Direction: Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) Mahenjodaro, Harappa, Ropar and Kalibangan are important places of Indus Valley Civilization.
(2) Harappan people developed planned cities with network of streets and drainage system.
(3) Harappan people did not know use of metals.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 are correct
Explanation
Mahenjodaro, Harappa, Ropar, and Kalibangan are indeed prominent sites of the Indus Valley Civilization, making statement (1) correct. The Harappan civilization is well-known for its advanced urban planning, featuring meticulously laid-out cities with grid-patterned streets and sophisticated drainage systems, which confirms statement (2) as correct. However, the Harappan people were skilled metallurgists and knew the use of metals like copper, bronze, gold, and silver, making statement (3) incorrect. Therefore, only statements (1) and (2) are correct.
2History
Which Indian king defeated Seleucus, the administrator of Sindh and Afghanistan appointed by Alexander?
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Answer: (D) Chandragupta
Explanation
Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire, defeated Seleucus I Nicator, one of Alexander the Great's generals and the founder of the Seleucid Empire. Seleucus had taken control of the eastern territories of Alexander's empire, including areas of Sindh and Afghanistan. The Seleucid-Mauryan War, which occurred between 305 and 303 BCE, resulted in Chandragupta's victory. As a result of the peace treaty, Seleucus ceded significant territories, including parts of Afghanistan (Aria, Arachosia, Paropamisadae) and Gedrosia (Balochistan), to Chandragupta. In exchange, Chandragupta gifted Seleucus 500 war elephants, which proved crucial in Seleucus's later conflicts in the west. This victory solidified the Mauryan Empire's control over northwestern India and established it as a dominant power.
3History
Which English Governor of East India Company in India was expelled by Aurangzeb?
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Answer: (B) Sir John Child
Explanation
Sir John Child, who served as the English Governor of the East India Company in India, was expelled by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. This occurred after Child became involved in a war with Aurangzeb, known as Child's War or the Anglo-Mughal War (1686–1690). The conflict arose from the East India Company's aggressive policies to assert trade dominance and challenges to Mughal sovereignty. As a condition for peace, Aurangzeb demanded Child's expulsion from India. However, Sir John Child died in February 1690 before the expulsion could be fully enforced.
4History
First decisive military success of English East India Company in India is marked by
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Answer: (A) Battle of Buxar
Explanation
The Battle of Buxar in 1764 marked the first truly decisive military success for the English East India Company in India. Unlike the Battle of Plassey (1757), which was largely won through treachery and involved fewer direct military confrontations, Buxar was a clear military victory against a formidable alliance of Indian powers. This victory granted the Company significant territorial and revenue rights, including the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, solidifying their political and economic dominance in the region. The outcomes of Buxar established the Company as a major political power rather than just a trading entity, paving the way for British imperial expansion.
5History
The Modern historian who called the revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence was:
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Answer: (C) V.D. Savarkar
Explanation
V.D. Savarkar is widely recognized for coining the term "First War of Indian Independence" to describe the Revolt of 1857. He articulated this view in his book "The Indian War of Independence 1857," originally published in 1909. Savarkar's work presented a nationalist perspective, portraying the uprising not merely as a sepoy mutiny but as a planned and organized struggle for freedom against British rule. This interpretation significantly influenced subsequent nationalist historiography in India. His perspective contrasted with earlier British accounts that often downplayed the nationalistic aspirations of the rebels.
6History
The newspaper brought out by Bal Gangadhar Tilak to promote Nationalism was:
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Answer: (C) Kesari
Explanation
Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded the Marathi newspaper Kesari on January 4, 1881, to promote nationalist ideas and awaken political consciousness among the masses. Through Kesari, Tilak published articles criticizing British rule, advocating for self-governance (Swaraj), and promoting Swadeshi (Indian-made goods). He also started an English newspaper called Mahratta. The other options, Yugantar, Deshbhakti, and Kranti, were not founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Yugantar was a Bengali weekly started by Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Sri Aurobindo, and others. Deshbhakti and Kranti are not primarily associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak in the context of promoting nationalism during that period.
7History
Why did Mahatma Gandhi withdraw Non Cooperation Movement in 1922?
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Answer: (C) Because of Chauri-Chaura violence
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 due to the Chauri-Chaura incident. On February 4, 1922, a large group of protesters participating in the movement clashed with the police at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh. When police fired upon the demonstrators, the crowd retaliated by attacking and setting fire to a police station, resulting in the deaths of 22 policemen and three civilians. Deeply committed to non-violence (ahimsa), Gandhi was appalled by this act of violence and felt that the movement was deviating from its core principle. He believed that the Indian people were not yet ready for a mass non-violent struggle and called off the movement on February 12, 1922, to prevent further escalation of violence.
8History
Arrange the following in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Dandi March 1930
(ii) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre 1919
(iii) Quit India Movement 1942
(iv) Swadeshi Movement 1905
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Answer: (A) iv, ii, i, iii
Explanation
The Swadeshi Movement began in 1905, primarily as a response to the partition of Bengal, advocating for the use of Indian-made goods and the boycott of foreign products. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred on April 13, 1919, when British troops fired upon a peaceful gathering in Amritsar, killing hundreds. Mahatma Gandhi led the Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, from March 12 to April 6, 1930, to protest the British salt monopoly. Finally, the Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942, demanding an immediate end to British rule in India during World War II. Therefore, the chronological order is Swadeshi Movement (1905), Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919), Dandi March (1930), and Quit India Movement (1942), which corresponds to option A.
9History
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 |
|-------------------------|-----------------|
| A. Bipin Chandra Pal | i. New India |
| B. Aurobindo Ghosh | iii. Vande Mataram |
| C. Brahma Bandhav | iv. Sandhya |
| D. Mohammad Ali | ii. Comrade |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Explanation
Bipin Chandra Pal launched the English weekly "New India" in 1901, through which he promoted secularism, rationalism, and nationalism. Aurobindo Ghosh was the editor of the English newspaper "Vande Mataram," which served as an organ of the Nationalist Party. Brahmabandhav Upadhyay edited the Bengali daily "Sandhya," a popular newspaper that played a significant role in propagating nationalist ideologies, especially after the partition of Bengal in 1905. Mohammad Ali Jauhar founded and edited "The Comrade," an English-language weekly newspaper published from 1911 to 1914, which aimed to articulate the political viewpoints of the Muslim community. Therefore, option A correctly matches these personalities with their respective publications.
10History
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 |
|--------------------------------|-------------|
| A. Doctrine of Lapse | iii. Dalhousie |
| B. Partition of Bengal | i. Curzon |
| C. Dual Government in Bengal | ii. Clive |
| D. Social Reforms | iv. Bentinck |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Explanation
The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord Dalhousie. The Partition of Bengal was carried out by Lord Curzon. The Dual Government in Bengal was established by Robert Clive. Significant social reforms, such as the abolition of Sati, were enacted during the tenure of Lord William Bentinck. Therefore, the correct matching is A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv), which corresponds to option C.
11History
Direction: Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Subhas Chandra Bose formed the forward Bloc
(b) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation
Subhas Chandra Bose founded the Forward Bloc on May 3, 1939, after resigning from the presidency of the Indian National Congress due to ideological differences with Mahatma Gandhi. The Forward Bloc aimed to unite all left-wing factions within the Congress and pursue a more assertive strategy for India's independence. Bhagat Singh was indeed one of the founders of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in 1928. He, along with others like Chandrashekhar Azad and Sukhdev, reorganized the earlier Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) to incorporate socialist principles and aim for a socialist state in addition to political independence.
12History
Jammu and Kashmir became an integral part of India on:
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Answer: (C) 26th October 1947
Explanation
Jammu and Kashmir officially became an integral part of India on October 26, 1947. On this date, Maharaja Hari Singh, the ruler of the princely state, signed the Instrument of Accession. This legal document formally acceded Jammu and Kashmir to the Dominion of India. The signing occurred after tribal militias, supported by Pakistan, invaded Kashmir, prompting the Maharaja to seek India's military assistance.
13History
The first declared war between India and Pakistan was fought in the year:
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Answer: (B) 1965
Explanation
The first major declared war between India and Pakistan was fought in 1965. This conflict began with Pakistan's Operation Gibraltar, an attempt to infiltrate forces into Jammu and Kashmir to instigate an uprising against Indian rule. India responded by launching a full-scale military offensive across the international border, leading to widespread ground and air battles. The five-week war involved significant military engagements, including some of the largest tank battles since World War II.
14History
Direction :- The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (A)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these question using the code below:
Assertion (A): Protest, led by Lala Lajpat Rai, was organized in Lahore in 1928 against Simon Commission.
Reason (R) : Simon Commission did not have a single Indian member in it.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are factually correct. Lala Lajpat Rai indeed led a significant protest in Lahore in 1928 against the Simon Commission, where he was fatally injured during a police lathi charge. The primary reason for widespread Indian opposition to the Simon Commission was its composition, as it did not include a single Indian member, which was seen as an insult to Indian self-respect and a denial of their right to participate in shaping their own constitution. Therefore, Reason (R) accurately explains why the protest mentioned in Assertion (A) occurred.
15Polity and Governance
According to the Article 82 of the Constitution of India, the allocation of seats in Lok Sabha to the states is on the basis of the Census.
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Answer: (B) 1971
Explanation
Article 82 of the Indian Constitution mandates the readjustment of Lok Sabha seats after each census to ensure proportional representation. However, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 froze the allocation of Lok Sabha seats to the states based on the 1971 Census. This freeze was implemented to encourage states to adopt population control measures without being penalized by a reduction in their parliamentary representation. The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 further extended this freeze until the first census conducted after the year 2026. Therefore, despite subsequent censuses, the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha continues to be based on the population figures of the 1971 Census.
16Polity and Governance
Maximum strength of Lok Sabha as stipulated in the Constitution of India is:
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Answer: (C) 552
Explanation
The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha, as originally stipulated in the Constitution of India, is 552 members. This comprises up to 530 members elected from the states, up to 20 members elected from the Union Territories, and two members of the Anglo-Indian community nominated by the President if they are not adequately represented. While the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, discontinued the nomination of Anglo-Indians, the constitutional provision for the maximum strength remains 552. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
17Polity and Governance
Which of the following political parties is not a national party as recognized by the Election Commission of India?
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Answer: (D) Samajwadi Party
Explanation
The Election Commission of India recognizes political parties as national based on their electoral performance across multiple states. To achieve national party status, a party must fulfill specific criteria, such as securing a certain percentage of votes and seats in Lok Sabha or state assembly elections in at least four states, or being recognized as a state party in four or more states. The Samajwadi Party is primarily a regional party, with its significant electoral base and operations largely confined to the state of Uttar Pradesh. Therefore, it does not meet the multi-state presence and electoral performance criteria required for recognition as a national party. The Bahujan Samaj Party is a recognized national party.
18Polity and Governance
Direction: Consider the following statements with respect to qualification to become the member of Rajya Sabha and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Should be at least 30 years of age.
(ii) Should be registered as a voter on the list of voters in the state from which the candidate is to be elected.
(iii) Should not hold office of profit under the state.
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Answer: (B) (i) and (iii) are correct.
Explanation
To be eligible for Rajya Sabha membership, a person must be at least 30 years of age. Additionally, they must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State. The requirement that a candidate must be an elector in the state from which they are seeking election was removed in 2003, meaning a candidate can now be a voter from any state in India. Therefore, statements (i) and (iii) are correct, making option B the right answer.
19Polity and Governance
The 44ᵗʰ Amendment in the Constitution of India removed the following right from the category of Fundamental Right.
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Answer: (C) Property
Explanation
The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 1978, removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights. This right, originally enshrined in Articles 19(1)(f) and 31, was reclassified as a constitutional or legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution. The primary reason for this amendment was to overcome obstacles in implementing land reforms and other socio-economic legislation aimed at equitable distribution of resources. By making it a legal right, individuals could no longer directly approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 for its enforcement, though remedies are still available through High Courts under Article 226 or in civil courts. This change allowed the state greater flexibility in acquiring private property for public purposes, provided due process of law is followed.
20Polity and Governance
Direction :- The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the"Assertion (A)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these question using the code below:
Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution is basically federal in form.
Reason (R): Article 352 has provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in states.
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Answer: (C) (A) is True but (R) is false.
Explanation
The Indian Constitution is indeed basically federal in form, exhibiting features like a division of powers between the Union and states, a written constitution, and an independent judiciary. Thus, Assertion (A) is true. However, Reason (R) states that Article 352 has provisions for the failure of constitutional machinery in states, which is incorrect. Article 352 deals with National Emergency, while Article 356 addresses the failure of constitutional machinery in states (President's Rule). Therefore, Reason (R) is false, making option C the correct choice.
21Geography
Formation of Ozone hole is maximum over:
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Answer: (C) Antarctica
Explanation
The formation of the ozone hole is maximum over Antarctica due to a unique combination of meteorological and chemical conditions. Extremely low winter temperatures in the Antarctic stratosphere lead to the formation of polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs). These PSCs provide surfaces for chemical reactions that convert inactive chlorine and bromine compounds into highly reactive forms that destroy ozone. Additionally, the strong and stable polar vortex over Antarctica isolates this air, preventing mixing with ozone-rich air from lower latitudes and concentrating ozone-depleting substances. When sunlight returns in the Antarctic spring, these reactive chemicals rapidly deplete ozone, creating the "ozone hole".
22Geography
Direction: Arrange the following in decreasing order of size and select the correct answer form the codes given below:
(1) Jupiter
(2) Uranus
(3) Earth
(4) Saturn
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Answer: (C) 1,4,2,3
Explanation
To arrange the planets in decreasing order of size, we compare their equatorial diameters. Jupiter is the largest with a diameter of approximately 142,984 km. Saturn is the second largest, having an equatorial diameter of about 120,536 km. Uranus comes next with a diameter of roughly 51,118 km. Finally, Earth is the smallest among the given options, with an equatorial diameter of about 12,756 km. Therefore, the correct decreasing order of size is Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Earth, which corresponds to option C (1,4,2,3).
23Geography
Direction: Arrange the following from west to east and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) London
(ii) Lisbon
(iii) Frankfurt
(iv) Beirut
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Answer: (B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
Explanation
To arrange the cities from west to east, we compare their longitudes. Lisbon is located at approximately 9.14 degrees West longitude. London is situated at about 0.12 degrees West longitude, very close to the Prime Meridian. Moving eastward, Frankfurt is found at roughly 8.68 degrees East longitude. Finally, Beirut is the easternmost city, located at approximately 35.49 degrees East longitude. Therefore, the correct order from west to east is Lisbon, London, Frankfurt, and Beirut, which corresponds to option B.
24Geography
Direction:- The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (A)" and the others "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these question using the code below:
Assertion (A): Wind patterns are clockwise in Southern hemisphere and anti-clockwise in Northern hemisphere.
Reason (R): The direction of wind patterns in Northern and southern hemisphere are governed by Coriolis effects.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A). The Coriolis effect, caused by the Earth's rotation, deflects moving air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This deflection causes wind patterns around low-pressure systems (cyclones) to rotate anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. Without the Coriolis effect, air would flow directly from high to low pressure, but its influence is a major factor in determining the rotational direction of large-scale wind patterns in each hemisphere.
25Geography
Which important latitude divides India into two almost equal parts?
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Answer: (D) 23°30^ᵖʳⁱᵐᵉ North
Explanation
The 23°30' North latitude is known as the Tropic of Cancer. This important imaginary line passes almost through the middle of India, dividing the country into two nearly equal parts. It crosses through eight Indian states, including Madhya Pradesh. The region south of the Tropic of Cancer experiences a tropical climate, while the area to its north has a subtropical and temperate climate.
26Geography
The westernmost point of India is:
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Answer: (C) 68°7^ᵖʳⁱᵐᵉ E in Gujarat
Explanation
India's longitudinal extent ranges from 68°7' E to 97°25' E. The westernmost point of India is located at 68°7' East longitude. This specific point is known as Sir Creek or Ghuar Mota, and it is situated in the Kutch district of Gujarat. Therefore, 68°7' E in Gujarat accurately identifies the westernmost point. The 'W' (West) options are incorrect because India lies entirely in the Eastern Hemisphere. Rajasthan is not the westernmost state; Gujarat holds that distinction.
27Geography
India was part of an ancient super continent called Gondwanaland. It included present day:
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Answer: (D) All of these
Explanation
India was indeed a part of the ancient supercontinent Gondwanaland. This massive landmass began to break apart around 180 million years ago. Besides India, Gondwanaland also comprised present-day South America, Africa, Australia, Antarctica, and the Arabian Peninsula. Therefore, all the options listed (South America, Africa, and Australia) were components of Gondwanaland.
28Geography
Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges
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Answer: (A) Malwa Plateau
Explanation
The Malwa Plateau is situated in north-central India, primarily spanning central Madhya Pradesh and southeastern Rajasthan. It is geographically positioned between the Aravalli Range to its west and the Vindhya Range to its east and south. This volcanic plateau, formed from Deccan Traps lava flows, is characterized by fertile black soil. The Malwa Plateau slopes northward, with rivers like the Chambal, Mahi, and Betwa draining the region.
29Geography
Which state of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China?
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Answer: (D) Sikkim
Explanation
Sikkim is an Indian state that shares its borders with three neighboring countries: Nepal to the west, Bhutan to the east, and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China to the north and northeast. This unique geographical position makes Sikkim a strategically important state for India. Arunachal Pradesh borders Bhutan, China, and Myanmar, not Nepal. Meghalaya shares its international border only with Bangladesh. West Bengal borders Bangladesh, Nepal, and Bhutan, but not China.
30Geography
The leading state in wheat production in India is:
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Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation
Uttar Pradesh is consistently the leading state in wheat production in India. For the 2024-25 crop year, Uttar Pradesh produced 35.65 million tonnes of wheat, making it the largest contributor to the country's total. This is primarily due to its vast area under wheat cultivation, which was 9.60 million hectares. The state benefits from fertile alluvial soil, a suitable climate with cool winters, and extensive irrigation facilities from rivers like the Ganga and Yamuna. Uttar Pradesh alone accounts for approximately 30% of India's total wheat production.
31Geography
Which state is the largest producer of tobacco in India?
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Answer: (B) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
Andhra Pradesh is the largest producer of tobacco in India. The state has favorable climatic conditions and fertile soil, particularly in districts like Prakasam and Guntur, which are major hubs for tobacco cultivation. Andhra Pradesh leads significantly in the cultivation of Flue-Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco, a highly valued variety in international markets. The state plays a crucial role in meeting both domestic and export demands for tobacco, with the Tobacco Board also headquartered there to facilitate growers, traders, and exporters.
32Geography
One horned rhinoceros is found in the following states:
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Answer: (B) West Bengal and Assam
Explanation
The one-horned rhinoceros, also known as the Indian rhinoceros, is primarily found in the grasslands and wetlands of the foothills of the Himalayas. In India, significant populations of this species are found in Assam and West Bengal. Assam is home to the largest population, particularly in Kaziranga National Park, Manas National Park, Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary, and Orang National Park. In West Bengal, one-horned rhinos are found in Jaldapara National Park and Gorumara National Park. While stray rhinos have been occasionally reported near the Arunachal Pradesh border, it does not have a resident population of one-horned rhinos in its wildlife reserves. There is no current evidence to suggest a population of one-horned rhinoceros in Tripura.
33Geography
States with the highest and lowest density of population in India are respectively:
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Answer: (B) West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
According to the 2001 Census of India, West Bengal was the state with the highest population density, recording 903 persons per square kilometer. This was followed by Bihar and Kerala. Conversely, Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density in India, with only 13 persons per square kilometer. Its sparse population is attributed to its hilly terrain and extensive forest cover. Therefore, based on the 2001 census data, West Bengal and Arunachal Pradesh were, respectively, the states with the highest and lowest population densities in India.
34Geography
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 |
|-------------------------|-----------------|
| A. Hirakud Project | ii. Odisha |
| B. Haldia Refinery | i. West Bengal |
| C. Tarapur Nuclear Station | iv. Maharashtra |
| D. Kudremukh Hills | iii. Karnataka |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Explanation
The Hirakud Project is located in Odisha. The Haldia Refinery is situated in West Bengal. The Tarapur Nuclear Station is found in Maharashtra. Kudremukh Hills are located in Karnataka. Therefore, matching these correctly leads to option C: A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii).
35Geography
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 (Capital) |
|---------------|-----------------|
| (A) Kenya | (i) Tashkent |
| (B) Uganda | (ii) Nairobi |
| (C) Uzbekistan | (iii) Kiev |
| (D) Ukraine | (iv) Kampala |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (B) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
Explanation
Kenya's capital is Nairobi (ii), Uganda's capital is Kampala (iv), Uzbekistan's capital is Tashkent (i), and Ukraine's capital is Kiev (iii). Hence the correct matching is (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii), which is given in option B.
36Economy
Which among the following contributes most to the GDP of India?
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Answer: (C) Tertiary sector
Explanation
The tertiary sector, also known as the services sector, contributes the most to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP). This sector encompasses a wide range of activities including finance, telecommunication, trade, hospitality, education, and healthcare. As of recent estimates, the services sector accounts for approximately 53-55% of India's total GVA (Gross Value Added) or GDP. This dominance highlights its role as the primary engine of economic growth in the country, surpassing the contributions of the primary (agriculture) and secondary (industry) sectors.
37Economy
Which is the final authority in India to approve five year Plans?
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Answer: (D) None of these
Explanation
The National Development Council (NDC) was the final authority in India to approve Five Year Plans. The Planning Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog) formulated the draft plans, but they required final approval from the NDC. The NDC comprised the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all states, and representatives of Union Territories, ensuring a consensus between the central and state governments. Therefore, none of the options provided (Union Council of Ministers, Planning Commission, Prime Minister) individually held the final approval authority.
38Economy
Who is called the pioneer of liberalization of Indian Economy?
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Answer: (A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Explanation
Dr. Manmohan Singh is widely recognized as the pioneer of the liberalization of the Indian Economy. As the Finance Minister under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao in 1991, he introduced a series of bold economic reforms to address a severe balance of payments crisis and economic stagnation. These reforms included dismantling the "Licence Raj," reducing import tariffs, and opening the economy to foreign direct investment. His policies shifted India from a socialist-leaning, closed economy to a more market-driven, globally integrated one, laying the foundation for sustained economic growth and poverty reduction.
39Economy
Green Index has been developed by:
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Answer: (B) United Nations Environment Programme
Explanation
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading global environmental authority that sets the global environmental agenda and promotes sustainable development. UNEP's mandate includes providing leadership, delivering science, and developing solutions for a wide range of environmental issues. It is actively involved in the development and promotion of global environmental metrics, such as the Environmental Performance Index (EPI), which functions as a "Green Index" to assess and rank countries based on their environmental health and ecosystem vitality. This aligns with UNEP's core mission to monitor the environment and help achieve the Sustainable Development Goals.
40Economy
Public Distribution System is aimed at :
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The Public Distribution System (PDS) in India is a crucial government initiative designed to ensure food security for its citizens. It aims to achieve this by providing essential food grains and other commodities at subsidized rates, making them affordable for vulnerable households. By supplying these goods through a network of fair price shops, the PDS helps stabilize market prices and prevents price gouging by traders, thereby protecting low-income groups from inflation and market volatility. Furthermore, the PDS plays a vital role in curbing malpractices like hoarding and black marketing of essential commodities, as the government actively monitors prices and takes action against such illicit activities. Therefore, the system's objectives encompass providing food security, preventing hoarding and black marketing, and preventing overcharging by traders, making "All of the above" the correct answer.
41Polity and Governance
Who among the following released "Citizens guide to fight corruption"?
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Answer: (C) Central Vigilance Commission
Explanation
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) released the "Citizens guide to fight corruption" in 2001. This guide was launched on the occasion of the Council for Clean India and aims to empower citizens to combat corruption in a focused and systematic manner. The CVC, as an apex body, works to ensure probity and integrity in public services by providing impartial advice on vigilance cases and suggesting modifications to systems, rules, and procedures to curb corruption. The guide outlines specific actions for citizens to take, emphasizing the importance of honesty and boldness in reporting corruption.
42Economy
Which of the following is not included in Human Development Index?
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Answer: (C) Social Inequality
Explanation
The Human Development Index (HDI) measures a country's average achievements in three basic dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living. A long and healthy life is assessed by life expectancy at birth. Knowledge is measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling. A decent standard of living is measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita. Social inequality, while an important aspect of human well-being, is not a direct component of the HDI. However, the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) does account for inequalities in these dimensions.
43Economy
Direction: Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Bharat Nirman includes
(A) Bring an additional one crore hectares under assured irrigation
(B) To provide road connectivity to all villages that have a population of 200
(C) To give telephone connectivity to the remaining villages.
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Answer: (B) (A) and (C) are correct
Explanation
Bharat Nirman, launched in 2005, was a comprehensive program aimed at developing rural infrastructure across six key areas: irrigation, roads, housing, water supply, electrification, and rural telephony. One of its primary objectives was to bring an additional one crore (10 million) hectares of unirrigated agricultural land under assured irrigation. Additionally, the program aimed to provide telephone connectivity to all remaining villages in the country. The road connectivity component of Bharat Nirman targeted connecting all habitations with a population of 1000 and above (or 500 and above in hilly/tribal areas) with an all-weather road, not specifically those with a population of 200. Therefore, options (A) and (C) correctly describe components of Bharat Nirman.
44Economy
Direction :- The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (a)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these question using the code below:
Assertion (A): Lehman Brothers (an investment baking Company of US) filed for chapter 11 bankruptcy protection in September 2008.
Reason (R) : Sub prime lending was one of the major cause of financial crisis.
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Assertion (A) is true: Lehman Brothers filed for Chapter 11 bankruptcy protection on September 15, 2008, marking the largest bankruptcy filing in U.S. history at that time. Reason (R) is also true: Subprime lending was a major cause of the 2008 financial crisis. Lehman Brothers had significant exposure to the subprime mortgage market and related securities, and the collapse of this market directly contributed to its downfall. Therefore, (R) is the correct explanation of (A) because Lehman Brothers' heavy involvement in and losses from subprime mortgages led to its bankruptcy.
45Science and Technology
Light year is the unit of :
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Answer: (B) Distance
Explanation
A light-year is a unit of length used to express astronomical distances. It is defined as the distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year. Although it contains the word "year," it is not a unit of time. Therefore, a light-year is a measure of distance, not time, speed, or speed relative to the speed of light.
46Quantitative Aptitude
An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. What happens to the water level when the ice melts? It:
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Answer: (C) Remains the same
Explanation
When an ice cube floats in water, it displaces a volume of water equal to the weight of the ice. This is due to Archimedes' principle. Since ice is less dense than water, it floats, and a portion of it is submerged. When the ice melts, it converts into water, and the volume of this melted water is exactly equal to the volume of water that was initially displaced by the floating ice. Consequently, the melted ice simply fills the space it previously occupied below the water line, causing no change in the overall water level.
47Science and Technology
Which of the following lens is used to minimize myopia?
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Answer: (B) Concave lens
Explanation
Myopia, or nearsightedness, occurs when light focuses in front of the retina instead of directly on it, causing distant objects to appear blurry. Concave lenses are used to correct this condition because they are diverging lenses. These lenses are thinner in the middle and thicker at the edges, which causes incoming light rays to spread out before entering the eye. By diverging the light, the concave lens effectively shifts the focal point backward, ensuring the light converges precisely on the retina for clear distance vision.
48Science and Technology
A fan produces feeling of comfort during hot weather because:
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Answer: (B) Our perspiration evaporates rapidly
Explanation
A fan does not supply cold air; instead, it circulates the existing air around us. This increased air movement helps to accelerate the rate at which perspiration (sweat) evaporates from our skin. Evaporation is a cooling process because it absorbs latent heat from our body, effectively carrying heat away. This removal of heat through rapid evaporation makes us feel cooler and more comfortable in hot weather.
49Science and Technology
Direction :- The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (A)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these question using the code below:
Assertion (A): In India, electricity distribution companies calculate the consumption of electricity in kWh.
Reason (R): Electrical system in India works at a frequency of 60Hz
● Correct
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Explanation
In India, electricity distribution companies calculate the consumption of electricity in kilowatt-hours (kWh), commonly known as "units," for billing purposes. This makes Assertion (A) true. However, the electrical system in India operates at a standard frequency of 50 Hz, not 60 Hz. The 60 Hz frequency is typically used in countries like the United States and Canada. Therefore, Reason (R) is false, making option C the correct answer.
50Science and Technology
Steel is mainly an alloy of Iron and:
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Answer: (D) Carbon
Explanation
Steel is primarily an alloy of iron and carbon. While pure iron is relatively soft, the addition of a small amount of carbon significantly increases its strength, hardness, and overall mechanical properties. Carbon acts as a hardening agent, transforming the soft iron into the strong and versatile material we know as steel. The carbon content in steel typically ranges from about 0.02% to 2.14% by weight; beyond this, it is classified as cast iron. Other elements like chromium, nickel, and manganese can be added to create different types of alloy steels with specific enhanced properties, but carbon is the fundamental alloying element with iron.
51Science and TechnologyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Gas released during Bhopal gas tragedy was:
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Answer: (C) Methyl Isocyanate
Explanation
During the Bhopal gas tragedy, which occurred on December 2-3, 1984, the highly toxic gas released from the Union Carbide India Limited pesticide plant was Methyl Isocyanate (MIC). This catastrophic industrial accident exposed over 500,000 people to the gas, leading to thousands of immediate deaths and long-term health issues for many more. The plant used MIC as an intermediate in the production of the pesticide Sevin. The leak was caused by a series of preventable errors and poor safety conditions at the facility.
52Science and Technology
Which of the following is different form the remaining three?
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Answer: (D) Bauxite
Explanation
Haematite, Magnetite, and Limonite are all important ores of iron. These minerals are primarily mined for their iron content. Bauxite, however, is the principal ore from which aluminum is extracted. Therefore, Bauxite is different from the other three because it is an aluminum ore, while Haematite, Magnetite, and Limonite are iron ores.
53Science and Technology
Direction:- The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (A)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these question using the code below:
Assertion (A): Gypsum is added to cooled clinkers of cement.
Reason (R): Gypsum speeds up the setting time of cement.
● Correct
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Explanation
Gypsum is added to cooled cement clinkers during the final grinding process to control the setting and hardening of cement. Without gypsum, cement would undergo "flash setting" and harden almost immediately when mixed with water, making it impractical for construction. Therefore, assertion (A) is true. However, gypsum acts as a retarder, slowing down the hydration process of tricalcium aluminate (C3A) in cement and extending the setting time, rather than speeding it up. This allows sufficient time for mixing, transporting, and placing the concrete. Thus, reason (R) is false.
54Geography
Project Tiger' in India was started in :
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Answer: (B) 1973
Explanation
Project Tiger, a landmark wildlife conservation program in India, was officially launched on April 1, 1973. This initiative by the Government of India aimed to protect the country's dwindling tiger population and their natural habitats. The project was a direct response to the alarming decline in tiger numbers, which had fallen drastically by the early 1970s. It established dedicated tiger reserves and implemented measures to ensure the survival and increase of tiger populations across India.
55Science and Technology
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below
| List-1 | List-2 |
|------------------|---------------------|
| (A) Anemia | (ii) Iron deficiency|
| (B) Goiter | (iii) Iodine deficiency |
| (C) Night blindness | (iv) Vitamin A deficiency |
| (D) Beri-beri | (i) Vitamin B deficiency |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (B) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Explanation
Anemia is a condition resulting from iron deficiency, which impairs the blood's ability to carry oxygen. Goiter is characterized by an enlarged thyroid gland and is primarily caused by a lack of iodine in the diet. Night blindness, a difficulty seeing in low light, is a classic symptom of Vitamin A deficiency. Beri-beri is a neurological and cardiovascular disorder caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B (specifically thiamine). Therefore, matching these deficiencies correctly leads to option B.
56Science and Technology
Directions: The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (A)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these questions using the code below:
Assertion (A): A plant which has nitrogen deficiency will show symptoms like stunted growth and pale green and yellow leaves.
Reason (R): Nitrogen is responsible for green leaf growth.
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Nitrogen is a crucial macronutrient for plant growth, playing a vital role in the production of chlorophyll, which gives leaves their green color and is essential for photosynthesis. When a plant lacks sufficient nitrogen, its ability to produce chlorophyll is impaired, leading to symptoms such as stunted growth and pale green or yellowing leaves, particularly in older foliage. Therefore, the assertion that nitrogen-deficient plants exhibit stunted growth and pale leaves is true. The reason that nitrogen is responsible for green leaf growth is also true, as it is a key component of chlorophyll. Since the lack of nitrogen directly causes the observed symptoms due to its role in green leaf growth, the reason correctly explains the assertion.
57Science and Technology
Directions: The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (A)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these questions using the code below:
Assertion (A): People with AB blood groups are universal recipients.
Reason (R): Red blood cell of blood group AB has no antigen and so agglutination does not occur with any other blood group.
● Correct
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Explanation
Individuals with AB blood group are considered universal recipients because their plasma contains neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies, allowing them to receive red blood cells from any ABO blood type without agglutination. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true. However, the red blood cells of blood group AB individuals possess both A and B antigens on their surface, not no antigens. The absence of antigens is characteristic of O blood group red blood cells. Thus, Reason (R) is false, making option C the correct choice.
58Science and Technology
Aryabhatta was launched on:
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Answer: (A) 19th April 1975
Explanation
Aryabhatta, India's first satellite, was launched on April 19, 1975. It was named after the ancient Indian astronomer and mathematician Aryabhata. The satellite was designed and fabricated in India by ISRO, but it was launched from Kapustin Yar, a Soviet rocket launch site, using a Kosmos-3M launch vehicle as part of the Soviet Interkosmos programme. This historic launch marked India's entry into the space age.
59Science and Technology
India's first atomic power station is :
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Answer: (B) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
Explanation
The Tarapur Atomic Power Station, located in Tarapur, Maharashtra, was India's first commercial nuclear power station. It began operations on October 28, 1969, marking a significant milestone in India's nuclear energy program. The station was initially constructed with two boiling water reactor (BWR) units. This pioneering project laid the foundation for future nuclear power developments in the country.
60Polity and Governance
Under National e-governance Plan SWAN is :
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Answer: (A) State Wide Area Network
Explanation
Under the National e-governance Plan, SWAN stands for State Wide Area Network. It is a crucial infrastructure component designed to provide secure and high-speed connectivity for government functioning. The network connects state headquarters, district headquarters, and block headquarters, enabling efficient delivery of government-to-government (G2G) and government-to-citizen (G2C) services. This initiative, approved in March 2005, aims to enhance administrative efficiency, transparency, and accountability across various government departments.
61Polity and Governance
Under National e-Government plan, CSC is :
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Answer: (B) Common Service Center
Explanation
Under the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP), CSC stands for Common Service Center. These centers were introduced in 2006 as a strategic cornerstone of the NeGP to provide ICT-enabled access points for delivering various government and non-government services to citizens, especially in rural and remote areas. CSCs aim to bridge the digital divide by offering a range of services including e-governance, financial, educational, and healthcare services. They function as front-end delivery outlets, making public services accessible at the local level and promoting digital inclusion.
62Science and Technology
Direction: Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) Net (Dot Net) framework has been developed by Microsoft.
(2) Java is an open source technology developed by Sun Micro Systems.
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 correct.
Explanation
The .NET Framework is a proprietary software framework developed by Microsoft, primarily for building and running applications on Windows operating systems. It includes a large class library and supports multiple programming languages like C#, F#, and VB.NET. Java, on the other hand, was designed by James Gosling at Sun Microsystems and released in May 1995. Sun Microsystems later released much of its Java virtual machine and core code as free and open-source software under the GNU General Public License (GPL) in 2006 and 2007. Therefore, both statements are factually correct.
63Science and Technology
Direction: Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) Proxy server provides TCP/IP address.
(2) Proxy server processes clients requests by forwarding the requests to other servers.
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Only 2 is correct.
Explanation
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between a client and other servers on the internet. When a client sends a request for a resource, the proxy server intercepts it, processes it, and then forwards it to the destination server on the client's behalf. This process allows the proxy to provide services like content filtering, caching, and masking the client's IP address.
However, a proxy server does not provide TCP/IP addresses to clients. TCP/IP addresses are typically assigned to devices by a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server or configured manually. The Internet Protocol (IP) itself is responsible for logical addressing and routing data packets, using IP addresses to identify devices on a network. While a proxy server has its own IP address and uses TCP/IP for communication, it does not assign these addresses to the clients it serves. Therefore, statement (2) is correct, and statement (1) is incorrect.
64Science and Technology
An exclusively private network used by employees of a company in a single location will be classified as:
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Answer: (B) Local Area Network
Explanation
A Local Area Network (LAN) is a computer network that interconnects computers within a limited area such as a residence, school, laboratory, university campus, or office building. The key characteristics of a LAN are its limited geographical scope and its ability to connect devices within that confined space. Therefore, an exclusively private network used by employees of a company in a single location perfectly fits the definition of a Local Area Network. The Internet is a global public network, a Wide Area Network (WAN) spans larger geographical areas, and ARPANET was an early packet switching network and a precursor to the modern Internet.
65Science and Technology
In a database field is:
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Answer: (D) Category of information
Explanation
In a database, a field represents a single attribute or characteristic of an entity. It defines a specific category of information that will be stored for each record in a table. For instance, in a table of employees, "Employee ID," "Name," and "Department" would each be a field, categorizing the type of data held in that column. Therefore, a field acts as a category of information within a database.
66Science and Technology
A million bytes is approximately :
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Answer: (C) Megabyte
Explanation
A byte is a unit of digital information. A kilobyte (KB) is approximately 1,000 bytes (10^3 bytes), specifically 1,024 bytes in computing. A megabyte (MB) is approximately 1,000 kilobytes, or about 1,000,000 bytes (10^6 bytes). Therefore, a million bytes is approximately a megabyte.
67Science and Technology
To increase the length of a network loss of signal strength, we would use :
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Answer: (A) Repeater
Explanation
A repeater is used to increase the length of a network by regenerating and retransmitting the signal. As a signal travels over a long distance, it experiences attenuation, meaning its strength diminishes. A repeater receives the weakened signal, amplifies it, and then sends it out again at its original strength, effectively extending the network's reach and overcoming signal loss. This process allows data to travel further without becoming corrupted or unusable.
68Science and Technology
If a domain name ends with. ed, Us then it is :
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Answer: (D) An educational Institute in USA.
Explanation
Domain names ending with ".us" are country code top-level domains (ccTLDs) specifically designated for the United States. Within the ".us" domain, ".ed" is a second-level domain (SLD) reserved for educational institutions. Therefore, a domain name ending with ".ed.us" clearly indicates an educational institution located within the USA. This structure helps in identifying the geographical location and the type of organization associated with the domain.
69Science and Technology
Word processors, spread sheets are examples of :
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Answer: (B) Application Software
Explanation
Word processors and spreadsheets are examples of application software because they are designed to perform specific tasks for the user. Application software directly assists users in accomplishing productive work, such as creating documents or managing data. In contrast, system software, like operating systems, manages the computer's hardware and provides a platform for application software to run. Therefore, these programs are tools for end-users to perform particular functions.
70Science and Technology
Which of the following is not an output device?
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Answer: (D) Digital camera
Explanation
An output device is a piece of computer hardware that displays or presents the results of processing from a computer. Drum pen plotters, CRT monitors, and earphones all serve this function by producing physical drawings, visual displays, and audio respectively. A digital camera, however, captures images and converts them into digital data, making it an input device that feeds information into a computer system. Therefore, a digital camera is not an output device.
71Science and Technology
One of the first viruses to attract wide spread public attention was designed to infect MS-DOS on 6th March 1992. Name of the virus is :
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Answer: (C) Michael Angelo
Explanation
The Michelangelo virus was a boot sector virus designed to infect MS-DOS systems and activate annually on March 6th, which is Michelangelo's birthday. Its payload, when triggered on March 6th, would overwrite the first one hundred sectors of the hard disk with nulls, destroying the DOS Boot sector and File Allocation Table, making data recovery almost impossible for the average user. The virus gained widespread public attention in early 1992, leading to significant media hype and warnings about potential data loss on March 6, 1992. While other viruses like Brain and Friday the 13th also infected MS-DOS, they had different activation dates and characteristics. "Catch me if you can" refers to the message displayed by the Creeper worm, one of the earliest experimental computer programs, not a destructive MS-DOS virus from 1992.
72Science and Technology
Direction :- The following ten question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (A)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these question using the code below :
Assertion (A): CERN (European organization for Nuclear Research) is the Worlds largest particle Physics Laboratory.
Reason (R): CERN is French acronym of the name of the provisional body founded 2 years before the organization came into existence.
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
CERN is indeed the world's largest particle physics laboratory, making Assertion (A) true. The acronym CERN originates from "Conseil Européen pour la Recherche Nucléaire" (European Council for Nuclear Research), which was the provisional body established in 1952, two years before the organization officially came into existence in 1954. This confirms that Reason (R) is also true. However, the fact that CERN is an acronym for a provisional body does not explain why it is the world's largest particle physics laboratory; its size and capabilities are due to its extensive facilities and research programs. Therefore, both statements are true, but the reason does not explain the assertion.
73Polity and Governance
What is the cut-off date for the forest rights under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
● Correct
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Answer: (D) 13th December 2005
Explanation
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), specifies December 13, 2005, as the cut-off date for recognizing forest rights. This means that individuals or communities must have been occupying forest land before this date to be eligible for the recognition of their rights. For Scheduled Tribes, proof of residing in forest land and depending on it for a livelihood as of December 13, 2005, is required. Other Traditional Forest Dwellers need to demonstrate that they have primarily resided in forest land for at least three generations (75 years) prior to December 13, 2005, and depend on the forest for their livelihood. The Act aims to rectify historical injustices by formally recognizing the pre-existing rights of forest-dwelling communities.
74HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
Bhils revolted against the British in :
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Answer: (A) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
Explanation
The Bhil revolts against the British primarily occurred in the western and central parts of India. Specifically, the Bhil community, a prominent tribal group, inhabited and revolted in the hilly regions of present-day Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. The uprising in 1818, led by figures like Kazi Singh and Bhima Naik, was centered in the Khandesh region, which is now part of modern-day Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. These revolts were a response to oppressive colonial policies, economic exploitation, and the erosion of their traditional rights and autonomy.
75Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which among the following awards is given to sportspersons by the Government of Madhya Pradesh ?
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Answer: (B) Vikram Award
Explanation
The Vikram Award is the highest sports award given by the Government of Madhya Pradesh to sportspersons of the state. It recognizes outstanding achievements in sports. The other options, Arjun Award, Dronacharya Award, and Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award), are national-level sports awards given by the Government of India, not by the Government of Madhya Pradesh. Therefore, the Vikram Award is the correct answer as it is specifically a state award from Madhya Pradesh.
76Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Who among the following cricketers from Madhya Pradesh has not played for India in a test Match ?
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Answer: (B) Amay Khurasiya
Explanation
Amay Khurasiya, despite a successful first-class career, represented India in One Day Internationals (ODIs) but never played a Test match for the country. Narendra Hirwani, a leg-spinner from Madhya Pradesh, famously took 16 wickets on his Test debut for India. Mushtaq Ali was a pioneering opening batsman from Madhya Pradesh who played several Test matches for India in the pre-independence era. Rajesh Chauhan, an off-spinner, also played Test cricket for India. Therefore, Amay Khurasiya is the only one among the options who did not play Test cricket for India.
77GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Two new districts were formed in Madhya Pradesh in the year 2008. Identify.
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Answer: (D) Singrauli and Aliraipur
Explanation
In 2008, two new districts were indeed formed in Madhya Pradesh. Singrauli district was carved out of Sidhi district on May 24, 2008, becoming the 50th district of the state. Alirajpur district was formed on May 17, 2008, by separating Alirajpur, Jobat, and Bhabra tehsils from the erstwhile Jhabua district. Therefore, Singrauli and Alirajpur are the correct identification of the two new districts formed in Madhya Pradesh in 2008.
78GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following cities is closest to IST (Indian Standard Time) meridian ?
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Answer: (A) Rewa
Explanation
The Indian Standard Time (IST) meridian is officially designated at 82°30' East longitude. Among the given options, Rewa is located at approximately 81°18' East longitude. Sagar is situated around 78°45' East longitude. Ujjain's longitude is roughly 75°47' East. Hoshangabad (now Narmadapuram) lies at about 77°44' East longitude. Calculating the absolute difference, Rewa (82.5° - 81.3° = 1.2°) is significantly closer to the IST meridian than Sagar (82.5° - 78.7° = 3.8°), Hoshangabad (82.5° - 77.73° = 4.77°), or Ujjain (82.5° - 75.78° = 6.72°). Therefore, Rewa is the city closest to the IST meridian.
79GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following national highways has the longest length in Madhya Pradesh ?
National Highway 3 (NH-3), historically known as the Agra-Bombay National Highway, had the longest length in Madhya Pradesh among the given options. This highway traversed through various districts of Madhya Pradesh, including Morena, Gwalior, Shivpuri, Guna, Biaora, Maksi, Dewas, and Indore. Its total length within Madhya Pradesh was approximately 717 km or 712 km. In comparison, the old NH-7 had a length of 511 km in the state, and NH-12 covered 400 km in Madhya Pradesh.
80GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Consider the time of sun rise in Sidhi and Jhabua and choose the correct option:
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Answer: (C) Sidhi will have sun rise 1/2 hour earlier.
Explanation
Sidhi is located in the eastern part of Madhya Pradesh, while Jhabua is in the western part. The Earth rotates from west to east, causing places further east to experience sunrise earlier. The longitudinal difference between Sidhi (approximately 81.8° E) and Jhabua (approximately 74.5° E) is roughly 7.3 degrees. Since every degree of longitude corresponds to a 4-minute time difference, this longitudinal difference translates to approximately 29.2 minutes, which is close to half an hour. Therefore, Sidhi experiences sunrise about half an hour earlier than Jhabua.
81GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 |
|-------------|---------|
| (A) Chhindwara | (c) Gond |
| (B) Mandala | (b) Bharia |
| (C) Jhabua | (a) Bhil |
| (D) Shivpuri | (d) Saharia |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (C) 2, 3, 1, 4
Explanation
The Bharia tribe is primarily found in the Patalkot region of Chhindwara district. The Gond tribe is a dominant tribal group in the Mandala district. The Bhil tribe is largely concentrated in the Jhabua district. The Saharia tribe is predominantly found in the Shivpuri district. Therefore, the correct match is (A) Chhindwara - (b) Bharia, (B) Mandala - (c) Gond, (C) Jhabua - (a) Bhil, and (D) Shivpuri - (d) Saharia, which corresponds to option C (2, 3, 1, 4).
82Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Sanskrit University has been set up at :
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Answer: (B) Ujjain
Explanation
Maharshi Panini Sanskrit Evam Vedic Vishwavidyalaya, a state university dedicated to the protection, preservation, and propagation of the Sanskrit language and its literature, is located in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh. Established in 2008 by the Government of Madhya Pradesh, the university offers various undergraduate, postgraduate, and research programs in Sanskrit and Vedic studies. Ujjain was chosen for its cultural and mythological significance, making it an ideal location for such an institution. The university is recognized by the University Grants Commission (UGC) and is accredited with Grade "A" by NAAC.
83Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following is not a World Heritage Site ?
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Answer: (D) Mandu Palace
Explanation
Khajuraho temples, Bhimbetka caves, and Sanchi Stupa are all recognized UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Madhya Pradesh, India. The Khajuraho Group of Monuments, famous for their Nagara-style architecture and sculptures, were inscribed in 1986. The Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka, known for their prehistoric cave paintings, were designated a World Heritage Site in 2003. The Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi, including the Great Stupa, are among the oldest Buddhist sanctuaries and became a World Heritage Site in 1989. Mandu Palace, while a significant historical and architectural site, is not currently a UNESCO World Heritage Site, though it has been considered for the status.
84HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 |
|----------------|-----------|
| (A) Bhoja | (3) Dhar |
| (B) Durgawati | (2) Vidisha |
| (C) Samudragupta | (1) Ujjain |
| (D) Ashoka | (4) Gondwana |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 2, 1
Explanation
King Bhoja was a powerful Paramara ruler who made Dhar his capital. Rani Durgawati was the brave queen of the Gondwana kingdom. Samudragupta, a prominent Gupta emperor, had significant influence over regions including Vidisha, which was an important center during his era. Ashoka served as the viceroy of Ujjain during his father Bindusara's reign before becoming emperor. Therefore, the correct match is A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.
85Geography
Which of the following rivers does not fall into river Yamuna?
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Answer: (C) Son
Explanation
The Ken, Betwa, and Chambal rivers are all significant tributaries of the Yamuna River. The Ken River originates in the Kaimur Range and merges with the Yamuna near Fatehpur in Uttar Pradesh. The Betwa River rises in the Vindhya Range and joins the Yamuna in Hamirpur district, Uttar Pradesh. Similarly, the Chambal River originates in the Vindhya Range and flows into the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh. In contrast, the Son River originates in the Amarkantak hills of Madhya Pradesh and is a major southern tributary of the Ganges River, joining it near Patna in Bihar, not the Yamuna.
86GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river ?
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Answer: (D) Ban Sagar
Explanation
The Bargi, Omkareshwar, and Indira Sagar dams are all constructed on the Narmada River. The Bargi Dam is located in the Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh and is one of the first major dams on the Narmada. The Omkareshwar Dam is a gravity dam situated on the Narmada River in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. Similarly, the Indira Sagar Dam, the largest earthen dam in India, is also built on the Narmada River in the Khandwa district. In contrast, the Ban Sagar Dam is a multipurpose river valley project located on the Sone River in Madhya Pradesh, not the Narmada.
87Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
'Badhai' is:
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Answer: (A) Folk dance of Bundelkhand.
Explanation
Badhai is a prominent folk dance originating from the Bundelkhand region of Madhya Pradesh. It is a ceremonial dance performed by both men and women to express joy and gratitude on auspicious occasions such as weddings, childbirth, and other celebrations. The dance is often dedicated to Goddess Sheetala, seeking her blessings and protection from calamities. The rhythmic movements are accompanied by traditional folk musical instruments like Dhapla, Timki, Lota, Rantula, and Algoja.
88GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which among the following districts of Madhya Pradesh has a problem of soil erosion ?
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Answer: (C) Morena
Explanation
Morena district in Madhya Pradesh is severely affected by soil erosion, primarily due to the formation of ravines along the Chambal River and its tributaries. The light, alluvial soil in the region, which has a high sand content and low organic matter, is particularly susceptible to erosion by water. This process is exacerbated by deforestation, faulty irrigation projects, and heavy monsoon rainfall, leading to the formation of deep gullies that degrade productive land. These ravines are expanding rapidly, engulfing villages and agricultural areas.
89GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 |
|------------------------------------------------------|-----------|
| (A) Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIIT DM) | (iii) Jabalpur |
| (B) Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM) | (i) Indore |
| (C) Indian Institute of Management (IIM) | (ii) Bhopal |
| (D) Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISER) | (iv) Gwalior |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Explanation
The Indian Institute of Information Technology, Design and Manufacturing (IIIT DM) is located in Jabalpur. The Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management (IIITM) is situated in Gwalior. The Indian Institute of Management (IIM) is located in Indore. Finally, the Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISER) is in Bhopal. Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii), which corresponds to option B.
90GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which National park/Sanctuary has been selected to house Gir lions ?
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Answer: (D) Palpur Kuno
Explanation
Palpur Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh was selected as a second home for Asiatic lions from Gir National Park in Gujarat. This decision was made to safeguard the endangered Asiatic lion population from threats like epidemics and natural disasters, which could wipe out the entire species if confined to a single habitat. Kuno was identified as the most suitable site after extensive field studies by the Wildlife Institute of India due to its vast forests and abundant prey. The Supreme Court of India also directed the relocation of lions to Kuno to establish a second independent population for their long-term survival.
91Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-1: (a) Zari Batua, (b) Bhairavgarh prints, (c) Handicrafts of Bagh, (d) Sarees of Chanderi
List-2: (i) Ujjain, (ii) Dhar, (iii) Bhopal, (iv) Ashok Nagar
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (A) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Explanation
Zari Batua is a traditional handcrafted purse from Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, known for its intricate zardozi and beadwork. Bhairavgarh prints, an ancient wax-resist dyeing technique, are famously associated with Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh. The traditional hand block printing technique known as Bagh print originates from the village of Bagh in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh. Lastly, Chanderi sarees, renowned for their sheer texture and fine quality, are woven in the historic town of Chanderi, located in the Ashoknagar district of Madhya Pradesh. Therefore, the correct matching is (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv).
92Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
Who amongst the following has served longest as Chief Minister ?
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Answer: (D) Digvijay Singh
Explanation
Digvijay Singh served as the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh for a continuous period of ten years, from December 7, 1993, to December 8, 2003. In comparison, Pandit Ravishankar Shukla served for approximately two months from November 1, 1956, to December 31, 1956. Dr. Kailash Nath Katju's tenure was about five years and one month, from January 31, 1957, to March 11, 1962. Arjun Singh served multiple terms, including 1980-1985 and 1988-1989, totaling approximately six years. Therefore, Digvijay Singh has the longest tenure among the listed options.
93Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which party amongst the following is neither nationally recognized party nor a party recognized for the state of Madhya Pradesh ?
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Answer: (C) Gondwana Ganatantra Party
Explanation
The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) is a recognized national party in India. The Samajwadi Party (SP) is a recognized state party, primarily in Uttar Pradesh, and is not a national party. The Communist Party of India (CPI) lost its national party status in April 2023, but it remains a recognized state party in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Manipur. The Gondwana Ganatantra Party (GGP) is a regional political party that is registered but unrecognized by the Election Commission of India, and it has not achieved state party status in Madhya Pradesh. Therefore, the Gondwana Ganatantra Party is neither a nationally recognized party nor a party recognized for the state of Madhya Pradesh.
94GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Where is the automobile Industry cluster of Madhya Pradesh?
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Answer: (A) Pithampur
Explanation
Pithampur, often referred to as the "Detroit of India," is the primary automobile industry cluster in Madhya Pradesh. It is a well-developed industrial town located near Indore and hosts numerous automotive Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) like Eicher Motors, Force Motors, and Mahindra & Mahindra, along with a significant number of auto component manufacturers. The Pithampur Auto Cluster is a major hub for vehicle and component exports and includes NATRAX, Asia's longest high-speed testing track. While other locations like Malanpur, Mandideep, and Maneri are industrial areas in Madhya Pradesh, they are known for different industries such as pharmaceuticals, consumer goods, and general manufacturing, rather than being dedicated automobile clusters.
95GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Of which crop is Madhya Pradesh the largest producer in the country?
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Answer: (D) Soyabean
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer of soybean in India, often referred to as the "Soybean State" or "Soy State" due to its significant contribution to the country's total output. In 2023-24, Madhya Pradesh regained its position as the top soybean-producing state, contributing 41.92% to the national total. The state's economy is heavily reliant on soybean cultivation, making it a crucial crop for the region.
96GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Direction: Arrange the following districts in decreasing order of per hectare fertilizer consumption and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Indore
(b) Dindori
(c) Hoshangabad
(d) Mandala
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Answer: (A) A,C,D,B
Explanation
Indore district generally records the highest per hectare fertilizer consumption due to its advanced agricultural practices, extensive irrigation, and focus on commercial crops. Hoshangabad (now Narmadapuram) follows, benefiting from the fertile Narmada river plains and significant agricultural development. Mandla and Dindori districts typically have lower per hectare fertilizer consumption, primarily due to a larger proportion of rain-fed agriculture and less intensive farming practices. Therefore, arranging the districts in decreasing order of per hectare fertilizer consumption places Indore first, followed by Hoshangabad, then Mandla, and finally Dindori.
97GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Coal Bed methane has been found in:
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Answer: (A) Shahdol
Explanation
Coal Bed Methane (CBM) has been extensively found and is actively being extracted in the Shahdol district of Madhya Pradesh. Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) operates significant CBM blocks in the Sohagpur East and Sohagpur West areas, both situated within Shahdol. These blocks contribute to Madhya Pradesh being a major producer of CBM, accounting for a substantial portion of the country's reserves. A dedicated pipeline, the Shahdol-Phulpur Gas Pipeline, was also established to transport the CBM extracted from the Shahdol fields.
98GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Madhya Pradesh is largest producer of the following minerals in the country.
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Answer: (D) Copper and Diamond
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh holds the distinction of being the sole diamond-producing state in India, possessing approximately 90% of the country's diamond resources. Additionally, it is the leading producer of copper in the country, contributing around 60% of India's total copper production. The Malanjkhand Copper Project in the state is recognized as India's largest copper ore-producing mine. This makes Copper and Diamond the minerals for which Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer in the country.
99EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following sectors has been given the maximum allocation in the XI Five Year Plan of Madhya Pradesh?
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Answer: (D) Irrigation
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh is predominantly an agrarian state, and the Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007-2012) placed a strong emphasis on revitalizing agriculture and developing essential rural infrastructure. Irrigation is a critical component for enhancing agricultural productivity and ensuring food security in the state. Therefore, to support agricultural growth and foster inclusive development, the irrigation sector received the maximum allocation during Madhya Pradesh's XI Five Year Plan.
100GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following places has 500 MW unit for electricity generation?
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Answer: (A) Birsinghpur
Explanation
The Sanjay Gandhi Thermal Power Station in Birsinghpur, Umaria district, Madhya Pradesh, has an installed capacity that includes a 500 MW unit (Unit 5). This coal-fired power plant has a total installed capacity of 1340 MW, distributed across five units, with four units of 210 MW each and one unit of 500 MW. In contrast, the Satpura Thermal Power Station in Sarni has an active installed capacity of 500 MW from two 250 MW units, and a proposed 660 MW unit. The Amarkantak Thermal Power Station in Chachai currently operates with a 210 MW unit, with a 660 MW unit proposed for expansion. Chhindwara has a proposed 1320 MW thermal power project consisting of two 660 MW units, but no operational 500 MW unit.
101GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which among the following districts has most adverse sex ratio?
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Answer: (A) Morena
Explanation
Morena district has the most adverse sex ratio among the given options. According to the 2011 Census, Morena recorded a sex ratio of 840 females per 1000 males. In comparison, Balaghat had a sex ratio of 1021, Jhabua had 990, and Rewa had 931. This makes Morena's sex ratio significantly lower than the other districts listed.
102GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which among the following districts has the highest literacy rate?
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Answer: (B) Narsinghpur
Explanation
Narsinghpur district was notably recognized as the most literate district of Madhya Pradesh according to the 2001 Census, achieving a literacy rate of 77.7%. This historical achievement highlights its strong educational foundation. While the 2011 Census data indicates that other districts like Jabalpur (81.07%), Indore (80.87%), and Bhopal (80.37%) surpassed Narsinghpur's overall literacy rate of 76.8% in 2011, Narsinghpur maintained a significant focus on education. For instance, in 2011, Narsinghpur recorded a very low child illiteracy rate of only 5.65%, demonstrating effective literacy initiatives. Therefore, Narsinghpur's past distinction and consistent efforts in promoting literacy contribute to its recognition in certain contexts.
103EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
How many districts of Madhya Pradesh are covered under NREGA?
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Answer: (A) All districts
Explanation
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), formerly known as NREGA, is implemented across all rural districts of Madhya Pradesh. The scheme, which guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households, was expanded in phases to cover all districts of the country. Therefore, all districts in Madhya Pradesh with rural populations are covered under the scheme.
104Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which of the following cities is not covered under JNUURM?
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Answer: (D) Ujjain
Explanation
The Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) was a government scheme launched in December 2005 to upgrade infrastructure in Indian cities. According to official information, the cities of Bhopal, Indore, Ujjain, and Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh were covered as Mission Cities under the Urban Infrastructure & Governance (UIG) component of JNNURM. City Development Plans (CDPs) for Indore, Jabalpur, and Ujjain, along with Bhopal, were presented to the State-level JNNURM Steering Committee. Therefore, based on available information, Ujjain was covered under JNNURM, which contradicts the premise that it was not.
105EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Direction :- The following one question consist of two statements:
One labeled as the "Assertion (A)" and the other as "Reason (R)".
You have to examine the two statements and select the answer to these question using the code below:
Assertion (A): Food grain production per capita in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average.
Reason (R): The productivity of food grains in Madhya Pradesh is less than the national average.
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Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh is a significant contributor to India's food grain output, ranking second nationally in overall food grain production according to the Economic Survey 2025-26, contributing approximately 13.04% to the national total. This high volume of production suggests that its food grain production per capita is not less than the national average, making Assertion (A) false. However, Reason (R) is true because, despite its large total production, the productivity (yield per hectare) of food grains in Madhya Pradesh is indeed less than the national average. Therefore, (A) is false but (R) is true.
106Geography
Which river in Bihar changed its course in the year 2008 and caused calamity ?
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Answer: (C) Kosi
Explanation
The Kosi River is famously known as the "Sorrow of Bihar" due to its frequent and devastating floods caused by its tendency to change course. In August 2008, the Kosi River burst through its eastern embankment upstream of the Kosi Barrage in Nepal, near the Indian border. This breach caused the river to abandon its established channel and flow into an old, unembanked course, leading to catastrophic flooding in northern Bihar. The sudden change in course inundated vast areas that had not experienced floods in decades, affecting millions of people, destroying homes, and damaging agricultural land.
107Polity and Governance
United Nations declared the year 2008 as the International year of:
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Answer: (A) Sanitation
Explanation
The United Nations General Assembly declared 2008 as the International Year of Sanitation. This declaration aimed to raise awareness about the global sanitation crisis, as approximately 2.6 billion people worldwide lacked access to basic sanitation facilities at the time. The primary objective was to accelerate progress towards achieving the Millennium Development Goal (MDG) target of halving the proportion of people without access to basic sanitation by 2015. The year also sought to remove the stigma around sanitation and highlight its benefits for poverty reduction, health, and overall development.
108History
Violence against Christians erupted in Odisha after the murder of Swami Lakshmananda Saraswati in August, 2008. Which district was the worst affected ?
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Answer: (D) Kandhamal
Explanation
The violence against Christians that erupted in Odisha in August 2008, following the murder of Swami Lakshmananda Saraswati, most severely impacted the Kandhamal district. This district was the epicenter of the widespread attacks, which saw numerous churches and homes belonging to Christians burned or destroyed. Reports indicate that the violence in Kandhamal resulted in dozens of deaths, thousands displaced, and extensive damage to property, making it the worst-affected area in the state.
109Art and Culture
Which film received the best feature film award at the 54th National Film Award?
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Answer: (A) Pulijanman
Explanation
The Malayalam film "Pulijanman" received the Best Feature Film award at the 54th National Film Awards in 2006. Directed by Priyanandan, the film is based on a play by N. Prabhakaran and stars Murali and Sindhu Menon. The jury cited "Pulijanman" as a layered film that uses metaphors to address global and local issues of contemporary society. While "Lage Raho Munna Bhai" also received an award, it was for Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment, not Best Feature Film.
110Polity and Governance
Russia recognized independence of Georgia's two territories in August, 2008. The two territories are:
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Answer: (D) South Ossetia and Abkhazia
Explanation
In August 2008, following the Russo-Georgian War, Russia formally recognized the independence of two breakaway regions of Georgia. These two territories were South Ossetia and Abkhazia. Russian President Dmitry Medvedev signed decrees on August 26, 2008, acknowledging their sovereignty. This decision was widely condemned by the United States and the international community, who maintained that Abkhazia and South Ossetia are part of Georgia's internationally recognized borders.
111Science and Technology
Which country was the first, after the ban on India was lifted by the Nuclear Suppliers Group, to sign an agreement that would allow supply of Civil Nuclear technology to India.
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Answer: (D) France
Explanation
The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) lifted its embargo on nuclear trade with India on September 6, 2008, granting a waiver to conduct nuclear trade with a country not signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). Shortly after this historic decision, France became the first country to sign a civil nuclear energy pact with India on September 30, 2008. This agreement laid the groundwork for extensive bilateral cooperation, encompassing nuclear power projects, fuel supply, research and development, and nuclear safety. While the US-India civil nuclear agreement (123 Agreement) was a major catalyst for the NSG waiver, the US Congress still needed to approve it, making France the first to finalize a bilateral agreement.
112Science and Technology
Who amongst the following did not share Nobel Prize of Physics in 2008 ?
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Answer: (A) Tohide Yasakawa
Explanation
The Nobel Prize in Physics in 2008 was awarded to Yoichiro Nambu, Makoto Kobayashi, and Toshihide Maskawa. Yoichiro Nambu received half of the prize for his discovery of the mechanism of spontaneous broken symmetry in subatomic physics. Makoto Kobayashi and Toshihide Maskawa jointly received the other half for their discovery of the origin of the broken symmetry which predicts the existence of at least three families of quarks in nature. Therefore, Tohide Yasakawa did not share the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2008.
113Economy
Who among the following was Secretary, Economic affairs, Government of India and then became Governor, Reserve Bank of India in September 2008.
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Answer: (D) D. Subbarao
Explanation
D. Subbarao served as the Finance Secretary to the Government of India from 2007 to 2008. He was then appointed as the 22nd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on September 5, 2008, and held this position until 2013. His tenure as RBI Governor notably coincided with the global financial crisis.
114Economy
To which place did Ratan Tata decide to move the Nano Project form Singur ?
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Answer: (C) Sanand
Explanation
Ratan Tata decided to move the Nano Project from Singur to Sanand in Gujarat. This decision was made on October 3, 2008, after facing persistent protests and political opposition in Singur, West Bengal, regarding land acquisition for the factory. The then Chief Minister of Gujarat, Narendra Modi, invited Tata Motors to establish the plant in Sanand, which became the new manufacturing hub for the Tata Nano. The Sanand plant was subsequently built in 14 months, significantly faster than the 28 months taken for the Singur facility.
115Economy
What is the size of the eleventh five year plan of India ?
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Answer: (C) 36,44,718 crores
Explanation
The Eleventh Five Year Plan of India (2007-2012) had a total public sector outlay estimated at Rs. 36,44,718 crore. This figure includes the budget outlays from both the Central and State governments, as well as extra-budgetary resources from their Public Sector Enterprises. The share of the Centre was Rs. 21,56,571 crore, and that of the States and Union Territories was Rs. 14,88,147 crore. This outlay represented a significant increase, being 120% higher than the Tenth Five Year Plan's realization at constant 2006-07 prices.
116Art and Culture
Direction: Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) In Beijing Olympics, Abhinav Bindra won gold medal in 10 metres rifle shooting.
(B) In Beijing Olympics, Sushil Kumar bronze medal in weight boxing.
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Answer: (A) (A) is correct
Explanation
Abhinav Bindra won India's first individual Olympic gold medal in the men's 10-meter air rifle event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics. He scored a total of 700.5, including a final shot of 10.8, to secure the victory. In contrast, Sushil Kumar won a bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, but his achievement was in freestyle wrestling, specifically the 66kg category, not "weight boxing." Therefore, statement (A) is correct, and statement (B) is incorrect.
117Art and Culture
Virendra Sehwag scored his second triple century in the test cricket. He became only the third player in the history to do so. The other two are:
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Answer: (D) Donald Bradman and Brian Lara.
Explanation
Virender Sehwag became the third player in Test cricket history to score two triple centuries. Before him, only two other batsmen had achieved this remarkable feat. These two legendary cricketers were Sir Donald Bradman of Australia and Brian Lara of the West Indies. Donald Bradman scored his two triple centuries in 1930 and 1934, while Brian Lara achieved his in 1994 and 2004. Sehwag joined this elite group when he scored his second triple century in 2008.
118History
Who among the following won the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award last year (2008) ?
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Answer: (A) M.S. Dhoni
Explanation
M.S. Dhoni was awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2008 for his outstanding performance in cricket. This prestigious award is India's highest sporting honor. He was the second cricketer to receive this award, following Sachin Tendulkar. Vishwanathan Anand received the award in 1991-92, Abhinav Bindra in 2001, and Sachin Tendulkar in 1997-98.
119History
Direction: Consider the following statements with reference to Beijing Olympics and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Michael Phelps won eight gold medals.
2. Usain Bolt became the fastest man by winning 100 m and 200 m races.
3. Roger Federer won gold medal in Men's Singles Tennis.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation
Michael Phelps won an unprecedented eight gold medals at the Beijing 2008 Olympic Games, breaking the record for most golds garnered at a single Games. Usain Bolt also achieved international superstardom at the Beijing Olympics by winning gold medals in both the men's 100m and 200m sprints, setting new world records in both events. However, Roger Federer did not win a gold medal in Men's Singles Tennis at the Beijing Olympics; he was defeated in the quarterfinals. Federer did win a gold medal in men's doubles with Stan Wawrinka at the same Games. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
120Art and Culture
Who won the ONGC-IBSF World Billiards Championship is September-2008 at Bengaluru ?
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Answer: (A) Pankaj Advani
Explanation
Pankaj Advani won the ONGC-IBSF World Billiards Championship in September 2008 in Bengaluru. He achieved a "grand double" by winning both the points and timed formats of the championship that year. In the points format final, Advani defeated Geet Sethi with a score of six games to one. He then went on to retain his World Billiards Crown in the time format, defeating Devendra Joshi in the final.
121Art and Culture
Who won the mixed doubles at US Open 2008 ?
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Answer: (A) Leander paes - Cara Black
Explanation
Leander Paes and Cara Black won the mixed doubles title at the US Open in 2008. They defeated Liezel Huber and Jamie Murray in the final with a score of 7-6 (8-6), 6-4. This was Paes's second US Open and fourth Grand Slam mixed doubles title.
122Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Madhya Pradesh won record number of medals in the 33rd National Games at Guwahati in 2007. In which game did Madhya Pradesh win maximum gold medals ?
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Answer: (A) Karate
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh achieved a record haul of 12 gold medals at the 33rd National Games held in Guwahati in 2007. Of these, a significant portion came from Karate. The state's karatekas secured eight gold medals, along with three silver and one bronze, making it their most successful discipline at the games. This impressive performance in karate contributed substantially to Madhya Pradesh's overall medal tally of 63, which included 12 gold and 19 silver medals.
123Art and Culture
Who won the AFC challenge Cup Football championship in August 2008 ?
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Answer: (A) India
Explanation
India won the AFC Challenge Cup Football championship in August 2008. The tournament was hosted by India and they emerged victorious after defeating Tajikistan 4-1 in the final match. Sunil Chhetri scored a hat-trick in the final, with captain Bhaichung Bhutia adding another goal. This win was significant as it also qualified India for the 2011 AFC Asian Cup.
124Art and Culture
Who is the first Indian woman chess player to cross 2600 ELO rating ?
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Answer: (A) Humpy Koneru
Explanation
Koneru Humpy is the first Indian woman chess player to cross the 2600 ELO rating mark. She achieved this significant milestone in October 2007, when her rating reached 2606. This made her only the second female player in chess history, after Judit Polgár, to exceed the 2600 ELO rating. Humpy Koneru is also notable for becoming the youngest female player to achieve the Grandmaster title in 2002, at the age of 15 years, 1 month, and 27 days.
125History
Where was 2ⁿᵈ Asian All star Athletics Championship organized in September 2008 ?
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Answer: (D) Bhopal
Explanation
The 2nd Asian All-Star Athletics Championship was held in September 2008 in Bhopal, India. This international event brought together top athletes from various Asian countries to compete in track and field events. The championship was organized by the state's Sports and Youth Welfare Department and the Madhya Pradesh Amateur Athletics Association.
126Science and Technology
Google Company has launched a new browser in third quarter of 2008. It is:
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Answer: (A) Chrome
Explanation
Google Chrome was launched by Google in the third quarter of 2008. The first beta version of Chrome was publicly released on September 2, 2008, for Microsoft Windows. This falls within the third quarter of the year, which spans from July 1 to September 30. The stable public release followed on December 11, 2008.
127Science and Technology
Which among the following countries is not a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group ?
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Answer: (D) Iran
Explanation
China, New Zealand, and Ireland are all participating governments of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). China became a member in 2004, and both New Zealand and Ireland joined in 1994 and 1984 respectively. Iran, however, is not a member of the NSG. Iran's nuclear program has been a subject of international concern, and it has faced sanctions due to its past activities related to developing a nuclear warhead and its non-compliance with International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) obligations. The NSG aims to prevent nuclear proliferation by coordinating export controls, and membership is contingent on adherence to non-proliferation treaties and full compliance with IAEA safeguards.
128Science and Technology
Name of the spacecraft for India's Mission moon is:
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Answer: (A) Chandrayan-I
Explanation
India's first lunar mission, known as Mission Moon, was carried out by the spacecraft Chandrayaan-1. Launched on October 22, 2008, Chandrayaan-1 was an orbiter that successfully entered lunar orbit on November 8, 2008. The mission's primary objectives included creating a 3D map of the Moon and conducting chemical and mineralogical mapping of its surface. A significant achievement of Chandrayaan-1 was the discovery of water molecules on the Moon.
129History
When did India last win a hockey gold medal at the Olympics?
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Answer: (D) 1980 Moscow
Explanation
India last won a hockey gold medal at the Olympics in 1980. The Indian men's field hockey team achieved this feat at the Moscow Olympics. This victory marked their eighth Olympic gold medal in men's field hockey. The team defeated Spain in the final match to secure the gold.
130Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
This great hockey player was the prolific goal scorer (24 goals approximately) in 1932 and 1936 Olympics. There was demand in the media to celebrate his birth centenary on 8th September, 2008. He spent his later life in Gwalior, Identify him:
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Answer: (B) Captain Roop Singh
Explanation
Captain Roop Singh was a prolific goal scorer for the Indian hockey team in both the 1932 and 1936 Olympics, winning gold medals in both events. He scored 13 goals in the 1932 Los Angeles Olympics, including 10 goals in a single match against the USA, and 9 goals in the 1936 Berlin Olympics. Born on September 8, 1908, his 100th birth anniversary would have been on September 8, 2008, and there was indeed media demand to celebrate it. Captain Roop Singh spent his later life in Gwalior, where a stadium is named in his honor.
131Science and Technology
Which of the following is not a style of swimming ?
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Answer: (C) Front Stroke
Explanation
"Front Stroke" is not a recognized competitive swimming style. The four main competitive swimming strokes are freestyle (also known as front crawl), backstroke, breaststroke, and butterfly. While "front crawl" is a specific stroke swum on the stomach, "front stroke" is a general term and not an official swimming style. Freestyle allows swimmers to use any stroke, but the front crawl is almost universally chosen due to its speed and efficiency.
132GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 |
|------------|---------|
| (A) Jamunapari | (ii) Goat |
| (B) Bhadawari | (ii) Goat |
| (C) Kadaknath | (iv) Poultry |
| (D) Malwi | (iii) Buffalo |
Codes:
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Answer: (A) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Explanation
Jamunapari is a well-known Indian breed of domestic goat, primarily bred for both milk and meat production. Bhadawari is an improved water buffalo breed from India, recognized for its high butterfat content in milk. Kadaknath, also called Kali Masi, is an Indian breed of chicken, distinctive for its black meat and feathers, thus categorized as poultry. Lastly, Malwi is an Indian breed of zebu cattle, mainly valued for its draft capacity. Therefore, the correct matching sequence is (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i).
133Science and Technology
First fully computer literate district in the country is:
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Answer: (D) Malappuram
Explanation
Malappuram district in Kerala became the first fully computer literate district in the country through the Akshaya project. Launched on November 18, 2002, this initiative aimed to bridge the digital divide by providing basic computer and internet training to at least one member of every household. The project successfully achieved 100% e-literacy in Malappuram by 2005, making it a pioneering model for digital literacy in India.
134Economy
Direction: Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
| List-1 | List-2 |
|------------------|-----------------|
| (A) Narayana Murthy | 3. Infosys |
| (B) Azim Premji | 1. Wipro |
| (C) Ramalinga Raju | 4. Satyam Computers |
| (D) Ramadorai | 2. TCS |
Codes:
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Answer: (B) 3, 1, 4, 2
Explanation
Narayana Murthy is a co-founder of Infosys. Azim Premji is widely recognized for his leadership at Wipro. B. Ramalinga Raju was the founder and former chairman of Satyam Computer Services. S. Ramadorai served as the CEO and Managing Director of Tata Consultancy Services (TCS). Therefore, the correct matching sequence is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2, which corresponds to option B.
135Logical Reasoning
In an open ground, Rakesh walks 20 meters towards north, takes a left turn and walks 40 meters: again takes a left run and walks 50 meters. How far is he from the starting point?
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Answer: (C) 50 meters
Explanation
Rakesh first walks 20 meters North. He then turns left and walks 40 meters West. Finally, he turns left again and walks 50 meters South. To find his distance from the starting point, we can consider his net displacement. He moved 40 meters West and (50 - 20) = 30 meters South from his initial Northward movement. Using the Pythagorean theorem (a² + b² = c²), where a = 40 meters and b = 30 meters, we get 40² + 30² = 1600 + 900 = 2500. The square root of 2500 is 50, so he is 50 meters from the starting point.
136Logical Reasoning
Fill up the blanks:
5 7 74
11 8 185
... 6 205
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Answer: (A) 13
Explanation
The pattern followed in the given series is that the sum of the squares of the first two numbers equals the third number. In the first row, 5^2 + 7^2 = 25 + 49 = 74. In the second row, 11^2 + 8^2 = 121 + 64 = 185. Applying this pattern to the third row, we have x^2 + 6^2 = 205. This simplifies to x^2 + 36 = 205, which means x^2 = 169. Therefore, x = 13, making option A the correct answer.
137Logical Reasoning
McCain : Obama :: Palin : ?
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Answer: (C) Biden
Explanation
In the 2008 US presidential election, John McCain was the Republican presidential nominee, and Barack Obama was the Democratic presidential nominee. Sarah Palin was John McCain's running mate for Vice President. Following this pattern, the person who was Barack Obama's running mate for Vice President was Joe Biden. Therefore, the analogy McCain : Obama :: Palin : Biden is correct.
138Logical Reasoning
Fill up the blanks: 5, 9, 21, 37, 81 ....
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Answer: (B) 153
Explanation
The pattern in the sequence 5, 9, 21, 37, 81 involves multiplying the previous number by 2 and then alternately subtracting or adding consecutive odd numbers. Starting with the first term, 5, the second term is (5 * 2) - 1 = 9. The third term is (9 * 2) + 3 = 21. Following this, the fourth term is (21 * 2) - 5 = 37, and the fifth term is (37 * 2) + 7 = 81. To find the next number in the sequence, we apply the next operation, which is subtracting 9. Therefore, (81 * 2) - 9 = 162 - 9 = 153.
139Quantitative Aptitude
A 50 meters long train passes over a bridge at a velocity of 30 km/hour. If it takes 36 seconds to cross the bridge, the length of the bridge is?
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Answer: (B) 250 m
Explanation
To solve this, first convert the train's velocity from km/hour to m/s. A velocity of 30 km/hour is equivalent to 30 * (5/18) = 25/3 m/s. The total distance covered by the train to cross the bridge is the sum of its own length and the length of the bridge. Using the formula Distance = Speed × Time, the total distance covered is (25/3 m/s) * 36 seconds = 300 meters. Since the train's length is 50 meters, the length of the bridge is 300 meters - 50 meters = 250 meters.
140Quantitative Aptitude
Afootball league has 12 teams. Tournament is to be played on double Round Robin followed by the two top teams playing the Final. Round Robin means that each team plays every other team. How many matches will be played in the tournament?
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Answer: (B) 133
Explanation
In a double round-robin tournament with 12 teams, each team plays every other team twice. The number of matches in a single round-robin is calculated as n * (n - 1) / 2, where n is the number of teams. For a double round-robin, this becomes n * (n - 1). With 12 teams, the round-robin phase will have 12 * (12 - 1) = 12 * 11 = 132 matches. After the round-robin, the two top teams play one final match. Therefore, the total number of matches in the tournament is 132 (round-robin) + 1 (final) = 133 matches.
141Quantitative Aptitude
Based on the following table, in which subject is the average of marks scored maximum?
Subject | 10-19 | 20-29 | 30-39 | 40-49 | 50-59 | 60-69 | 70-79 | 80-89 | 90-100 ; History | 1 | 1 | 1 | 10 | 27 | 48 | 9 | 3 | 0 ; Geography | 2 | 3 | 2 | 12 | 20 | 42 | 17 | 2 | 0 ; Economics | 1 | 4 | 1 | 9 | 16 | 48 | 17 | 4 | 0
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Answer: (C) Economics
Explanation
To determine the subject with the maximum average marks, we can observe the distribution of scores. Economics has a significant number of students scoring in the higher ranges, with 48 students in 60-69, 17 in 70-79, and 4 in 80-89. While History also has 48 students in the 60-69 range, it has fewer students in the 70-79 (9) and 80-89 (3) ranges compared to Economics. Geography has fewer students in the 60-69 range (42) than both History and Economics. This higher concentration of students in the upper mark brackets for Economics results in its average being the highest among the three subjects.
142Quantitative Aptitude
A school has 12 teachers. One of them retires at the age of 62 years and a new teacher replaces him. The change reduces the average age of the staff by 3 years. What is the age of the new teacher?
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Answer: (C) 26 years
Explanation
Let the initial average age of the 12 teachers be 'A' years. The total age of the staff initially is 12A. When a teacher aged 62 retires and a new teacher joins, the number of teachers remains 12, but the average age reduces by 3 years, making the new average A-3. The new total age of the staff is 12(A-3). This new total age can also be expressed as the initial total age minus the retiring teacher's age plus the new teacher's age: 12A - 62 + New Teacher's Age. Equating these two expressions for the new total age, we get 12A - 62 + New Teacher's Age = 12A - 36. Solving for the New Teacher's Age, we find it to be 26 years.
To determine which subject has the most first divisions, we need to sum the number of students who scored 60% or above for each subject. For History, the total first divisions are 48 + 9 + 3 + 0 = 60. For Geography, the total first divisions are 42 + 17 + 2 + 0 = 61. For Economics, the total first divisions are 48 + 17 + 4 + 0 = 69. Comparing these totals, Economics has the highest number of first divisions with 69.