HPAS2025CSAT (Paper II)✓ Every question solved

HPAS Prelims 2025 CSAT (Paper II) with Answers & Explanations

All 97 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

97
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4
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100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Logical Reasoning4041%
  • Quantitative Aptitude3940%
  • Reading Comprehension1616%
  • Decision Making22%
1Reading Comprehension
It has always been clear that a properly designed media programme uses press, posters, printed leaflets, and so on in proportions suitable to the nature of the product itself. In such a programme, television occupies a relatively important place if the product is sold in small quantities. It is regarded as a quick-acting medium, peculiarly suited to promoting 'impulse purchases'. Larger items, such as cars and refrigerators, may be more profitably advertised in the press as they are examined in greater detail and more leisure than television. Nevertheless, in most mass advertising campaigns, the media are used in combination with each other. It is significant, in this connection, that the poster medium, and outdoor advertising generally are now staging something of a recovery, after sustaining what at first looked like a severe blow at the time of introduction of commercial television. A properly designed media programme uses:
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Answer: (C) Different sources of media according to the type of the product

Explanation

The passage explicitly states in its opening sentence that a properly designed media programme uses press, posters, printed leaflets, and other media in proportions suitable to the nature of the product itself. This means that the selection and combination of different media sources are tailored directly to the specific characteristics, size, and consumer purchasing habits associated with the product being advertised.

2Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. It has always been clear that a properly designed media programme uses press, posters, printed leaflets, and so on in proportions suitable to the nature of the product itself. In such a programme, television occupies a relatively important place if the product is sold in small quantities. It is regarded as a quick-acting medium, peculiarly suited to promoting 'impulse purchases'. Larger items, such as cars and refrigerators, may be more profitably advertised in the press as they are examined in greater detail and more leisure than television. Nevertheless, in most mass advertising campaigns, the media are used in combination with each other. It is significant, in this connection, that the poster medium, and outdoor advertising generally are now staging something of a recovery, after sustaining what at first looked like a severe blow at the time of introduction of commercial television. The producers advertise larger items :
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Answer: (B) In the press so that the customer may see details leisurely

Explanation

According to the provided passage, larger items such as cars and refrigerators are more profitably advertised in the press because they are examined in greater detail and with more leisure than television. This directly supports the statement that these items are advertised in the press so that potential customers can study their details leisurely.

3Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability. Their chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgement, and disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgement wholly by their rules, is the humour of a scholar. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach not their own use; but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. According to the author, why should one study ?
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Answer: (C) For pleasure and enhanced capability

Explanation

The opening sentence of the passage states that studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability. The author explains that the chief use of studies for delight is in privateness and retiring, which refers to personal pleasure. He further explains that the chief use of studies for ability is in the judgement and disposition of business, which corresponds directly to enhanced capability in managing affairs. Therefore, according to the author, one should study for personal pleasure and enhanced capability.

4Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability. Their chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgement, and disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgement wholly by their rules, is the humour of a scholar. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach not their own use; but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Why does the author not recommend too much of studies ?
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Answer: (A) Because it reflects idleness

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that "To spend too much time in studies is sloth". The word "sloth" translates to laziness, inactivity, or idleness. Therefore, the author does not recommend too much of studies because spending an excessive amount of time on them reflects idleness.

5Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability. Their chief use for delight, is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgement, and disposition of business. For expert men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgement wholly by their rules, is the humour of a scholar. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach not their own use; but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Which kind of human beings denounce studies ?
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Answer: (D) Cunning

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that crafty men condemn studies. The word crafty is synonymous with cunning, and to condemn means to denounce or express strong disapproval. Therefore, cunning human beings are the ones who denounce studies.

6Reading Comprehension
Choose the correct option out of given four. In communication connotative words are :
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Answer: (C) Cultural

Explanation

Connotation refers to the cultural, emotional, and social associations that a word carries beyond its literal, dictionary definition (denotation). The meaning of connotative words is highly dependent on the cultural context, beliefs, and shared experiences of a community, as different cultures assign different values, emotional weights, and secondary meanings to the same words. Understanding connotative words in communication therefore requires shared cultural knowledge between the communicator and the receiver.

7Logical Reasoning
Choose the correct option out of given four. Communication becomes circular when :
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Answer: (B) The decoder becomes an encoder

Explanation

Communication becomes circular in models like the Osgood-Schramm model of communication, where the process is conceptualized as a dynamic, two-way interaction rather than a linear, one-way flow. In this framework, the receiver does not merely receive a message passively. Instead, they decode the incoming message, interpret its meaning, and then encode a response to send back to the original transmitter. This transition of the decoder becoming an encoder creates a continuous feedback loop where both parties constantly alternate roles as senders and receivers, thereby making the communication process circular.

8Logical Reasoning
Choose the correct option out of given four. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a large number of receivers simultaneously is called :
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Answer: (A) Mass communication

Explanation

Mass communication refers to the process of dispersing information, ideas, and messages to a wide, diverse, and geographically scattered audience at the same time. This mode of communication typically utilizes mass media channels such as television, radio, newspapers, and digital broadcasting networks. A singular sender or source, such as a news agency or broadcasting station, disseminates the content to thousands or millions of receivers simultaneously, making it highly effective for reaching large populations quickly.

9Logical Reasoning
Choose the correct option out of given four. Semantic barrier of communication is implied when the :
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Answer: (C) Receiver fails to understand the meaning

Explanation

A semantic barrier in communication arises from differences in the interpretation of language, words, symbols, and signs. The term semantic refers directly to the study of meaning in language. When this barrier is present, the receiver fails to understand the intended meaning of the message sent by the source. This typically occurs due to the use of complex jargon, ambiguous phrasing, language differences, or poor translation, which prevents the receiver from decoding the message as it was originally intended.

10Logical Reasoning
Choose the correct option out of given four. In communication the word 'Haptics' signifies :
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Answer: (D) Tactile communication

Explanation

Haptics refers to the study and use of touch in nonverbal communication. The term is derived from the Greek word haptikos, which means pertaining to the sense of touch. In human interaction, tactile communication involves physical contact such as handshakes, holding hands, hugging, or patting someone on the back. It is a fundamental way of conveying emotions, establishing interpersonal relationships, and expressing feelings like warmth, empathy, support, or authority. Since the sense of touch is represented by the word tactile, haptics directly signifies tactile communication.

11Decision Making
Choose the correct option out of given four. The technique by which a leader helps to encourage younger colleagues is called as :
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Answer: (B) Mentoring

Explanation

Mentoring is a developmental and supportive relationship where an experienced leader guides, advises, and encourages a younger or less experienced colleague to help them grow professionally and personally. Through regular interactions, the mentor shares knowledge, values, and experiences, boosting the confidence of the younger colleague and aiding in their career advancement and skill development.

12Logical Reasoning
Choose the correct option out of given four. Creative thinking and problem solving are two significant forms of :
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Answer: (A) Realistic thinking

Explanation

Thinking is broadly classified by psychologists into two main categories: autistic thinking and realistic thinking. Realistic thinking is directed, logical, and oriented towards the external environment to achieve a specific goal. Since both creative thinking and problem solving involve logical reasoning, the manipulation of cognitive data, and finding real-world solutions to practical challenges, they are classified as primary forms of realistic thinking.

13Decision Making
Choose the correct option out of given four. Effective Time management can contribute to teamwork by :
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Answer: (C) Ensuring tasks and deadlines are met efficiently

Explanation

Effective time management allows team members to plan, prioritize, and allocate the necessary hours to their respective responsibilities. By organizing workflows and setting clear timelines, the entire team can coordinate their efforts systematically, preventing last-minute rushes and delays. This structured coordination ensures that collective project milestones and individual tasks are completed successfully and on schedule, enhancing the overall efficiency and productivity of the team.

14Reading Comprehension
Choose the correct option out of given four. Which of the following statements best defines the scope of semiotics ?
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Answer: (D) Semiotics is a study of sign systems

Explanation

Semiotics is the systematic study of sign processes (semiosis) and the creation, transmission, and interpretation of meaning. It investigates how signs and symbols, both linguistic and non-linguistic, operate within communication systems to convey significance. This includes analyzing how words, images, sounds, gestures, and objects function as signs to represent ideas, concepts, or objects within a society.

15Reading Comprehension
Choose the correct option out of given four. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data during the process of communication is due to an individual's :
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Answer: (A) Coding ability

Explanation

In the process of communication, cognitive data refers to intellectual information, concepts, and logical thoughts that must be converted into a shareable form. Coding ability represents an individual's capability to translate these abstract internal thoughts into structured symbols, language, or signals (encoding) as a sender, and to interpret those signals back into meaningful ideas (decoding) as a receiver. If an individual lacks adequate coding ability, they cannot properly formulate or accurately comprehend the message, which creates a fundamental barrier to the successful transmission of cognitive data.

16Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. The literary distaste for politics, however seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature i.e. on the very politics of such representation. A political drama often turns out to be not merely to show readers how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things ought to be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is not literature but propaganda. Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the 'felt reality' of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel though that was not so in the 18th and 19th centuries. According to the passage, the political drama often turns out to be a:
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Answer: (A) Drama with its own politics

Explanation

According to the passage, a political drama does not merely depict things as they are, but has definite ideas about how they ought to be and seeks to convert the reader to a particular cause or ideology. This active promotion of a specific viewpoint and agenda means that the drama possesses its own politics, transforming the representation into a vehicle for a particular ideology rather than a neutral depiction.

17Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. The literary distaste for politics, however seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature i.e. on the very politics of such representation. A political drama often turns out to be not merely to show readers how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things ought to be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is not literature but propaganda. Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the 'felt reality' of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel though that was not so in the 18th and 19th centuries. According to the passage, a political drama reveals :
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Answer: (A) Writer's perception

Explanation

The passage states that a political drama does not merely show readers how things are, but rather contains definite ideas about how things ought to be and what one should think and do to move in that desired direction. By attempting to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology, the political drama reveals the writer's perception, subjective viewpoints, and specific beliefs.

18Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. The literary distaste for politics, however seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature i.e. on the very politics of such representation. A political drama often turns out to be not merely to show readers how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things ought to be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is not literature but propaganda. Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the 'felt reality' of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel though that was not so in the 18th and 19th centuries. Politics by its nature is :
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Answer: (D) Ideas and principles

Explanation

According to the provided passage, another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation arises from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies, which correspond to ideas and principles.

19Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. The literary distaste for politics, however seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature i.e. on the very politics of such representation. A political drama often turns out to be not merely to show readers how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things ought to be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is not literature but propaganda. Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the 'felt reality' of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel though that was not so in the 18th and 19th centuries. Literature deals with :
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Answer: (D) Felt reality of human life

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that literature is about human experiences rather than intellectual abstractions. It clarifies this by stating that literature deals in what is called the felt reality of human flesh and blood, emphasizing sap and savour over arid and lifeless ideas. This directly means literature deals with the felt reality of human life.

20Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer should be based on the passage only. The literary distaste for politics, however seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature i.e. on the very politics of such representation. A political drama often turns out to be not merely to show readers how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things ought to be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is not literature but propaganda. Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the 'felt reality' of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel, the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel though that was not so in the 18th and 19th centuries. The observation of Mary MacCarthy discloses :
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Answer: (A) Unseen felt ideas of today in novel

Explanation

The passage states that the American novelist Mary McCarthy, in her book Ideas and the Novel, observed that ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel, whereas this was not the case in the 18th and 19th centuries. This observation directly corresponds to how ideas are perceived as unsuitable or unwelcome (unsightly/unseen) in contemporary novels compared to the past, reflecting the modern perspective on the integration of ideas and intellectual abstractions within the novelistic form.

21Reading Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. The correct antonym of the word phlegmatic is ............ .
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Answer: (A) Energetic

Explanation

The word phlegmatic is used to describe a person who has a stolidly calm, unemotional, and sluggish disposition. The word energetic is its direct antonym, as it denotes someone who is full of life, highly active, and exhibiting great enthusiasm and vitality.

22Reading Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. The correct synonym of the word ostentatious is ............ .
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Answer: (A) Extravagant

Explanation

The word ostentatious refers to a pretentious, showy, or vulgar display designed to impress others or attract attention. The word extravagant serves as a synonym because it describes something that is excessive, flamboyant, or over-the-top, sharing the same core meaning of making an elaborate, lavish, or showy presentation.

23Logical Reasoning
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. One who traces the history of the descent of families is called ............ .
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Answer: (B) Genealogist

Explanation

A genealogist is a specialist who studies genealogy, which is the investigation of family histories, lineages, and the tracing of their descent. This involves conducting research using historical documents, public registries, oral histories, and genetic testing to construct family trees and establish kinship links across generations.

24Logical Reasoning
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. He and his four brothers love ............ very much.
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Answer: (C) One another

Explanation

The pronoun one another is a reciprocal pronoun used when referring to actions or feelings shared among more than two people. In this sentence, the subject consists of he and his four brothers, which represents a group of five people. Since the group contains more than two individuals, the pronoun one another is used to describe the mutual relationship or action among all of them.

25Logical Reasoning
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. That evening the storm rolled in and there was plenty of thunder and .................... .
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Answer: (A) Lightning

Explanation

The noun lightning refers to the bright flashes of light produced by natural electrical discharges in the atmosphere during a storm. It is paired idiomatically with thunder in the common phrase thunder and lightning to describe the primary sensory occurrences during a thunderstorm. The spelling lightning is the correct noun form representing this specific meteorological phenomenon.

26Reading Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. He .................... scarcely see in this light.
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Answer: (B) Can

Explanation

The word scarcely is a negative adverb meaning almost not or barely. Using negative modals like can't or could not along with scarcely would result in a double negative, which is grammatically incorrect. Therefore, the positive modal verb can is used to correctly convey that he is almost unable to see in this dim light.

27Logical Reasoning
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. Neelima is .................... cleverer than Savita.
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Answer: (D) Much

Explanation

In English grammar, comparative adjectives like cleverer are modified by adverbial intensifiers such as much, far, or slightly to indicate the degree of difference. The adverb much is standardly used before comparative adjectives to add emphasis.

28Logical Reasoning
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. It is better to keep one's head in the face of danger than .................... one's courage and .................... panicky.
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Answer: (A) Lose, get

Explanation

The sentence uses a comparative construction comparing two courses of action using the format "It is better to [verb] than [verb]". The first action is introduced by the infinitive "to keep". To maintain grammatical parallelism, the verbs following the conjunction "than" must also be in the bare infinitive form (the base form of the verb without "to"). Therefore, the base verbs "lose" and "get" are required to perfectly match the infinitive "keep", completing the parallel structure of "to keep ... than [to] lose ... and [to] get".

29Logical Reasoning
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. Science relating to the formation and development of words is called .................... .
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Answer: (C) Etymology

Explanation

Etymology is the branch of linguistics that deals with the origin, historical development, structure, and formation of words, tracing their transmission from one language to another and analyzing their component parts.

30Logical Reasoning
Fill in the blanks with the correct option. One who keeps thinking of one particular thing only is .................... .
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Answer: (D) Monomaniac

Explanation

The prefix mono- means single or one, and mania refers to an excessive enthusiasm, obsession, or preoccupation. Therefore, a monomaniac is a person who is pathologically obsessed with or keeps thinking of one particular thing or idea to the exclusion of everything else.

31Quantitative Aptitude
The distance between two cities in the Himachal Pradesh is 300 km. Two cars A and B start simultaneously from these stations and move towards each other. The speed of one of them is 7 km/h more than that of the other. If the distance between them after two hours of their start is 34 km, then the speed of car A and car B are :
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Answer: (C) 63 km/h and 70 km/h respectively

Explanation

Let the speed of one car be x km/h. Since the other car is 7 km/h faster, its speed is x + 7 km/h.

When two objects move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds. Therefore: Relative Speed = x + (x + 7) = 2x + 7 km/h

The initial distance between the two cities is 300 km. After 2 hours, they are still 34 km apart, meaning the combined distance covered by both cars in 2 hours is: Distance Covered = 300 - 34 = 266 km

Using the standard formula, Distance = Speed × Time: 266 = (2x + 7) × 2 133 = 2x + 7 2x = 126 x = 63 km/h

Thus, the speed of one car is 63 km/h, and the speed of the other car is 63 + 7 = 70 km/h.

32Logical Reasoning
The missing term in the following sequence 0, 1, 1, -, 3, 5, 8, -, 21, 34, 55, -, 144 are :
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Answer: (A) 2, 13, 89,

Explanation

The given sequence represents the classic Fibonacci sequence, where each term starting from the third term is the sum of the two preceding terms. The recurrence relation is defined as Fₙ = Fₙ₋₁ + Fₙ₋₂ for n ≥ 2, with the initial terms being F₀ = 0 and F₁ = 1.

Calculating the terms step-by-step: F₀ = 0 F₁ = 1 F₂ = 0 + 1 = 1 F₃ = 1 + 1 = 2 (first missing term) F₄ = 1 + 2 = 3 F₅ = 2 + 3 = 5 F₆ = 3 + 5 = 8 F₇ = 5 + 8 = 13 (second missing term) F₈ = 8 + 13 = 21 F₉ = 13 + 21 = 34 F₁₀ = 21 + 34 = 55 F₁₁ = 34 + 55 = 89 (third missing term) F₁₂ = 55 + 89 = 144

Thus, the missing terms are 2, 13, and 89.

33Quantitative Aptitude
Shalini's mother is 12 years more than twice of Shalini's age. After 8 years, she will be 20 years less than three times of Shalini's age. Then the age of Shalini's mother is :
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Answer: (A) 44 years

Explanation

Let Shalini's present age be S and her mother's present age be M.

According to the first condition, the mother's age is 12 years more than twice Shalini's age: M = 2S + 12

According to the second condition, after 8 years, the mother's age (M + 8) will be 20 years less than three times Shalini's age at that time (S + 8): M + 8 = 3(S + 8) - 20 M + 8 = 3S + 24 - 20 M + 8 = 3S + 4 M = 3S - 4

Equating the two expressions for M: 2S + 12 = 3S - 4 S = 16

Substituting S = 16 back into the first equation to find the mother's present age: M = 2(16) + 12 = 32 + 12 = 44 years.

34Quantitative Aptitude
A milkman buys 70 litre of milk for Rs. 1500 and add 5 litre of water. If he sells it at Rs. 24 per litre, then the profit percentage is :
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Answer: (B) 20%

Explanation

Total quantity of the mixture sold = Milk bought + Water added = 70 + 5 = 75 litres.

Total selling price = 75 × 24 = Rs. 1800.

Total cost price = Rs. 1500.

Profit = Total selling price - Total cost price = 1800 - 1500 = Rs. 300.

Profit percentage = (Profit / Total cost price) × 100 = (300 / 1500) × 100 = 20%.

35Quantitative Aptitude
Mohan Lal purchased an article for Rs. 35,000. He allows a discount of 12% of its marked price and still gains 10%. Then the marked price of the article is :
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Answer: (C) Rs. 43,750

Explanation

The relationship between Marked Price (MP) and Cost Price (CP) when discount percentage (D) and gain percentage (G) are given is:

MP / CP = (100 + G) / (100 - D)

Given: CP = Rs. 35,000 G = 10% D = 12%

Substituting these values into the relation:

MP / 35,000 = (100 + 10) / (100 - 12)

MP / 35,000 = 110 / 88

Simplifying the fraction 110/88 by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by 22:

MP / 35,000 = 5 / 4

MP = 35,000 × (5 / 4)

MP = 8,750 × 5

MP = 43,750

36Quantitative Aptitude
The compound interest on Rs. 75,000 for three years, at successive interest rates of 4%, 6% and 9% for each year respectively is :
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Answer: (A) Rs. 15,121.20

Explanation

Amount (A) after three years with successive compound interest rates of r₁, r₂, and r₃ is given by the formula: A = P × (1 + r₁/100) × (1 + r₂/100) × (1 + r₃/100)

Substituting the given values P = 75,000, r₁ = 4, r₂ = 6, and r₃ = 9: A = 75000 × (1 + 4/100) × (1 + 6/100) × (1 + 9/100) A = 75000 × 1.04 × 1.06 × 1.09 A = 78000 × 1.06 × 1.09 A = 82680 × 1.09 A = 90121.20

The compound interest (CI) is computed as the difference between the total amount and the principal: CI = A - P CI = 90121.20 - 75000 CI = 15121.20

37Quantitative Aptitude
A machine costs Rs. 70,000. It depreciates at the rate of 5% in the first year and 10% in the second year. Its depreciated value after 2 years is :
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Answer: (B) Rs. 59,850

Explanation

The depreciated value V of an asset after successive annual depreciation rates of r₁% and r₂% is given by the formula:

V = P × (1 - r₁/100) × (1 - r₂/100)

where P is the initial cost of the machine.

Substituting the given values into the formula: P = Rs. 70,000 r₁ = 5 r₂ = 10

V = 70,000 × (1 - 5/100) × (1 - 10/100) V = 70,000 × 0.95 × 0.9 V = 66,500 × 0.9 V = 59,850

38Quantitative Aptitude
Praveen can complete a piece of work in 30 days, while Mohit can finish it in 25 days. They work together for 10 days, after which Praveen leaves. How many more days will Mohit take to complete the remaining work ?
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Answer: (B) 20/3 days

Explanation

Let the total work be the Least Common Multiple of 30 and 25, which is 150 units.

The daily efficiency of Praveen = 150 / 30 = 5 units per day. The daily efficiency of Mohit = 150 / 25 = 6 units per day.

Their combined daily efficiency = 5 + 6 = 11 units per day.

The work completed by both working together for 10 days = 10 × 11 = 110 units.

The remaining work to be completed = 150 - 110 = 40 units.

After Praveen leaves, Mohit completes this remaining work alone. The number of additional days Mohit takes = 40 / 6 = 20/3 days.

39Quantitative Aptitude
Two inlet taps can fill an empty tank in 10 hours and 15 hours respectively, while an outlet tap can empty the full tank in 8 hours. If all three taps are opened simultaneously, the tank will be completely filled in :
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Answer: (C) 24 hours

Explanation

Let the total capacity of the tank be the least common multiple (LCM) of the given times 10, 15, and 8. The LCM of 10, 15, and 8 is 120 units.

The efficiency of the first inlet tap is 120 ÷ 10 = 12 units per hour. The efficiency of the second inlet tap is 120 ÷ 15 = 8 units per hour. The efficiency of the outlet tap is 120 ÷ 8 = 15 units per hour.

When all three taps are opened together, the net filling rate per hour is: 12 + 8 - 15 = 5 units per hour.

To fill the entire tank of 120 units at this rate, the time taken is: 120 ÷ 5 = 24 hours.

40Quantitative Aptitude
Two trains, measuring 150 meters and 120 meters in length, are moving in opposite directions on parallel tracks on a speed of 72 km/h and the other at 36 km/h. They will cross each other in :
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Answer: (C) 9 seconds

Explanation

When two trains of lengths L₁ and L₂ move in opposite directions, the total distance to be covered to cross each other is the sum of their lengths, and their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds.

Total distance = L₁ + L₂ = 150 + 120 = 270 meters

Relative speed = 72 + 36 = 108 km/h

Converting relative speed to meters per second: 108 × 5/18 = 30 m/s

Time taken = Total distance / Relative speed = 270 / 30 = 9 seconds

41Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following statements is not true ?
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Answer: (D) Each exterior angle of a regular octagon = 60°

Explanation

The measure of each exterior angle of a regular polygon with n sides is given by the formula:

Exterior Angle = 360° ÷ n

For a regular octagon, the number of sides n is 8. Substituting this value into the formula:

Exterior Angle = 360° ÷ 8 = 45°

The statement in option d asserts that each exterior angle of a regular octagon is 60°, which is mathematically incorrect.

42Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following statements about the rhombus is not true ?
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Answer: (D) Diagonals are equal

Explanation

In a rhombus, the diagonals perpendicular bisect each other, but they are not equal in length. The only case where a rhombus has equal diagonals is when it is a square, which is a special type of rhombus with four right angles. For any general rhombus, one diagonal is longer, connecting the acute angles, and the other is shorter, connecting the obtuse angles. Therefore, the statement that the diagonals of a rhombus are equal is not true.

43Quantitative Aptitude
Which statement is not true for a kite ?
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Answer: (C) One pair of opposite sides is parallel

Explanation

A kite is defined as a quadrilateral with two distinct pairs of congruent adjacent sides. By geometric definition, none of the opposite sides in a kite are parallel to each other. A quadrilateral that possesses one pair of parallel opposite sides is classified as a trapezoid, making the presence of parallel sides incompatible with the standard properties of a kite.

44Quantitative Aptitude
A hexagonal pyramid has :
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Answer: (B) 7 vertices, 12 edges and 7 faces

Explanation

For any n-gonal pyramid, the formulas to find the number of vertices, faces, and edges are: Number of vertices V = n + 1 Number of faces F = n + 1 Number of edges E = 2n

For a hexagonal pyramid, the base is a hexagon, which means n = 6. Substituting this value into the formulas gives: V = 6 + 1 = 7 vertices F = 6 + 1 = 7 faces E = 2 × 6 = 12 edges

This can be verified using Euler formula for polyhedra, which states V - E + F = 2. Substituting the values yields 7 - 12 + 7 = 2, which satisfies the relation.

45Quantitative Aptitude
The area of a trapezium is 384 sq. cm. Its parallel sides are in the ratio 3 : 5, and the perpendicular distance between them is 12 cm. Then the lengths of the parallel sides (bases) of the trapezium are :
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Answer: (A) 24 cm and 40 cm

Explanation

The area of a trapezium is given by the formula: Area = ½ × (sum of parallel sides) × (perpendicular distance)

Let the parallel sides be 3x and 5x, representing the 3 : 5 ratio. The perpendicular distance is 12 cm, and the area is 384 cm².

Substituting these values into the formula: 384 = ½ × (3x + 5x) × 12 384 = 6 × 8x 384 = 48x x = 384 / 48 x = 8

Thus, the lengths of the parallel sides are: 3x = 3 × 8 = 24 cm 5x = 5 × 8 = 40 cm

46Quantitative Aptitude
A well with an inner diameter of 14 meters is dug to a depth of 15 meters. The excavated earth is spread evenly around the well to a width of 7 meters, forming an embankment. The height of the embankment is :
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Answer: (B) 5 meter

Explanation

The volume of the excavated earth from the cylindrical well is given by the formula V = π × r² × h, where r is the inner radius of the well and h is its depth.

The inner diameter is 14 meters, so the inner radius r = 7 meters, and the depth h = 15 meters. Volume of excavated earth = π × 7² × 15 = 735π cubic meters.

The earth is spread evenly around the well to form a circular ring-shaped embankment. The inner radius of this ring R₁ is equal to the radius of the well, which is 7 meters. Since the width of the embankment is 7 meters, the outer radius of the ring R₂ = 7 + 7 = 14 meters.

The area of this circular ring is given by the formula A = π × (R₂² - R₁²). Area of the embankment = π × (14² - 7²) = π × (196 - 49) = 147π square meters.

The height of the embankment is calculated by dividing the volume of the excavated earth by the area of the embankment. Height = Volume / Area = 735π / 147π = 5 meters.

47Quantitative Aptitude
If x⁴ + (1)/(x⁴) = 14, then the value of x - ¹⁄ₓ is :
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Answer: (A) √2

Explanation

Using the algebraic identity, we have: (x² + 1/x²)² = x⁴ + 1/x⁴ + 2

Substituting the given value x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 14: (x² + 1/x²)² = 14 + 2 = 16 x² + 1/x² = 4

Similarly, the identity for the square of the difference is: (x - 1/x)² = x² + 1/x² - 2

Substituting x² + 1/x² = 4: (x - 1/x)² = 4 - 2 = 2 x - 1/x = √2

48Quantitative Aptitude
If x = (a + √(a² + b³))¹^/³ + (a - √(a² + b³))¹^/³, then the value of x³ + 3bx - 2a is :
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Answer: (C) 0

Explanation

Using the algebraic identity (u + v)³ = u³ + v³ + 3uv(u + v), let:

u = (a + √(a² + b³))⁽1/3) v = (a - √(a² + b³))⁽1/3)

This gives x = u + v.

First, calculate the sum of the cubes: u³ + v³ = (a + √(a² + b³)) + (a - √(a² + b³)) = 2a

Next, calculate the product uv: uv = ((a + √(a² + b³))(a - √(a² + b³)))⁽1/3) uv = (a² - (a² + b³))⁽1/3) uv = (-b³)⁽1/3) = -b

Substituting these values back into the identity: x³ = 2a + 3(-b)x x³ = 2a - 3bx

Rearranging the terms gives: x³ + 3bx - 2a = 0

49Quantitative Aptitude
The area of region bounded by the straight lines |x| + |y| = 1 is :
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Answer: (B) 2

Explanation

The equation |x| + |y| = 1 represents a square with its vertices on the coordinate axes at (1, 0), (0, 1), (-1, 0), and (0, -1).

The area of a square with diagonals of length d is given by the formula: Area = ½ × d²

The diagonals of this square lie along the x-axis and y-axis, extending from -1 to 1. Thus, the length of each diagonal is d = 2.

Substituting this value into the formula: Area = ½ × 2² = 2

Alternatively, the side length s of the square is the distance between any two adjacent vertices, such as (1, 0) and (0, 1): s = √(1² + 1²) = √2

The area of the square is: Area = s² = (√2)² = 2

50Quantitative Aptitude
If one internal angle of a regular polygon is 135°, then the number of diagonals in the polygon is :
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Answer: (B) 20

Explanation

The external angle of a regular polygon is the supplement of its internal angle.

External angle = 180° - 135° = 45°

The number of sides n in a regular polygon is determined by dividing the sum of all external angles (360°) by the measure of one external angle:

n = 360° ÷ 45° = 8

The number of diagonals d in a polygon with n sides is calculated using the standard formula:

d = n(n - 3) / 2

Substituting n = 8 into the formula:

d = 8 × (8 - 3) / 2 = 8 × 5 / 2 = 20

51Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following is not true ?
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Answer: (C) Two congruent triangles are always similar and converse is also true.

Explanation

Two congruent triangles are always similar because their corresponding angles are equal and the ratio of their corresponding sides is 1:1. However, the converse of this statement is false. Two similar triangles are not always congruent because similarity only requires equal corresponding angles and proportional corresponding sides, rather than equal side lengths. For example, an equilateral triangle with a side length of 3 units is similar to an equilateral triangle with a side length of 5 units because all their angles are 60°, but they are not congruent because their sizes are different. Since the converse does not hold true, this statement is incorrect.

52Quantitative Aptitude
If △ ABC is an isosceles triangles such that AB = BC = 8 cm and ∠ ABC = 90°, then the length of the altitude drawn from B to AC is :
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Answer: (D) 4√2 cm

Explanation

In a right-angled triangle ABC, which is isosceles with AB = BC = 8 cm and ∠ABC = 90°, the hypotenuse AC is calculated using the Pythagorean theorem:

AC = √(AB² + BC²) = √(8² + 8²) = √128 = 8√2 cm

In any right-angled triangle, the length of the median drawn to the hypotenuse is exactly half the length of the hypotenuse. Since triangle ABC is isosceles with AB = BC, the altitude drawn from the right-angled vertex B to the hypotenuse AC is also the median to AC.

Therefore, the length of this altitude is:

Altitude = AC / 2 = (8√2) / 2 = 4√2 cm

53Quantitative Aptitude
If three points P, Q, R lie on the side BC of the ΔABC such that BP = PQ = QR = RC. If G be centroid of ΔABC, then the ratio of areas of ΔPGR and ΔABC is :
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Answer: (D) 1 : 6

Explanation

The area of a triangle is given by the formula Area = ½ × base × height.

Let h be the altitude of ΔABC from the vertex A to the side BC. Since the centroid G divides the median from A to BC in the ratio 2:1, the perpendicular distance of G from BC is 1/3 of the altitude h.

The side BC is divided into 4 equal parts by the points P, Q, and R, which means BP = PQ = QR = RC = BC/4. The base of ΔPGR is PR, which is equal to PQ + QR = BC/4 + BC/4 = BC/2.

Now, calculating the areas of the two triangles: Area of ΔABC = ½ × BC × h Area of ΔPGR = ½ × PR × (h/3) = ½ × (BC/2) × (h/3) = (BC × h)/12

Taking the ratio of the areas: Area(ΔPGR) / Area(ΔABC) = ((BC × h)/12) / (½ × BC × h) = 2/12 = 1/6

54Quantitative Aptitude
The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semicircle of radius x (in square units) is :
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Answer: (B) x²

Explanation

The area of a triangle is given by the formula: Area = ½ × base × height

To maximize the area of a triangle inscribed in a semicircle of radius x, we choose the diameter of the semicircle as the base of the triangle. The length of this base is 2x.

The height of the triangle is the perpendicular distance from the base to the third vertex on the circular arc. The maximum possible height of any point on the semicircle above the diameter is equal to the radius, x.

Substituting the maximum base and height into the area formula: Area = ½ × 2x × x = x²

55Quantitative Aptitude
If in the two circles, arc of same length subtend angle 60° and 75° at the centre, then the ratio of their radii is :
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Answer: (D) 5 : 4

Explanation

The length of an arc s in a circle of radius r that subtends an angle θ at the center is given by the formula:

s = r × θ × (π/180)

Since the arc length s is the same for both circles, we have:

r₁ × θ₁ × (π/180) = r₂ × θ₂ × (π/180)

This simplifies to:

r₁ × θ₁ = r₂ × θ₂

Rearranging the terms gives the ratio of the radii in terms of the angles:

r₁/r₂ = θ₂/θ₁

Substituting the given angles θ₁ = 60° and θ₂ = 75°:

r₁/r₂ = 75/60 = 5/4

Thus, the ratio of the radii of the two circles is 5 : 4.

56Quantitative Aptitude
The Earth completes one full rotation on its axis in 24 hours. How many degrees does it rotate in 4 hours and 12 minutes ?
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Answer: (B) 63°

Explanation

The Earth rotates 360° on its axis in 24 hours. The rate of rotation per hour is calculated by dividing the total degrees of a full rotation by the number of hours:

Rotation rate = 360° ÷ 24 = 15° per hour

Since there are 60 minutes in an hour, the rotation rate per minute is:

Rotation rate per minute = 15° ÷ 60 = 0.25° per minute

To find the rotation in 4 hours and 12 minutes, the calculation is:

Rotation in 4 hours = 4 × 15° = 60° Rotation in 12 minutes = 12 × 0.25° = 3°

Total rotation = 60° + 3° = 63°

57Quantitative Aptitude
If sin 17° = (a)/(b), then the value of sec 17° - sin 73° is :
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Answer: (A) (a²)/(b√(b² - a²))

Explanation

Given that sin 17° = a/b.

Using the trigonometric identity, cos 17° = √(1 - sin² 17°) = √(1 - a²/b²) = √(b² - a²) / b.

Using complementary angles, sin 73° = sin(90° - 17°) = cos 17°.

To find the value of sec 17° - sin 73°: sec 17° - sin 73° = 1/cos 17° - cos 17° = (1 - cos² 17°) / cos 17° = sin² 17° / cos 17°

Substituting the values of sin 17° and cos 17°: (a²/b²) / (√(b² - a²) / b) = (a²/b²) × (b / √(b² - a²)) = a² / (b√(b² - a²))

58Quantitative Aptitude
When the Sun's altitude is 30°, the shadow of a tower is 15 meters long. What will be the length of the shadow when the Sun's altitude is 60°?
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Answer: (B) 5 meter

Explanation

Let h be the height of the tower. When the Sun's altitude is 30°, the length of the shadow is 15 meters.

Using the trigonometric ratio tan θ = height / base: tan 30° = h / 15 1 / √3 = h / 15 h = 15 / √3 = 5√3 meters

When the Sun's altitude is 60°, let the length of the shadow be s. tan 60° = h / s √3 = 5√3 / s s = 5 meters

59Quantitative Aptitude
If the shadow of a tree is 16 meter when elevation of Sun is 60°, then the height of the tree is :
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Answer: (C) 16√3 meter

Explanation

The relationship between the height of an object, its shadow length, and the angle of elevation of the Sun is given by the trigonometric formula:

tan(θ) = Height of the tree / Length of the shadow

Given that the angle of elevation θ is 60° and the length of the shadow is 16 meters, we substitute these values into the formula:

tan(60°) = h / 16

Using the standard trigonometric value tan(60°) = √3:

√3 = h / 16

h = 16√3 meters

60Quantitative Aptitude
If sinθ - cosθ = √3 - 1{2}, then the value of θ is :
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Answer: (B) 60°

Explanation

For θ = 60°, the trigonometric values are sin 60° = √3/2 and cos 60° = ½. Substituting these values into the expression sin θ - cos θ yields:

sin 60° - cos 60° = √3/2 - ½ = (√3 - 1)/2

This directly satisfies the given equation.

61Logical Reasoning
The set that is similar in pattern to the given set (22, 8, 176) is :
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Answer: (A) (19, 7, 133)

Explanation

The pattern in the given set is that the third number is the product of the first two numbers.

Let the numbers of the set be a, b, and c. The relation between them is:

a × b = c

Applying this pattern to the given set (22, 8, 176):

22 × 8 = 176

Applying the same pattern to the correct set (19, 7, 133):

19 × 7 = 133

62Logical Reasoning
The word pair in which the relationship between the two words is similar to that of 'Golf' : Course' is :
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Answer: (A) Cycling : Velodrone

Explanation

The relationship in the pair Golf : Course is Sport : Location, where golf is played on a course. In the same manner, cycling is performed on a velodrome (written as velodrone), which is a custom-built arena with a banked track designed specifically for track cycling.

63Logical Reasoning
If XU289 is related to SP324 and QN361 is related to LI400 following a certain pattern, then using the same pattern, JG441 is related to :
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Answer: (A) EB484

Explanation

The pattern consists of two parts, one for the letters and one for the numbers.

For the letters, each character is shifted backward by 5 positions in the English alphabetical order. J (10th letter) shifted backward by 5 positions is E (5th letter). G (7th letter) shifted backward by 5 positions is B (2nd letter). This gives the letters EB.

For the numbers, the relationship follows consecutive perfect squares, where the base of the square is incremented by 1. The number in JG441 is 441, which is 21². Following the pattern, the next number is 22², which is 484.

Combining the letters and the number gives EB484.

64Logical Reasoning
If WAITER : 242923 :: JUMPER : x, then the value of x is :
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Answer: (D) 312923

Explanation

The coding pattern is obtained by dividing the six-letter word into three pairs of consecutive letters and finding the sum of their alphabetical positions, where A = 1, B = 2, ..., Z = 26.

For WAITER: The pairs are WA, IT, and ER. W + A = 23 + 1 = 24 I + T = 9 + 20 = 29 E + R = 5 + 18 = 23 Combining these values gives the code 242923.

Applying the same pattern to JUMPER: The pairs are JU, MP, and ER. J + U = 10 + 21 = 31 M + P = 13 + 16 = 29 E + R = 5 + 18 = 23 Combining these values gives the code 312923.

65Logical Reasoning
Which one of the following pairs is the odd one out ?
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Answer: (B) ZBN-EHU

Explanation

The relationship between the left three-letter cluster L₁L₂L₃ and the right three-letter cluster R₁R₂R₃ is determined by the positions of the letters in the English alphabet, where A = 1, B = 2, up to Z = 26.

Three of the given pairs follow a consistent cross-addition pattern of adding 5, 6, and 7 respectively to the letters of the left cluster from left to right, which yields the letters of the right cluster from right to left. Mathematically, this relation is expressed as L₁ + 5 = R₃, L₂ + 6 = R₂, and L₃ + 7 = R₁.

In the pair SJF - MPX, we have S (19) + 5 = X (24), J (10) + 6 = P (16), and F (6) + 7 = M (13). In the pair NRB - IXS, we have N (14) + 5 = S (19), R (18) + 6 = X (24), and B (2) + 7 = I (9). In the pair PSD - KYU, we have P (16) + 5 = U (21), S (19) + 6 = Y (25), and D (4) + 7 = K (11).

The pair ZBN - EHU deviates from this cross-addition pattern and instead applies the additions in a straight, non-reversed order. In this pair, Z (26) + 5 = E (5) which maps to R₁ instead of R₃, B (2) + 6 = H (8) which maps to R₂, and N (14) + 7 = U (21) which maps to R₃ instead of R₁.

66Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following is the odd one out ?
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Answer: (D) 22/7

Explanation

The number 22/7 is a rational number because it is expressed in the form p/q, where both p and q are integers and q is not equal to zero. Its decimal representation is periodic and repeating. The other values are irrational numbers, which have non-terminating and non-repeating decimal expansions that cannot be written as a simple fraction of two integers.

67Logical Reasoning
In the word 'CATER', if the vowels are changed to the previous letter and the consonant are changed to the next letter as per alphabetical series, then the letter occur more than once in the newly formed word is :
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Answer: (A) D

Explanation

Apply the given transformation rule to each letter of the word CATER:

C is a consonant → change to the NEXT letter in the alphabet: C → D A is a vowel → change to the PREVIOUS letter in the alphabet: A → Z T is a consonant → change to the NEXT letter: T → U E is a vowel → change to the PREVIOUS letter: E → D R is a consonant → change to the NEXT letter: R → S

The newly formed word (sequence of letters) is: D, Z, U, D, S

Counting occurrences: D appears at positions 1 and 4 (twice), Z appears once, U appears once, S appears once.

The letter that occurs more than once in the newly formed word is D.

The correct answer is A (D).

68Logical Reasoning
If in a coding system, 28374 is coded as 4166148, then in the same coding system, the number 19351 is coded to :
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Answer: (C) 2186102

Explanation

The coding pattern multiplies each individual digit of the given number by 2 and then concatenates the resulting products in the same order.

For the number 28374: First digit: 2 × 2 = 4 Second digit: 8 × 2 = 16 Third digit: 3 × 2 = 6 Fourth digit: 7 × 2 = 14 Fifth digit: 4 × 2 = 8 Concatenating the products gives 4166148.

Applying the same logic to the number 19351: First digit: 1 × 2 = 2 Second digit: 9 × 2 = 18 Third digit: 3 × 2 = 6 Fourth digit: 5 × 2 = 10 Fifth digit: 1 × 2 = 2 Concatenating these products yields 2186102.

69Logical Reasoning
If the mirror is related to Reflection, then in same way water is related to :
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Answer: (B) Refraction

Explanation

A mirror is a standard physical medium that causes the reflection of light. In the same manner, water is a standard transparent medium that causes the refraction of light as light waves pass through the boundary between air and water, changing their speed and direction.

70Logical Reasoning
If Physiology : Human Body, then :
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Answer: (B) Petrology : Rocks

Explanation

The relationship established in the analogy is between a scientific field of study and its subject. Physiology is the branch of biology that deals with the normal functions of living organisms and their parts, specifically the human body. Similarly, petrology is the scientific study of rocks, focusing on their composition, texture, structure, occurrence, distribution, and origin.

71Logical Reasoning
Which one of the following is the most appropriate description about these three words Theta : Phi : Omega ?
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Answer: (C) These are greek letters

Explanation

Theta (θ), Phi (φ), and Omega (ω) are all letters of the Greek alphabet.

Theta is the 8th letter, Phi is the 21st letter, and Omega is the 24th (last) letter of the Greek alphabet.

Analysing each option: A — 'These are Latin alphabets': Incorrect. Latin uses the Roman alphabet (A, B, C…). Theta, Phi, and Omega are not Latin letters. B — 'These are signs of algebra': Incorrect. While these letters are used as symbols in mathematics and physics, they are not themselves signs of algebra; their primary identity is as Greek letters. C — 'These are Greek letters': Correct. All three belong to the Greek alphabet, which is their most precise and appropriate classification. D — 'These are used in physical derivatives': Incorrect. Although they appear as symbols in physics equations (e.g., θ for angle, φ for magnetic flux, ω for angular velocity), this description is too narrow and not the most appropriate general description.

The correct answer is C (These are greek letters).

72Logical Reasoning
Which one of the following words is least like the other words ?
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Answer: (B) Iron

Explanation

Iron is a ferrous metal, which distinguishes it from the other materials in the group that are copper-based and non-ferrous. While the others are either pure copper or copper alloys, iron has entirely different physical and chemical properties and does not contain copper.

73Logical Reasoning
Which one of the following is odd pair of the words ?
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Answer: (D) Dengue : Fever

Explanation

The pair Dengue : Fever is the odd one out because it represents a disease and its symptom, whereas the standard relationship connects a disease to the primary anatomical organ or tissue that it affects.

74Logical Reasoning
If, in a certain code language, 'PEN' is written as 'OCK' and 'ZEN' is written as 'YCK', then in the same language, 'TON' is written as :
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Answer: (C) SMK

Explanation

The coding pattern shifts each letter backward in alphabetical order by an increasing number of positions corresponding to its place in the word.

For the first letter, the shift is -1. For the second letter, the shift is -2. For the third letter, the shift is -3.

Applying this pattern to the word PEN: P - 1 = O E - 2 = C N - 3 = K This gives OCK.

Applying the same pattern to the word ZEN: Z - 1 = Y E - 2 = C N - 3 = K This gives YCK.

Applying this pattern to the word TON: T - 1 = S O - 2 = M N - 3 = K This gives the coded word SMK.

75Logical Reasoning
If black means pink, pink means blue, blue means white, white means yellow, yellow means red and red means brown, then the colour of sky is :
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Answer: (A) Pink

Explanation

The natural color of the sky is blue. According to the given code, pink means blue, which implies that the color blue is represented by the word pink. Therefore, the color of the sky is pink.

76Logical Reasoning
A is the son of B, whose mother is C. D is the husband of E, who is the granddaughter of C. If F is A's wife, then how is F's father-in-law related to D's daughter ?
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Answer: (B) Grandfather

Explanation

F is married to A, which means F's father-in-law is A's father, B. Since B is the son of C, and E is the granddaughter of C, E is B's daughter and A's sister. D is married to E, which means D's daughter is also E's daughter. Since B is E's father, B is the grandfather of E's daughter (D's daughter). Therefore, F's father-in-law, B, is the grandfather of D's daughter.

77Logical Reasoning
For questions 77-79, study the following numeric sequence : 43157831629712135268654321387 and answer the questions given below. How many odd numbers are there which are immediately preceded by a perfect square ?
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Answer: (D) 6

Explanation

To find the odd numbers that are immediately preceded by a perfect square, we need to locate instances where a single-digit perfect square (1, 4, or 9) is immediately followed by an odd number (1, 3, 5, 7, or 9).

Scanning the given numeric sequence: 4 3 1 5 7 8 3 1 6 2 9 7 1 2 1 3 5 2 6 8 6 5 4 3 2 1 3 8 7

We find the following matches: The 3 (odd) at the second position is preceded by 4 (perfect square of 2): (4, 3) The 5 (odd) at the fourth position is preceded by 1 (perfect square of 1): (1, 5) The 7 (odd) at the twelfth position is preceded by 9 (perfect square of 3): (9, 7) The 3 (odd) at the sixteenth position is preceded by 1 (perfect square of 1): (1, 3) The 3 (odd) at the twenty-fourth position is preceded by 4 (perfect square of 2): (4, 3) The 3 (odd) at the twenty-seventh position is preceded by 1 (perfect square of 1): (1, 3)

There are exactly 6 such odd numbers in the sequence.

78Logical Reasoning
For questions 77-79, study the following numeric sequence : 43157831629712135268654321387 and answer the questions given below. Which of the following number will be seventh to the right of tenth number from the left ?
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Answer: (D) 5

Explanation

To find the required number in the sequence, the position can be calculated by adding the relative movements. The tenth number from the left is at position 10. Moving seven places to its right means finding the number at position 10 + 7 = 17 from the left.

Counting the digits in the given sequence from left to right: 4 (1st), 3 (2nd), 1 (3rd), 5 (4th), 7 (5th), 8 (6th), 3 (7th), 1 (8th), 6 (9th), 2 (10th), 9 (11th), 7 (12th), 1 (13th), 2 (14th), 1 (15th), 3 (16th), 5 (17th).

The number at the 17th position is 5.

79Logical Reasoning
For questions 77-79, study the following numeric sequence : 43157831629712135268654321387 and answer the questions given below. How many odd numbers which are immediately preceded by perfect cube and followed by perfect square ?
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Answer: (C) 1

Explanation

The numeric sequence is: 4 3 1 5 7 8 3 1 6 2 9 7 1 2 1 3 5 2 6 8 6 5 4 3 2 1 3 8 7

We need to find every position where: (i) the digit immediately to the LEFT is a single-digit perfect cube, AND (ii) the digit at the position itself is odd, AND (iii) the digit immediately to the RIGHT is a single-digit perfect square.

Single-digit perfect cubes: 1 (= 1³) and 8 (= 2³) Single-digit perfect squares: 1 (= 1²), 4 (= 2²), and 9 (= 3²) Single-digit odd digits: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9

Scanning every consecutive triplet (left, middle, right):

(4,3,1): 4 is not a perfect cube → skip (3,1,5): 3 is not a perfect cube → skip (1,5,7): 1 IS a perfect cube; 5 IS odd; 7 is NOT a perfect square → skip (5,7,8): 5 is not a perfect cube → skip (7,8,3): 7 is not a perfect cube → skip (8,3,1): 8 IS a perfect cube (2³); 3 IS odd; 1 IS a perfect square (1²) → QUALIFIES ✓ (3,1,6): 3 is not a perfect cube → skip (1,6,2): 6 is not odd → skip (6,2,9): 6 is not a perfect cube → skip (2,9,7): 2 is not a perfect cube → skip (9,7,1): 9 is not a perfect cube → skip (7,1,2): 7 is not a perfect cube → skip (1,2,1): 2 is not odd → skip (2,1,3): 2 is not a perfect cube → skip (1,3,5): 1 IS a perfect cube; 3 IS odd; 5 is NOT a perfect square → skip (3,5,2): 3 is not a perfect cube → skip (5,2,6): 5 is not a perfect cube → skip (2,6,8): 2 is not a perfect cube → skip (6,8,6): 6 is not a perfect cube → skip (8,6,5): 6 is not odd → skip (6,5,4): 6 is not a perfect cube → skip (5,4,3): 5 is not a perfect cube → skip (4,3,2): 4 is not a perfect cube → skip (3,2,1): 3 is not a perfect cube → skip (2,1,3): 2 is not a perfect cube → skip (1,3,8): 1 IS a perfect cube; 3 IS odd; 8 is NOT a perfect square → skip (3,8,7): 3 is not a perfect cube → skip

Only one triplet qualifies: (8, 3, 1). The odd number 3 is the only digit in the sequence that is immediately preceded by a perfect cube (8) and immediately followed by a perfect square (1).

The correct answer is C (1).

80Logical Reasoning
In the morning, Shivani walks towards the east and see her brother Sanjay coming from a direction and observes that Sanjay's shadow is towards his right. Then from which direction Sanjay is coming ?
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Answer: (A) North

Explanation

In the morning, the Sun rises in the East, which means all shadows are cast towards the West. Since Sanjay's shadow is towards his right, his right side must be pointing towards the West. For a person's right side to point towards the West, they must be facing South. Since Sanjay is facing South, he is walking towards the South, which means he is coming from the North.

81Quantitative Aptitude
Ram Kumar ranked 16th from the top and 21st from the bottom in his class in an examination. If only 21 students passed the exam, how many students failed ?
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Answer: (A) 15

Explanation

The total number of students in the class is determined by the formula:

Total students = Rank from top + Rank from bottom - 1

Substituting the given values:

Total students = 16 + 21 - 1 = 36

Since only 21 students passed the examination, the number of students who failed is the difference between the total number of students and the number of passed students:

Failed students = Total students - Passed students Failed students = 36 - 21 = 15

82Logical Reasoning
A, B, C and D are playing cards on square shaped table such that A and C as well as B and D are partners. D is to the right of C. The face of C is towards west. Then the direction that D is facing, is :
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Answer: (C) South

Explanation

In a card game around a square table, players sit facing inwards toward the center of the table. Since C is facing West, C must be sitting on the East side of the table.

For a person sitting on the East side and facing West, their right-hand side points towards the North. Since D is positioned to the right of C, D must be sitting on the North side of the table. Because D faces inwards toward the center of the table, D is facing South.

83Logical Reasoning
A clock shows 9:00 AM. Then the correct time in the water is :
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Answer: (A) 9:30 AM

Explanation

To find the water image of any given clock time, the standard formula is to subtract the given time from 18:30.

Applying this formula to the given time: 18:30 - 9:00 = 9:30 AM

Geometrically, a water image represents a horizontal reflection across the 9-3 axis of the clock face. When the clock shows 9:00, the hour hand points directly at 9, which lies on the reflection axis and thus remains at 9. The minute hand points directly up at 12, which reflects vertically downward to point at 6. This positioning of the hands corresponds to 9:30 AM.

84Logical Reasoning
If May 05, 1911 is Friday, then the day on September 11, 1919 is :
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Answer: (D) Thursday

Explanation

To find the day of the week on September 11, 1919, starting from May 05, 1911 (Friday), we calculate the total number of odd days.

First, calculate the odd days between May 05, 1911 and May 05, 1919: The difference is 8 years. Within these 8 years, there are 2 leap years (1912 and 1916) and 6 ordinary years. Odd days from leap years = 2 × 2 = 4 Odd days from ordinary years = 6 × 1 = 6 Total odd days from years = 4 + 6 = 10 days, which is equivalent to 3 odd days (since 10 mod 7 = 3).

Second, calculate the odd days from May 05, 1919 to September 11, 1919: Remaining days in May = 26 days (5 odd days) June = 30 days (2 odd days) July = 31 days (3 odd days) August = 31 days (3 odd days) September = 11 days (4 odd days) Total odd days from months = 5 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 4 = 17 days, which is equivalent to 3 odd days (since 17 mod 7 = 3).

Adding the odd days together: Total odd days = 3 + 3 = 6 odd days.

Adding 6 days to Friday gives Thursday.

85Logical Reasoning
Statements : All bottles are glasses. All glasses are jugs. Conclusions : I-All bottles are jugs. II-All jugs are bottles. III-Some glasses are bottles. Which one of the four given choices is correct ?
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Answer: (D) Conclusion I and III follow

Explanation

The statement All bottles are glasses means that the set of bottles is entirely contained within the set of glasses. The statement All glasses are jugs means that the set of glasses is entirely contained within the set of jugs.

By the transitive property of subset relations, since the set of bottles is a subset of glasses, and glasses is a subset of jugs, the set of bottles is entirely contained within the set of jugs. This makes conclusion I, All bottles are jugs, logically correct.

Additionally, since the set of bottles is entirely contained within the set of glasses, there must be at least some glasses that are bottles. This makes conclusion III, Some glasses are bottles, logically correct.

86Logical Reasoning
Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the option that accurately describes the relation between them. Assertion (A) : All prime numbers are odd numbers. Reason (R) : All prime numbers can only be divided by itself and 1.
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Answer: (B) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

The Assertion (A) is false because the number 2 is a prime number, but it is an even number. Thus, not all prime numbers are odd.

The Reason (R) is true because, by mathematical definition, a prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

87Quantitative Aptitude
If all the surfaces of a cube of 15 cm side are painted with red color and then it is cut into smaller cubes of 3 cm side, then answer the questions: How many smaller cubes are there having only one surface painted with red color ?
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Answer: (D) 54

Explanation

A cube of side 15 cm is painted on all 6 surfaces and then cut into smaller cubes of side 3 cm.

Number of cuts along each edge: n = 15 ÷ 3 = 5

Total smaller cubes = 5³ = 125

Smaller cubes with exactly ONE face painted are those that lie at the centre of each face of the large cube — not at any edge or corner. On each face, these form a (n−2) × (n−2) = 3 × 3 = 9 inner grid of cubes. Since the large cube has 6 faces:

Number of 1-face-painted cubes = 6 × (n − 2)² = 6 × (5 − 2)² = 6 × 3² = 6 × 9 = 54

The correct answer is D (54).

88Quantitative Aptitude
If all the surfaces of a cube of 15 cm side are painted with red color and then it is cut into smaller cubes of 3 cm side, then answer the questions: How many smaller cubes can be obtained from the larger cube ?
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Answer: (D) 125

Explanation

The total number of smaller cubes obtained from a larger cube is determined by the ratio of their volumes.

Let L be the side length of the larger cube and s be the side length of the smaller cube. The formula to find the total number of smaller cubes (N) is:

N = (L / s)³

Substituting the given values, L = 15 cm and s = 3 cm:

N = (15 / 3)³ N = 5³ N = 125

This calculation directly yields the total number of smaller cubes that can be cut from the larger cube.

89Quantitative Aptitude
If all the surfaces of a cube of 15 cm side are painted with red color and then it is cut into smaller cubes of 3 cm side, then answer the questions: How many smaller cubes are there having two surfaces painted with red color ?
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Answer: (C) 36

Explanation

The number of divisions along each edge of the larger cube, n, is calculated by dividing the side length of the larger cube by the side length of the smaller cube. Here, n = 15 / 3 = 5.

Smaller cubes with exactly two painted surfaces are located along the edges of the larger cube, excluding the corner cubes which have three painted surfaces. Since a cube has 12 edges, the standard formula to find the number of smaller cubes with two surfaces painted is 12 × (n - 2).

Substituting the value of n into the formula: 12 × (5 - 2) = 12 × 3 = 36.

90Quantitative Aptitude
If all the surfaces of a cube of 15 cm side are painted with red color and then it is cut into smaller cubes of 3 cm side, then answer the questions: How many smaller cubes are there having only three surfaces painted with red color ?
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Answer: (A) 8

Explanation

For any larger cube painted on all of its outer surfaces and cut into smaller cubes, the smaller cubes with exactly three painted surfaces are always located at the corners of the larger cube. Since a cube has exactly 8 corners, there are always 8 smaller cubes that have only three surfaces painted red.

91Quantitative Aptitude
If all the surfaces of a cube of 15 cm side are painted with red color and then it is cut into smaller cubes of 3 cm side, then answer the questions: How many smaller cubes are there having 4 or more faces painted with red color ?
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Answer: (A) 0

Explanation

A cube of side 15 cm is painted on all 6 surfaces and cut into smaller cubes of side 3 cm (n = 15 ÷ 3 = 5 cuts per edge).

Consider the geometry of how smaller cubes can be painted:

  • Corner cubes (8 total): exposed on exactly 3 faces of the large cube → 3 painted faces
  • Edge cubes (not corners): exposed on exactly 2 faces → 2 painted faces
  • Face cubes (not on edges): exposed on exactly 1 face → 1 painted face
  • Interior cubes: exposed on no face → 0 painted faces

A smaller cube can only be painted on a face if that face coincides with an outer surface of the original large cube. Each smaller cube has 6 faces, but it can be simultaneously on at most 3 outer surfaces of the large cube (a corner position). It is physically impossible for any smaller cube to be on 4 or more outer surfaces of a convex solid simultaneously.

Therefore, the number of smaller cubes with 4 or more painted faces is 0.

The correct answer is A (0).

92Quantitative Aptitude
If all the surfaces of a cube of 15 cm side are painted with red color and then it is cut into smaller cubes of 3 cm side, then answer the questions (89-94) given below. How many smaller cubes are there having no surfaces painted with red color ?
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Answer: (C) 27

Explanation

The formula to find the number of smaller cubes with no surfaces painted (unpainted cubes) from a larger painted cube cut into n parts along each edge is (n - 2)³.

The side of the larger cube is 15 cm and the side of each smaller cube is 3 cm. Therefore, the number of divisions along each edge, n, is:

n = 15 / 3 = 5

Substituting n = 5 into the formula:

Number of unpainted cubes = (5 - 2)³ = 3³ = 27

This represents the inner core of the cube which remains completely untouched by the paint applied to the outer surfaces.

93Quantitative Aptitude
In a class, 3/5 of the students are girls and rest are boys. If 2/9 of the girls and 1/4 of the boys are absent, then what part of the total number of students is present ?
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Answer: (A) ²³⁄₃₀

Explanation

Let the total number of students in the class be 180, which is the LCM of the denominators 5, 9, and 4.

The number of girls is 3/5 × 180 = 108. The number of boys is 180 - 108 = 72.

Since 2/9 of the girls are absent, the fraction of girls present is 1 - 2/9 = 7/9. The number of present girls is 7/9 × 108 = 84.

Since 1/4 of the boys are absent, the fraction of boys present is 1 - 1/4 = 3/4. The number of present boys is 3/4 × 72 = 54.

The total number of present students is 84 + 54 = 138.

The fraction of the total number of students present is 138 / 180 = 23/30.

94Quantitative Aptitude
The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages, is :
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Answer: (C) 999

Explanation

Pages 1–9 use 9 digits, pages 10–99 use 90×2=180 digits, and pages 100–366 use 267×3=801 digits, giving a computed total of 990. The exact answer 990 is not among the options; the question likely contains a minor typo (369 pages would give exactly 9+180+810=999), making option C (999) the intended and closest correct answer.

95Logical Reasoning
A bus for Shimla leaves every thirty minutes from a bus-stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 9:35 am. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger ?
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Answer: (A) 9:15 am

Explanation

The next bus is scheduled to leave at 9:35 am. Since the buses depart every 30 minutes, the previous bus must have left 30 minutes before 9:35 am, which is at 9:05 am.

The clerk mentions that the previous bus left 10 minutes ago. Adding these 10 minutes to the departure time of the previous bus gives the current time.

Current time = 9:05 am + 10 minutes = 9:15 am

96Logical Reasoning
Arrange the following in logical order : 1-Family 2-Community 3-Member 4-Locality 5-Country.
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Answer: (A) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

Explanation

We need to arrange the five social units in a logical hierarchical order from the smallest unit to the largest:

1 – Family 2 – Community 3 – Member 4 – Locality 5 – Country

Hierarchical reasoning (smallest to largest): • A Member (3) is the most basic, individual unit of any social structure. • Several Members together form a Family (1). • Multiple Families sharing common bonds or living in proximity form a Community (2). • Several Communities are organised within a defined geographic Locality (4). • Multiple Localities together constitute a Country (5).

The correct logical order is: Member → Family → Community → Locality → Country, which corresponds to the sequence 3, 1, 2, 4, 5.

The correct answer is A (3, 1, 2, 4, 5).

97Logical Reasoning
One word out of the given alternatives which can be formed from the letters of the word CONSULTATION, is :
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Answer: (B) NATION

Explanation

NATION (N, A, T, I, O, N) can be formed from the letters of CONSULTATION, which contains N(2), A(1), T(2), I(1), and O(2). SALUTE cannot be formed because CONSULTATION contains no letter E, making it the one option that fails the test. While CONSTANT and STATION are also formable, NATION is the standard expected answer for this PSC question.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4A
  5. 5D
  6. 6C
  7. 7B
  8. 8A
  9. 9C
  10. 10D
  11. 11B
  12. 12A
  13. 13C
  14. 14D
  15. 15A
  16. 16A
  17. 17A
  18. 18D
  19. 19D
  20. 20A
  21. 21A
  22. 22A
  23. 23B
  24. 24C
  25. 25A
  26. 26B
  27. 27D
  28. 28A
  29. 29C
  30. 30D
  31. 31C
  32. 32A
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35C
  36. 36A
  37. 37B
  38. 38B
  39. 39C
  40. 40C
  41. 41D
  42. 42D
  43. 43C
  44. 44B
  45. 45A
  46. 46B
  47. 47A
  48. 48C
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51C
  52. 52D
  53. 53D
  54. 54B
  55. 55D
  56. 56B
  57. 57A
  58. 58B
  59. 59C
  60. 60B
  61. 61A
  62. 62A
  63. 63A
  64. 64D
  65. 65B
  66. 66D
  67. 67A
  68. 68C
  69. 69B
  70. 70B
  71. 71C
  72. 72B
  73. 73D
  74. 74C
  75. 75A
  76. 76B
  77. 77D
  78. 78D
  79. 79C
  80. 80A
  81. 81A
  82. 82C
  83. 83A
  84. 84D
  85. 85D
  86. 86B
  87. 87D
  88. 88D
  89. 89C
  90. 90A
  91. 91A
  92. 92C
  93. 93A
  94. 94C
  95. 95A
  96. 96A
  97. 97B

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