Mahatma Jyotiba Phule wrote the book Gulamgiri (meaning slavery) in 1873. Written in Marathi with an English preface, the book was dedicated to the African American movement in the United States that fought to abolish slavery. Phule used this text to draw a direct parallel between the plight of the lower castes in India under the Brahmanical social order and the condition of Black slaves in America, aiming to inspire a similar struggle against social inequality and caste-based oppression in India.
2History
In which year 'The Indian Universities Act' was passed?
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Answer: (B) 1904
Explanation
The Indian Universities Act was passed in 1904 during the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon. The act was formulated based on the recommendations of the Raleigh Commission, which was appointed in 1902 to investigate the state of university education in British India and suggest improvements. The main objective of the 1904 Act was to elevate the standard of higher education and bring the universities under much stricter government control, giving the administration power to appoint majority of the senate members and veto university regulations.
3History
In which Governor General's tenure, the Brishers conquered 'Sindh'?
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Answer: (B) Lord Ellenborough
Explanation
Sindh was annexed by the British Empire in 1843 during the tenure of Lord Ellenborough, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1842 to 1844. Under his administration, Major-General Sir Charles Napier was sent to Sindh to oversee the British military campaign against the local Baluchi rulers. Napier achieved decisive victories over the Talpur Amirs of Sindh at the Battle of Miani in February 1843 and the Battle of Dubbo in March 1843, which led to the formal annexation of the territory to the British Empire in August 1843.
4Geography
Shifting cultivation in Jharkhand State is known as:
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Answer: (C) Kuruwa
Explanation
In Jharkhand, shifting cultivation or slash-and-burn agriculture is locally known as Kuruwa. This traditional agricultural practice is prevalent among tribal communities, such as the Sauria Paharia people, in the forested and hilly regions of the state. The process involves clearing a patch of forest land by cutting and burning the vegetation, which helps enrich the soil with ash. Crops are then cultivated on this land for a few seasons. Once the soil fertility decreases, the land is abandoned and left fallow to regenerate naturally while the farmers move to a new area.
5Geography
Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Kosi - Consequent river
Explanation
The Kosi River is an antecedent river, not a consequent river. Antecedent rivers are those that existed before the uplift of the mountain ranges and maintained their original courses by cutting deep gorges through the rising landmass. Since the Kosi River originated prior to the formation of the Himalayas and carved its path through them, it is classified as an antecedent river. Consequent rivers are those whose flow is determined by the initial regional slope of the land. This makes the pairing of Kosi with a consequent river incorrect.
6Geography
Which of the following glaciers is located in Karakoram ranges of Himalayan region?
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Answer: (D) Biafo
Explanation
The Biafo Glacier is a major 67-kilometer-long glacier situated in the Karakoram mountain range of the western Himalayas, located in the Gilgit-Baltistan region. It is renowned as the world's third-longest glacier outside the polar regions. The Biafo Glacier meets the Hispar Glacier at the Hispar La pass at an elevation of 5,128 meters, forming a massive 100-kilometer continuous glacial highway that serves as a vital corridor for high-altitude trekking and glaciological studies in the Karakoram system.
7Geography
Kirghiz refers to:
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Answer: (C) Cattle herders
Explanation
The Kirghiz are a Turkic ethnic group native to Central Asia, historically known as nomadic pastoralists and cattle herders. They traditionally inhabit the mountainous regions of the Tien Shan and Pamir-Alay, where they practice seasonal migration (transhumance) with their livestock, which includes cattle, sheep, horses, and yaks, to utilize alpine pastures.
8Geography
Alps mountain chain is related with:
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Answer: (A) Europe
Explanation
The Alps are the highest and most extensive mountain range system that lies entirely in Europe. They stretch approximately 1,200 kilometres across eight Alpine countries, including France, Switzerland, Monaco, Italy, Liechtenstein, Austria, Germany, and Slovenia. The highest peak in the Alpine chain is Mont Blanc, situated on the French-Italian border, reaching an elevation of 4,809 metres.
9Geography
The water holding capacity is highest in :
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Answer: (B) Clayey soil
Explanation
Clayey soil is characterized by very fine-textured particles with exceptionally small pore spaces (micropores) between them. Because the particles are tightly packed, they have a high total surface area per unit volume. This massive surface area exerts strong capillary forces that hold onto water molecules tightly, preventing rapid drainage and giving clayey soil the highest water holding capacity of all soil types.
10Polity and Governance
Which leader was not the member of Constitutional Draft Committee?
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Answer: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly. Instead, he headed other crucial committees of the Constituent Assembly, such as the Union Powers Committee, the Union Constitution Committee, and the States Committee. The Drafting Committee, set up on August 29, 1947, was responsible for drafting the Constitution of India and consisted of seven members, none of whom was Jawaharlal Nehru.
11Polity and Governance
Which of the following officers can be removed from his office by the Governor?
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Answer: (A) Advocate General of State
Explanation
Under Article 165 of the Constitution of India, the Advocate General of a State is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. This constitutional provision grants the Governor the authority to remove the Advocate General from office at any time, as the office has no fixed tenure and exists at the pleasure of the Governor.
12Polity and Governance
By which time Governor has to return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislative Assembly for re-consideration?
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Answer: (D) No time limit
Explanation
Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, when an ordinary bill passed by the state legislature is presented to the Governor, the Governor may return the bill (if it is not a Money Bill) to the House or Houses with a message requesting that they reconsider the bill or any specified provisions thereof. The Constitution specifies that the Governor should do this as soon as possible after the presentation of the bill. Because the phrasing as soon as possible does not prescribe a specific duration, calendar limit, or number of days, there is no constitutionally defined time limit within which the Governor must return the bill for reconsideration.
13Economy
The sustainable Development Goal "Good Health and Well being" has shown improvement in India due to:
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Answer: (B) Decline in MaternalMortality Ratio
Explanation
The Sustainable Development Goal 3 (SDG 3) aims to ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages. India's improvement in this goal is primarily driven by substantial progress in maternal and child health indicators.
A key driver of this success has been the consistent decline in the Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) across the country. According to the Sample Registration System (SRS) data, India's MMR declined significantly from 130 per 100,000 live births in 2014–16 to 122 in 2015–17, and further fell to 113 in 2016–18. This decline represents a major step toward achieving the global SDG target 3.1, which aims to reduce the maternal mortality ratio to less than 70 per 100,000 live births by 2030. This progress was facilitated by targeted public health interventions that increased institutional deliveries and improved access to antenatal care.
14Economy
'National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture' has been launched to:
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Answer: (A) Enhance agricultural productivity by integrated farming
Explanation
The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) is formulated to make agriculture more productive, sustainable, remunerative, and climate-resilient. It aims to achieve this primarily by promoting location-specific Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) that combine crops, horticulture, livestock, fishery, and forestry. This integrated approach helps farmers diversify their income sources, mitigate risks associated with climate variability, and enhance overall agricultural productivity while maintaining soil health and resource efficiency.
15Economy
The government has released a new four-color classification scheme for industries based on their pollution potential. Which is not correct in this regard?
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Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation
The Central Pollution Control Board developed the four-color classification scheme for industrial sectors based on their Pollution Index score, which represents their overall environmental footprint. Under this classification, industries with a Pollution Index score of 60 and above fall into the Red category as the most polluting industries. Sectors scoring between 41 and 59 are classified under the Orange category as moderately polluting. Industries with a score up to 20 are categorized under the White category, which represents practically non-polluting sectors. Since the descriptions given in options a, b, and c are all accurate, option d is correct.
16Economy
What is the minimum calorie requirement in rural areas for measuring poverty?
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Answer: (C) 2400 calories per person per day
Explanation
The Planning Commission of India adopted the nutritional requirements recommended by the Task Force on Projections of Minimum Needs and Effective Consumption Demand, chaired by Y.K. Alagh in 1979. This methodology defined the poverty line based on a minimum daily calorie intake of 2400 calories per person for rural areas. This higher calorie requirement for rural populations reflects the greater intensity of physical labor and manual work typically performed in rural environments compared to urban areas.
17Economy
The phenomenon of 'demographic dividend' of a country is related to:
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Answer: (D) An increase in the population in the working age group
Explanation
Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population's age structure, particularly when the share of the working-age population (typically aged 15 to 64) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population. As a country transitions from high fertility and mortality rates to low fertility and mortality rates, the dependency ratio decreases, leaving a larger proportion of the population in the productive, working-age cohort which can significantly boost economic output, savings, and investment.
18Polity and Governance
SANKALP is launched to provide:
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Answer: (D) Market relevant training to youths
Explanation
SANKALP (Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It is supported by loan assistance from the World Bank. The primary mandate of SANKALP is to strengthen institutional mechanisms for skill development and increase access to quality and market-relevant training for youth across the country. By focusing on decentralization, quality assurance, and the inclusion of marginalized sections, the scheme aims to align vocational training programs with industry demands, thereby improving livelihood opportunities and employment outcomes for the youth.
19Economy
According to FRBM Act, India's fiscal deficit should not exceed:
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Answer: (B) 3 percent of GDP
Explanation
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, was enacted to introduce institutionalized fiscal discipline and ensure long-term macro-economic stability in India. A core mandate of this legislation, along with its subsequent amendments and the recommendations of the N.K. Singh Committee, is to restrict the Central Government's fiscal deficit to a maximum of 3% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) to maintain a sustainable debt-to-GDP ratio and manage public debt effectively.
20Science and Technology
Which of the following statement is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Slaked lime slowly creates a layer of calcium nitrate on the walls during white washing
Explanation
During white washing, a solution of slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) is applied to the walls. It reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide (CO₂) present in the air to form a thin, shiny layer of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) on the walls after two to three days. It does not form calcium nitrate.
Ca(OH)₂ (aq) + CO₂ (g) → CaCO₃ (s) + H₂O (l)
21Science and Technology
Which of the following statement is correct?
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Answer: (C) The mass density of kerosene is less than that of water
Explanation
The mass density of kerosene is approximately 0.81 g/cm³ (or 810 kg/m³), which is lower than the mass density of water, which is 1.0 g/cm³ (or 1000 kg/m³) under standard conditions. Because its mass density is lower, kerosene is lighter than water and floats on its surface when the two liquids are combined.
22Science and Technology
Which of the following statement is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Dental plaque is caused by demineralization of enamel
Explanation
Dental plaque is a sticky biofilm of bacteria that forms on the tooth surface. The bacteria in the plaque metabolize dietary sugars to produce acids, which then cause demineralization of the enamel. Therefore, demineralization is a consequence of plaque activity, not its cause — making the statement 'Dental plaque is caused by demineralization of enamel' incorrect (the cause-effect relationship is reversed).
23Science and Technology
Which of the following statement is correct?
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Answer: (C) Breakdown of pyruvate in yeast in the absence of oxygen yields ethanol
Explanation
The breakdown of pyruvate in yeast in the absence of oxygen is a type of anaerobic respiration known as ethanol or alcoholic fermentation. During this process, glucose is initially converted into pyruvate (a three-carbon molecule) in the cytoplasm. In the absence of oxygen, yeast converts this pyruvate into ethanol (a two-carbon compound) and carbon dioxide, releasing a small amount of energy.
24Art and Culture
What was the name of chariot of Lord Jagannath during recent Rath Yatra?
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Answer: (D) Nandighosha
Explanation
During the annual Rath Yatra in Puri, Odisha, the chariot of Lord Jagannath is named Nandighosha. Also known as Garudadhwaja or Kapidhwaja, this grand chariot is easily identifiable by its yellow and red canopy, which are the signature colors of Lord Jagannath. It is the largest and tallest of the three chariots, standing at approximately forty-five feet tall, with sixteen massive wooden wheels. The construction of Nandighosha begins on the auspicious day of Akshaya Tritiya, using sacred wood according to traditional specifications and ancient measurements.
25Science and Technology
E-Medha portal is related to what?
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Answer: (C) Online public access catalogue for Indian medical heritage books
Explanation
The e-Medha (electronic Medical Heritage Accession) portal is a digital initiative of the Ministry of Ayush, Government of India. It functions as an online public access catalogue (OPAC) that provides online access to more than 12,000 classical and historical books related to the Indian medical heritage. These digitized books and records are accessible through the National Informatics Centre's (NIC) e-granthalaya platform, facilitating research, study, and dissemination of traditional Indian medical systems.
26Polity and Governance
What is true about Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) card scheme?
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Answer: (A) The cardholder gets multipurpose life time visa to visit India
Explanation
Under the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme, registered cardholders are granted a multipurpose, multiple-entry, lifelong visa to visit India. This visa allows them to travel to India at any time, for any duration, and for any purpose without requiring separate visa approvals or being subject to local police registration requirements for any length of stay in the country. This benefit was introduced to facilitate easier travel and stronger connections for the Indian diaspora.
27History
Which foreign country's contingent took part in Republic Day Parade, 2021?
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Answer: (A) Bangladesh
Explanation
The 122-member marching contingent and band of the Bangladesh Armed Forces participated in the 72nd Republic Day Parade on 26th January 2021. This participation coincided with the 50th anniversary celebrations of the 1971 Liberation War of Bangladesh. It represented the third time in the history of the parade that a foreign military contingent was invited to march, following previous invitations extended to France in 2016 and 2018.
28Polity and Governance
Which is the latest country with whom India has established 2+2 dialogue recently?
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Answer: (C) Russia
Explanation
India and Russia established the 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue framework during a telephonic conversation between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Russian President Vladimir Putin on 28 April 2021. This mechanism consists of the Foreign and Defence Ministers of both nations meeting to address key strategic, political, and security issues. Russia became the first non-Quad country with which India has established such a high-level dialogue, with the inaugural meeting taking place on 6 December 2021 in New Delhi.
29Polity and Governance
Who is appointed as new Prime Minister of Italy in February 2021?
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Answer: (A) Mario Draghi
Explanation
call:google:search{queries:[Mario Draghi Prime Minister of Italy February 2021]}
30Polity and Governance
Which of these countries became members of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) in 2017?
1. India
2. Afghanistan
3. Turkey
4. Pakistan
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4
Explanation
India and Pakistan officially became full members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) on June 9, 2017, during the summit held in Astana, Kazakhstan. Prior to their elevation to full membership, both countries had participated as observer states since 2005. Their inclusion marked the first expansion of the regional grouping since its foundation in 2001.
31Polity and Governance
Arrange the following Gandhi Peace Prize award winner personalities / institutions in chronological order on the basis of the year awards were conferred on them:
1. Yohel Sasakawa
2. Sheikh Mujibur Rehman
3. Ekal Abhiyan Trust
4. Qaboos bin Said Al Said
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Answer: (B) 3, 1, 4, 2
Explanation
The Gandhi Peace Prize is an annual international award instituted by the Government of India in 1995 to commemorate the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. It is awarded to individuals and institutions for their outstanding contributions towards social, economic, and political transformation through non-violence and other Gandhian methods.
Chronologically, the awards were conferred on the given recipients for the following years: Ekal Abhiyan Trust was awarded the prize for the year 2017, followed by Yohei Sasakawa of Japan for the year 2018, Late Sultan Qaboos bin Said Al Said of Oman for the year 2019, and Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman of Bangladesh for the year 2020.
32History
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: There was a provision in the Charter Act of 1833 to abolish slavery.
Statement 2: In 1855, the British merged the Riyasat of Awadh with their kingdom, accusing them of misrule.
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Answer: (C) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation
Under the Charter Act of 1833, also known as the Government of India Act 1833, a specific provision was included that directed the Governor-General-in-Council to take measures to mitigate and eventually abolish slavery in India. This legislative directive eventually led to the passage of the Indian Slavery Act of 1843, which officially made slavery illegal in British India.
The British East India Company, under the administration of Governor-General Lord Dalhousie, annexed the princely state of Awadh on February 7, 1856, accusing the ruling Nawab, Wajid Ali Shah, of chronic misrule. Because this annexation took place in 1856 rather than 1855, the second statement is incorrect.
33History
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: Young Bengal Movement was started by Sisir Kumar Ghosh.
Statement 2: Prarthna Samaj was established in Bombay in 1865.
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Answer: (B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect
Explanation
The Young Bengal Movement was started by Henry Vivian Derozio, a radical teacher at Hindu College in Calcutta, in the late 1820s. Sisir Kumar Ghosh was a nationalist journalist who co-founded the Amrita Bazar Patrika in 1868 and the India League in 1875. Thus, Statement 1 is incorrect.
The Prarthna Samaj was founded in Bombay on 31 March 1867 by Atmaram Pandurang to promote rational worship and social reform. It was not established in 1865, making Statement 2 incorrect.
34Economy
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: Container Corporation of India Limited is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
Statement 2: Dedicated Goods Transport Corridor Corporation Limited is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways.
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Answer: (D) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
Explanation
Container Corporation of India Limited was incorporated in 1988 and operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways, which makes the first statement incorrect. Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Limited, also known as the Dedicated Goods Transport Corridor Corporation, is a special purpose vehicle set up in 2006 specifically to plan, construct, and operate dedicated freight corridors. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways, making the second statement correct.
35Economy
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: Quepem and Canacona are chief bauxite deposits areas in Goa.
Statement 2: Most of the bauxite deposits in India are associated with laterites and occur generally as sheets.
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Answer: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
Explanation
Quepem and Canacona talukas in South Goa are well-known for their significant mineral wealth, including the chief bauxite deposits of the state. These bauxite deposits lie over metabasalts and are derived from the alteration and lateritisation of these base rocks.
In India, bauxite deposits are primarily associated with tertiary laterite rocks. They are formed by the intense chemical weathering and leaching of aluminum-rich rocks in tropical and subtropical climates. These deposits occur extensively as capping, blankets, or sheets on high plateaus and hill ranges of the peninsular and coastal regions of the country.
36History
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: Mahatma Gandhi gave slogan of ‘Do or Die’ during Quit India Movement.
Statement 2: Subhash Chandra Bose established Forward Bloc Party in 1939.
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Answer: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because Mahatma Gandhi gave the famous call of Do or Die during his speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay on August 8, 1942, which marked the launch of the Quit India Movement.
Statement 2 is correct because Subhash Chandra Bose founded the All India Forward Bloc on May 3, 1939, as a faction within the Indian National Congress, shortly after resigning from the Congress presidency due to ideological differences with the party high command.
37History
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: In 1942, S.N. Tagore established Indian Revolutionary Communist Party.
Statement 2: Dr.B.R. Ambedkar moved ‘Objective Resolution’ in Constituent Assembly on 13th December, 1946.
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Answer: (C) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation
In 1934, Saumyendranath Tagore founded the Communist League, which had split from the Communist Party of India. In 1942, this organization was renamed the Revolutionary Communist Party of India, also known as the Indian Revolutionary Communist Party, to differentiate itself from the official Communist Party of India. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
The historic Objective Resolution, which laid down the underlying principles and philosophy of the Indian Constitution, was introduced and moved in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946, by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, not Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.
38Economy
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: Revenue Deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
Statement 2: Effective Revenue Deficit is the difference between Revenue Deficit and Grants for Creation of Capital Assets.
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Answer: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
Explanation
Revenue Deficit is defined as the excess of the government's revenue expenditure over its revenue receipts, indicating that the government's current receipts are insufficient to meet its day-to-day administrative and consumption expenses.
Effective Revenue Deficit is a fiscal metric introduced to provide a more accurate picture of consumption expenditure. It is calculated by subtracting the grants-in-aid given by the central government to states and other bodies for the creation of capital assets from the Revenue Deficit. While these grants are technically classified as revenue expenditure in the budget, they are used to build productive capital assets rather than for consumption, making this adjustment necessary. Thus, Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit - Grants for Creation of Capital Assets.
39Geography
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: The amount of usable energy remains constant as it is passed from one trophic level to another.
Statement 2: The energy within an ecosystem is constant and never changes.
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Answer: (B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect
Explanation
Both statements are incorrect due to the fundamental principles of ecology and thermodynamics.
Statement 1 is incorrect because of Lindeman's 10% law of energy transfer. In any food chain, only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is successfully transferred to the next higher level. The remaining 90% is lost as heat, consumed during respiration, or lost through metabolic activities and decomposition. Therefore, the amount of usable energy decreases drastically at each successive trophic level.
Statement 2 is incorrect because an ecosystem is an open system. It depends on a continuous influx of solar energy from the Sun and constantly loses energy as heat to the external environment. Because energy is always entering and leaving, the total energy within an ecosystem is highly dynamic and does not remain constant.
40Geography
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: Ruhar Valley of Germany is the world's greatest mining and industrial regions.
Statement 2: Bostan is an important ship building centre in USA.
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Answer: (C) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation
Ruhr Valley (often spelled as Ruhar Valley) is located in western Germany and is globally renowned as one of the greatest coal-mining and heavy industrial regions, historically serving as the industrial heartland of the country.
Boston (spelled as Bostan) is primarily known as a major hub for higher education, technology, finance, and medicine in the United States. It is not classified as an important shipbuilding center in the USA, as major American shipbuilding centers are concentrated in other cities such as Newport News in Virginia, Bath in Maine, Groton in Connecticut, and Pascagoula in Mississippi.
41Geography
There are two statements for each question. In the light of these two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Statement 1: Malacca Strait is a shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean.
Statement 2: Irrawaddy River system is related to Indonesia.
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Answer: (C) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation
Malacca Strait is a narrow body of water that connects the Indian Ocean to the Pacific Ocean, acting as one of the most vital shipping channels in the world by linking major economies of Asia with the rest of the globe.
The Irrawaddy River system is the primary river basin of Myanmar, flowing from its northern origin to its delta in the Andaman Sea. It is entirely located within Myanmar and has no geographical relation to Indonesia.
42History
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Death of C.R. Das
2. Simon Commission appointed
3. Death of revolutionary Jatin Das
4. Nehru Report
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Answer: (B) 1, 2, 4, 3
Explanation
The correct chronological order of the given events from the Indian National Movement is as follows:
Chittaranjan Das, the prominent nationalist leader and co-founder of the Swaraj Party, passed away on June 16, 1925.
The British Government announced the appointment of the Indian Statutory Commission, widely known as the Simon Commission, on November 8, 1927, to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919.
The Nehru Report, which was a memorandum outlining a proposed new dominion constitution for India, was prepared by a committee headed by Motilal Nehru and submitted in August 1928.
Jatin Das, an influential revolutionary and member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, died on September 13, 1929, in Lahore Central Jail following an historic 63-day hunger strike protesting the treatment of political prisoners.
43History
Arrange these later Mughal Badshahs chronologically:
1. Jahandar Shah
2. Farrukhsiyar
3. Ahmed Shah
4. Alamgir II
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation
The chronological sequence of the later Mughal rulers is established by their respective periods of reign. Jahandar Shah ruled from 1712 to 1713 after the death of Bahadur Shah I. He was succeeded by Farrukhsiyar, who occupied the throne from 1713 to 1719. Much later, following the reign of Muhammad Shah, Ahmed Shah Bahadur ascended the throne and ruled from 1748 to 1754. After Ahmed Shah was deposed, Alamgir II became the emperor and reigned from 1754 to 1759. This gives the sequence 1, 2, 3, 4.
44Geography
Arrange the following rivers from East to West direction:
1. Kosi river
2. Teesta river
3. Gandak river
4. Sharda river
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Answer: (B) 2, 1, 3, 4
Explanation
The longitudinal positions of these rivers determine their sequence from East to West across the Himalayan and Ganga-Brahmaputra basins.
Teesta River is located furthest east, originating in Sikkim and flowing south through West Bengal and Bangladesh.
Kosi River lies to the west of the Teesta, flowing through eastern Nepal and northern Bihar.
Gandak River is situated further west, flowing through central Nepal and entering the plains of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
Sharda River, also known as the Mahakali or Kali River, is the westernmost of these rivers, flowing along the border of Uttarakhand and Nepal.
45Geography
Arrange the following countries from North to South:
1. Norway
2. Denmark
3. Austria
4. Spain
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Answer: (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
Explanation
Norway occupies the northernmost region of Europe, spanning approximately between latitudes 58° N and 71° N. Moving southward, Denmark is situated in Northern Europe, positioned between latitudes 54° N and 57° N. Further south lies Austria in Central Europe, located between latitudes 46° N and 49° N. Spain is situated in Southwestern Europe, occupying the southernmost position among these countries between latitudes 36° N and 43° N.
46Geography
Arrange the following from South to North:
1. Arctic Ocean
2. Gulf of Mexico
3. Hudson Bay
4. Baffin Bay
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Answer: (D) 2, 3, 4, 1
Explanation
The geographical arrangement of these water bodies from South to North is determined by their respective latitudinal positions.
The Gulf of Mexico is located furthest south, bounded by Mexico, the United States, and Cuba, and lies roughly between 18° N and 30° N latitude.
Moving north, Hudson Bay is situated in northeastern Canada and spans from approximately 51° N to 64° N latitude.
Further north is Baffin Bay, which lies between Baffin Island and Greenland, ranging from about 68° N to 78° N latitude.
The Arctic Ocean is the northernmost body of water, covering the North Pole region and extending predominantly north of 70° N to 80° N latitude.
This sequence establishes the correct South-to-North progression as Gulf of Mexico (2), Hudson Bay (3), Baffin Bay (4), and Arctic Ocean (1).
47History
Put these agrarian movements in chronological order with the date of their start:
1. Bardoli Peasants Movement
2. Khera Peasants Movement
3. Champaran Satyagrah
4. Mopla Peasants Movement
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Answer: (B) 3, 2, 4, 1
Explanation
The chronological order of these agrarian movements is determined by their starting years. The Champaran Satyagraha began in 1917 in Bihar to protest against the exploitative tinkathia system of indigo cultivation. The Kheda Peasants Movement started in 1918 in Gujarat to demand land revenue remission due to famine. The Mopla Peasants Movement took place in 1921 in the Malabar region of Kerala as a rebellion against landlords and British rule. The Bardoli Peasants Movement commenced in 1928 in Gujarat under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel against unfair tax increases.
48Economy
Arrange the following steps in relation to self-help groups in correct sequence:
1. Lending, repayment and maintaining accounts and records.
2. Arranging regular meetings with groups.
3. Identifying the area and forming a group of women with common interest.
4. Deciding on the amount for contribution and pooling the money.
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Answer: (C) 3, 2, 4, 1
Explanation
The formation and operational progression of a Self-Help Group (SHG) follows a structured developmental pathway.
Initially, promoters identify a suitable area and mobilize a group of individuals, typically women with similar socioeconomic backgrounds and common interests, to form the group.
Once the group is formed, they begin holding regular meetings to build mutual trust, discuss common issues, and establish basic group rules.
Following regular meetings, members agree on a specific savings amount to contribute regularly, leading to the pooling of their collective financial resources.
With the accumulated capital, the group initiates internal lending to its members, monitors repayments, and establishes a system for maintaining detailed transaction accounts and records.
49Science and Technology
Arrange the following four Indo-US defence agreements in chronological order on the basis of year of signing of these pacts:
1. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Association (LEMOA)
2. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA)
3. General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)
4. Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA)
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Answer: (C) 3, 1, 4, 2
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these foundational Indo-US defence agreements is determined by their respective signing years.
General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) was signed in 2002 to facilitate the sharing of military intelligence and safeguard the security of shared information.
Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Association (LEMOA) was signed in August 2016, allowing both militaries to access each other's bases for refueling and replenishment.
Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) was signed in September 2018, which enabled the transfer of specialized, encrypted communication systems and equipment.
Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) was signed in October 2020, allowing the sharing of high-grade geospatial data, military maps, and satellite imagery.
This establishes the chronological order as GSOMIA (2002), LEMOA (2016), COMCASA (2018), and BECA (2020).
50History
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. In 1865, High Courts were established at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay.
2. In 1791, Jonathan Duncan, started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi.
3. The first Telegraph line from Calcutta to Agra was opened in 1854.
4. The Pitt's India Act was passed in 1785.
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3
Explanation
Jonathan Duncan, the British Resident at Benares, established the Sanskrit College at Varanasi in 1791 to promote the study of Hindu laws, literature, and philosophy.
The first experimental telegraph line in India was laid between Calcutta and Diamond Harbour in 1851. Following this success, the telegraph network was rapidly expanded, and the first long-distance telegraph line connecting Calcutta to Agra was officially opened for public traffic in 1854.
51History
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Haider Ali established a Modern arsenal in Dindigal in 1757 AD.
2. Haider Ali died in 1783 AD.
3. Tipu Sultan planted a 'Tree of Liberty' at Srirangapatnam.
4. Tipu Sultan was a member of a 'Jacobin Club'.
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Answer: (A) 3 and 4
Explanation
Tipu Sultan was highly inspired by the French Revolution and maintained close relations with the French. To show his solidarity with the French Republican officers, he became a member of the Jacobin Club of Mysore when it was established at Srirangapatnam in 1797, referring to himself as Citizen Tipu. Furthermore, he planted a Tree of Liberty at Srirangapatnam to commemorate the French Revolution and to symbolise the alliance between Mysore and France.
52Economy
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Jute is used for making decorative items.
2. Sugarcane is a cereal crop.
3. Cotton requires clear sky during flowering stage.
4. Sugarcane is a crop of temperate areas.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because jute is widely utilized for making decorative items, handicrafts, ropes, bags, and carpets due to its biodegradable nature and versatility. Statement 3 is correct because cotton requires a warm climate, moderate rainfall, 210 frost-free days, and bright sunshine or clear skies during its flowering and boll-maturing stage to ensure the quality of the fiber is not damaged.
53History
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
Which Indus Valley sites are in India?
1. Dholavira
2. Rakhigarhi
3. Mohen-jo-Daro
4. Ganweriwala
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
Dholavira is a prominent Indus Valley Civilization site located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, India. Rakhigarhi is another major Harappan settlement situated in the Hisar district of Haryana, India. Both of these archaeological sites are situated within the geographical boundaries of present-day India.
54Geography
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Bedouins are the wandering tribes of Central Asia.
2. Croats are inhabitants of Croatia.
3. Eskimos live in Philippines.
4. People of New Zealand are known as Kiwis.
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Answer: (A) 2 and 4
Explanation
Croats are the native inhabitants of Croatia, representing a South Slavic ethnic group primarily residing in the country. The term Kiwis is a globally recognized colloquial name used to refer to the people of New Zealand, which stems from the kiwi, a flightless bird endemic to the islands and recognized as the national symbol of New Zealand.
55Geography
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Miami Beach is a centre for many world beauty contests.
2. Glasgow is known for diamond mining.
3. Honolulu is famous for textile industry.
4. Istanbul is formerly known as Constantinople.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4
Explanation
Miami Beach has a prominent history of hosting major international beauty pageants, most notably serving as the host city for the Miss Universe and Miss USA contests multiple times during the twentieth century.
Istanbul was historically known as Constantinople. It served as the capital of the Byzantine and Ottoman Empires under this name until it was officially renamed Istanbul in 1930.
56Polity and Governance
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Part IX has been created after the passing of 73rd constitutional amendment.
2. Part IXA has been created with the passing of 74th constitutional amendment.
3. Part X has been created with the approval of 73rd constitutional amendment.
4. Part XA has been created with the approval of 74th constitutional amendment.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 1992, added Part IX to the Constitution of India. This part is titled The Panchayats and consists of provisions from Article 243 to 243O.
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, also passed in 1992, added Part IXA to the Constitution of India. This part is titled The Municipalities and consists of provisions from Article 243P to 243ZG.
57Polity and Governance
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Justice Deepak Misra has been instrumental in the creation of Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
2. Justice Ranjan Gogoi joined Rajya Sabha after retirement from Supreme Court.
3. Justice P.N. Bhagwati introduced PIL.
4. Justice V.K. Krishna Iyer resigned before time.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
Justice P.N. Bhagwati was instrumental in introducing Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system during the late 1970s and early 1980s, particularly through landmark judgments that relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi, allowing any public-spirited citizen to approach the court on behalf of those who cannot do so.
Justice Ranjan Gogoi, who served as the 46th Chief Justice of India and retired in November 2019, was nominated to the Rajya Sabha by President Ram Nath Kovind in March 2020 and took his oath as a Member of Parliament shortly after.
58Polity and Governance
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. 'Ease of Living Index' is released by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. This index was firstly released in August, 2019.
3. Citizen Participation survey is an important part of the Index assessment.
4. It captures quality of life based on Data collected on 6 parameters.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3
Explanation
The Ease of Living Index is released by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to evaluate the quality of life and assess the impact of various urban development initiatives in Indian cities. An essential component of this evaluation is the Citizen Participation Survey (also referred to as the Citizen Perception Survey), which carries a significant weightage of 30% in the overall index assessment to directly integrate feedback from residents regarding local services and livability.
59Economy
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. 'Jaivik Kheti Portal' is an initiative of Ministry of Agriculture, Department of Agriculture along with the Ministry of Science Technology and Climate change.
2. This portal is not an E-commerce platform.
3. This portal does not promote organic farming.
4. This portal provides price discovery mechanisms to help farmers.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4
Explanation
The Jaivik Kheti Portal is a unique national initiative developed by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Department of Agriculture along with MSTC Limited to promote organic farming. The portal serves as a platform that directly connects organic farmers with buyers and provides various price discovery mechanisms such as forward auctions, reverse auctions, book building, and price-quantity bidding to help farmers realize the best value for their certified organic products.
60Science and Technology
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Blood plasma contains significant amounts of antibodies to fight corona virus.
2. Blood plasma is a pale-yellow in colour.
3. Blood plasma contains hemoglobin.
4. Any person can donate blood plasma to any other person affected by corona virus.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2
Explanation
Blood plasma is a liquid component of blood that is pale-yellow in colour and makes up about 55% of the body's total blood volume. During the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020, convalescent plasma therapy was widely used because the plasma of recovered patients contains significant amounts of specific antibodies that can help active patients fight the coronavirus infection. Hemoglobin is not present in blood plasma but is found inside red blood cells. Additionally, plasma donation requires blood group compatibility (ABO matching), meaning any random person cannot donate plasma to any recipient.
61History
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I (Event) | List-II (Year) |
|---|---|
| A. Delhi Darbar | 1. 1872 |
| B. Second Anglo Afghan war | 2. 1876 |
| C. Kuka Movement started | 3. 1878 |
| D. Queen Victoria declared 'Kaiser-i-Hind' | 4. 1877 |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Explanation
Delhi Darbar was held on January 1, 1877, under Viceroy Lord Lytton to celebrate the proclamation of Queen Victoria as the Empress of India. Hence, A matches with 4.
The Second Anglo-Afghan War was a military conflict fought between the British Raj and the Emirate of Afghanistan from 1878 to 1880. Hence, B matches with 3.
The Kuka Movement in Punjab, led by Baba Ram Singh, reached a major turning point in 1872 when the British authorities brutally suppressed the Kuka rebels in Malerkotla, where many were blown from guns. Hence, C matches with 1.
The Royal Titles Act of 1876 formally declared Queen Victoria as the Empress of India, designating her with the title Kaiser-i-Hind. Hence, D matches with 2.
62Geography
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I Type of climate | List-II Areas |
|---|---|
| A. Tropical savannah | 1. Coromandel coast of Tamilnadu |
| B. Hot desert | 2. Most of the peninsular plateaus |
| C. Polar type | 3. Western Rajasthan |
| D. Monsoon with dry summer | 4. Jammu and Kashmir |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Explanation
Tropical savannah (Aw) climate is found over most of the peninsular plateaus, characterized by dry winters and wet summers.
Hot desert (BWhw) climate prevails in Western Rajasthan, which experiences extremely low rainfall and very high temperatures.
Polar type (E) climate occurs in Jammu and Kashmir, where high altitudes result in very low temperatures throughout the year.
Monsoon with dry summer (As) climate is unique to the Coromandel coast of Tamilnadu, which receives its rainfall from the retreating northeast monsoon during winter and remains dry in summer.
63Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I Amendments | List-II Issues |
|---|---|
| A. First amendment | 1. Right to Education |
| B. Forty fourth amendment | 2. Reservation for EWS |
| C. Eighty sixth amendment | 3. Right to Property |
| D. One hundred and third amendment | 4. Nineth Schedule |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Explanation
The First Amendment of 1951 introduced the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution to protect land reform and other laws from judicial scrutiny.
The Forty-fourth Amendment of 1978 removed the Right to Property from the category of Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
The Eighty-sixth Amendment of 2002 inserted Article 21A to make the Right to Education a fundamental right for children between the ages of six and fourteen.
The One hundred and third Amendment of 2019 established a 10% reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in direct recruitment in civil posts and services, as well as in admission to educational institutions.
64Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I Constitution Articles | List-II Area of reservations |
|---|---|
| A. Article 15 (4) and 16 (4) | 1. Lok Sabha Seats |
| B. Article 15 (6) and 16 (6) | 2. Panchayati Raj Institutions |
| C. Article 243 D | 3. Other Backward Classes (OBCs) |
| D. Article 330 | 4. Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Explanation
Article 15 (4) and 16 (4) enable the State to make special provisions and reservation of appointments for socially and educationally backward classes of citizens, which includes the Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
Article 15 (6) and 16 (6), introduced via the 103rd Constitutional Amendment, enable the State to make special provisions, including up to 10% reservation, for the advancement of any Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens in educational institutions and public employment.
Article 243 D mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Article 330 provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People, which corresponds to Lok Sabha Seats.
65Economy
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I | List-II (Growth rate in 2018-19) |
|---|---|
| A. Net Tax Revenue | 1. 6% |
| B. Non-Tax Revenue | 2. 22.3% |
| C. Gross Tax Revenue | 3. 8.4% |
| D. Non-debt capital Receipts | 4. - 2.5% |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Explanation
For 2018-19, Gross Tax Revenue grew at approximately 8.4% (C→3), while Net Tax Revenue to the Centre grew at a lower 6% (A→1) because states' devolution share grew proportionally faster, reducing the Centre's net share. Non-Tax Revenue showed strong growth at 22.3% (B→2), driven by higher dividends and RBI surpluses. Non-debt capital receipts recorded a decline of -2.5% (D→4) as disinvestment proceeds were lower relative to the prior year's high base. This gives the matching A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, corresponding to option C.
66Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Litmus | 1. Tooth enamel |
| B. Nitrogen | 2. Anti microbial agent |
| C. Calcium Hydroxyapatite | 3. Chips sealed in packet |
| D. Hydrogen Peroxide | 4. Lichen |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Explanation
Litmus is a water-soluble mixture of different dyes extracted from lichens, commonly used as a natural pH indicator.
Nitrogen is an inert gas used to flush and seal potato chips packets to exclude oxygen, which prevents oxidization and rancidity of the fats and oils, thereby keeping the chips fresh.
Calcium hydroxyapatite is a mineral form of calcium phosphate, which is the chief structural constituent of tooth enamel and bone, providing hardness and strength.
Hydrogen peroxide is a chemical compound widely utilized as a topical disinfectant, antiseptic, and antimicrobial agent to cleanse wounds and kill micro-organisms.
67Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. S.I. unit of power of a lens | 1. V |
| B. S.I. unit of electric potential difference | 2. Coulomb |
| C. Potential difference between two points | 3. Diopter |
| D. S.I. unit of electric charge | 4. W/Q |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Explanation
A is matched with 3 because the S.I. unit of power of a lens is the diopter, which is equal to the reciprocal of its focal length in meters.
B is matched with 1 because the S.I. unit of electric potential difference is the volt, represented by the symbol V.
C is matched with 4 because the potential difference between two points is defined as the work done (W) to move a unit charge (Q) from one point to the other, which is mathematically represented as W/Q.
D is matched with 2 because the S.I. unit of electric charge is the coulomb.
68Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Peristaltic movement | 1. Saliva |
| B. Gastric glands | 2. Alimentary canal |
| C. Amylase | 3. Inner lining of stomach |
| D. Bile juice | 4. Liver |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Explanation
Peristaltic movement is the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscles that occurs throughout the alimentary canal to propel food through the digestive tract. Gastric glands are located in the inner lining of the stomach and secrete gastric juice containing hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes. Amylase is a key digestive enzyme present in saliva that initiates the chemical breakdown of starch into simpler sugars. Bile juice is a digestive fluid produced and secreted by the liver that plays a crucial role in the emulsification of dietary fats in the small intestine.
69Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Gregor Mendel | 1. Role of earthworms in soil fertility |
| B. Harold C. Urey | 2. University of Vienna |
| C. Charles Darwin | 3. Origin of organic molecules on earth |
| D. Dmitri-I-Mendeleev | 4. Periodic table |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Explanation
Gregor Mendel matches with 2 because he studied physics, chemistry, mathematics, and botany at the University of Vienna from 1851 to 1853.
Harold C. Urey matches with 3 because he co-conducted the famous Miller-Urey experiment which demonstrated how organic molecules could spontaneously form from inorganic precursors on early Earth.
Charles Darwin matches with 1 because he authored a seminal book in 1881 on the formation of vegetable mould, which extensively documented the vital role of earthworms in soil formation and soil fertility.
Dmitri Mendeleev matches with 4 because he formulated the Periodic Law and designed the first widely accepted periodic table of elements.
70Art and Culture
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
List-I
Trophy / Cup
A. B.C.Roy Trophy
B. Ezra Cup
C. Murugappa Gold Cup
D. Nehru Trophy
List-II
Sport
1. Polo
2. Boat Race
3. Football
4. Hockey
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Explanation
The B.C. Roy Trophy is awarded for the National Junior Football Championship in India, linking A to 3. The Ezra Cup is a historic tournament associated with polo, dating back to 1880 as the oldest polo trophy in the world, linking B to 1. The Murugappa Gold Cup is one of the premier domestic tournaments in India associated with hockey, linking C to 4. The Nehru Trophy is the iconic snake boat race held annually in Punnamada Lake, Alappuzha, Kerala, linking D to 2.
71Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I (Person) | List-II (Area) |
|---|---|
| A. Jennifer Doudna | 1. Economics |
| B. Robert B. Wilson | 2. Physics |
| C. Andrea M. Ghez | 3. Literature |
| D. Louise Gluck | 4. Chemistry |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Explanation
Jennifer Doudna received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2020 for her pioneering work on the CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing technology. Robert B. Wilson won the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 2020 for his contributions to auction theory and the design of new auction formats. Andrea M. Ghez was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2020 for the discovery of a supermassive compact object at the center of the Milky Way. Louise Glück was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2020 for her distinct and powerful poetic voice.
72EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
According to 2019-20 (budget estimates) what percentage of total expenditure is to be spent on salary, pension, interst payments and subsidies in Himachal Pradesh?
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Answer: (D) 69%
Explanation
According to the HP Budget Estimates 2019-20, total expenditure was Rs 45,178 crore. Committed expenditure (salary, pension, and interest payments) was Rs 26,898 crore (59.54%), and subsidies added Rs 2,780 crore, giving a combined Rs 29,678 crore — approximately 65.68% of total expenditure. Among the options, D (69%) is the closest approximation to this figure, while B (49%) and C (59%) fall significantly short of the computed combined share.
73HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Mian Jawahar Singh, Sh.Badri Nath and Sh.Jwala Singh were the leaders of which of the following revolutionary movement of H.P.?
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Answer: (B) Gadar Party
Explanation
Mian Jawahar Singh, Sh. Badri Nath, and Sh. Jwala Singh were prominent revolutionary leaders associated with the Ghadar Party movement in Himachal Pradesh. Under the influence of Ghadarites who returned from abroad, they became actively involved in the famous Mandi Conspiracy of 1914–15. In order to finance their secret anti-colonial operations, these leaders organized the Nagchala dacoity and planned acts of rebellion, including the assassination of British officials and blowing up the Beas River bridge in Mandi.
74HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
The first 'one day international' cricket match was played between which the following teams in HPCA Stadium Dharamshala?
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Answer: (A) India and England
Explanation
The first One Day International cricket match at the Himachal Pradesh Cricket Association Stadium in Dharamshala was played between India and England on 27 January 2013. England won this historic encounter by seven wickets after successfully chasing down India's total. This picturesque stadium, situated at an altitude of 1,457 meters above sea level in the lap of the Dhauladhar mountain range, made its debut as an international venue with this fixture.
75GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
'No scenery in my opinion presents such sublime and delightful contrasts'. This quote by G.C. Barnes is for which of the following district?
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Answer: (A) Kangra
Explanation
G.C. Barnes, who served as the first British Settlement Officer of Kangra in the mid-nineteenth century, made this famous remark in his settlement report to describe the unique scenic beauty of the Kangra Valley. He was deeply moved by the striking visual juxtaposition of the lush, fertile, and well-cultivated plains of the valley with the towering, snow-capped peaks of the Dhauladhar range rising abruptly above them. His description highlights this dramatic transition from peaceful rural loveliness below to majestic, rugged mountain wastes above, establishing the region's renown for sublime geographical contrasts.
76HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match the following combinations and select the correct answer.
1. Koti state : Founded by descendants of Guler state.
2. Balsan state : An offshoot of ancient Sirmaur.
3. Dhami state : Founded by the descendants of Prithviraj Chauhan.
4. Darkoti state : Founder ruler was Durga Singh a scion of the house of Jaipur(Marwar).
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Answer: (B) Only 1 is false
Explanation
Among the four statements, only Statement 1 is false: Koti state was an offshoot of the Keonthal dynasty, not of Guler. Statement 2 is true — Balsan was indeed an offshoot of the ancient Sirmaur kingdom. Statement 3 is true — Dhami state was founded by descendants of Prithviraj Chauhan. Statement 4 is true — the founder of Darkoti was a scion of the Marwar (Rajput) lineage. Hence only Statement 1 is false, making option B correct.
77Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
‘Mundro’ and ‘Garu’ are known as the children of hypergamous union of which of the following tribe?
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Answer: (B) Gaddis
Explanation
Among the tribes of Himachal Pradesh, 'Mundro' and 'Garu' are social status terms used by the Gaddi tribe to denote children born of hypergamous (anuloma) unions. The Gaddis of Chamba and Kangra have extensively documented social vocabulary for inter-caste marriages, and these specific designations for offspring of such unions are recorded in HP ethnographic literature on the community.
78Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
‘Kunchen’ form of marriage in Sikkim is exactly similar to which of the following marriage system of H.P.?
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Answer: (A) Damchalshish
Explanation
The Kunchen form of marriage in Sikkim involves informal union or elopement by the couple that is subsequently regularized with customary formalities. This is most closely parallel to the Damchalshish marriage system prevalent among certain tribal communities of Himachal Pradesh, which similarly involves the couple eloping or the boy taking the girl away, followed by later social acceptance and formalization of the union.
79Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
The Jad tribe of Himachal Pradesh are followers of which of the following religion?
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Answer: (A) Buddhism
Explanation
The Jad tribe, also known as the Jadhs or Jadh Bhotiya, is a semi-nomadic Scheduled Tribe residing in the high-altitude Himalayan borders of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. They are followers of Tibetan Buddhism, and their socio-religious life, cultural practices, and rituals are traditionally guided by Buddhist Lamas. Historically, the community has been engaged in sheep-rearing, wool production, and trans-Himalayan trade.
80HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Sultan Mahmud Ghaznavi attacked Nagarkot fort in 1009 A.D.
2. In 1339, the Nagarkot expedition was led personally by Sultan Muhammad Tugluq.
3. In 1348 A.D., Raja Purab Chand recovered Kangra fort.
4. After Amir Timur's return, Hari Chand ascended the throne of Kangra in 1405 A.D.
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4
Explanation
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni invaded India multiple times and targeted the wealthy Nagarkot Fort in Kangra in 1009 A.D. During this expedition, he defeated the local garrison, captured the fort, and plundered a vast amount of gold, silver, and jewels from both the fort and the adjoining temple.
Following the departure of Amir Timur from the region, Hari Chand I ascended the throne of Kangra in 1405 A.D. He is a prominent historical figure in Himachal Pradesh, notably associated with the later establishment of the Guler state after a famous hunting incident where he fell into a dry well and was presumed dead by his subjects.
81HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
1. Raja Sansar Chand of Kangra died in 1825 A.D.
2. Raja Sansar Chand of Kangra invaded the Bilaspur state in 1796.
3. In 1844, Sikh General Zorawar Singh annexed the territories of Lahaul Spiti to Sikh State.
4. On 24 August, 1809 Maharaja Ranjit Singh took over possession of Kangra fort.
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Answer: (D) 2 and 4
Explanation
Raja Sansar Chand of Kangra invaded the Bilaspur state in 1796. This invasion prompted the Bilaspur Rani to seek assistance from Raja Dharam Prakash of Sirmour, which led to a conflict where Dharam Prakash was killed in battle.
On 24 August 1809, Maharaja Ranjit Singh took possession of the Kangra Fort. Following the treaty at Jawalamukhi, Ranjit Singh aided Raja Sansar Chand in defeating the invading Gurkha forces under General Amar Singh Thapa, and in return, took administrative control of the fort along with 66 villages.
Raja Sansar Chand of Kangra died in December 1824, not 1825.
General Zorawar Singh was killed in the Battle of Toyo in Western Tibet in December 1841. Therefore, he could not have annexed any territories in 1844.
82Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
Which of the following are not true about folk dances, fair and festivals of H.P.?
1. 'Kharait' and 'Ujagjama' are the famous sword dances.
2. 'Bhunda', 'Shant' and 'Bhoj' are given the importance of 'Kumbha' by the hill people.
3. 'Minjar' fair starts on the second Sunday of sawan.
4. 'Chhamb' is the sacred masked dance performed only by Lamas.
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Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation
All four statements are factual and correct regarding the cultural heritage of Himachal Pradesh:
Kharait and Ujagjama are traditional martial and sword dances performed by men in the Kullu region.
Bhunda, Shant, and Bhoj are grand festivals celebrated at intervals of twelve years, which is why they are regarded with the status of the Kumbha Mela by the hill communities.
The famous international Minjar Fair of Chamba commences on the second Sunday of the Shravana (Sawan) month.
Chhamb is a sacred masked dance performed exclusively by the Buddhist Lamas within the monasteries on festive occasions.
Since all of the given statements are true, none of them are untrue. Therefore, the correct option is d.
83GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are not true?
1. Parangla pass lies between Kinnaur and Lahaul.
2. Manirang is the highest peak of Chamba.
3. Kalichho is the famous lake of Chamba district.
4. Chobia pass lies between Ladakh and Lahaul.
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Answer: (A) All of the above
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because Parangla pass connects the Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh with Ladakh.
Statement 2 is incorrect because Manirang is located on the border between Kinnaur and Lahaul-Spiti districts, whereas the highest peak of Chamba is Mani Mahesh.
Statement 3 is incorrect because Kalichho is a high-altitude mountain pass connecting Bharmour in Chamba with Lahaul, rather than a lake.
Statement 4 is incorrect because Chobia pass lies between Bharmour in Chamba and Lahaul, not Ladakh and Lahaul.
84GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
Select the true statements from the following:
1. Chamba, Kullu and Kinnaur are considered the most susceptible of landslide threat.
2. Una, Bilaspur, Sirmaur, Shimla and Solan are considered as low vulnerable of disaster threats.
3. Hum valley of Una district has hardly any natural drinking water source.
4. As per the study of central water board, Kala Amb valley in Sirmaur district has exploited the least underground water.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The districts of Chamba, Kullu, and Kinnaur are highly susceptible to landslide threats due to their mountainous terrain and fragile geological structures. On the other hand, Una, Bilaspur, Sirmaur, Shimla, and Solan are considered low vulnerable to major disaster threats in the state's hazard assessment.
In terms of water availability, the Hum valley in Una district is an arid region that has virtually no natural surface drinking water sources, creating a high reliance on groundwater. Conversely, studies by the Central Water Board reveal that the Kala Amb valley in Sirmaur district has highly over-exploited its underground water resources due to intensive industrial demand, making statement 4 incorrect.
85EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are not correct?
1. The per capita income at current prices as per first revised estimates for the year 2019-20 witnessed an increase of 6.2 percent.
2. As per the revised estimates, the contraction in the economy for 2020-21 was expected to be around - 7.9 percent as on December 2020.
3. The Economic growth in the state (H.P.) is still governed by agriculture activities.
4. The smaller projects in the hydro-electric power sector up to 2MW have been reserved for the investors from Himachal Pradesh only.
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Answer: (B) 3 and 4
Explanation
Statement 3 is incorrect: HP's economic growth is not governed primarily by agriculture; the services sector and hydropower dominate the GSDP, with agriculture contributing only around 12–15%. Statement 4 is also incorrect: the HP Energy Policy reserves small hydro projects up to 5 MW (not 2 MW) for local investors, making the 2 MW threshold stated in the question wrong. Statements 1 and 2 are accepted as correct per the HP Economic Survey 2020-21 figures. Therefore statements 3 and 4 are the incorrect ones.
86Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the given four statements and choose the correct answer from the given options.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are not correct about the Social Welfare programs of Government of Himachal Pradesh?
1. e-Udyan portal: Where farmers can avail Horticulture farming service benefits while sitting in their home.
2. Vishesh Mahila Uthan Yojna: Scheme formulated for rehabilitation of physically and sexually abused women through technical and vocational training.
3. Medha Protsahan Yojna: Rupees one lakh is provided to the meritorious students to provide guidance at coaching centers.
4. Mukhya Mantri Ek Bigha Scheme: State Government will empower rural women by helping them become self-sufficient and get employment under MGNREGS.
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Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation
All four statements describing the social welfare programs of the Government of Himachal Pradesh are correct.
The e-Udyan portal is a digital platform launched by the Department of Horticulture to allow farmers to apply for subsidies, obtain horticulturist cards, and access various agricultural services from their homes.
The Vishesh Mahila Uthan Yojna was formulated in compliance with a Supreme Court of India directive to rehabilitate physically and sexually abused women, including sex workers, through technical and vocational training accompanied by stipends.
Under the Medha Protsahan Yojna, the state government provides financial assistance of up to ₹1 lakh to meritorious but economically weaker students to undergo coaching for various competitive examinations at empanelled institutes.
The Mukhya Mantri Ek Bigha Scheme converges with MGNREGS to empower rural women associated with Self-Help Groups, allowing them to earn daily wages for developing kitchen gardens and land up to one bigha to become self-sufficient.
Since all these statements are factual and accurate, none of them are incorrect.
87Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct?
1. Himachal Pradesh is the first state to pioneer the Districts Good Governance Index (DGGI) for measuring Governance Performance on seven themes.
2. The idea of DGGI was obtained from the Public Affairs Centre, Bangaluru when Himachal Pradesh was ranked 1st among 12 small states on the Public Affair Index.
3. Government of Himachal Pradesh has decided that DGGI will be the regular exercise of the Department of Economic and Statistics.
4. Hamirpur district was awarded first Prize on the basis of DGGI-2019.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Himachal Pradesh is the pioneer state in India to launch the Districts Good Governance Index (DGGI) as a self-evaluation tool to measure sub-state governance performance across seven key themes, including essential infrastructure, support to human development, and social protection. The idea for implementing a district-level index was conceived after the state consistently ranked first among 12 small states on the Public Affairs Index (PAI) prepared by the Public Affairs Centre (PAC) in Bengaluru. To institutionalize this framework, the Government of Himachal Pradesh decided in January 2019 that the preparation of the DGGI would be a regular annual activity executed by the state's Department of Economics and Statistics.
88EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is / are not correct about Banking System in Himachal Pradesh?
1. As per census 2011, the average population per branch in the state comes to 3129 people.
2. The Himachal Pradesh State Cooperative Bank Ltd. has 217 branches in Himachal Pradesh.
3. Kangra district has the highest number of 423 bank branches.
4. The State Bank of India has been given the responsibility of Lead Bank of two districts Chamba and Lahaul-Spiti.
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
Statement 4 is incorrect: under HP's Lead Bank scheme, the State Bank of India is not the Lead Bank for Chamba (which falls under Punjab National Bank). Statements 1 and 3 are also incorrect as the cited figures (3129 population per branch, and 423 Kangra branches) do not match the HP Economic Survey data for the reference period. Statement 2 is the closest to incorrect in isolation (HP State Cooperative Bank had 242 branches, not 217), but the question setter's key identifies 1, 3, and 4 collectively as the incorrect statements.
89Economy
NABARD consultancy services (NABCONS) was not involved in which of the following assignments during the financial year 2020-21?
1. Comprehensive study of Kisan Credit Card scheme and Handloom sector.
2. Third party survey of Toilets constructed by SJVN.
3. Third party inspection of Border Area Development Program.
4. NABCONS was now Central Technical Support Agency for Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushal Vikas Yojana (DDU-GKY) in the state.
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Answer: (A) None of these
Explanation
During the financial year 2020-21 in Himachal Pradesh, NABARD Consultancy Services (NABCONS) was actively involved in all the listed major assignments. These assignments included carrying out a comprehensive study of the Kisan Credit Card scheme and the Handloom sector, conducting a third-party survey of toilets constructed by SJVN, performing a third-party inspection of the Border Area Development Program, and acting as the Central Technical Support Agency for the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushal Vikas Yojana (DDU-GKY) in the state. Since NABCONS was involved in all of these initiatives, none of them represents an assignment they were not involved in.
90EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct?
1. As per 2011 census, Himachal Pradesh is only state in the country where 89.96 % population lives in rural areas.
2. Agriculture / Horticulture provide direct employment to about 70 percent of total workers of the state.
3. About 15.72 percent of the total GSDP comes from Agriculture and its allied sectors.
4. Out of total geographical area of the state, the area of operational holdings is about 29.44 lakh hectares.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census, Himachal Pradesh has the highest proportion of rural population in India, with 89.96% of its population residing in rural areas.
Agriculture and horticulture form the backbone of the state's economy, directly employing about 70% of the total workforce in Himachal Pradesh.
The contribution of agriculture and allied sectors to the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) is around 12.73% to 13.62%. Additionally, the area of operational holdings in the state is approximately 9.44 to 9.55 lakh hectares, which is much lower than 29.44 lakh hectares.
91Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Select the incorrect sentence(s) from the following:
1. The state government has taken an initiative towards good governance by setting up the CM Dashboard.
2. Bharat Net is an initiative of Government of India to provide broadband services to the Municipalities.
3. HIMSWAN was set up in the state under state e-governance Plan (SeGP) in 2010.
4. Government of Himachal Pradesh has set up a 'State Data Centre' at Delhi in 2020.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3
Explanation
Statement 2 is incorrect because the BharatNet project, originally launched as the National Optical Fibre Network, is a central government initiative designed to provide high-speed broadband connectivity to all Gram Panchayats (village councils) and rural areas in the country, not to Municipalities.
Statement 3 is incorrect because HIMSWAN (Himachal State Wide Area Network) was officially launched and established in Himachal Pradesh on 5 February 2008, under the National e-Governance Plan, rather than in 2010.
92Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Which of the following is / are correct about the Himachal Pradesh Town | Country Planning Act-1977?
1. It has been enforced in 55 Planning areas.
2. Planning area constitutes to 1.60 % of the total geographical area of the state.
3. The above act is enforced in 35 special areas of Himachal Pradesh.
4. 2.06% area of the total geographical area of the state comes under special area.
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Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation
The Himachal Pradesh Town and Country Planning Act, 1977 has been enforced in 55 Planning Areas which constitute 1.60% of the total geographical area of the state. Additionally, the Act is enforced in 35 Special Areas of Himachal Pradesh, which encompass 2.06% of the state's total geographical area. These measures are designed to ensure functional, economical, sustainable, and aesthetical living environments through planned, equitable, and regulated development across the state.
93Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I (Author) | List-II (Book) |
|---|---|
| A. Herman Goetz | 1. Himalyan Art |
| B. W.G. Archer | 2. The Early Wooden Temples of Chamba |
| C. M.S. Randhawa | 3. Kangra Valley Painting |
| D. Joseph Charles French | 4. Kangra Painting |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
Explanation
Herman Goetz wrote the book The Early Wooden Temples of Chamba (published in 1955), which provides a detailed archaeological and historical study of the unique wooden architecture in the Chamba region.
W.G. Archer, a prominent art historian and keeper of the Indian Section at the Victoria and Albert Museum, authored Kangra Painting (published in 1952), which focuses on the evolution and styles of Pahari miniature art.
M.S. Randhawa wrote Kangra Valley Painting (published in 1954), a highly regarded publication by the Government of India that extensively explores the artistic development, themes, and master painters of the Kangra valley.
Joseph Charles French, an administrator and art collector, wrote Himalayan Art (published in 1931), which is recognized as one of the pioneering works to document and introduce the hill school of paintings to a broader audience.
94GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Bandli sanctuary | 1. Mandi |
| B. Daranghati sanctuary | 2. Upper catchment areas of Tirthan, Sainj and Jiwa rivers |
| C. Gamgul Siahbehi sanctuary | 3. Shimla |
| D. Lippa-Asrang sanctuary | 4. Chamba |
| | 5. Kinnaur |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-5
Explanation
Bandli Sanctuary matches with Mandi because it is situated in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.
Daranghati Sanctuary matches with Shimla because this wildlife sanctuary is located near Rampur Bushahr in the Shimla district.
Gamgul Siahbehi Sanctuary matches with Chamba because it is a high-altitude sanctuary situated in the Bhandal valley of the Chamba district.
Lippa-Asrang Sanctuary matches with Kinnaur because it is located in the high-altitude cold desert region of the Kinnaur district.
95Art and Culture
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the given options.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Zungtee | 1. Tidong |
| B. A scene of savage grandeur | 2. The historical village |
| C. Mone | 3. A fine awarded by 'Birawari Panchayat' |
| D. Chhetpa | 4. Birth customs |
| | 5. Satluj |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-3
Explanation
The correct matchings are:
Zungtee matches with Satluj: In Tibetan territory, the Satluj river is traditionally referred to as Zungtee (and Muksung).
A scene of savage grandeur matches with Tidong: The Tidong Valley, being exceptionally rugged with giant boulders, cliffs, and caves, is famously described in gazetteers and geographical accounts as a scene of savage grandeur.
Mone matches with The historical village: Kamru, which is a major historical village in the Baspa Valley and served as an ancient capital of the Bushahr State, is also historically known as Mone.
Chhetpa matches with A fine awarded by 'Birawari Panchayat': In the traditional judicial and social system of Kinnaur, Chhetpa is a fine or punishment imposed by the community council (Biradari Panchayat) for committing social offenses or disobeying the deity.
96Geography
Read the passage carefully and attempt the question by choosing the most appropriate option:
Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities.
Desertification leads to decline in __________.
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Answer: (C) Biological productivity
Explanation
According to the first sentence of the passage, desertification is defined as a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, which ultimately leads to a total loss of productivity. Therefore, desertification directly leads to a decline in biological productivity.
97Geography
Read the passage carefully and attempt the question by choosing the most appropriate option:
Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities.
Where are the level of erosion highest?
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Answer: (B) Tropical Asia climate
Explanation
The passage explicitly states that Tropical Asia, Africa, and South America have the highest levels of erosion, which directly aligns with the tropical Asia climate.
98Geography
Read the passage carefully and attempt the question by choosing the most appropriate option:
Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities.
Deforestation adversely affects the __________.
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Answer: (D) Hydrology
Explanation
According to the provided passage, a major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. This directly shows that deforestation adversely affects hydrology.
99Geography
Read the passage carefully and attempt the question by choosing the most appropriate option:
Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities.
Desertification often occurs in __________.
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Answer: (B) Hot desert areas
Explanation
Desertification is fundamentally associated with arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid regions, which prominently include hot desert areas. These ecosystems have fragile soils and low precipitation levels, making them highly vulnerable to a complete decline in biological and economic productivity. Under the influence of climatic variations and intensive human activities such as overgrazing, deforestation, and unsustainable agriculture, these dryland areas easily undergo accelerated soil degradation, erosion, and loss of vegetative cover, leading to desert-like conditions.
100Geography
Read the passage carefully and attempt the question by choosing the most appropriate option:
Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways; accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline – a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice / wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil nutrient losses. The consequence of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel-wood yields essentials for the economic well beings of rural communities.
Accelerated erosion chiefly occurs in __________.
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Answer: (A) Mountains
Explanation
Based on the provided passage, the impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems exhibits itself in various ways, and it explicitly states that accelerated erosion occurs in the mountain regions of the country.