MPPSC2023✓ Every question solved

MPPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 100 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

100
Questions
7
Subjects
27
Madhya Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography2828%
  • Polity and Governance2020%
  • Science and Technology1515%
  • History1414%
  • Art and Culture1212%
  • Economy1010%
  • Logical Reasoning11%
1Geography
Which of the following is the correct order of agricultural practices ?
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Answer: (B) Soil preparation - Sowing - Irrigation - Harvesting

Explanation

Agricultural practices typically begin with soil preparation, which involves tilling and leveling the land to create a suitable environment for seeds. Following this, sowing takes place, where seeds are planted in the prepared soil. Irrigation, the artificial application of water, is usually performed after sowing to ensure proper germination and growth of crops. Finally, harvesting is the process of gathering mature crops from the fields.

2Science and Technology
Who declared the year 2024 as International Year of Camelids ?
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Answer: (A) UN

Explanation

The United Nations (UN) declared 2024 as the International Year of Camelids (IYC 2024). This declaration by the UN General Assembly, upon the initiative of Bolivia, aims to raise awareness about the significant role camelids play in the livelihoods of millions of households across over 90 countries. Camelids, including alpacas, Bactrian camels, dromedaries, guanacos, llamas, and vicuñas, contribute to food security, nutrition, economic growth, and hold strong cultural significance for communities worldwide. They are particularly vital in harsh environments like deserts and highlands, where they provide milk, meat, fiber, transport, and help in adapting to climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) is facilitating the organization and implementation of the International Year.

3Geography
Which among the following is not a globally accepted National 'hot spot' of India?
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Answer: (B) Naro Hills

Explanation

India has four globally recognized biodiversity hotspots: the Himalayas, the Western Ghats, the Indo-Burma region, and Sundaland. The Himalayas are a vast mountain range with exceptional biodiversity and endemism. The Western Ghats are recognized as one of the world's "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity and a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to their high levels of endemism. Sundaland, which includes India's Nicobar Islands, is also a biologically rich region with numerous endemic species. In contrast, Naro Hills in Madhya Pradesh is a Biodiversity Heritage Site at a regional level, but it is not classified as a globally accepted biodiversity hotspot of India.

4Science and Technology
Which among the following is a recent scientific mission of ISRO for comprehensive study of the Sun?
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Answer: (A) Aditya-L1

Explanation

Aditya-L1 is ISRO's first dedicated solar observatory, launched in September 2023 to study the Sun. It is positioned in a halo orbit around the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which provides a continuous, unobstructed view of the Sun. The mission aims to observe the Sun's photosphere, chromosphere, and corona, as well as solar wind and space weather phenomena, to understand solar dynamics and their impact on Earth's environment.

In contrast, Bhaskara-I and Bhaskara-II were ISRO's early Earth observation satellites launched in 1979 and 1981, respectively, for remote sensing, oceanography, and hydrology. "Solar Mission - L1" is not an official ISRO mission name. Solar Orbiter is a collaborative mission between the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA, not ISRO, designed to study the Sun and its heliosphere.

5Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a National Nutrition Programme of the Government of India?
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Answer: (D) National Oral Health Programme

Explanation

The National Oral Health Programme is not a National Nutrition Programme of the Government of India. This program primarily focuses on the prevention and treatment of oral diseases, improving access to dental care, and promoting oral hygiene across the country. In contrast, the other listed programs directly address specific nutritional deficiencies or disorders. The National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme aims to eliminate iodine deficiency through iodized salt. The National Programme for Prevention and Control of Fluorosis deals with health issues arising from excessive fluoride intake, with nutritional interventions playing a role in its management and prevention. The National Iron Plus Initiative for Anaemia Control targets iron deficiency anemia through supplementation and deworming.

6Geography
Which among the following is the most stable ecosystem?
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Answer: (C) Marine ecosystem

Explanation

The marine ecosystem is considered the most stable due to several inherent characteristics. Its immense size and vast volume of water act as a significant buffer, minimizing rapid fluctuations in temperature and salinity, which provides a consistently stable environment for its inhabitants. This stability is further enhanced by high biodiversity and complex food webs, which allow for functional redundancy and alternative pathways for energy flow, making the ecosystem more resistant to disturbances and resilient in its ability to recover. In contrast, terrestrial ecosystems like forests, deserts, and grasslands are more susceptible to rapid environmental shifts and human impacts.

7Geography
Which among the following is not a biodegradable pollutant?
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Answer: (C) Insecticides

Explanation

Insecticides are non-biodegradable pollutants because they are synthetic chemicals that cannot be broken down into simpler, harmless substances by natural processes or microorganisms in the environment. Unlike biodegradable materials such as paper, food waste, and wood, which decompose relatively quickly, insecticides persist in the environment for long periods. This persistence allows them to accumulate in the food chain and cause long-term harm to ecosystems and living organisms.

8Geography
In an ecosystem, flow of energy declines as it passes from lower to higher trophic level. This is explained by the following:
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Answer: (B) Second law of thermodynamics

Explanation

The decline in energy flow as it passes from lower to higher trophic levels in an ecosystem is explained by the Second Law of Thermodynamics. This law states that during any energy transfer or transformation, some energy is always lost as unusable heat, leading to an increase in entropy. In an ecosystem, when organisms consume others, only about 10% of the energy from the lower trophic level is transferred to the next, with the remaining 90% being dissipated as heat during metabolic processes. This continuous loss of usable energy at each step limits the number of trophic levels and the biomass supported at higher levels.

9Science and Technology
Osteoclasts are associated with which of the following ?
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Answer: (C) Bone fracture

Explanation

Osteoclasts are specialized cells responsible for bone resorption, which is the process of breaking down bone tissue. Following a bone fracture, osteoclasts are activated to remove damaged or dead bone fragments at the site of injury. This removal of old bone is a critical initial step in the bone remodeling and healing process, making way for new bone formation by osteoblasts. Therefore, osteoclasts are directly involved in the body's response to and repair of bone fractures.

10Geography
Green Muffler is related to pollution of:
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Answer: (C) Noise

Explanation

The "Green Muffler" technique is specifically designed to combat noise pollution. It involves planting multiple rows of dense trees and shrubs in areas with high noise levels, such as along roadsides, industrial zones, and near highways. These plants act as a natural barrier, absorbing and deflecting sound waves, thereby reducing the intensity of noise reaching nearby residential areas. The thick foliage and branches effectively filter and obstruct sound, making it a method for noise abatement.

11EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which district in Madhya Pradesh showed the highest improvement in multi-dimensional poverty as per the report of Madhya Pradesh State Policy and Planning Commission (2023)?
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Answer: (D) Aliraipur

Explanation

According to the 2023 report by the Madhya Pradesh State Policy and Planning Commission, Alirajpur district demonstrated the highest improvement in multi-dimensional poverty. The report, which aligns with the National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023, indicated a significant decline in the proportion of multidimensionally poor individuals in Alirajpur. Specifically, Alirajpur registered a 31.05% reduction in its poverty headcount ratio. This substantial progress highlights focused efforts in areas such as health, education, and living standards within the district.

12EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
How did Madhya Pradesh perform in the assessment of states for Business Reforms Action Plan 2020?
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Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh was rated as 'Achievers'.

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh was rated as an 'Achiever' in the Business Reforms Action Plan (BRAP) 2020 assessment. This assessment, conducted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), categorizes states based on their implementation of business reforms. The BRAP 2020 included 301 reform points across 15 business regulatory areas, with 118 new reforms introduced to strengthen the process. Unlike previous years that ranked states, the 2020 assessment grouped them into four categories: Top Achievers, Achievers, Aspirers, and Emerging Business Ecosystems. Madhya Pradesh, along with states like Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh, fell into the 'Achievers' category.

13GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Arrange the following districts of Madhya Pradesh in order of their decennial population growth rate during 2001-2011; as per the 2011 census. Arrange from the lowest to highest.
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Answer: (B) Anuppur' Betul, Chhindwara, Mandsaur

Explanation

According to the 2011 census, the decennial population growth rate for Anuppur district was 12.30%. Betul district recorded a growth rate of approximately 12.9%. Chhindwara district's population grew by about 13.07%. Mandsaur district had a decennial population growth rate of approximately 13.19%. Therefore, arranging the districts from the lowest to highest decennial population growth rate is Anuppur, Betul, Chhindwara, and Mandsaur.

14EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
What is the objective of Tantyia Mama Economic Welfare Scheme (New Scheme)?
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Answer: (B) Supplying low-cost equipment and working capital for new industries/business to BPL category beneficiaries of Scheduled Tribes

Explanation

The Tantyia Mama Economic Welfare Scheme aims to provide economic support to Scheduled Tribe beneficiaries who are in the Below Poverty Line (BPL) category. The primary objective is to help these individuals establish or expand their businesses. This is achieved by supplying low-cost equipment and working capital for new industries or businesses. The scheme empowers eligible Scheduled Tribe members by providing the necessary tools and funds for self-employment and entrepreneurial activities.

15GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which city in Madhya Pradesh has a cluster dedicated to the production of transformers and allied products?
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Answer: (B) Gwalior

Explanation

Gwalior is recognized for having an industrial cluster specifically dedicated to the production of transformers and allied electrical equipment. This cluster consists of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) involved in manufacturing various capacities of transformers, including power, distribution, and special-purpose transformers, along with components like coils and laminations. The "Gwalior Transformer Allied Product Cluster" was incorporated in 2012 and is registered in Gwalior. While Bhopal also has heavy electrical industries like BHEL that manufacture transformers, Gwalior is more often cited for its dedicated cluster focusing on smaller and medium-scale transformer manufacturers and allied units.

16Polity and Governance
What is the maximum age limit of a High Court Judge?
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Answer: (B) 62 years

Explanation

The maximum age limit for a High Court judge in India is 62 years. This age was increased from 60 years to 62 years in 1963 through the 15th Constitutional Amendment Bill. High Court judges hold office until they attain this age, after which they retire. This provision is outlined in Article 217(1) of the Indian Constitution.

17Polity and Governance
By which Amendment of the Indian Constitution have the municipal laws been updated?
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Answer: (C) 74

Explanation

The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 significantly updated municipal laws in the Indian Constitution. It added Part IX-A to the Constitution, titled "The Municipalities," which includes Articles 243P to 243ZG. This amendment granted constitutional status to urban local bodies, making them a formal part of the three-tier governing system and ensuring their establishment and functioning as institutions of self-government. It also introduced the Twelfth Schedule, outlining 18 functional items for municipalities, and mandated provisions for direct elections, reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women, and the establishment of State Election Commissions and State Finance Commissions.

18History
Who was the Father of local Self-Government in India ?
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Answer: (D) Lord Ripon

Explanation

Lord Ripon is known as the "Father of Local Self-Government in India" due to his significant reforms during his tenure as Viceroy from 1880 to 1884. He introduced the Resolution on Local Self-Government in 1882, which aimed to decentralize administration and involve Indians in their own governance. This resolution led to the establishment of municipal and district boards with elected Indian members, fostering democratic institutions at the grassroots level. His efforts laid the foundation for modern local governance in India, empowering local bodies with financial autonomy and responsibility for civic functions.

19Polity and Governance
Who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not in the State ?
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Answer: (C) Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha

Explanation

In the State Legislature, the Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha holds the authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill or not. This decision is final and cannot be challenged. Article 199(3) of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that if any question arises regarding a bill's classification as a Money Bill in a state with a Legislative Council, the Speaker's decision is conclusive. This power is crucial because Money Bills have a distinct legislative process, particularly concerning the role of the Legislative Council, which has limited powers over such bills. The Speaker's certification ensures that financial legislation proceeds smoothly and prevents delays caused by disagreements between the two houses.

20Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
Who amongst the following was the first Speaker of the Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly ?
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Answer: (D) Pandit Kunjilal Dubey

Explanation

Pandit Kunjilal Dubey was indeed the first Speaker of the Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly. He assumed office on November 1, 1956, immediately following the reorganization of the state. He served as Speaker for over a decade, from 1956 to 1967, overseeing the early state-building efforts of the newly formed Madhya Pradesh. His contributions were significant in establishing the legislative framework and parliamentary procedures for the state.

21Polity and Governance
Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India is related to expenses of Public Service Commissions?
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Answer: (C) Article 322

Explanation

Article 322 of the Constitution of India specifically deals with the expenses of Public Service Commissions. It mandates that the expenses of both the Union and State Public Service Commissions, including salaries, allowances, and pensions for their members and staff, shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the Consolidated Fund of the State, respectively. This provision ensures the financial independence of these commissions, safeguarding their impartiality and integrity in public service recruitment. In contrast, Article 320 outlines the functions of Public Service Commissions, Article 321 grants the power to extend the functions of Public Service Commissions, and Article 323 relates to the reports of Public Service Commissions.

22Economy
When was new institution 'NITI Ayoq' constituted in place of 'Planning Commission'?
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Answer: (C) 1ˢᵗ January, 2015

Explanation

The Planning Commission was dissolved on August 13, 2014, and subsequently, the new institution 'NITI Aayog' (National Institution for Transforming India) was constituted. NITI Aayog was officially established on January 1, 2015, through a Cabinet resolution. This marked a shift from a top-down planning approach to a more collaborative and participatory model involving states. Therefore, January 1, 2015, is the correct date for the constitution of NITI Aayog.

23Economy
Who was the Chairman of the Twelfth Finance Commission?
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Answer: (B) Dr. C. Rangarajan

Explanation

Dr. C. Rangarajan was the Chairman of the Twelfth Finance Commission. The commission was constituted by the President of India on November 1, 2002, and submitted its report on November 30, 2004, covering the period from 2005 to 2010. He is a distinguished economist and former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution to recommend the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States.

24Polity and Governance
The Food Preservation Commission is a statutory body established under which of the following Acts?
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Answer: (A) National Food Security Act, 2013

Explanation

The Food Preservation Commission, more accurately referred to as the State Food Commission, is a statutory body established under the National Food Security Act, 2013. This Act, enacted on July 5, 2013, marked a significant shift towards a rights-based approach to food security in India. The primary role of the State Food Commission is to monitor and review the implementation of the National Food Security Act within a state. It also serves as a grievance redressal mechanism for issues related to the distribution of entitled food grains and meals.

25Polity and Governance
The functions of the National Commission for Women are Specified in:
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Answer: (C) Section 10 of the National Commission for Women Act, 1990

Explanation

Section 10 of the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, explicitly outlines the functions of the Commission. This section details the various duties and responsibilities, such as investigating matters related to women's safeguards, presenting reports to the Central Government, and recommending legislative measures. The Act was established to protect and promote women's rights in India. Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it directly refers to the section that specifies these functions.

26Polity and Governance
Which of the following is NOT a function of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
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Answer: (C) Punishing the violators of human rights by imposing penalties

Explanation

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is an independent statutory body in India that safeguards and promotes human rights. While it can inquire into human rights violations, intervene in court proceedings, and review constitutional safeguards, it does not possess the power to punish violators or impose penalties. The NHRC's role is primarily recommendatory, meaning it can recommend actions like compensation or prosecution to the government, but it cannot enforce these recommendations or directly provide relief to victims. Its lack of punitive authority is a significant limitation on its effectiveness.

27Polity and Governance
The total number of members other than the Chairperson and Vice-Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is:
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Answer: (C) 3 Members

Explanation

The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) is composed of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three full-time Members. These members are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Therefore, excluding the Chairperson and Vice-Chairperson, there are 3 other members in the Commission. The term of office for all members, including the Chairperson and Vice-Chairperson, is three years.

28Polity and Governance
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can hold his office for a maximum period of:
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Answer: (C) 6 years

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed for a term of six years. This tenure is fixed, or until the individual attains the age of 65 years, whichever event occurs earlier. This provision, outlined in Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, ensures the independence and impartiality of the CAG in auditing government accounts. The CAG plays a crucial role in maintaining transparency and accountability in the financial administration of India.

29Polity and Governance
National Green Tribunal's (NGT) headquarters is situated at:
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Answer: (B) New Delhi

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has its national headquarters, also known as its principal bench, situated in New Delhi. Established under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010, the NGT is a statutory body dedicated to the expeditious disposal of environmental protection cases. While New Delhi serves as the main hub, the NGT also operates regional benches in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai to ensure broader access to environmental justice.

30Polity and Governance
The Union Public Service Commission constituted a committee in July 2000 to review the civil services examination under the chairmanship of:
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Answer: (D) Professor Yoginder Kumar Alagh

Explanation

In July 2000, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) established a committee to review the civil services examination. This committee was chaired by Professor Yoginder Kumar Alagh, a distinguished economist and former Union Minister. The primary objective of the committee was to conduct a comprehensive review of the existing civil services examination pattern and procedures. The committee submitted its report to the UPSC in October 2001, proposing reforms to the selection process for higher civil services like the IAS and IPS.

31Art and Culture
Where is the headquarters of Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI) located?
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Answer: (C) Jaipur

Explanation

The headquarters of the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI) is located in Jaipur, Rajasthan. AKFI is the main governing body for the sport of Kabaddi in India, responsible for its promotion, organization of tournaments, and overall management across the country. The federation was established in 1973 and serves as the administrative center for all AKFI operations.

32Science and Technology
Which of the following players were part of the Indian Women's Hockey team in Tokyo Olympics - 2020.
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Sushila Chanu Pukhrambam, Monika, and Vandana Katariya were all members of the Indian Women's Hockey team that participated in the Tokyo Olympics 2020. Sushila Chanu Pukhrambam was listed as a midfielder in the squad. Monika also featured as a midfielder for the team. Vandana Katariya was part of the forward line and notably became the first Indian woman to score an Olympic hat-trick in hockey during the Tokyo Games.

33Art and Culture
Which player was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award - 2022?
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Answer: (D) Sharath Kamal

Explanation

Sharath Kamal, a veteran Indian table tennis player, was the sole recipient of the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2022. This is India's highest sporting honor, and he was recognized for his outstanding performance, particularly at the 2022 Commonwealth Games where he won three gold medals and a silver. His long and distinguished career, marked by consistent high-level performance, led to him being chosen for this top honor.

34Science and Technology
Who among the following was awarded Padma Vibhushan - 2023 in the field of Science and Engineering?
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Answer: (C) Shri Srinivasa Varadhan

Explanation

Shri Srinivasa Varadhan, an eminent Indian-American mathematician, was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2023 for his exceptional contributions to the field of Science and Engineering. He is widely recognized for his fundamental work in probability theory, particularly for developing the theory of large deviations. This theory has significant applications in various fields, including statistical mechanics, finance, and engineering. Varadhan's groundbreaking research has influenced numerous areas of study, such as random systems, differential equations, and information theory.

35Science and Technology
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Central Institute of Indian Languages - Mumbai

Explanation

The Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL) is located in Mysuru (Mysore), Karnataka, not Mumbai. It was established in 1969 with the objective of promoting and developing Indian languages. The Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences is indeed in Nainital, the College of Defence Management is in Secunderabad, and the Indian Institute of Science is in Bengaluru. Therefore, option C is not correctly matched.

36Art and Culture
India played its first One Day International cricket match with which country and in which year?
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Answer: (D) England - 1974

Explanation

India played its first One Day International (ODI) cricket match against England on July 13, 1974. The historic match took place at Headingley, Leeds, during India's tour of England that year. England won the match by four wickets. This makes option D, England - 1974, the correct answer.

37Art and Culture
From which year did the celebration of 21ˢᵗ June as International Yoga Day begin?
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Answer: (B) 2015

Explanation

The celebration of 21st June as International Yoga Day began in 2015. The United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution in December 2014, following a proposal by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in September 2014, to designate June 21st as International Yoga Day. The first official celebration took place on June 21, 2015, with events held worldwide, including a large gathering in New Delhi led by Prime Minister Modi. This inaugural event set Guinness World Records for the largest yoga class and the most participating nationalities.

38Science and Technology
Who is the first Indian woman soldier skydiver?
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Answer: (B) Manju

Explanation

Lance Naik Manju of the Corps of Military Police made history by becoming the Indian Army's first woman soldier skydiver. She achieved this feat on November 15, 2022, by jumping from a height of 10,000 feet from an Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Dhruv. This inspiring act was part of her training with the Indian Army's Adventure Wing. Her accomplishment sets an example for other women in the armed forces.

39History
From the following industrialists, who is known as the 'Steel Man of India'?
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Answer: (C) Jamshed J. Irani

Explanation

Jamshed J. Irani was widely recognized as the 'Steel Man of India' for his immense contributions to the Indian steel industry. He played a pivotal role in the growth and modernization of Tata Steel during his extensive career. Under his leadership, Tata Steel achieved global recognition for its efficiency and quality, becoming one of the most cost-effective steel producers worldwide. Irani was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2007 for his services to the industry and the nation.

40Economy
'Governor of the Year' award at the Central Banking Awards 2023 was conferred upon the Governor of the central bank which country?
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Answer: (D) India

Explanation

Shaktikanta Das, the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), was conferred the 'Governor of the Year' award at the Central Banking Awards 2023 in London. He was recognized for his exceptional leadership in navigating India through challenging times, including the COVID-19 pandemic, the Russia-Ukraine war, and the subsequent fight against inflation. The award also acknowledged his role in cementing critical reforms and overseeing world-leading payments innovation in India. The winners of the Central Banking Awards 2023 were announced in late March, with the formal award ceremony taking place in June.

41Science and TechnologyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following is not an E–procurement portal?
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Answer: (C) MP Online

Explanation

MP Online is a state government portal in Madhya Pradesh designed to provide citizens with convenient online access to various government services, such as education, employment, utility bill payments, and certificates. It functions as a Government-to-Citizen (G2C) service delivery platform, streamlining administrative processes for the public. In contrast, e-procurement portals like MP Tenders, GeM, and MP LUN are online platforms specifically established for government departments and public sector undertakings to conduct the procurement of goods, services, and works through digital tendering, bidding, and contract management processes. These e-procurement portals focus on transparency, efficiency, and reducing paperwork in government purchasing.

42Science and Technology
Which of the following is a type of Internet connection that uses telephone lines?
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Answer: (A) DSL

Explanation

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is a type of internet connection that transmits data over standard copper telephone lines. It uses the higher frequencies on these lines, allowing for simultaneous voice calls and internet access without interrupting phone service. Cable internet, on the other hand, uses coaxial cables, while fiber optics utilize glass or plastic strands to transmit data as light signals. Satellite internet relies on signals sent to and from a satellite in Earth's orbit.

43Science and Technology
Which of the following is an advantage of E-Commerce?
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Answer: (A) Ability to operate 24/7

Explanation

E-commerce platforms offer the significant advantage of being accessible to customers around the clock, 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. This continuous availability allows consumers to shop at their convenience, regardless of time zones or traditional business hours. Unlike physical stores with fixed operating times, online stores are always open, providing flexibility for both buyers and sellers. This constant accessibility expands market reach and enhances customer satisfaction by accommodating diverse schedules.

44Science and Technology
Which of the following is a type of cyber attack that involves tricking users into revealing sensitive information?
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Answer: (A) Phishing attack

Explanation

A phishing attack is a type of cyber attack where attackers use deceptive communications, such as fraudulent emails, text messages, or websites, to trick individuals into revealing sensitive information. They often masquerade as trustworthy entities to steal data like usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. SQL injection attacks, on the other hand, involve inserting malicious code into input fields to manipulate databases. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack aims to make a system or network unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic. Thus, phishing directly involves tricking users for information.

45Science and Technology
What is the purpose of a firewall in cyber security?
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Answer: (B) To block unauthorized access to a network

Explanation

A firewall in cybersecurity serves as a security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic. Its main purpose is to establish a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external networks, such as the internet. By analyzing data packets against a set of predefined security rules, a firewall effectively blocks unauthorized access attempts and prevents malicious traffic from entering or leaving the network. This protective measure safeguards the network's resources and data from various cyber threats.

46Economy
Flipkart, Alibaba, Amazon are examples of
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Answer: (C) B2C

Explanation

Flipkart, Alibaba, and Amazon are prime examples of Business-to-Consumer (B2C) e-commerce. In the B2C model, businesses sell products or services directly to individual end-users or consumers. These companies act as retailers, offering a wide range of goods from various sellers or their own inventory directly to customers who purchase them for personal use. This direct interaction between the business and the individual consumer defines the B2C relationship.

47Logical Reasoning
_____is the process by which the receiver interprets the symbols used by the source of the message.
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Answer: (B) Decoding

Explanation

Decoding is the process where the receiver of a message interprets the symbols, language, or signals sent by the source. This interpretation allows the receiver to understand the meaning or intent behind the message. It is the reverse process of encoding, where the sender converts their thoughts into symbols. Therefore, when the receiver makes sense of the symbols, they are decoding the message.

48Science and Technology
Which of the following is not a web browser?
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Answer: (D) Yahoo

Explanation

A web browser is a software application designed to retrieve, interpret, and display content from the internet. Internet Explorer, Mozilla Firefox, and Google Chrome are all examples of such applications, allowing users to navigate and view websites. In contrast, Yahoo is primarily a web portal and a search engine, offering services like email, news, and finance, which are accessed through a web browser. It is not a standalone application for browsing the web itself.

49Science and Technology
ChatGPT was developed by
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Answer: (B) OpenAI

Explanation

ChatGPT was developed by OpenAI, an artificial intelligence research company. It was officially released in November 2022 as a generative AI chatbot. OpenAI, founded in 2015, is known for its work in advancing AI technology and creating large language models (LLMs) like the Generative Pre-trained Transformers (GPTs) that power ChatGPT. The company's mission is to ensure that artificial general intelligence benefits all of humanity.

50Science and Technology
Which electronic device was used in Second Generation Computers?
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Answer: (C) Transistors

Explanation

Second Generation Computers, developed in the late 1950s and 1960s, utilized transistors as their primary electronic component. This marked a significant advancement over the first generation, which relied on bulky and heat-generating vacuum tubes. Transistors were smaller, faster, more energy-efficient, and more reliable than vacuum tubes, leading to more compact and powerful machines. This technological shift laid the groundwork for further advancements in computing.

51Geography
Where is Tatipaka oil refinery located?
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Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

The Tatipaka oil refinery is located in the East Godavari district (now Konaseema district) of Andhra Pradesh, India. It is a mini oil refinery operated by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC). The refinery was commissioned in September 2001 and is designed to produce various petroleum products like naphtha, kerosene, and diesel.

52Geography
Which of the following seas is near the 'Gaza Strip'?
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Answer: (A) Mediterranean Sea

Explanation

The Gaza Strip is a narrow coastal territory situated along the eastern coastline of the Mediterranean Sea. It borders Egypt to the southwest and Israel to the east and north. The Mediterranean Sea forms its western boundary, providing a coastline of approximately 40 kilometers. The other listed seas, such as the Red Sea, Black Sea, and Caspian Sea, are geographically distant and do not border the Gaza Strip.

53Geography
Match the following: | Place | State | |--------------|-----------------| | 1. Bailadila | A. Odisha | | 2. kendujhar | B. Karnataka | | 3. Balaghat | C. Chhattisgarh | | 4. Kudremukh | D. Madhya Pradesh| Code:
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Answer: (B) C A D B

Explanation

Bailadila is a mountain range known for its iron ore deposits and is located in the state of Chhattisgarh. Kendujhar, also known as Keonjhar, is a mineral-rich district situated in northern Odisha. Balaghat is a district in the state of Madhya Pradesh, famous for its manganese and copper mines. Kudremukh is a mountain range and national park located in the Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka. Therefore, matching the places to their respective states yields 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B, which corresponds to option B.

54Geography
Which of the following processes do not come under diastrophism?
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Answer: (B) Heterogenic

Explanation

Diastrophism refers to large-scale deformation of the Earth's crust by natural processes, which involves movements of solid material. Orogeny (mountain building), earthquakes, and plate tectonics are all fundamental processes that cause such deformation and are therefore considered types of diastrophism. "Heterogenic" is not a geological term associated with the processes of crustal deformation or diastrophism.

55Geography
Identify the correct sequence of states according to the highest to lowest literacy rate. (According to Census of India, 2011)
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Answer: (D) Kerala, Mizoram, Goa, Tripura

Explanation

According to the Census of India, 2011, Kerala had the highest literacy rate among the given states at 93.91%. Mizoram followed with a literacy rate of 91.58%. Goa recorded a literacy rate of 88.7%. Tripura's literacy rate was 87.75%. Therefore, the correct sequence from highest to lowest literacy rate is Kerala, Mizoram, Goa, Tripura.

56Geography
Which of the following atmospheric layers is known for all changes in climate and weather?
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Answer: (D) Troposphere

Explanation

The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to an average of 12 kilometers. This layer contains nearly all of the atmosphere's water vapor and aerosols, and approximately 75% of its total mass. These factors, combined with the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude, drive the convection currents that are responsible for all weather phenomena, such as clouds, rain, and storms. Therefore, all changes in climate and weather occur within the troposphere.

57Geography
Which of the following rivers rises from the Trimbak Hills in Nasik district?
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Answer: (D) Vaitarna

Explanation

The Vaitarna River originates from the Trimbak Hills, specifically the southern slopes of the Triambak-Anjaneri hills, near Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. It is a west-flowing river that plays a crucial role in supplying drinking water to Mumbai. In contrast, the Shetrunji River originates in the Chachai hills of the Gir Forest in Gujarat, the Bhadra River rises in the Western Ghats of Karnataka, and the Dhadhar River begins in the Pavagadh Hills of Gujarat.

58Geography
Match the following pairs and identify the correct code: Bisophere Reserve Area | State 1. Nokrek | A. Odisha 2. Manas | B. Meghalaya 3. Similipal | C. Andhra Pradesh 4. Seshachalam | D. Assam Code:
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Answer: (A) B D A C

Explanation

Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in Meghalaya. Manas Biosphere Reserve is situated in Assam. Similipal Biosphere Reserve is found in Odisha. Lastly, Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve is located in Andhra Pradesh. Therefore, the correct matching code is B D A C.

59Geography
The first successful attempt to tap underground heat was made in
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Answer: (A) Boise, Idaho (USA)

Explanation

Boise, Idaho, USA, is recognized for having the first successful attempt to tap underground heat for a district heating system. In 1890, drilling began for hot water, and by January 1891, a significant flow of 175-degree Fahrenheit water was encountered. This led to the establishment of the Boise Warm Springs Geothermal District Heating system, which began supplying hot water to a natatorium and homes in East Boise in the early 1890s. This pioneering system is considered the oldest continuously operating geothermal system in the nation and was the first district heating system in the United States powered directly by geothermal energy.

60Geography
Which of the following is also called 'Molassis Basin'?
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Answer: (C) Mizoram

Explanation

Mizoram is known as the 'Molasses Basin' due to its distinctive geological features. The state's mountainous terrain contains numerous foreland basins, which are valley-like depressions running parallel to the hills. These depressions are filled with soft, unconsolidated sedimentary deposits, primarily sandstones, shales, and conglomerates. These 'molasse' sediments are a result of eroded material from the rising mountains in the region. The thick, soft, and unconsolidated nature of these deposits resembles molasses syrup, hence the unique nickname.

61History
In which session was the Congress divided into Moderates and Extremists?
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Answer: (B) Surat

Explanation

The Indian National Congress was divided into Moderates and Extremists during the Surat Session in 1907. This pivotal event, known as the Surat Split, was primarily caused by ideological differences and divergent strategies between the two factions. The Moderates, led by figures like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, advocated for gradual reforms and constitutional methods, while the Extremists, including Bal Gangadhar Tilak, favored more radical approaches such as boycotts and Swadeshi movements to achieve Swaraj or complete independence. The session saw clashes over the election of the president and the continuation of key resolutions, ultimately leading to the split and weakening the nationalist movement temporarily.

62HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
In the year 1948, which state came into existence after the merger of Bundelkhand and Bagelkhand?
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Answer: (B) Vindhya Pradesh

Explanation

Vindhya Pradesh came into existence in 1948 through the merger of princely states from the Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand regions of central India. This new state was formed to consolidate fragmented territories after India's independence. Rewa served as its capital. Vindhya Pradesh existed until November 1, 1956, when it was merged into the reorganized state of Madhya Pradesh under the States Reorganisation Act.

63History
How many principalities were merged in the 'Saurashtra Sangh' on 15ᵗʰ February, 1948?
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Answer: (C) 222

Explanation

On February 15, 1948, 222 principalities were merged to form the 'Saurashtra Sangh', also known as the United State of Kathiawar. This consolidation was a significant step in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union following independence. The region of Kathiawar, in modern-day Gujarat, was a complex patchwork of numerous small and large princely states. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role in persuading these rulers to join the union.

64History
Who among the following first coined the word 'Pakistan'?
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Answer: (B) Choudhry Rehmat Ali

Explanation

Choudhry Rehmat Ali, a Muslim nationalist activist and law student at the University of Cambridge, is widely credited with coining the name "Pakistan". He first published the term in January 1933 in a pamphlet titled "Now or Never; Are We to Live or Perish Forever?", also known as the "Pakistan Declaration". In this pamphlet, he proposed "Pakistan" as an acronym for the five Northern Units of India: Punjab, Afghania (North-West Frontier Province), Kashmir, Sindh, and Baluchistan. The word also means "land of the pure" in Persian and Urdu. While Muhammad Ali Jinnah is recognized as the founder of Pakistan, he adopted the term later, with Rehmat Ali being its originator.

65History
In the first stage of the National Movement, which one among the following was not the demand of the Congress?
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Answer: (D) Unification of Executive and Judiciary

Explanation

In the first stage of the National Movement, the Indian National Congress advocated for significant administrative and political reforms. Among their key demands were increasing the number of members in the Legislative Councils and enhancing the representation of public representatives within these councils. A crucial demand was also the separation of the Executive and Judiciary, aiming to ensure judicial independence and fairness. Therefore, the unification of the Executive and Judiciary was contrary to the Congress's objectives and was not a demand during this period.

66History
Who among the following started 'Ganeshotsav' in Maharashtra?
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Answer: (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak is widely credited with transforming the Ganesh festival from a private family celebration into a large-scale public event in Maharashtra in 1893. He recognized the potential of traditional festivals to unite people against British rule and foster a sense of national pride. Tilak used the public Ganeshotsav as a platform to gather people, discuss political issues, and spread nationalist ideas, circumventing British laws that restricted political assemblies. This strategic move helped mobilize the masses and nurture a sense of pride and unity during the Indian freedom struggle.

67History
In Which of the following year did Nadir Shah invade India?
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Answer: (D) 1739 A.D.

Explanation

Nadir Shah, the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Persia, invaded India in 1739 A.D. His forces decisively defeated the Mughal army at the Battle of Karnal in February 1739. Following this victory, Nadir Shah entered Delhi in March 1739, where his troops massacred and looted the city. This invasion significantly weakened the already declining Mughal Empire and resulted in the plunder of immense wealth, including the Peacock Throne and the Koh-i-Noor diamond.

68Art and Culture
'Aryamanjushrimulakalpa' is related to which of the following ?
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Answer: (A) Mahayana

Explanation

The 'Aryamanjushrimulakalpa' is a significant Buddhist scripture identified as both a Mahayana sutra and a Mantrayana ritual manual. This text is primarily centered on the bodhisattva Mañjuśrī, who embodies transcendent wisdom and is highly revered within Mahayana traditions. It is considered a foundational Tantric Buddhist scripture, bridging Mahayana sutra literature with the emerging Vajrayana tradition. Therefore, its core teachings and affiliation with Mañjuśrī firmly place it within the Mahayana branch of Buddhism.

69History
In which of the following year was the freedom of press given by Lord William Bentinck?
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Answer: (D) 1835 A.D.

Explanation

The freedom of the press was significantly granted in 1835, although it was primarily Sir Charles Metcalfe, not Lord William Bentinck, who formally enacted the Press Act of 1835. Lord William Bentinck served as Governor-General of India from 1828 to 1835 and was known for his liberal views, which created a favorable atmosphere for press freedom. Metcalfe, who succeeded Bentinck as acting Governor-General in March 1835, repealed the restrictive 1823 licensing regulations, earning him the title "liberator of the Indian press." Therefore, while Bentinck's liberal policies paved the way, the actual legislation granting press freedom was passed in 1835 under Metcalfe's brief tenure.

70History
After conquering the Shakis, which of the following metal coins were introduced by Chandragupta II ?
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Answer: (B) Silver

Explanation

After conquering the Western Kshatrapas (Shakas), Chandragupta II introduced silver coins. This was a strategic move to integrate the newly acquired territories, which had a well-established silver coinage system, into the Gupta Empire. These silver coins were modeled on the existing Kshatrapa coinage but replaced the Shaka dynastic symbol with the Gupta dynastic symbol of the mythical eagle Garuda. Chandragupta II was the first Gupta ruler to issue silver coins, which were known as Rupaka.

71GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which position did Madhya Pradesh hold in copper production in India during the year 2021-22?
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Answer: (C) First

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh held the first position in copper production in India during the year 2021-22. The state was the leading producer, contributing over 56% of the total output. This dominance is largely due to the Malanjkhand copper mine, which is India's largest base metal mine and is located in Madhya Pradesh. Rajasthan and Jharkhand were other notable producers but ranked below Madhya Pradesh in copper production.

72GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following rivers of Madhya Pradesh flows in three states?
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Answer: (C) Mahi

Explanation

The Mahi River originates in the Vindhya Range of Madhya Pradesh. It then flows northward through Madhya Pradesh before turning northwest and entering Rajasthan. Finally, it turns southwest, flows through Gujarat, and empties into the Arabian Sea. Therefore, the Mahi River flows through three states: Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat.

73GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following characteristics is not correct in reference to the black soil of Madhya Pradesh ?
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Answer: (C) Black soil has high sand content.

Explanation

Black soil is known for its high clay content, not high sand content. This high clay content is responsible for its excellent moisture retention capabilities, making it ideal for growing cotton, which is why it's also called cotton soil. Its structure is typically cloddy and can become friable. Therefore, the statement that black soil has high sand content is incorrect.

74Geography
Purna river is a tributary of which of the following rivers?
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Answer: (B) Tapti

Explanation

The Purna river is a significant tributary of the Tapti River. It originates in the eastern Satpura Range of southern Madhya Pradesh and flows westward, eventually merging with the Tapti River in Maharashtra. The Purna is considered the principal affluent of the Tapti, contributing to its basin which drains parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

75GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Bijagarh hill is situated in which out of the following mountain ranges ?
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Answer: (A) Satpura range

Explanation

Bijagarh hill is definitively located within the Satpura range. The Satpura range is a significant mountain system in central India, stretching across states like Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. Bijagarh is specifically identified as one of the seven folds or ranges that constitute the broader Satpura Mountains. The Satpura range runs parallel to the Vindhyachal range to its north, with the Narmada river flowing between them. While Mahadeo Hills are also a part of the Satpura range, Bijagarh is a distinct component of the larger Satpura system.

76GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the climate of Madhya Pradesh?
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Answer: (C) Temperate climate is found in the southern part of the state.

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh experiences a tropical monsoon climate, not a temperate climate in its southern part. The entire state falls under the influence of the monsoon system, characterized by hot summers, a distinct rainy season, and mild winters. While there might be variations in rainfall and temperature across the state, the fundamental climate type remains tropical. The Tropic of Cancer passing through the state further emphasizes its tropical location.

77GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which type of forests are not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
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Answer: (D) Alpine forests

Explanation

Alpine forests are characterized by extremely cold temperatures, high winds, and high altitudes, typically found above 3,000 meters (10,000 feet) where trees cannot grow. Madhya Pradesh, a central Indian state, has a predominantly tropical to subtropical climate and a relatively low elevation. The highest point in Madhya Pradesh is Dhupgarh Peak, which stands at an elevation of approximately 1,350 meters (4,429 feet). This altitude is significantly lower than the minimum required for the formation of alpine vegetation. Therefore, due to the lack of sufficiently high mountain ranges and the prevailing climatic conditions, alpine forests are not found in Madhya Pradesh.

78GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following thermal power stations is situated at Chachai of Anuppur district?
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Answer: (B) Amarkantak power station

Explanation

The Amarkantak Thermal Power Station is correctly identified as being situated in Chachai village, Anuppur district, Madhya Pradesh. This coal-fired thermal power plant is owned and operated by the Madhya Pradesh Power Generating Company Limited (MPPGCL). In contrast, the Satpura power station is located in Sarni, Betul district, and the Bansagar power station is a hydroelectric project on the Sone River in Shahdol district. Therefore, option B is the accurate answer.

79GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the roadways of Madhya Pradesh according to Basic Road Statistics 2018-19?
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Answer: (D) This State ranks first in the country in road density.

Explanation

According to Basic Road Statistics 2018-19, Madhya Pradesh does not rank first in the country in road density. The road density in Madhya Pradesh is 31 kilometers per 100 square kilometers, which is below the national average of 83 kilometers per 100 square kilometers. In fact, Madhya Pradesh ranked 15th in the country in terms of road infrastructure. As of 2019, Kerala ranked first among states in road density. The lengths of National Highways (more than 8,000 kms), State Highways (more than 11,000 kms), and District roads (more than 50,000 kms) mentioned in options A, B, and C are consistent with the statistics for 2018-19.

80GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
In the year 2020-21, which of the following districts holds the first position in the production of cotton in Madhya Pradesh?
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Answer: (B) Khargone

Explanation

Khargone district held the first position in cotton production in Madhya Pradesh during the year 2020-21. This district is located in the West Nimar region and is known for its fertile black soil, which is highly suitable for cotton cultivation. Khargone is often referred to as the "golden district" due to its significant cash crops, including cotton. The favorable climate and soil conditions contribute to its prominence as a major cotton-producing area in the state.

81Polity and Governance
The Electoral College for the election of the President consists of:
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Answer: (C) Elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of State Assemblies

Explanation

The Electoral College for the election of the President of India consists of the elected members of both houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). It also includes the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all states. Furthermore, the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry are part of this college. Nominated members of Parliament or State Assemblies are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

82Polity and Governance
The Directive Principles of State Policy are explained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. This system has been taken from the Constitution of which country ?
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Answer: (D) Ireland

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36-51) and serve as guidelines for the state to promote the welfare of the people and establish socio-economic justice. This concept was borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, specifically the 1937 Irish Constitution. The framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the Irish nationalist movement and their Directive Principles of Social Policy. While not enforceable by any court, these principles are considered fundamental in the governance of the country and it is the duty of the state to apply them in making laws.

83Polity and Governance
The Parliament is formed by which of the following?
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Answer: (C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President

Explanation

The Indian Parliament, the supreme legislative body of the Republic of India, is formed by the President and the two Houses: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Article 79 of the Constitution of India explicitly states this composition. While the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are the elected bodies responsible for lawmaking, the President is an integral part of the Parliament, as no bill can become law without their assent. Therefore, all three components are essential for the formation and functioning of the Parliament.

84Economy
When was the NABARD established?
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Answer: (C) 12ᵗʰ July, 1982

Explanation

NABARD, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development, was established on July 12, 1982. It was formed under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act of 1981, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. This apex development bank was created to promote sustainable agriculture and rural prosperity in India. It took over the agricultural credit functions of the Reserve Bank of India and the refinancing functions of the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation.

85Economy
When was the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) established?
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Answer: (A) April, 1990

Explanation

The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was established on April 2, 1990. It was created by the Government of India through an Act of Parliament to serve as the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector. SIDBI's purpose is to address the credit and developmental needs of small enterprises, which were previously underserved by conventional financial institutions.

86Economy
How many banks were nationalized in India in 1980?
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Answer: (B) 6

Explanation

In 1980, six more private sector banks were nationalized in India, following an earlier nationalization drive in 1969. This second phase of nationalization aimed to give the government greater control over credit delivery and further extend banking services to underserved regions and sectors. The banks nationalized in 1980 included Andhra Bank, Corporation Bank, New Bank of India, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Punjab and Sind Bank, and Vijaya Bank. This move significantly increased the government's control over the Indian banking business.

87Polity and Governance
Through Which Amendment of the Constitution has the Right to Education became a Fundamental Right?
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Answer: (D) Eighty-sixth Constitutional Amendment

Explanation

The Eighty-sixth Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution of India, making the Right to Education a Fundamental Right. This amendment mandates the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of six and fourteen years. Prior to this, education was primarily addressed in the Directive Principles of State Policy, which were not legally enforceable. The 86th Amendment also modified Article 45 and inserted Article 51A(k), emphasizing early childhood care and making it a fundamental duty of parents to provide educational opportunities for their children. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, later provided the consequential legislation to implement Article 21A, coming into effect on April 1, 2010.

88Polity and Governance
Article 51-A deals with Fundamental Duties. Currently how many Fundamental Duties are mentioned?
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Answer: (B) 11

Explanation

Article 51-A of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. Originally, the Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, and the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added ten Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. Subsequently, an eleventh Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002, which made it a duty for parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to their child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years. Therefore, there are currently 11 Fundamental Duties mentioned in Article 51-A.

89Polity and Governance
By which Constitutional Amendment was the term 'Socialist' included in the Preamble?
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Answer: (C) Forty-second Constitutional Amendment

Explanation

The term 'Socialist' was included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the Forty-second Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. This amendment, enacted during the Emergency under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's government, aimed to explicitly state India's commitment to socialist ideals. Along with 'Socialist', the words 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were also added to the Preamble, changing India's description from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign, socialist, secular democratic republic". The inclusion of 'Socialist' emphasized the state's goal of reducing inequality and ensuring distributive justice through a mixed economy model.

90Polity and Governance
Through which plan was the Constituent Assembly created?
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Answer: (B) Cabinet Mission Plan

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly of India was formed in November 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. This plan, sent by the British government in March 1946, aimed to facilitate the transfer of power to India and devise a framework for its independence. The Cabinet Mission rejected the idea of two separate Constituent Assemblies and proposed a single body to draft India's constitution. While the Cripps Mission in 1942 also proposed a Constituent Assembly, it failed to gain acceptance from Indian political groups. The Simon Commission, constituted in 1927, was met with widespread boycotts due to the absence of Indian members and did not lead to the formation of the Constituent Assembly.

91HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
Bhima Nayak was related to which princely State ?
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Answer: (B) Barwani

Explanation

Bhima Nayak was a significant tribal leader and freedom fighter during the Indian Rebellion of 1857, particularly active in the Nimar region of present-day Madhya Pradesh. His activities and base of operations were strongly associated with the areas around Barwani and the Satpura hills. He was born in Panchmohali village, which is in present-day Barwani. Therefore, Bhima Nayak was related to the Princely State of Barwani.

92HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
When did tribal leaders, Sitaram Kanwar and Raghunath Singh Mandloi Bhilala join the Anti-British Revolution?
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Answer: (B) 1857 A.D.

Explanation

Tribal leaders Sitaram Kanwar and Raghunath Singh Mandloi Bhilala joined the Anti-British Revolution in 1857 A.D.. This period marks the widespread uprising against the British East India Company, often referred to as the Sepoy Mutiny or the First War of Independence. Both leaders were active in the Nimar region of Madhya Pradesh, with Raghunath Singh Mandloi belonging to the Bhilala tribe and Sitaram Kanwar serving as the chief of the espionage force under Gond king Shankar Shah during the rebellion. Their participation was part of the broader resistance by various groups, including tribal communities, against British rule during this crucial historical event.

93Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which folk dance is prevalent on the occasion of Deepawali in the regional areas of Sagar?
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Answer: (A) Moni Dance

Explanation

Moni Dance is a traditional folk dance primarily performed in the Sagar district of Madhya Pradesh during the Deepawali festival. This dance holds religious significance, with performers often observing a vow of silence (Moni) throughout the day of the performance. The dance is an integral part of the Deepawali celebrations in the regional areas of Sagar, showcasing the rich cultural heritage. Other dances like Mandalya, Febriya, and Danda Dance are either associated with different regions or occasions, not specifically Deepawali in Sagar.

94Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which other name was the religious place Chitrakoot also recognized by ?
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Answer: (C) Brahmpuri

Explanation

The religious place Chitrakoot was also recognized by the name Brahmpuri. This alternative name highlights its deep historical and religious significance. The name Brahmpuri signifies Chitrakoot's association with Brahma, the creator god in Hinduism, or denotes a place considered sacred and pure, akin to Brahma's abode. Furthermore, it is believed that the incarnations of Brahma, Vishnu, and Mahesh were born in this sacred region.

95Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Whose famous literary work is 'Mukul' ?
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Answer: (D) Subhadra Kumari Chauhan

Explanation

Subhadra Kumari Chauhan is a renowned Hindi poet, and 'Mukul' is one of her most celebrated collections of poems. This collection includes many of her famous works, such as "Jhansi ki Rani". Her poetry often focused on themes of nationalism and women's empowerment. Makhanlal Chaturvedi, Bhavani Prasad Mishra, and Mukutdhar Pandey are also prominent Hindi literary figures, but 'Mukul' is not attributed to them.

96Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
'Nohdora' ornamentation made of clay on the wall is the speciality of which tribe ?
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Answer: (D) Gond

Explanation

'Nohdora' ornamentation, made of clay on walls, is a distinctive art form primarily associated with the Gond tribe. This traditional art reflects the Gond community's deep connection to nature and their animistic beliefs, often depicting animals, plants, and spirits. The Gond tribe, one of the largest tribal groups in Central India, particularly in Madhya Pradesh, has a rich cultural heritage that includes various forms of wall ornamentation and painting, often referred to as Gond art. 'Nohdora' is considered a ceremonial starting point for these wall paintings and floor patterns, known as Gond Chinha. While other tribes like Bhil, Korku, and Saharia also possess unique art forms, 'Nohdora' clay ornamentation is specifically recognized as a characteristic tradition of the Gond people.

97Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Where is the historical Matangeshwar temple situated?
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Answer: (C) Khajuraho

Explanation

The historical Matangeshwar temple is situated in Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh. This ancient Shiva temple is part of the renowned Khajuraho Group of Monuments, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Built by the Chandela dynasty in the early 10th century CE, it is notable for housing one of the largest Shiva lingams in North India. Unlike many other temples in Khajuraho, the Matangeshwar temple remains an actively worshipped Hindu site.

98Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Whose famous work is 'Ramchandrika' ?
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Answer: (C) Keshavdas

Explanation

'Ramchandrika' is a renowned epic poem composed by Keshavdas. Keshavdas Mishra, a prominent poet of the Ritikal period of Hindi literature, is widely credited with creating this significant work. The poem is an abridged translation of the Ramayana, structured into 30 sections. Other notable works by Keshavdas include 'Rasik Priya' and 'Kavipriya'. In contrast, Padmakar is known for works like 'Jagdwinod' and 'Ganga-Lahari', Bhushan for heroic poetry such as 'Shivraj Bhushan', and Bhavabhuti for Sanskrit dramas like 'Uttararamacharita'.

99Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
On whom did Balkrishna Sharma Naveen write two kayvas - 'Pranarpan' and 'Atmosarga'?
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Answer: (D) Makhanlal Chaturvedi

Explanation

Balkrishna Sharma Naveen penned the two kavyas, 'Pranarpan' and 'Atmosarga', as a tribute to Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi. Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi was a revered journalist, freedom fighter, and social worker, known for his fearless journalism and commitment to national causes. Naveen shared a close relationship with Vidyarthi and dedicated these works to reflect on his life, sacrifices, and contributions. Therefore, the premise that these kavyas were written about Makhanlal Chaturvedi is incorrect.

100HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
When did the Thona-Luhari firing incident of Niwari district take place in the Freedom Movement ?
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Answer: (C) 1939

Explanation

The Thona-Luhari firing incident in Niwari district, Madhya Pradesh, occurred on February 8, 1939, during the Indian Freedom Movement. This event was a significant protest against the princely state of Orchha, where freedom fighters intended to hoist the national flag. However, police opened fire on the gathered crowd, resulting in deaths and injuries. The incident garnered nationwide condemnation and put pressure on the Orchha administration. Therefore, 1939 is the correct year for this historical event.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2A
  3. 3B
  4. 4A
  5. 5D
  6. 6C
  7. 7C
  8. 8B
  9. 9C
  10. 10C
  11. 11D
  12. 12D
  13. 13B
  14. 14B
  15. 15B
  16. 16B
  17. 17C
  18. 18D
  19. 19C
  20. 20D
  21. 21C
  22. 22C
  23. 23B
  24. 24A
  25. 25C
  26. 26C
  27. 27C
  28. 28C
  29. 29B
  30. 30D
  31. 31C
  32. 32D
  33. 33D
  34. 34C
  35. 35C
  36. 36D
  37. 37B
  38. 38B
  39. 39C
  40. 40D
  41. 41C
  42. 42A
  43. 43A
  44. 44A
  45. 45B
  46. 46C
  47. 47B
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50C
  51. 51C
  52. 52A
  53. 53B
  54. 54B
  55. 55D
  56. 56D
  57. 57D
  58. 58A
  59. 59A
  60. 60C
  61. 61B
  62. 62B
  63. 63C
  64. 64B
  65. 65D
  66. 66D
  67. 67D
  68. 68A
  69. 69D
  70. 70B
  71. 71C
  72. 72C
  73. 73C
  74. 74B
  75. 75A
  76. 76C
  77. 77D
  78. 78B
  79. 79D
  80. 80B
  81. 81C
  82. 82D
  83. 83C
  84. 84C
  85. 85A
  86. 86B
  87. 87D
  88. 88B
  89. 89C
  90. 90B
  91. 91B
  92. 92B
  93. 93A
  94. 94C
  95. 95D
  96. 96D
  97. 97C
  98. 98C
  99. 99D
  100. 100C

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