruling family is also of Chandravanshi Rajput origin, linking all three states under a common ancestral lineage. Option B's inclusion of Bhagal, whose rulers are from a different lineage, breaks this connection.

17HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which Raja of Spiti invaded Kullu and made it a tributary ?
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Answer: (B) Chet Sena

Explanation

Chet Sena, a Raja of Spiti, is credited in HP regional history with having invaded the kingdom of Kullu and making it a tributary for a period. Among the rulers named in the options, Chet Sena is the one specifically associated with this military campaign against Kullu.

18HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
The Raja of Bushahar princely state was assisted by three hereditary Wazir families. One of them was Kohal. Where did it come from ?
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Answer: (B) Garhwal

Explanation

The administration of the princely state of Bushahr was traditionally supported by three hereditary Kanait Wazir families namely Pawari, Kohal, and Shua. While the Pawari family originally migrated from Kullu and the Shua family was native to the state, the Kohal family immigrated to Bushahr from the Garhwal region seven generations prior.

19Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
When was the Department of Public Relations created in Himachal Pradesh ?
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Answer: (C) 1954

Explanation

The Department of Public Relations in Himachal Pradesh was formally established in 1954, following the reorganisation of the state that accompanied the merger of Bilaspur. This department was set up to disseminate information about government policies and programmes to the public across the state.

20GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
In which district of H.P. is Saryanj Sarma watershed project ?
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Answer: (D) Solan

Explanation

The Saryanj Sarma watershed project is located in the Solan district of Himachal Pradesh. Solan district has been the site of several watershed development and management programmes under central and state government schemes.

21Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
When was 'Beti Hai Anmol' launched in Himachal Pradesh ?
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Answer: (B) July 2010

Explanation

The Beti Hai Anmol scheme was launched by the Government of Himachal Pradesh on July 5, 2010. The scheme was introduced to promote the education of girl children from families living Below the Poverty Line (BPL) and to help improve the child sex ratio in the state. Under this welfare initiative, the state government provides a post-birth financial grant that is deposited into the bank or post office account of the girl child (up to two girls per family), which can be withdrawn upon reaching 18 years of age. In addition to this post-birth grant, annual scholarships are also provided to the beneficiaries to support their education from Class 1 up to graduation.

22HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which Raja of Mandi gave the Shivratri Fair the form of a cultural festival ?
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Answer: (A) Suraj Sen

Explanation

Raja Ajbar Sen initiated the Shivratri festival in 1527 AD. However, Raja Suraj Sen, who ruled from 1637 to 1664 AD, transformed the fair into its present form of a grand cultural festival. Having no surviving heirs, Raja Suraj Sen dedicated his kingdom to the state deity, Lord Madho Rai (an incarnation of Lord Vishnu), in 1648. Following this, the deities from surrounding regions began arriving in Mandi to pay obeisance to Lord Madho Rai, integrating deep cultural, social, and religious traditions into a week-long celebration.

23GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Find the mismatch in the following pairs :
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Answer: (D) Sanjhi Dhar — Shimla

Explanation

Sanjhi Dhar is located in Mandi district, not Shimla, making option D the mismatched pair. The other pairs — Tieun Dhar with Chamba, Jakh Dhar with Hamirpur, and Haripur Dhar with Sirmaur — are correctly matched to their respective districts in Himachal Pradesh.

24Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
What is Shingni-Mingni ?
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Answer: (B) a herbal-medicinal plant

Explanation

Shingni-Mingni, commonly known as Singli-Mingli, is the local name for Dioscorea deltoidea, which is a highly valued herbal-medicinal plant native to the Western Himalayan region, including Himachal Pradesh. This perennial climber is typically found at altitudes ranging from 1500 to 3000 meters. The tubers of the plant are a rich source of diosgenin, a steroidal sapogenin extensively used in the pharmaceutical industry to synthesize progesterone and other steroid drugs, which are utilized in contraceptives and the treatment of ailments like asthma and arthritis. It is classified as a Minor Forest Produce in Himachal Pradesh.

25HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who started the Ice Skating Rink at Shimla around 1920 ?
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Answer: (B) Blessington

Explanation

The Ice Skating Rink in Shimla was founded in 1920 by a British resident, Mr. Blessington. During the winter of 1920, Blessington noticed that water from a tap had flooded the adjacent clay tennis courts and frozen solid overnight due to the freezing temperatures. Realizing the potential of this natural freezing process, he started repeatedly flooding the tennis courts with water during the winter months to create a smooth sheet of ice. This led to the establishment of the Shimla Ice Skating Club, which is recognized as the oldest natural open-air ice-skating rink in South East Asia.

26GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
In which district of H.P. is Yunam-so lake ?
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Answer: (A) Lahaul-Spiti

Explanation

Yunam-so lake, also known as Yunam Tso, is a high-altitude glacial lake situated in the Lahaul valley of the Lahaul-Spiti district in Himachal Pradesh. Located at an elevation of approximately 4670 meters above sea level, it lies near the base of the prominent Mount Yunam and the Baralacha La Pass. The lake remains frozen and covered under snow for about six months of the year.

27Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
When did the number of members in the H.P. Vidhan Sabha increase from 36 to 41 ?
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Answer: (D) 1954

Explanation

When the Part-C state of Bilaspur merged with Himachal Pradesh in 1954, additional constituencies were added, increasing the total membership of the H.P. Vidhan Sabha from 36 to 41. This expansion directly reflected the integration of Bilaspur's territorial representation into the state legislature.

28Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following is a Pagoda style temple in H.P. ?
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Answer: (B) Hidimba Temple in Manali Valley

Explanation

The Hidimba Devi Temple in Manali is a classic example of the Pagoda style of temple architecture in Himachal Pradesh. Constructed in 1553 CE by Maharaja Bahadur Singh, this wooden temple features a unique multi-tiered wooden roof that resembles a pagoda. The structure rises to a height of about 24 meters and consists of three square-shaped, tiered roofs covered with timber planks, which are then surmounted by a fourth cone-shaped roof made of brass at the top. This design is characteristic of the traditional Nepalese and Himalayan Pagoda styles.

29GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which district of H.P. occupies top position in the production of ginger ?
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Answer: (A) Sirmaur

Explanation

Sirmaur district is the largest producer of ginger in Himachal Pradesh. It has the highest area coverage and accounts for the majority of the total ginger production in the state, with key cultivating areas located in Rajgarh, Sangrah, Shillai, Pachhad, and Paonta Sahib.

30GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Identify the correct order of density of population among the following districts of Himachal Pradesh according to 2011 census data (in descending order):
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Answer: (B) Una, Bilaspur, Solan, Mandi

Explanation

The population density in terms of persons per square kilometer for these districts of Himachal Pradesh according to the 2011 Census is as follows: Una has a density of 338, Bilaspur has a density of 327, Solan has a density of 300, and Mandi has a density of 253. Arranging these values in descending order yields the sequence Una, Bilaspur, Solan, Mandi.

31EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
What was the annual growth rate in the economy of Himachal Pradesh during the 2012-13 fiscal ?
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Answer: (C) 6.1 percent

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey of Himachal Pradesh, the State Gross Domestic Product (GSDP) at factor cost at constant (2004-05) prices for the fiscal year 2012-13 was estimated at 44,480 crore as against 41,908 crore in 2011-12. This reflects an annual growth rate of 6.1 percent during the 2012-13 fiscal, based on the quick estimates of the Department of Economics and Statistics, Government of Himachal Pradesh.

32Economy
Polworth, Corriedole, Blackpacer and Guide Bingi are varieties of :
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Answer: (C) Sheep

Explanation

Polwarth, Corriedale, Blackface, and Bingi are prominent exotic and local breeds of sheep. Polwarth is an Australian breed developed by crossing Lincoln and Merino sheep, prized for its high-quality fine wool. Corriedale is a dual-purpose breed originating in New Zealand, developed from Merino and Lincoln crosses, and is highly valued for both its wool and meat production. Blackface (sometimes referred to as Blackpace) is a hardy breed of sheep from the United Kingdom, while Bingi represents a local regional variety. These exotic breeds have been imported and crossed with native Indian sheep to improve overall wool density, fineness, and yield.

33History
Name the site where Harappan ploughed field has been found :
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Answer: (D) Kalibanga

Explanation

Kalibangan, located in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan along the dried-up bed of the Ghaggar River, is historically significant for providing the earliest evidence of a ploughed agricultural field in the world. Excavations at this site revealed a field with a grid of intersecting furrows dating back to the Pre-Harappan phase. The pattern of these furrows suggests that two different types of crops were grown simultaneously in the same field, demonstrating an advanced understanding of mixed-cropping and tillage systems during the Indus Valley Civilization.

34History
Who among the following is the author of Milind Panho ?
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Answer: (A) Nagasen

Explanation

Nagasena is the Buddhist sage and author associated with the Milind Panho, which translates to the Questions of King Milinda. This classic Pali Buddhist text records the intellectual and philosophical dialogue between the Indo-Greek King Menander I, who ruled Bactria and northern India in the second century BCE, and the sage Nagasena. In this text, Nagasena masterfully answers the king's profound questions on Buddhist philosophy, soul, rebirth, and nirvana, eventually leading King Menander to embrace Buddhism.

35History
Name the place where Jaina texts were finally compiled ?
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Answer: (D) Vallabhi

Explanation

The Jaina canonical texts (Agamas) were finally compiled and written down in their present form during the Second Jaina Council. This council was held at Vallabhi in Gujarat during the 5th or 6th century CE and was presided over by Devarddhigani Kshamashramana. Prior to this event, the sacred teachings of Jainism were primarily transmitted through oral traditions.

36History
Find out among the following the author of Muasir-i-Alamgiri :
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Answer: (C) Mustaid Khan

Explanation

The Muasir-i-Alamgiri is a highly detailed historical chronicle written in Persian that documents the reign of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb, who ruled from 1658 to 1707. The work was composed by Saqi Mustaid Khan, a court chronicler who completed it in 1710, shortly after Aurangzeb's death. Mustaid Khan undertook this task under the patronage of Inayatullah Khan Kashmiri, a high-ranking noble and secretary. The text is based on official state papers, royal archives, and court newsletters, providing a comprehensive account of military campaigns, administrative reforms, and major events of the era.

37Art and Culture
The temples located in the region between the Vindhyas and the Krishna river are known as :
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Answer: (D) Hybrid Style

Explanation

The Vesara style of temple architecture, also known as the Hybrid style, is characteristic of the Deccan region located between the Vindhyas and the Krishna river. This style developed as a synthesis of the Nagara style of northern India and the Dravida style of southern India, combining design elements from both traditions. It is prominently represented in the temples built under the patronage of dynasties such as the Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, and Hoysalas.

38History
Which of the following Marathas was given a Manasab of 7000/7000 by Aurangzeb ?
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Answer: (D) Shahuji

Explanation

Following the execution of Sambhaji in 1689, his young son Shahu (also known as Shahuji) was captured by the Mughals along with his mother, Yesubai, during the Mughal siege of Raigad. Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb treated Shahu with great care, bringing him up under royal supervision inside the imperial camp. Aurangzeb bestowed upon him the title of Raja and granted him a prestigious rank (mansab) of 7000 zat and 7000 sawar, which was the highest rank typically reserved for senior royal princes or the most eminent state nobles.

39History
Who abolished Dual Government in Bengal ?
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Answer: (D) Warren Hastings

Explanation

Warren Hastings abolished the Dual Government system in Bengal in 1772. Upon assuming the governorship of Bengal, he terminated the system of divided authority where the Company held the revenue rights (Diwani) and the Nawab held the administrative responsibility (Nizamat). Hastings brought the administration of Bengal under the direct and complete control of the East India Company, establishing a Board of Revenue and appointing British collectors to manage the revenue administration directly.

40History
Sidhu and Kanhu were associated with which one of the following ?
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Answer: (D) The Santhal rebellion

Explanation

The Santhal rebellion of 1855–1856, also known as the Santhal Hool, was led by the tribal brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, along with their brothers Chand and Bhairav. They mobilized tens of thousands of Santhals in the Rajmahal Hills region of present-day Jharkhand to revolt against the exploitative practices of the British East India Company, local zamindars, and moneylenders.

41History
Match List I with List II : | List I | List II | |---|---| | (a) Dadabhai Naoroji | (1) Satyarth Prakash | | (b) Dayanand Saraswati | (2) Anand Math | | (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak | (3) Poverty and Un-British Rule of India | | (d) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee | (4) Gita Rahasya | Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji authored Poverty and Un-British Rule of India to explain the economic drain theory.

Dayanand Saraswati wrote Satyarth Prakash as a key text to propagate the principles of the Arya Samaj.

Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote Gita Rahasya while imprisoned at Mandalay, focusing on the philosophy of karma yoga.

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee wrote Anand Math, a historical novel depicting the Sannyasi Rebellion and featuring the song Vande Mataram.

42History
Who was the head of the Board/Commission which demarcated the boundaries of India and Pakistan ?
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Answer: (A) Radcliffe

Explanation

Sir Cyril Radcliffe was appointed as the Joint Chairman of the two Boundary Commissions for Punjab and Bengal in June 1947. He was a British lawyer tasked with the monumental responsibility of equitably dividing the territories and demarcating the international borders between India and Pakistan during the partition. The boundary line drawn under his chairmanship, which took into account religious demographics, geographic features, and communication lines, became officially known as the Radcliffe Line and was published on 17 August 1947.

43Geography
What is local name of shifting cultivation in Malaysia ?
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Answer: (D) Ladang

Explanation

In Malaysia and Indonesia, shifting cultivation is locally known as Ladang. This traditional agricultural practice, also known as slash-and-burn farming, involves clearing forest land by cutting and burning the vegetation. Indigenous communities cultivate the cleared plot for a few seasons until soil fertility decreases, and then leave it fallow to regenerate naturally while moving on to clear a new plot.

44Geography
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Towns - Rivers
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Answer: (C) Bareilly - Ganga

Explanation

Bareilly is situated on the banks of the Ramganga River, not the Ganga River. The Ramganga is a major tributary of the Ganga that originates in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand and flows through the Bareilly district of Uttar Pradesh before merging with the Ganga near Kannauj.

45Geography
Tropic of Cancer does not passes through :
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Answer: (C) Manipur

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer is a parallel of latitude located at approximately 23.5° N of the Equator. Manipur is situated entirely to the north of this line, with its geographical coordinates starting above 23.8° N latitude, meaning the Tropic of Cancer does not pass through this state.

46Geography
Which is the second most spoken language in India ?
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Answer: (C) Bengali

Explanation

According to the Census of India, Bengali is the second most spoken language in the country after Hindi. It is the mother tongue of approximately 8.03% of the Indian population as per the 2011 Census, with around 9.72 crore speakers, and held the same second-rank position in the 2001 Census when it was spoken by 8.11% of the population. Bengali is primarily spoken in West Bengal, Tripura, and parts of Assam and Jharkhand.

47Geography
Great Salt Lake is located in :
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Answer: (D) U.S.A.

Explanation

The Great Salt Lake is located in the northern part of the U.S. state of Utah. It is the largest saltwater lake in the Western Hemisphere and is a remnant of Lake Bonneville, a massive prehistoric pluvial lake. Because it has no outlet, water escapes only through evaporation, leading to extremely high salinity levels and a unique mineral-rich terminal basin ecosystem in the western United States.

48Geography
Which of the following is correct order of rivers from north to south ?
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Answer: (A) Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj

Explanation

The correct geographical order of the major tributaries of the Indus River from north to south is Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Satluj. The Jhelum River originates in the southeastern part of the Kashmir Valley at Verinag. Moving south, the Chenab River is formed by the Chandra and Bhaga headwaters in the Lahaul region. Further south, the Ravi River originates near the Rohtang Pass in Kullu. The Satluj River, which is the southernmost of these tributaries, enters India from Tibet through the Shipki La pass. This geographic distribution establishes Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, and Satluj as the sequential arrangement from north to south.

49Geography
Which one of the following has lowest sex ratio in India ?
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Answer: (D) Daman and Diu

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2011, Daman and Diu has the lowest sex ratio in the country, with only 618 females per 1000 males. This highly skewed demographic is mainly caused by the high volume of male-dominated migration for employment in local industries.

50Geography
Diego Garcia island is located in :
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Answer: (C) Indian Ocean

Explanation

Diego Garcia is an island atoll located in the central Indian Ocean. It is the largest island of the Chagos Archipelago and forms part of the British Indian Ocean Territory. Strategically situated south of the equator, the island is prominent for hosting a major joint military facility operated by the United States and the United Kingdom.

51Geography
Consider the following statements : (i) Recorded temperature decreases from North to South India. (ii) Rainfall increases from West to East in Northern plains of India.
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Answer: (B) Only (ii)

Explanation

The Northern Plains of India receive the bulk of their rainfall from the Bay of Bengal branch of the Southwest monsoon. As these moisture-bearing winds enter the plains from the east and move westwards along the Ganga valley, they progressively lose their moisture content. This leads to a gradual decrease in rainfall from east to west. Consequently, rainfall increases from west to east across the Northern Plains, with western states like Punjab and Haryana receiving much less rainfall than eastern states like Bihar and West Bengal.

52Economy
Which one of the following is largest coal producer ?
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Answer: (A) China

Explanation

China is the largest producer of coal in the world, accounting for nearly half of the global coal production. During 2013 and 2014, China's annual coal production reached nearly 3.9 billion tonnes, which far exceeded the output of any other nation.

53Polity and Governance
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution was to remain a dead-letter ?
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Answer: (B) Article 356

Explanation

During the Constituent Assembly debates, concerns were raised by several members regarding the potential misuse of the provisions of Article 356, which empowers the Union government to assume control of a state's administration in the event of a failure of constitutional machinery. In response to these apprehensions, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar defended the inclusion of the provision by expressing his hope that such drastic powers would rarely be invoked. He stated that he hoped these provisions would never be called into operation and would instead remain a dead-letter, to be employed only as a measure of last resort after all other constitutional remedies, including issuing a formal warning to the state, had been fully exhausted.

54Polity and Governance
The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly participate in the elections of : 1. The President of India 2. The Vice-President of India 3. Members of the Rajya Sabha 4. Members of Legislative Council Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes :
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Answer: (B) (1), (3) and (4)

Explanation

Elected members of the State Legislative Assembly (MLAs) play a direct role in electing the President of India, members of the Rajya Sabha, and members of the State Legislative Council. Under Article 54 of the Constitution, the electoral college for the President of India includes the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. For the Rajya Sabha, Article 80(4) provides that the representatives of each State are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State. Under Article 171(3)(d), one-third of the members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the members of the State Legislative Assembly. The election of the Vice-President of India is conducted by an electoral college consisting only of members of both Houses of Parliament, excluding state legislative assembly members.

55Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the exclusive committees of the Rajya Sabha ? (1) Committee on Subordinate Legislation (2) Committee on Government Assurances (3) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (4) Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes :
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Answer: (B) (1) and (2)

Explanation

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation and the Committee on Government Assurances are exclusive committees, meaning both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha constitute their own separate, independent committees for these purposes.

In contrast, the Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and the Committee on Public Undertakings are joint parliamentary committees that consist of members from both Houses of Parliament. The Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes comprises 30 members, with 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. The Committee on Public Undertakings comprises 22 members, with 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.

56Polity and Governance
The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is :
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Answer: (C) Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

Explanation

According to the provisions of the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, the Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They can resign at any time by writing to the President, and they can also be removed from office before the expiry of their term through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge.

57Polity and Governance
Which of the Commissions/Committees has recommended that there should be a Minister for Panchayati Raj ?
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Answer: (A) Ashoka Mehta Committee

Explanation

The Ashoka Mehta Committee (1977–78) explicitly recommended that a Minister for Panchayati Raj should be appointed in the state Council of Ministers to look after Panchayati Raj institutions — this is a standard textbook fact. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2007) cannot have 'recommended' a Minister for Panchayati Raj because the Ministry of Panchayati Raj was already created in 2004, three years before the ARC's 6th Report.

58Polity and Governance
Which of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution has made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right ?
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Answer: (B) 86th

Explanation

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution of India. This article made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right, establishing that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. This amendment also modified Article 45 under the Directive Principles of State Policy and added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k).

59Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct about the National Human Rights Commission ? (1) The National Human Rights Commission is an independent body. (2) It is not a constitutional body. (3) It is a statutory body. (4) It is a multi-member body. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes :
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Answer: (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Explanation

The National Human Rights Commission is established under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, which makes it a statutory body. Since it is created by an Act of Parliament and has no direct mention in the Constitution of India, it is not a constitutional body. It is designed to function as an independent and autonomous body to safeguard human rights in the country. Additionally, it is a multi-member body comprising a chairperson and several other members.

60Polity and Governance
What is the correct sequence of the following four stages in the public policy formulation process ? (1) Making policy decisions (2) Putting public problems on policy agenda (3) Identifying public problems (4) Formulating policy proposals to deal with the problem Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes :
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Answer: (B) (3), (2), (4) and (1)

Explanation

The standard public policy formulation process logically begins with identifying public problems, as policy-makers must first recognize and define a societal issue that requires government intervention. Once a problem is identified, it must be placed on the policy agenda to receive official attention and priority from decision-makers. After agenda-setting, the next step involves formulating policy proposals, where various alternative solutions, strategies, and plans are developed to address the problem. Finally, policy-makers evaluate these proposals and engage in making policy decisions, which involves selecting and adopting a specific course of action to be implemented as official policy. This establishes the sequential order of identifying public problems, putting public problems on the policy agenda, formulating policy proposals to deal with the problem, and making policy decisions.

61Polity and Governance
The responsibility for law and order vests with the Police Commissioner in the cities of : (1) Chandigarh (2) Delhi (3) Mumbai (4) Kolkata Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes :
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Answer: (C) (2), (3) and (4)

Explanation

Delhi, Mumbai, and Kolkata all operate under the Police Commissionerate system, where the Police Commissioner holds both executive magistrate powers and policing responsibility for law and order. Chandigarh, as a Union Territory, is headed by a Senior Superintendent of Police or Director General of Police and does not follow the Commissionerate system.

62Polity and Governance
Which one of the following functions does not figure in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) ?
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Answer: (C) Fire services

Explanation

Fire services is listed as item number 7 in the Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which was added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 and deals with the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities. In contrast, libraries, cultural activities, and family welfare are specifically enumerated among the 29 functional items allocated to Panchayats under the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution, which was introduced by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.

63Economy
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched on :
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Answer: (D) 28th August, 2014

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28th August, 2014. It is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion designed to ensure comprehensive and affordable access to financial services, such as bank accounts, remittances, credit, insurance, and pensions, for all households in India.

64Geography
Earth Summit 2012 for sustainable development was held in :
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Answer: (B) Rio-de-Janeiro, Brazil

Explanation

The Earth Summit 2012, officially known as the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development or Rio+20, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. The conference took place from June 13 to June 22, 2012, marking the twentieth anniversary of the historic 1992 Earth Summit held in the same city. It aimed to secure renewed political commitment for global sustainable development and address emerging environmental challenges, resulting in the outcome document titled The Future We Want.

65Economy
According to Planning Commission estimates for 2011-12; which of the following states have maximum percentage of population below poverty line ?
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Answer: (A) Chhattisgarh

Explanation

According to the Planning Commission's poverty estimates for 2011-12, which were calculated using the Tendulkar Committee methodology, Chhattisgarh registered the highest percentage of population below the poverty line among all Indian states. The state recorded a poverty ratio of 39.93%, with 44.61% of its population below the poverty line in rural areas and 24.75% in urban areas.

66Economy
The World Investment Report (WIR) is published by :
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Answer: (B) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

Explanation

The World Investment Report has been published annually by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) since 1991. This flagship publication focuses on global trends in foreign direct investment (FDI) at the regional and country levels, analyzing emerging policy developments and measures to enhance the contribution of FDI to economic development.

67Economy
SEBI was established in the year :
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Answer: (A) 1988

Explanation

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established on April 12, 1988, by the Government of India through an administrative resolution. It was set up as a non-statutory body to regulate the securities market, promote its orderly development, and protect the interests of investors. It was later given statutory status and administrative autonomy in 1992 under the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.

68Polity and Governance
'NITI' in NITI Aayog stands for :
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Answer: (A) National Institution for Transforming India

Explanation

The Union Government of India established the NITI Aayog, which stands for National Institution for Transforming India, through a cabinet resolution on January 1, 2015. It was created to replace the 65-year-old Planning Commission of India. NITI Aayog serves as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs. It aims to foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong States make a strong nation.

69Economy
Annual Summit 2015 of BRICS nations will be held in :
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Answer: (C) Ufa in Bashkortostan, Russia

Explanation

The 7th BRICS summit was held in the city of Ufa, the capital of the Republic of Bashkortostan, Russia, in July 2015. This summit marked Russia's presidency of the BRICS group, focusing on issues of international stability and economic growth.

70GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
As per population census 2011, what is the percentage of urban population in Himachal Pradesh and India respectively :
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Answer: (B) 10.03 and 31.16

Explanation

According to the Census 2011 data, the urban population of Himachal Pradesh is 688,552 out of a total population of 6,864,602, which constitutes 10.03% of the state's population. This makes Himachal Pradesh the least urbanized state in India, with the remaining 89.97% of its population living in rural areas.

For the country as a whole, the urban population of India as per the 2011 Census is 377,106,125 out of a total population of 1,210,854,977, which corresponds to 31.16% of the total population.

71Economy
Recently the Government of India has decided to revise the base year for estimating the GDP from :
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Answer: (C) 2004-05 to 2011-12

Explanation

The Central Statistics Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation decided to revise the base year for India's Gross Domestic Product estimation from 2004-05 to 2011-12. This periodic revision is carried out to capture structural shifts in the economy, update the representative basket of goods and services, and incorporate the latest available database from sources like the National Sample Survey Office. The updated series also aligns India's national accounting standards with the international United Nations System of National Accounts 2008 guidelines.

72Economy
National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) was established in the year :
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Answer: (A) 1950

Explanation

The National Sample Survey (NSS) was initiated in 1950 to collect comprehensive socio-economic data across India using scientific sampling methods. It was established by the Government of India under the guidance of statistician P.C. Mahalanobis to assist in development planning and policy formulation. Later reorganized as the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO), it became the premier agency for conducting large-scale, nationwide sample surveys on consumer expenditure, employment, and demographic statistics.

73Geography
How many Biosphere Reserves are there in India ?
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Answer: (B) 18

Explanation

India has established 18 Biosphere Reserves to protect large areas of natural habitat, representing a classic national effort to conserve biodiversity alongside sustainable use of resources. This network of conservation areas began with the designation of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in 1986. The count reached 18 with the notification of the Panna Biosphere Reserve in Madhya Pradesh in 2011. These reserves protect larger areas of natural habitat than typical national parks or animal sanctuaries, often encompassing one or more of them within their boundaries.

74Geography
The UN Convention on Biodiversity was ratified by Indian Government in the year :
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Answer: (C) 1994

Explanation

India signed the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity at the Rio Earth Summit on 5 June 1992 and subsequently ratified it on 18 February 1994. The convention officially came into force for India on 19 May 1994, making India a party to this legally binding multilateral treaty aimed at conserving biological diversity, ensuring its sustainable use, and sharing the benefits of genetic resources equitably.

75Geography
Apart from carbon dioxide, which of the following gases also has a role in climate change ?
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Answer: (A) Methane

Explanation

Methane is a potent greenhouse gas that plays a significant role in global warming and climate change. It is extremely effective at trapping heat in the atmosphere, possessing a global warming potential that is many times greater than that of carbon dioxide over a 100-year period. Major sources of methane emissions include agricultural activities such as livestock enteric fermentation and rice cultivation, as well as the decay of organic waste in landfills and emissions during the extraction and transport of fossil fuels.

76Geography
At present which country is the maximum emitter of carbon dioxide ?
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Answer: (B) China

Explanation

China surpassed the United States in 2006 to become the world's largest emitter of carbon dioxide. Rapid industrialization, heavy reliance on coal for electricity and heat generation, and a massive export-oriented manufacturing sector have driven China's high emission levels. By 2014, China was responsible for nearly 30% of global annual carbon dioxide emissions, making it the maximum emitter of CO2.

77Geography
As per the IPCC 4th Assessment Report, the average sea level during the period 1961-2003 increased approximately at the rate of :
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Answer: (D) 1.8 mm per year

Explanation

According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Fourth Assessment Report (AR4), the global average sea level rose at an average rate of approximately 1.8 mm per year (with a range of 1.3 to 2.3 mm per year) over the period 1961 to 2003. This average rate was determined primarily through global tide gauge observations.

78Geography
In India, the forest cover percentage of the total geographical area of the country is approximately :
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Answer: (C) 21%

Explanation

According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2013, the forest cover of India was estimated to be 697,898 square kilometers, which constitutes 21.23% of the total geographical area of the country. This is approximately 21%.

79Geography
Driving force for an ecosystem is :
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Answer: (A) solar energy

Explanation

Solar energy is the primary source of energy that drives all ecological processes in an ecosystem. Green plants and other autotrophic organisms capture sunlight and convert it into chemical energy through the process of photosynthesis. This stored chemical energy is then transferred through the food chain to consumers and decomposers, powering the metabolic activities, growth, and reproduction of all living organisms, as well as driving biogeochemical cycles.

80Geography
Which of the following has the maximum biodiversity ?
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Answer: (D) Tropical regions

Explanation

Tropical regions, situated between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S), exhibit the highest levels of biodiversity on Earth. These areas receive consistent solar energy and abundant rainfall throughout the year, resulting in high primary productivity that supports a vast and diverse range of ecological niches. Furthermore, unlike temperate zones which experienced frequent glaciations in the geological past, tropical environments have remained relatively stable and undisturbed for millions of years, promoting uninterrupted speciation and evolutionary development.

81Economy
Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy ?
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Answer: (B) Fossil fuels

Explanation

Fossil fuels, which include coal, petroleum, and natural gas, are formed from the organic remains of prehistoric plants and animals that were subjected to intense heat and pressure deep within the Earth's crust over millions of years. Because the geological processes required to create these fuels operate on such an extensive timescale, the rate of their consumption by human activities vastly exceeds the rate at which they naturally regenerate. Consequently, their supply is finite, and once depleted, they cannot be replenished, making them a non-renewable source of energy.

82Geography
World Ozone Day is celebrated on :
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Answer: (C) September 16

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly designated September 16 as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, commonly known as World Ozone Day. This date commemorates the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, which took place on September 16, 1987. The Montreal Protocol is a landmark international treaty designed to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by gradually phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances worldwide.

83Science and Technology
The World's highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in :
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Answer: (B) India

Explanation

The Indian Astronomical Observatory is located at Hanle, near Leh in Ladakh, India. Situated atop Mount Saraswati in the Western Himalayas at an altitude of 4,500 meters (14,764 feet) above mean sea level, it is one of the world's highest ground-based telescopic observatories. It is operated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics, Bengaluru, and features the 2.01-meter optical-infrared Himalayan Chandra Telescope. The location's extremely dry, cold desert climate, minimal cloud cover, and low atmospheric water vapor provide excellent conditions for astronomical observations in the optical, infrared, and submillimeter wavelengths.

84Science and Technology
The hormone insulin is
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Answer: (C) Peptide

Explanation

Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two polypeptide chains: chain A with 21 amino acids and chain B with 30 amino acids, which are linked together by disulfide bonds. Because it is chemically composed of amino acid chains linked by peptide bonds, it is structurally categorized as a peptide.

85Science and Technology
The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work is caused by :
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Answer: (D) the accumulation of lactic acid

Explanation

During strenuous physical work, the oxygen demand of the muscles exceeds the supply. To continue producing energy, the muscle cells switch from aerobic respiration to anaerobic respiration. In this process, glucose is broken down to generate energy, producing lactic acid as a byproduct. The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle tissue increases the concentration of hydrogen ions, lowering the pH. This local acidosis impairs muscle enzyme activity and interferes with calcium release and binding, which are critical for muscle contraction, ultimately leading to the sensation of muscle fatigue.

86Economy
Which one of the following agricultural practices is eco-friendly ?
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Answer: (A) Organic farming

Explanation

Organic farming is a highly sustainable agricultural method that relies on ecological processes, biodiversity, and natural cycles adapted to local conditions rather than the use of synthetic inputs. By utilizing biological fertilizers such as compost, green manure, and bone meal, and employing natural pest control methods like crop rotation and companion planting, it enhances soil fertility, promotes biodiversity, and prevents chemical runoff into water bodies. This practice reduces the ecological footprint of agriculture by maintaining natural ecosystem balances and preserving soil structure and health over the long term.

87Economy
According to the World Health Organisation, the disease which causes the death of the largest number of people today is :
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Answer: (B) Tuberculosis

Explanation

According to the World Health Organization (WHO), tuberculosis is the leading cause of death worldwide from a single infectious agent. It is a contagious, airborne bacterial disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily infects the lungs. It remains one of the top global health challenges, claiming over one million lives annually.

88Science and Technology
The normal temperature of human body in Kelvin scale is :
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Answer: (D) 310

Explanation

The normal temperature of the human body is approximately 37 °C. To convert temperature from the Celsius scale to the Kelvin scale, the standard formula is:

K = °C + 273.15

Substituting the normal body temperature of 37 °C into the equation yields:

K = 37 + 273.15 = 310.15 K

This value approximates to 310 K.

89Geography
The only snake that builds a nest is :
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Answer: (B) King cobra

Explanation

The King cobra is the only snake species in the world that builds a nest for its eggs. The female King cobra uses her body to scrape together dry leaves, twigs, and forest debris into a mound. She then deposits her clutch of eggs inside this nest and remains coiled on top of the mound to guard it from potential predators until the eggs are ready to hatch. This nesting behavior is a unique parental care trait among snakes.

90Science and Technology
Which one of the following does not contain silver ?
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Answer: (B) German Silver

Explanation

German silver is a metallic alloy that contains no actual silver. It is typically composed of copper, nickel, and zinc, with a common formulation consisting of approximately 60% copper, 20% nickel, and 20% zinc. The alloy receives its name entirely from its silver-white, lustrous appearance, which closely mimics pure silver, and because its industrial formulation was perfected by German scientists in the early 19th century.

91Science and Technology
When an aluminium article is 'anodized', this means the deposition of a layer of :
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Answer: (B) Aluminium oxide

Explanation

Anodizing is an electrochemical passivation process used to increase the thickness of the natural oxide layer on the surface of metal parts. When an aluminium article is anodized, it acts as the anode in an electrolytic cell containing an acidic electrolyte. The passage of an electric current through the electrolyte releases oxygen at the anode, which reacts with the aluminium surface to form a thick, uniform, and highly durable layer of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃). This artificial oxide film provides excellent corrosion resistance, wear resistance, and a porous structure that can be easily dyed for decorative finishes.

92Science and Technology
Which one of the following polymers is widely used for making bullet proof material ?
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Answer: (B) Polyamides

Explanation

Polyamides, specifically synthetic aromatic polyamides (aramids) like Kevlar, are widely used in making bullet-proof materials such as vests, helmets, and body armor. Kevlar consists of long, highly aligned molecular chains with strong hydrogen bonding between them, which gives the material an exceptionally high tensile strength-to-weight ratio. When a bullet hits a polyamide-based protective layer, these strong, tightly woven fibers absorb and dissipate the impact energy across a wide area, reducing the projectile's velocity and stopping it from penetrating.

93Science and Technology
When a CD (compact disc) is used as an audio and video system is seen in sunlight, rainbow like colours are seen. This can be explained on the basis of the phenomenon of :
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Answer: (A) Reflection and diffraction

Explanation

The closely spaced data tracks on a CD act as a diffraction grating: white sunlight is reflected off the metallic surface and simultaneously diffracted by the tracks, splitting it into its constituent colours at different angles. Refraction (bending at a medium boundary) and transmission play no significant role in this iridescence, making 'Reflection and diffraction' the correct explanation.

94Science and Technology
Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set ?
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Answer: (A) Light Waves

Explanation

Most television remote control units operate using infrared (IR) light waves, which are a form of electromagnetic radiation. The remote control features an infrared light-emitting diode (LED) that transmits coded pulses of invisible light to the television set. A photodetector on the TV receives these light waves and decodes them to execute the intended commands.

95Science and Technology
The working principle of a washing machine is :
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Answer: (A) Centrifugation

Explanation

Centrifugation is a separation technique that uses centrifugal force to separate particles of different densities from a mixture. In a washing machine, particularly during the spin-dry cycle, the central drum rotates at a high speed. This rapid rotation generates a strong centrifugal force directed radially outwards. As the wet clothes are pressed against the perforated wall of the spinning drum, the water molecules are forced out through the tiny holes while the larger clothing items are retained inside. This effectively separates the water from the fabrics, drying the clothes.

96Science and Technology
A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct ?
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Answer: (C) It must have a low melting point

Explanation

An electrical fuse is a safety device designed to protect electrical circuits and appliances from damage caused by overcurrent. It consists of a wire with a low melting point, typically made of an alloy of tin and lead. When the current flowing through the circuit exceeds a safe limit, the heat generated due to Joule heating (H = I²Rt) raises the temperature of the fuse wire above its melting point. As a result, the wire melts and breaks the circuit, immediately stopping the flow of current to prevent electrical hazards and fires.

97Science and Technology
A simple machine helps a person in doing :
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Answer: (B) the same amount of work with lesser force

Explanation

Work is defined as the product of the force applied on an object and the distance the object moves in the direction of that force (W = F × d). According to the law of conservation of energy, a machine cannot multiply energy or reduce the total amount of work required to complete a task. Instead, a simple machine provides a mechanical advantage by altering the relationship between force and distance. It allows a person to apply a much smaller input force over a proportionally larger distance to overcome a larger resistance force over a shorter distance. Thus, the same amount of work is performed, but with the application of lesser force, making the task easier to accomplish.

98Science and Technology
Domestic electrical wiring is basically a :
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Answer: (B) Parallel connection

Explanation

Domestic electrical wiring is designed using parallel connections so that every appliance operates at the same standard line voltage. In a parallel circuit, the electric potential difference across each appliance remains constant, allowing them to function at their rated power. This configuration also ensures that each appliance has its own independent switch, meaning that switching off or the failure of one appliance does not interrupt the flow of current to other devices in the circuit.

99Science and Technology
The most widely used antacid is :
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Answer: (D) Zantac

Explanation

Zantac, which contains the active ingredient ranitidine, is a widely used antihistamine that specifically acts as a histamine H₂-receptor antagonist. By blocking these receptors on the parietal cells of the stomach, it effectively reduces the secretion of gastric acid, making it highly successful in treating and preventing peptic ulcers, gastroesophageal reflux disease, and heartburn.

100Science and Technology
Which of the following drugs reduces fever ?
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Answer: (B) Antipyretic

Explanation

Antipyretics are medications that prevent or reduce fever by lowering the body temperature from an abnormally elevated state. They achieve this by acting on the hypothalamus, which regulates the body's temperature set-point, overriding the temperature-raising signals triggered by pyrogens during an infection or inflammation. Common examples of antipyretics include paracetamol, aspirin, and ibuprofen.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2D
  3. 3B
  4. 4C
  5. 5A
  6. 6C
  7. 7D
  8. 8D
  9. 9B
  10. 10B
  11. 11D
  12. 12C
  13. 13B
  14. 14C
  15. 15B
  16. 16C
  17. 17B
  18. 18B
  19. 19C
  20. 20D
  21. 21B
  22. 22A
  23. 23D
  24. 24B
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27D
  28. 28B
  29. 29A
  30. 30B
  31. 31C
  32. 32C
  33. 33D
  34. 34A
  35. 35D
  36. 36C
  37. 37D
  38. 38D
  39. 39D
  40. 40D
  41. 41B
  42. 42A
  43. 43D
  44. 44C
  45. 45C
  46. 46C
  47. 47D
  48. 48A
  49. 49D
  50. 50C
  51. 51B
  52. 52A
  53. 53B
  54. 54B
  55. 55B
  56. 56C
  57. 57A
  58. 58B
  59. 59D
  60. 60B
  61. 61C
  62. 62C
  63. 63D
  64. 64B
  65. 65A
  66. 66B
  67. 67A
  68. 68A
  69. 69C
  70. 70B
  71. 71C
  72. 72A
  73. 73B
  74. 74C
  75. 75A
  76. 76B
  77. 77D
  78. 78C
  79. 79A
  80. 80D
  81. 81B
  82. 82C
  83. 83B
  84. 84C
  85. 85D
  86. 86A
  87. 87B
  88. 88D
  89. 89B
  90. 90B
  91. 91B
  92. 92B
  93. 93A
  94. 94A
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97B
  98. 98B
  99. 99D
  100. 100B

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