HPAS Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

Both statements are correct. According to the World Bank policy research working paper titled Poverty in India Has Declined over the Last Decade But Not As Much As Previously Thought, authored by economists Sutirtha Sinha Roy and Roy van der Weide, extreme poverty in India fell from 22.5% in 2011 to 10.2% in the pre-pandemic year of 2019.

To estimate the post-2011 trajectory of poverty and inequality in India in the absence of official National Sample Survey household consumption expenditure data, the paper relied on database estimates from the Consumer Pyramids Household Survey, which is conducted by the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy.

Explanation

The development expenditure of the Central Government comprises spending on activities that directly contribute to economic and social development, such as social and community services, economic services, and developmental grants to states and union territories. Since grants to states are indeed included in development expenditure, Statement I is incorrect.

Non-development expenditure refers to government spending on general, administrative, and protective services that do not directly yield developmental benefits or enhance productive capacity. This category includes interest payments on public debt, subsidies, defence expenditure, pensions, and general administration. Since interest payments and subsidies are key components of non-development expenditure, Statement II is correct.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because deficit financing leads to an expansion of the money supply in the economy. When the government spends more than its revenue by borrowing from the central bank or printing new currency, it increases aggregate demand. If this aggregate demand exceeds the aggregate supply of goods and services, it generates inflationary pressure.

Statement II is incorrect because the cash reserve ratio is the percentage of deposits that commercial banks must keep as reserves with the Reserve Bank of India. The credit creation capacity of commercial banks is inversely proportional to this reserve ratio, as expressed by the money multiplier formula where Multiplier = 1/CRR. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the cash reserve ratio, banks are left with more surplus funds to lend, which increases their capacity for credit creation rather than causing it to decline.

Explanation

Both statements are correct as they align with the development finance framework highlighted in the Sustainable Development Report 2022. Low-income countries (LICs) and lower-middle-income countries (LMICs) have high prospective economic growth rates and high marginal productivities of capital because capital is relatively scarce in these regions, making new investments highly productive. To harness this potential and achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), these countries need to make significant upfront investments. The report argues that they should borrow extensively on favorable terms to finance a broad-based expansion of human capital, public infrastructure, and environmental protection, which in turn will sustain their high long-term productivity and growth.

Explanation

According to the Sustainable Development Report 2022, the average global SDG Index score slightly declined in 2021 compared to 2020. This decline was heavily influenced by multiple and overlapping health, climate, and security crises, which led to a slow or non-existent economic and social recovery in poor and vulnerable nations, making Statement I correct.

Regarding Statement II, the report's assessment of governments' commitment and efforts revealed that among G20 member states, the United States, Brazil, and the Russian Federation actually exhibited the least support for the 2030 Agenda and the SDGs rather than the most support, making Statement II incorrect.

Explanation

In macroeconomic equilibrium, the leakages from the circular flow of income must equal the injections. The equilibrium condition for a three-sector closed economy is expressed as:

S + T = I + G

where S is private savings, T is government income (taxes), I is private investment, and G is government expenditure. When planned savings equal planned investment (S = I), the equation mathematically simplifies to T = G, meaning government expenditure must equal government income.

Progressive taxation is a fiscal policy where the tax rate increases as the taxpayer's income increases. By collecting a higher percentage of income from the wealthy and using those resources for public welfare, this policy actively redistributes wealth to reduce economic inequalities.

Explanation

Gross capital formation measures the net increase in physical assets within an economy during an accounting period. It is defined as the sum of gross fixed capital formation, which represents outlays on additions to fixed assets such as machinery, equipment, and infrastructure, and the net change in the level of inventories, which represents the change in stocks of raw materials, semi-finished goods, and finished goods.

Personal income represents the actual income received by households. To derive personal income from national income, we must subtract incomes that are earned in the production process but not actually received by households, such as undistributed corporate profits, corporate income taxes, and social security contributions. Conversely, we must add incomes that are received by households but not currently earned in the production process, which primarily consist of transfer payments such as pensions, scholarships, and relief payments.

Explanation

The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) Human Development Report 2021/2022 highlighted several critical findings regarding global preparedness and human development.

According to the report, the additional international investment needed to avoid future pandemics is estimated to be only USD 15 billion a year. This is a very small fraction compared to the trillions of dollars lost in production and emergency fiscal responses during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Furthermore, the report noted that the global Human Development Index (HDI) dropped for two consecutive years for the first time since its inception. This decline was highly widespread, with over 90% of countries experiencing a drop in their HDI values in either 2020 or 2021 due to the combined impacts of the pandemic, climate change, and economic instability.

Explanation

The Positive Peace Index, developed by the Institute for Economics and Peace, defines positive peace as the attitudes, institutions, and structures that create and sustain peaceful societies. This definition highlights that peace is not merely the absence of violence but is built on active, systemic foundations that foster social resilience, economic strength, and citizen well-being. To quantitatively measure and track these systemic factors across the globe, the index utilizes a highly rigorous, empirical methodology based on the analysis of more than 45,700 data series, indicators, and attitudinal surveys in conjunction with current research on the drivers of peace and conflict.

Explanation

The Global Health Security Index is a comprehensive assessment and benchmarking of health security and related capabilities across 195 countries. It is designed to measure and score national-level pandemic and epidemic preparedness, evaluating whether countries have the necessary framework to prevent, detect, and respond to global health emergencies such as COVID-19.

OECD countries typically have highly developed healthcare systems with strong social welfare frameworks. Most OECD countries offer universal or near-universal health coverage, meaning that a significantly higher percentage of their populations are covered by either public healthcare systems or mandatory private health insurance compared to non-OECD and developing nations around the world.

Explanation

The Gini coefficient measures the extent to which the distribution of income among individuals or households within an economy deviates from a perfectly equal distribution, where a value of zero represents perfect equality and one represents perfect inequality.

The PISA (Programme for International Student Assessment) score assesses how far fifteen-year-old students near the end of compulsory education have acquired some of the knowledge and skills that are essential for full participation in society.

The Human Trophic Level is an ecological metric that indicates the position of humans in the food web, serving as a measure of the energy intensity of diet composition.

The Palma ratio is an inequality metric defined as the share of all income received by the ten percent of people with the highest disposable income divided by the share of all income received by the forty percent of people with the lowest disposable income.

Explanation

Conglomerate matches with (i) because it is a multi-industry company that acquires or merges with diverse businesses operating in different sectors.

Golden handshake matches with (iii) as it defines a substantial severance agreement paid to an employee, typically a high-level executive, upon the termination of their employment.

Blue Chip matches with (iv) because it represents shares of nationally recognized, financially sound, and highly reliable corporations that consistently operate profitably across all phases of the economic cycle.

Laissez Faire matches with (ii) as it is an economic philosophy advocating for a free market where private transactions are entirely free from government regulations, subsidies, or intervention.

Explanation

During the period of 2017 to 2018, Cape Town faced a severe water crisis due to three consecutive years of exceptionally low rainfall. To prepare the population for the potential scenario where municipal water reservoirs fell below 13.5% capacity, the city administration introduced the concept of Day Zero. This term designated the specific date when municipal water taps would have to be turned off, forcing residents to queue for daily water rations at designated distribution points. Through strict water conservation measures and agricultural water diversions, the city successfully managed to avoid reaching Day Zero.

Explanation

ECOLEX is a comprehensive, web-based information service on environmental law. It is operated and controlled jointly by three partner organizations: the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Among the given choices, FAO is the managing partner that coordinates and contributes its legal database (FAOLEX) to the portal.

Explanation

The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to an average altitude of about 12 km. Because this layer is in direct contact with the Earth's surface, it contains more than 75% of the atmosphere's total mass and nearly all of its water vapor. Almost all human activities, industrial emissions, vehicular exhausts, and meteorological phenomena occur within this layer, leading to the concentration and entrapment of the vast majority of air pollutants we experience in the troposphere.

Explanation

An aquifer is a saturated underground body of rock, sand, gravel, or soil that is highly permeable and capable of storing and transmitting significant quantities of water. Rainfall and surface runoff seep into the ground, percolating down through the soil layers to replenish these deep subterranean reservoirs, which can then be tapped using wells or borewells for agricultural, domestic, and industrial use.

Explanation

British ecologist Norman Myers coined the term and introduced the concept of biodiversity hotspots in 1988. He defined these hotspots as biogeographic regions that harbor exceptional concentrations of endemic species and are experiencing rapid rates of habitat depletion. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot under the criteria established by Myers and later adopted by Conservation International, a region must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics and must have lost at least 70% of its original primary vegetation.

Explanation

Hazaribagh Wildlife Sanctuary, also referred to as Hazaribagh National Park, located in Jharkhand, does not have a resident tiger population and is not a designated tiger reserve. Although tigers once roamed this forest, they have become virtually extinct in this region over the decades due to severe habitat degradation, poaching, and rising human-wildlife conflict. Today, the area is instead characterized by animals like the nilgai, wild boar, sambar, and chital, making it no longer a recognized tiger habitat.

Explanation

The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in Chennai in 2003 under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. It is the designated statutory body responsible for the conservation of biological diversity and holds the mandate to identify, notify, and protect Key Biodiversity Areas across India. Therefore, 2003 marks the formal start of the institutional process for identifying Key Biodiversity Areas in India.

Explanation

Meuse Valley fog of 1930 occurred in Belgium due to a high concentration of sulfur dioxide and fluoride gases trapped by an inversion layer.

Donora smog of 1948 occurred in Pennsylvania, USA, where a weather inversion trapped lethal industrial emissions from steel and zinc plants.

Bhopal gas tragedy of 1984 occurred in Madhya Pradesh, India, caused by the accidental release of toxic methyl isocyanate gas from a pesticide factory.

Great Smog of London of 1952 occurred in England when cold weather, windless conditions, and heavy coal-burning pollutants created a thick blanket of smog.

Explanation

Toona (Toona ciliata), also known as the Indian mahogany or toon, is highly characteristic of the North-Eastern region and is the state tree of Manipur.

Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) is a drought-tolerant evergreen tree species central to the desert ecosystem and is the state tree of Rajasthan.

Alder (Alnus nepalensis) is widely utilized in indigenous agroforestry systems to enrich soil nitrogen and is the state tree of Nagaland.

Jammu (or Jammi) is the Telugu name for Prosopis cineraria, which holds immense cultural and religious significance and is the state tree of Telangana.

Explanation

Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Karnataka and is a prominent tiger reserve situated in the Chikkamagaluru district.

Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Jharkhand, situated near Jamshedpur and known for its significant population of Indian elephants.

Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Tripura, featuring a vast reservoir that serves as a habitat for several species of resident and migratory birds.

Jaldapara National Park is located in West Bengal, situated in the Alipurduar district and renowned for holding a major population of the Indian one-horned rhinoceros.

Explanation

Deepor Beel is a permanent freshwater lake located in the Kamrup district of Assam, which was designated as a Ramsar site in 2002.

Ashtamudi is a major natural backwater and estuarine system located in the Kollam district of Kerala, recognized as a wetland of international importance.

Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, located in Manipur, and is famous for its unique floating islands called phumdis.

Kanjali is a man-made wetland created by constructing a barrage on the Kali Bein river in the Kapurthala district of Punjab.

Explanation

The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in 1972 to provide a legal framework for the protection of various species of wild animals and plants, management of their habitats, and regulation of trade in wild species.

The National Forest Policy was adopted in 1988 to emphasize environmental stability and maintenance of ecological balance, including atmospheric equilibrium, which are vital for the sustenance of all life forms.

The National Environment Policy was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2006 to serve as a comprehensive guide to environmental management and to integrate environmental concerns into mainstream development activities.

The Policy Statement for Abatement of Pollution was announced in 1992 with the objective of integrating environmental considerations in decision-making and promoting clean technologies to prevent pollution at its source.

Explanation

Edible vegetable oils are liquid at room temperature because they contain unsaturated fatty acids with carbon-carbon double bonds. To convert these liquid oils into solid or semi-solid saturated fats, hydrogen gas is added across the double bonds. This reaction requires the presence of a catalyst, usually finely divided nickel, platinum, or palladium, to lower the activation energy and allow the reaction to proceed efficiently at moderate temperatures. This process is known as catalytic hydrogenation.

Explanation

Winter smog, also known as classical smog, sulfurous smog, or London smog, occurs in cool and humid climates during the winter season. It is primarily formed due to a high concentration of sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and particulate matter, such as smoke and hydrocarbons, released from the combustion of fossil fuels like coal. Unlike photochemical smog, which is oxidising in nature and requires sunlight to form, winter smog is reducing in character. It forms when coal smoke, fog, and sulfur dioxide combine in cold weather under temperature inversion conditions.

Explanation

Calcium oxalate is the primary constituent of the vast majority of kidney stones, accounting for approximately 70% to 80% of all diagnosed cases. These stones form when urine becomes supersaturated with calcium and oxalate, leading to the precipitation and crystallization of calcium oxalate. High levels of calcium (hypercalciuria) or oxalate (hyperoxaluria) in the urine, combined with insufficient fluid intake, promote the nucleation and growth of these crystals in the renal system.

Explanation

The International Date Line lies roughly along the 180 degree meridian in the mid-Pacific Ocean. Since the Earth rotates from west to east, places located in the Eastern Hemisphere are ahead in time compared to those in the Western Hemisphere.

When a traveler crosses the International Date Line from east to west (for example, from North America to Asia), they enter a time zone that is 24 hours ahead. This requires them to advance the calendar by one day, resulting in the loss of a day.

Conversely, when crossing the line from west to east (from Asia to North America), they enter a time zone that is 24 hours behind. This requires them to set the calendar back by one day, effectively repeating the same day and gaining a day.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because steam at 100 °C has significantly more heat energy than water at the same temperature due to the latent heat of vaporization, which is about 2260 kJ/kg. When steam touches the skin, it condenses into liquid water and releases this additional latent heat of condensation, resulting in much more severe burns.

Statement II is correct because dry ice, which is solid carbon dioxide, sublimates at -78.5 °C. In contrast, regular water ice has a melting temperature of 0 °C. This makes dry ice substantially colder than regular ice.

Explanation

The frequency ν of electromagnetic waves is inversely proportional to their wavelength λ, related by the formula ν = c/λ, where c is the speed of light.

In the electromagnetic spectrum, the regions sorted by increasing frequency (and decreasing wavelength) are radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays.

Radio waves (3) have the lowest frequency, typically from 3 kHz to 300 GHz. Microwaves (4) occupy the higher frequency end of the radio spectrum, ranging from 1 GHz to 300 GHz. X-rays (2) have much higher frequencies, spanning from 3 × 10¹⁶ Hz to 3 × 10¹⁹ Hz. Gamma rays (1) have the highest frequencies in the electromagnetic spectrum, typically exceeding 10¹⁹ Hz. This sequence corresponds directly to the order (3), (4), (2), (1).

Explanation

The layers of the Earth's atmosphere are structured sequentially based on temperature gradients and density, starting from the surface and extending outwards into space. The lowermost layer is the Troposphere (2), which extends from the ground up to an average altitude of about 13 km. Above this lies the Stratosphere (4), extending to about 50 km. The next layer is the Mesosphere (1), which reaches up to approximately 80 km. Above the mesosphere is the Thermosphere (3), extending from about 80 km up to 400 km. This sequence from the ground up corresponds to the order (2), (4), (1), (3).

Explanation

A concave mirror is a converging mirror because it reflects parallel light rays inward to a single focal point. For any object placed at a distance greater than its focal length, the reflected light rays physically intersect in front of the mirror, producing an image that is real and inverted.

A convex mirror is a diverging mirror because its outward-curving surface reflects parallel light rays outward, causing them to diverge. Since the reflected rays never physically meet, they only appear to intersect behind the mirror when projected backward. As a result, the image formed by a convex mirror is always virtual, erect, and diminished in size, regardless of the position of the object in front of it.

Explanation

Ethanol, represented by the chemical formula C₂H₅OH, is the primary active constituent found in all alcoholic beverages. It is highly soluble in water, mixing in all proportions due to the ability of its polar hydroxyl group to form strong hydrogen bonds with water molecules. Additionally, ethanol acts as an excellent solvent for many organic compounds and is widely blended with petrol as a biofuel additive, making statement 1 and statement 3 the only correct statements.

Explanation

Ascorbic acid, also known as Vitamin C, is a water-soluble vitamin abundant in all citrus fruits like oranges and lemons.

Malic acid is the primary organic acid that contributes to the sour taste of apples and pears.

Formic acid is a simple carboxylic acid injected into the skin during an ant's sting, causing irritation and swelling.

Tartaric acid is a naturally occurring crystalline organic acid found in tamarind and grapes, which gives them their characteristic tangy flavor.

Explanation

Hydrophone is an underwater microphone designed to monitor, detect, and record sound waves traveling through water, matching with (iv).

Megaphone is a portable cone-shaped acoustic horn used to amplify and direct the human voice so that sound can travel over long distances, matching with (iii).

Anemometer is a meteorological instrument specifically designed to measure the speed, force, and velocity of wind, matching with (ii).

Tachometer is a sensor device used to measure the rotational speed of a shaft, disc, or motor, typically calibrated in revolutions per minute, matching with (i).

Explanation

Statement (i) is correct because the Dhauladhar Range, which belongs to the Lesser or Middle Himalayan chain, diverges from the Great Himalayan Range in the vicinity of Badrinath in Uttarakhand. From there, it extends northwestward into Himachal Pradesh, acting as a prominent geological feature cut across by major river systems.

Statement (iii) is correct because the Zanskar Range constitutes the easternmost trans-Himalayan mountain range in the region. It forms a high-altitude barrier that geographically separates Kashmir, Lahaul-Spiti, and Kinnaur from Tibet.

Explanation

The combination of Markanda and Dharti ranges with Dun and Sproon valleys is incorrect because Dun and Sproon (Saproon) valleys are located in Solan district of Himachal Pradesh. The valley situated between the eastern extremities of the Markanda and Dharti ranges in Sirmaur district is the Paonta or Kiarda-dun valley.

Explanation

The dialect of Bilaspur, known as Kehluri or Bilaspuri, was classified by George Abraham Grierson in the Linguistic Survey of India as an offshoot of rude Punjabi, confirming the validity of statement (i).

In Kinnaur district, the Rakcham and Chitkul villages of Sangla Tehsil lie in a linguistic transition zone where the local dialect spoken is a unique blend known as the Kinnauri-Jangram mixture, making statement (ii) correct.

The dialect spoken in the Satluj valley regions of Rampur Bushehr, Kumarsain, and Kotgarh is Kochi, a sub-dialect of Mahasu Pahari, confirming statement (iii).

In contrast, statement (iv) is incorrect because the theory that the Pahari language originated from Dardi and Pishachi was proposed by George Abraham Grierson, whereas Dr. Bholanath Tiwari held that the Pahari languages originated from Shauraseni Apabhramsha.

Explanation

The Khunds are the traditional warrior or martial people inhabiting the upper Shimla, Solan, and Sirmaur regions of Himachal Pradesh, rather than Kangra. They are historically known as warrior clans associated with local deities and play a central role in traditional martial games and festivals.

Burah is a famous group dance of the Sirmaur district, not Mandi. In this energetic martial dance, the performers carry traditional axes (dangras) and dance to the rhythm of the hulki drum while singing ballads of historical battles and legendary heroes.

Explanation

All four statements about Jal Jeevan Mission in Himachal Pradesh are factually correct as per data available up to December 2021. The target of achieving 100% FHTC by June 2022 is stated in official HP documents; 15.80 lakh connections out of 17.28 lakh households (approximately 91%) had been provided by December 2021, which is internally consistent with the 91% figure in statement (iii); and HP ranked 8th nationally at that juncture, consistent with several states having already achieved 100% FHTC ahead of HP. Since none of the four statements is incorrect, the answer is "None of the above".

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India allowed silvicultural green felling in Himachal Pradesh on an experimental basis for three tree species: Khair, Chil, and Sal. This permission was granted across three specific forest ranges, namely the Nurpur range of Nurpur Forest Division, the Bharari range of Bilaspur Forest Division, and the Paonta range of Paonta Forest Division, in order to study and promote forest regeneration and rejuvenation.

According to the Himachal Pradesh Forest Department and Economic Survey data, the recorded forest area of the state is 37,947 square kilometers. This recorded forest area accounts for approximately 68.16% of the state's total geographical area of 55,673 square kilometers.

Explanation

(i) Total geographical area of H.P. matches with (a) 55.67 lakh hectare because the state covers a total geographical area of 55,673 square kilometers.

(ii) Total area of operational holding matches with (e) 9.44 lakh hectare as recorded in the Agricultural Census 2015-16.

(iii) Area operated by number of farmers matches with (d) 9.97 lakh, which indicates the total number of operational holdings operated by farmers in the state.

(iv) Average holding size matches with (c) 0.95 hectare, which is the average land size operated per farmer (obtained by dividing the 9.44 lakh hectares of operational area by the 9.97 lakh holdings).

Explanation

According to the Himachal Pradesh Economic Survey 2021-22:

Statement (i) is correct: The foodgrain production in the state during the year 2020-21 was 15.28 lakh metric tonnes (MT).

Statement (ii) is incorrect: The potato production in Himachal Pradesh during 2020-21 was 1.96 lakh MT, whereas 1.97 lakh MT was the production for the previous year 2019-20.

Statement (iii) is incorrect: The vegetable production in Himachal Pradesh during 2020-21 was 18.67 lakh MT, whereas 18.61 lakh MT was the production for 2019-20.

Statement (iv) is incorrect: The target of foodgrain production in the state for the year 2021-22 was 16.35 lakh MT, rather than for 2020-21.

Since statements (ii), (iii), and (iv) are incorrect, the correct combination of incorrect statements is (ii), (iii), and (iv). This is represented by option c.

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey of Himachal Pradesh 2021-22, tea cultivation is primarily carried out in the districts of Kangra, Mandi, and Chamba. There are currently about 5900 tea growers in the state, making statement (i) correct.

The total area under tea cultivation in the state is 2310.71 hectares, which makes statement (ii) incorrect.

During the year 2020-21, tea production in Himachal Pradesh reached 11.45 lakh kilograms, confirming statement (iii) as correct.

To support the local farming community, small and marginal farmers are provided with essential agricultural inputs on a 50% subsidy basis, validating statement (iv) as correct.

Explanation

Statements (iii) and (iv) are the incorrect ones. Shimla district did not rank fifth in DGGI-2020; it ranked considerably lower (around 8th). Hamirpur was ranked first in the Transparency and Accountability sub-index of DGGI-2020, not fourth as statement (iv) claims. Statement (ii) is correct — Bilaspur ranked first overall in DGGI-2020 — making options B and C invalid since they include (ii) among the incorrect statements. Option D is the only choice where both listed statements are definitively wrong.

Explanation

Only statement (iii) is correct: Shimla is the sole urban centre in Himachal Pradesh classified by the Reserve Bank of India. Per the 2011 Census, Shimla (population approximately 1,71,817) is the only city in the state exceeding the one-lakh population threshold used by RBI to define urban centres. The other three statements contain inaccuracies: the average population per branch and total branch count differ from the figures cited, and SBI — not PNB — has the largest branch network in Himachal Pradesh.

Explanation

Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana - Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aimed at making farming a remunerative economic activity through strengthening the farmers efforts, risk mitigation, and promoting agri-business entrepreneurship.

All four listed statements are major objectives of RKVY-RAFTAAR. Specifically, the scheme aims to strengthen farmer efforts through pre- and post-harvest infrastructure creation, promote value-addition linked production models to boost income and productivity, address national priorities using targeted sub-schemes, and empower youth through skill development and agri-entrepreneurship models to make agriculture attractive to them. Because all of these statements represent actual core objectives of the program, none of them is incorrect, making None of these the correct selection.

Explanation

For HP Annual Plan 2021-22, Social Services carries the largest outlay at Rs 3221.49 crore (a), followed by Transport at Rs 2724.32 crore (c), Agriculture and Allied Services at Rs 929.31 crore (d), and Energy at Rs 903.57 crore (b). Option B — sequence (d)(b)(c)(a) — correctly maps each sector to its outlay, with Rs 773.30 crore (e) as the unused distractor; this is consistent with HP planning priorities where road and bridge construction in mountain terrain receives the second-highest allocation after Social Services.

Explanation

The traditional council of the Khampa tribe, who reside in regions like Kullu, Chamba, Kinnaur, and Lahaul-Spiti in Himachal Pradesh, is known as Shuzam Chungi. This traditional council operates as a quasi-judicial body and is headed by an elected or selected leader known as Gova.

The ancient princely state of Bushehr, situated in the Shimla hills of Himachal Pradesh, was historically referred to by the names Maon or Mone.

According to the accounts in the Hindu scripture Bhagavata Purana, the Kinners, a tribal community native to the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh, trace their mythological origin to the shadow of Lord Brahma.

Explanation

The Manimahesh Lakshana Devi temple located in Bharmour, Chamba, is built in the indigenous pent-roofed wooden architectural style, featuring slanting slate roofs adapted to heavy snowfall, rather than the Indo-Aryan Nagara style.

The Champavati temple in Chamba, built by Raja Sahil Varman in memory of his daughter Champavati, is designed in the traditional Shikhara style with stone carvings and a large wheel roof, showing Nepalese influence rather than Graeco-Buddhist Gandhara art.

Conversely, St. Andrew's Church displays Scottish architecture with stone masonry, and the brass idol of Goddess Shakti at Chatrari features the Kashmiri style of art from the 8th century.

Explanation

Chasak Bhatori is located in the Pangi Valley of Chamba district, where it is known as the highest inhabited village in the region at an altitude of approximately 4285 meters. It is not located in the Lahaul valley, making statement (iii) incorrect.

Explanation

Mahmud of Ghazni raided the fort of Nagarkot (Kangra) in 1008-09 AD during his seventh invasion of India, defeating the local garrison and looting the vast riches stored in its temples.

The Chinese traveller Hiuen-Tsang (Xuanzang) visited the hill states of Himachal Pradesh in the 7th century AD during his stay in India. He visited Jalandhar, Kullu, and Lahaul before traveling to Srughna (Sirmaur), where he stayed for some time to study with the Buddhist monk Jaya-Guptam.

Prince Nasir-ud-Din, the son of Firoz Shah Tughlaq, was forced to flee Delhi during a war of succession and took refuge in Nagarkot (Kangra) under the protection of Raja Sangara Chand. In 1390 AD, he returned to Delhi and ascended the throne under the name of Nasir-ud-din Muhammad Shah III.

Explanation

Statement (i) is correct as the Battle of Nadaun was fought in 1691 between the Mughal forces under Alif Khan and Raja Bhim Chand of Kahlur (Bilaspur), who was allied with Guru Gobind Singh.

Statement (ii) is correct because in the Battle of Dhalog in 1623, Raja Janardhan of Chamba was defeated and killed by Raja Jagat Singh of Nurpur, who had Mughal support.

Statement (iii) is correct as the Battle of Bhangani was fought in October 1686 or 1688 near Paonta Sahib, where Guru Gobind Singh defeated the coalition of hill chiefs, killing Raja Hari Chand of Hindur with an arrow.

Statement (iv) is correct because the Gurkha forces under Amar Singh Thapa defeated the Kangra army of Raja Sansar Chand at Mahal Morian in 1806.

Explanation

Khoksar, located in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh on the banks of the Chandra River, serves as the gateway to Lahaul and was historically situated on the ancient trade route connecting the Indian plains to West Asia. Additionally, the ancient political structure of the hill region was characterized by several independent tribal republics, such as the Audumbaras, Trigartas, Kulutas, and Kunindas. These self-governing tribes operated under cooperative, oligarchic, or republican systems of administration and were historically referred to as Sangha Janapadas.

Explanation

William Moorcroft was the first European traveler to visit Kullu in 1820 A.D. on his way to Ladakh. Alexander Cunningham and A.T. Banon were not the first Europeans to visit Kullu in 1820 A.D., making statement (iii) incorrect.

Explanation

Bajrang Punia secured a bronze medal in the men's 65 kg category at the 2022 World Wrestling Championships in Belgrade, Serbia, which made him the first Indian to win four medals at this championship, following his earlier wins of bronze in 2013, silver in 2018, and bronze in 2019.

The Gujarati coming-of-age drama film Chhello Show (Last Film Show), written and directed by Pan Nalin, was selected as India's official entry for the Best International Feature Film category at the 95th Academy Awards (Oscars 2023).

Explanation

Statement (2) is incorrect because the CM da Haisi web portal was launched by the Chief Minister of Manipur, N. Biren Singh, to receive complaints and address public grievances, rather than by the state of Tripura.

Statement (3) is incorrect because Rohit Sharma did not surpass Pakistan Captain Babar Azam in the ICC Men's T20I Batting Rankings in 2022. Babar Azam maintained his top spot for a record duration during this period, and it was Indian batsman Suryakumar Yadav who made significant strides to challenge the top positions.

Explanation

The Prompt Corrective Action framework is an intervention tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to monitor and restore the financial health of banks that exhibit weak financial metrics, specifically targeting parameters like capital adequacy, asset quality, and leverage.

The National Logistics Policy was launched by the Prime Minister of India on September 17, 2022, with the objective of reducing logistics costs, improving the competitiveness of Indian products in global markets, and creating a single-window digital portal for more efficient cargo movement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the prestigious Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar for the year 2021–22 was awarded to Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE), Kolkata, for its outstanding implementation of the official language.

Statement 2 is incorrect because Dr. Satish Adiga was selected by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) for the Dr. Subhas Mukherjee Award in recognition of his significant contributions to the field of clinical embryology.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Chandler Wobble is a geophysical phenomenon describing a small, irregular shift in the Earth's axis of rotation relative to its crust, and has no association with black holes.

Explanation

Only statement (1) is correct: in the State Food Safety Index 2021-22, Himachal Pradesh ranked 4th among large states, behind Tamil Nadu (1st), Gujarat (2nd), and Maharashtra (3rd). Statement (2) is incorrect because Goa ranked 1st among small states, not 2nd. Statement (3) is incorrect because Jammu and Kashmir ranked 1st among Union Territories and Delhi ranked 2nd; Chandigarh was not in the top two.

Explanation

The Blue Book is a manual issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs that contains detailed security guidelines and protocols for the protection of the Prime Minister of India, overseen primarily by the Special Protection Group, not the National Security Guard.

The Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve is located in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra, rather than Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation

Bangladesh hosted the 2022 Women's Twenty-20 Asia Cup in Sylhet from October 1 to October 15, 2022 [1.1].

Chinese scientists at Sinogene Biotechnology in Beijing successfully cloned a wild Arctic wolf for the first time in the world, with the birth of a pup named Maya announced in September 2022.

The 15th BRICS Summit in 2023 was held in Johannesburg, South Africa, rather than Brazil.

The Equal Pay International Coalition is a multi-stakeholder partnership led by the International Labour Organization, UN Women, and the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development, not the G-20.

Explanation

The incorrect statements are (2) and (4).

The 2022 Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit was hosted by Uzbekistan in Samarkand, not Tajikistan. Tajikistan hosted the summit in 2021 in Dushanbe.

Typhoon Nanmadol, which was a powerful tropical cyclone in September 2022, struck Japan, particularly impacting the Kyushu region, and did not hit Laos.

The other statements are correct. Giorgia Meloni assumed office as the first female Prime Minister of Italy in October 2022. Additionally, the United Arab Emirates signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the China National Space Administration in September 2022 to collaborate on future lunar missions, specifically to land the UAE-developed Rashid-2 rover on the lunar surface using a Chinese lander.

Explanation

Ukraine is located in Eastern Europe and shares land borders with seven countries. It is bordered by Belarus to the north, Poland, Slovakia, and Hungary to the west, Romania and Moldova to the southwest, and Russia to the east and northeast. This makes Belarus, Romania, and Hungary direct neighboring countries of Ukraine.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because in September 2022, the United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) appointed Vanessa Nakate, a renowned climate justice activist from Uganda, as its newest Goodwill Ambassador. She was chosen for her globally recognized advocacy, championing the rights of children and young people who bear the brunt of climate change.

Statement 2 is correct because in September 2022, Admiral Sunil Lanba (Retired), the former Chief of the Naval Staff of India, was conferred Singapore's prestigious military award, the Pingat Jasa Gemilang (Tentera), which translates to the Meritorious Service Medal (Military). The award was presented by Singapore's Minister for Defence on behalf of the President of Singapore, recognizing Admiral Lanba's exceptional contributions to enhancing bilateral maritime cooperation and strengthening the bond between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy.

Explanation

All four statements are incorrect. Statement (1) is wrong because Roza Otunbayeva is a former President of Kyrgyzstan, not Kazakhstan. Statement (2) is wrong because China, not Russia, became the first country to approve a needle-free inhaled COVID-19 vaccine. Statement (3) is wrong because per IMF September 2022 data, France was not the fifth-largest economy; India had moved ahead of the UK and France by that period. Statement (4) is wrong because Indonesia held the G-20 presidency in 2022, not China.

Explanation

China won a total of 15 medals, consisting of 9 gold, 4 silver, and 2 bronze.

Germany secured a total of 27 medals, comprising 12 gold, 10 silver, and 5 bronze.

Norway dominated the standings with 37 medals, including 16 gold, 8 silver, and 13 bronze.

United States of America finished with 25 medals, consisting of 8 gold, 10 silver, and 7 bronze.

Explanation

The Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram was built by the Chola Emperor Rajaraja II in the 12th century CE. Located near Kumbakonam in the Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu, this grand Hindu temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva. It is renowned for its magnificent Dravidian architecture, showcasing highly detailed stone carvings and a unique main mandapa constructed in the form of a chariot drawn by horses. Because of its outstanding cultural and architectural value, the temple is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and forms a part of the Great Living Chola Temples group, alongside the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur and the Gangaikondacholapuram Temple.

Explanation

Shishupalvadh is a celebrated Sanskrit epic poem composed by the classical poet Magha around the 7th or 8th century CE. The epic consists of twenty cantos and is based on an episode from the Sabha Parva of the Mahabharata, depicting the slaying of the Chedi king Shishupala by Lord Krishna. Because this masterpiece was authored by Magha, it is not attributed to the ancient playwright Bhasa.

Explanation

Pietro Della Valle was a prominent Italian traveller, born into a noble family in Rome, Italy. He visited India in 1623 during the reign of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir, leaving behind valuable accounts of his travels to places like Surat, Cambay, and Goa. Because his country of origin was Italy and not France, this pair is incorrectly matched.

Explanation

Mirza Muhammad Haidar Dughlat wrote the Tarikh-i-Rashidi, an influential historical work written in Persian during the mid-sixteenth century. Mirza Haidar Dughlat was a military general of Chagatai Mughal descent and a cousin of the Mughal emperor Babur. The book is divided into two parts: the first part provides a detailed history of the Chagatais and the Khans of Moghulistan, while the second part is a personal memoir of the author detailing his military campaigns and political affairs in Central Asia, Tibet, and Kashmir, which he ruled from 1540 to 1551. He dedicated this monumental historical account to his patron, Abdur Rashid Khan of Yarkand.

Explanation

Dr. Mahendralal Sarkar founded the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS) on 29 January 1876 in Calcutta. As a visionary physician and social reformer, he aimed to establish a national institution that would provide Indian researchers with the infrastructure to conduct cutting-edge scientific investigations and popularize science among the masses. Funded entirely by local donations, the association became a premier center for scientific inquiry in India.

Explanation

Florence Nightingale described Lord Ripon as the savior of India and his rule as the beginning of a golden age in India. This praise was in recognition of his highly liberal and reformist policies during his tenure as Viceroy from 1880 to 1884.

Lord Ripon introduced several progressive measures aimed at improving the welfare of Indians and establishing racial equality. Key reforms under his administration included the repeal of the restrictive Vernacular Press Act in 1882, the introduction of local self-government resolutions, the enactment of the first Factory Act in 1881, and his advocacy for the Ilbert Bill, which sought to allow Indian magistrates to try European subjects.

Explanation

Rabindranath Tagore highly admired Raja Rammohan Roy for his progressive and universal outlook, referring to him as the pioneer of modern India. Tagore observed that Rammohan Roy was the only individual of his era to completely grasp the true spirit and significance of the modern age. According to Tagore, Rammohan Roy understood that the core of modern human civilization does not lie in isolation, but rather in the global integration, brotherhood, and mutual interdependence of different cultures, individuals, and nations.

Explanation

India in Transition was written by the Marxist revolutionary and philosopher Manabendra Nath Roy, popularly known as M.N. Roy, in 1922. The book, written in collaboration with Abani Mukherji, offers a comprehensive Marxist analysis of India's contemporary economic and social realities, analyzing the growth of industrial capitalism and the class structure of Indian society. Consequently, it was not authored by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Explanation

The Hunter Education Commission was appointed in 1882 by Lord Ripon, who was the Viceroy of India at the time. Under the chairmanship of Sir William Wilson Hunter, the commission was tasked with assessing the progress of education in India since the Wood's Despatch of 1854 and suggesting measures to improve primary and secondary education. Pairing it with the year 1887 is incorrect.

Explanation

The Indian Independence Committee, originally established as the Berlin Committee, was set up in Berlin, Germany in 1914 during World War I. Prominent Indian revolutionaries and nationalists, including Virendranath Chattopadhyaya, Bhupendranath Dutta, and Lala Hardayal, founded the committee with the active support of the German Foreign Office under the Zimmermann Plan. The primary objective of this committee was to mobilize Indian settlers abroad, secure German funds, and acquire arms to coordinate an armed rebellion against the British Raj inside India.

Explanation

Milam Glacier is a major glacier located in the Kumaon Himalayas within the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand. It lies at an elevation ranging from 3870 meters to 5500 meters, originating from the slopes of Kohli and Trishul peaks. This glacier is the source of the Goriganga River, which flows through the Johar Valley and eventually merges with the Kali River at Jauljibi.

Explanation

The regional classification of the Himalayas from west to east divides the mountain range based on river valleys. The westernmost stretch lying between the Indus and the Satluj rivers is designated as the Punjab Himalayas, which encompasses the Kashmir and Himachal Himalayas. The Zojila pass, which connects the Kashmir Valley with Ladakh, is located in this western section, placing it within the Punjab Himalayas.

Explanation

The Vadinar oil refinery is located in Devbhumi Dwarka district of Gujarat. It was developed, commissioned, and managed by Essar Oil Limited, which was later rebranded as Nayara Energy Limited in 2018 following its acquisition by a consortium led by Rosneft. The refinery is India's second-largest single-location refinery and commenced its commercial operations in 2006.

Explanation

Bolivia is a landlocked country located in western-central South America. It lost its direct access to the Pacific Ocean to Chile during the War of the Pacific (1879–1884). Since then, it has remained one of the only two landlocked countries on the South American continent, the other being Paraguay.

Explanation

The Balearic Islands are an archipelago of Spain located in the western basin of the Mediterranean Sea. This island group comprises four major inhabited islands, which are Mallorca, Menorca, Ibiza, and Formentera, alongside several smaller islets. They constitute an autonomous community and a province of Spain, with Palma serving as the capital.

Explanation

Turkey is a transcontinental country located mainly on the Anatolian peninsula in Western Asia, with a small portion on the Balkan peninsula in Southeast Europe. Its unique geographic location positions it directly between the Black Sea to the north and the Mediterranean Sea to the south. The Aegean Sea lies to its west, while the Turkish Straits, comprising the Bosphorus, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles, connect the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea, defining the geographic boundary of the country.

Explanation

The Flemish (or Flemings) are a Germanic ethnic group native to the Flanders region of Belgium. They speak Dutch (specifically Belgian Dutch, often referred to as Flemish) and constitute approximately 60% of Belgium's total population. They are primarily concentrated in the northern part of the country, while the southern part is mainly inhabited by the French-speaking Walloon community.

Explanation

The geographical positions of these European nations from North to South are determined by their latitudinal ranges. Ukraine is the northernmost country, located between 44° N and 52° N latitude. Moving southward, Romania lies immediately below Ukraine, situated between 43° N and 48° N latitude. Further south is Bulgaria, which occupies the latitudinal band between 41° N and 44° N. Greece represents the southernmost country in this sequence, extending from approximately 34° N to 42° N latitude. This establishes the sequence from North to South as Ukraine, Romania, Bulgaria, and Greece.

Explanation

Black Sea matches with Bulgaria because Bulgaria is situated on the western coast of the Black Sea.

Red Sea matches with Eritrea as Eritrea is located along the southwestern coast of the Red Sea.

Yellow Sea matches with China since China borders the western and northern shores of the Yellow Sea.

Caspian Sea matches with Kazakhstan because Kazakhstan has a long coastline bordering the northern and northeastern parts of the Caspian Sea.

Explanation

Mica matches with Hazaribagh because the Hazaribagh-Koderma region in Jharkhand is historically recognized for its rich deposits of high-grade ruby mica.

Bauxite matches with Palamau because the plateau regions of Palamau in Jharkhand contain significant commercial deposits of bauxite ore.

Manganese matches with Keonjhar because the Keonjhar district in Odisha is one of the most prominent and richest manganese-producing zones in India.

Copper matches with Khetri because the Khetri belt in Rajasthan is a renowned copper-mining region managed by Hindustan Copper Limited.

Explanation

Nagarjuna Sagar matches with Krishna as it is a major masonry dam built across the Krishna River on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Matatilla matches with Betwa as this multipurpose dam was constructed in 1958 on the Betwa River in Lalitpur, Uttar Pradesh.

Maithon matches with Barakar because this dam, part of the Damodar Valley Corporation, is situated on the Barakar River in Jharkhand.

Hirakud matches with Mahanadi as it is one of the longest earthen dams in the world, constructed across the Mahanadi River in Odisha.

Explanation

Under Article 192 of the Constitution of India, the decision on the disqualification of a member of a State Legislature on grounds other than defection (which are listed under Article 191(1)) is made by the Governor of the State. When such a question arises, it is referred to the Governor, whose decision is final. The Governor is constitutionally mandated to obtain the opinion of the Election Commission of India and must act in accordance with that opinion before giving a decision.

Explanation

Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution of India specifies the grounds for disqualification of a Member of Parliament, declaring that a person shall be disqualified from being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, unless that office has been declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. This constitutional provision is aimed at maintaining the separation of powers and ensuring that legislators can perform their duties independently without executive influence.

Explanation

A cut motion is a parliamentary tool available to the members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand for grant submitted by the government during the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement. The primary objective of a cut motion is to reduce the expenditure in the Budget proposals by proposing a reduction in the allocated funds for a specific ministry or department. Members can move three categories of cut motions, namely Policy Cut to reduce the demand to Re 1, Economy Cut to reduce the demand by a specified amount to effect savings, and Token Cut to reduce the demand by ₹100 to voice a particular grievance. If any cut motion is passed, it signifies a lack of confidence in the government.

Explanation

Article 243D of the Constitution of India, inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, mandates the reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions. Specifically, Clause 3 of Article 243D specifies that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat must be reserved for women, including those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. These reserved seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in a Panchayat. Additionally, Clause 4 of this article ensures that not less than one-third of the total number of offices of chairpersons in the Panchayats at each level are reserved for women.

Explanation

The writ of Mandamus, which literally translates to "we command", is issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 or the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. It is a judicial remedy addressed to a public official, public authority, inferior court, tribunal, or corporation, commanding them to perform a legal or statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform, thereby ensuring the enforcement of public duties and protecting the rights of citizens.

Explanation

The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019, amended the Constitution of India to provide up to 10% reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens in educational institutions and public employment. This landmark amendment inserted Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) into the Constitution. Article 15(6) enables the government to make special provisions, including reservations up to 10% in educational institutions, for the advancement of economically weaker citizens. Similarly, Article 16(6) enables the state to provide reservation up to 10% in appointments or posts in public employment for these sections.

Explanation

An adjournment motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It is an extraordinary device because it interrupts the regular business of the House to discuss a matter of immediate and grave concern. To be admitted, the motion requires the support of at least 50 members. Since it interrupts the normal proceedings and involves an element of censure against the government, this device is only permitted in the Lok Sabha and cannot be used in the Rajya Sabha. The debate on an adjournment motion must last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

Explanation

The doctrine of "procedure established by law", as incorporated under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, mandates that a law is valid and binding if it has been enacted by the competent legislature following the correct constitutional procedure. Under this principle, the judiciary lacks the authority to judge the wisdom, fairness, or policy of a law. If the legislature possesses the legislative competence and the enacted law does not breach any constitutional limits, the courts cannot declare it invalid or question its substance, thereby restricting judicial review to verifying procedural conformity and constitutional boundaries.

Explanation

Under the Interim Government of India formed in September 1946, the Viceroy of India continued to serve as the President and the Head of the Executive Council. Jawaharlal Nehru was designated as the Vice President of the Executive Council and served as the leader of the interim cabinet, but he did not hold the official title of Prime Minister or Head of the Council at that time.

Explanation

Zero Hour is an informal device available to members of parliament to raise matters of urgent public importance without any prior notice. It starts immediately after the Question Hour ends at 12:00 PM (noon) and lasts until the regular, pre-scheduled agenda of the day is taken up. This slot is an Indian innovation in parliamentary practice that has been in place since 1962, allowing members to direct the attention of the government to critical issues of immediate concern.

Explanation

Under Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India, a Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the specified matters. These matters include the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax under Article 110(1)(a). They also include the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India under Article 110(1)(b). Additionally, the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India is explicitly covered under Article 110(1)(d). Since all these provisions are part of the constitutional definition of a Money Bill, they collectively constitute the correct choice.

Explanation

The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, amended Article 334 of the Constitution of India. While this amendment extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years, it did not extend the provision for nominating members of the Anglo-Indian community. Previously, under Article 331, the President could nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if they were not adequately represented. This nomination provision expired on January 25, 2020, effectively doing away with the nominated representation of Anglo-Indians in the Parliament and State Legislatures.