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MPPSC Prelims 2018 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 100 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

100
Questions
7
Subjects
30
Madhya Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance3434%
  • Geography2323%
  • Science and Technology1313%
  • Art and Culture1010%
  • Economy1010%
  • History99%
  • Quantitative Aptitude11%
1Art and Culture
With which religion is Kalika Purana associated?
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Answer: (B) Shaktiism

Explanation

The Kalika Purana is one of the eighteen minor Puranas (Upapurana) within the Hindu tradition of Shaktism. This text is dedicated to the worship of the goddess Kali, who is revered as the supreme divine feminine energy, Shakti. Composed likely in the Assam region between the 10th and 12th centuries CE, it glorifies goddesses like Kamakhya, Durga, and Kali, detailing their myths, iconography, and ritual procedures for their worship. The Kalika Purana emphasizes the primacy of feminine divine energy and integrates Tantric elements into its devotional practices.

2History
In ancient period, which Varna was also called as Sarthavaha?
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Answer: (C) Vaishya

Explanation

In ancient India, the term 'Sarthavaha' referred to the leader or chief of a 'Sartha,' which was a caravan of merchants traveling together for trade. The Vaishya varna was traditionally associated with occupations such as trade, commerce, agriculture, and animal husbandry. Therefore, the role of organizing and leading trade expeditions as a Sarthavaha was intrinsically linked to the Vaishya community. Members of the Vaishya varna often held this significant position due to their primary involvement in mercantile activities.

3History
The ancestors of Shungas originated from
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Answer: (C) Ujjain

Explanation

The ancestors of the Shunga dynasty are believed to have originated from Ujjain, located in present-day Madhya Pradesh. Both literary and archaeological evidence suggest this connection. Pushyamitra Shunga, who founded the dynasty after overthrowing the Mauryans, is thought to have served as a viceroy in Ujjain under the Mauryan Empire. While the Shunga Empire was centered in Magadha with its capital at Pataliputra, their ancestral roots were in Ujjain.

4History
The successor of Sher Shah was
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Answer: (B) Islam Shah

Explanation

Islam Shah, originally known as Jalal Khan, was the second son of Sher Shah Suri and succeeded him as the ruler of the Sur Empire. After Sher Shah's accidental death in May 1545, Jalal Khan ascended the throne under the title Islam Shah Suri. His accession was not without challenge, as his elder brother Adil Khan also claimed the throne, but Islam Shah emerged victorious in the ensuing power struggle. He continued many of his father's administrative and military reforms, maintaining stability during his reign until his death in 1553.

5History
Where was the Western Presidency situated in the early period of the East India Company?
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Answer: (A) Surat

Explanation

In the early period of the East India Company, the Western Presidency was situated in Surat. The British East India Company established its first factory in Surat in 1612, making it their initial presidency in India. Surat was a significant port city and a thriving commercial hub on India's western coast, which made it strategically valuable for the Company's trade ambitions. This presidency oversaw the Company's western factories and trade networks. However, the seat of the presidency was later moved to Bombay in 1687.

6History
The British empire is rotten to the core, corrupt in every direction and tyrannical and mean. This statement was made by
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Answer: (A) Sister Nivedita

Explanation

Sister Nivedita, born Margaret Elizabeth Noble, was an Irish social worker, author, and disciple of Swami Vivekananda who became deeply involved in the Indian nationalist movement. While initially holding a positive view of colonial rule, she grew disillusioned after witnessing the detrimental effects of British policies in India, including famines and their impact on education. Her strong criticism of the British administration's exploitative and unjust nature led her to declare that "The British empire is rotten to the core, corrupt in every direction and tyrannical and mean." This statement, found in her letters between 1900 and 1905, reflects her commitment to India's welfare and her active support for the independence movement.

7History
Who coined the slogan Quit India?
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Answer: (C) Yusuf Meher Ali

Explanation

Yusuf Meher Ali, a lesser-known but significant figure in the Indian independence movement, coined the powerful slogan "Quit India". He was a socialist leader and trade unionist who proposed the phrase during an All India Congress Committee meeting in Bombay in 1942. While Mahatma Gandhi popularized the slogan and launched the Quit India Movement, it was Meher Ali who originally conceived the impactful phrase. Meher Ali is also credited with coining the slogan "Simon Go Back" in 1928.

8Economy
Who authored the book, Planned Economy for India?
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Answer: (A) M.Visvesvaraya

Explanation

Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a distinguished Indian engineer, scholar, and statesman, authored the influential book "Planned Economy for India" in 1934. In this seminal work, he advocated for a systematic approach to economic development in India, emphasizing industrialization and efficient resource management. Visvesvaraya's vision laid the groundwork for India's later Five-Year Plans and earned him the title of the "Father of Indian Economic Planning". His proposals aimed to double the country's income and reduce reliance on agriculture by promoting industrial growth.

9HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which massacre is known as Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy of Madhya Pradesh?
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Answer: (A) Charan Paduka Massacre

Explanation

The Charan Paduka Massacre is known as the Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy of Madhya Pradesh due to striking similarities in the events. On January 14, 1931, a peaceful gathering of freedom fighters and villagers protesting against colonial taxes was taking place at Charan Paduka village in the Chhatarpur district. British political agent Colonel Fisher ordered his troops to open fire on the unarmed crowd, resulting in numerous deaths and injuries. This incident mirrored the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre of 1919, where General Dyer ordered firing on a peaceful assembly, leading to a large number of casualties.

10Geography
The longest river in India is
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Answer: (B) Ganga

Explanation

The Ganga, also known as the Ganges, is the longest river in India, stretching approximately 2,525 kilometers from its source in the Himalayas to the Bay of Bengal. While rivers like the Brahmaputra and Indus have greater overall lengths, a substantial portion of their courses lies outside India. The Brahmaputra flows for about 916 km within India, and the Indus for approximately 1,114 km in India. The Godavari, at about 1,465 km, is the second-longest river in India and the longest among the peninsular rivers. Therefore, considering the length within Indian territory, the Ganga holds the distinction of being the longest.

11Geography
The southernmost range of India is
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Answer: (C) Cardamome

Explanation

The Cardamom Hills are recognized as the southernmost mountain range in India. They are an extension of the Western Ghats, primarily situated in the Idukki district of Kerala and extending into southwestern Tamil Nadu. These hills are named for the cardamom spice cultivated there, along with pepper and coffee. In contrast, the Nilgiri Hills are located further north at the trijunction of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. The Annamalai Hills lie to the north of the Cardamom Hills, spanning parts of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. The Nallamalai Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats, situated in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, making them geographically much further north than the Cardamom Hills.

12Geography
Which State of India touches maximum State boundaries?
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Uttar Pradesh touches the maximum number of state boundaries in India. It shares its borders with eight Indian states: Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar. Additionally, it also borders the National Capital Territory of Delhi. This extensive network of shared boundaries makes Uttar Pradesh geographically unique among Indian states. In comparison, Madhya Pradesh borders five states, Karnataka borders six states, and Andhra Pradesh borders five states.

13Geography
The second largest river basin of India is
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Answer: (C) Godavari Basin

Explanation

The Godavari Basin is the second largest river basin in India. It covers a vast area of approximately 3,12,812 sq. km, extending across states like Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha, with smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, and Puducherry. The Godavari River, often called the "Dakshina Ganga" or Ganga of the South, originates from Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra and flows eastward before draining into the Bay of Bengal. The largest river basin in India is the Ganga Basin.

14Geography
Palk Strait is located between
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Answer: (C) India and SriLanka

Explanation

The Palk Strait is a narrow body of water that separates the southeastern coast of India from the northwestern coast of Sri Lanka. It connects the Bay of Bengal in the northeast with the Gulf of Mannar in the southwest. The strait is named after Robert Palk, a former governor of Madras Presidency during the British Raj. Adam's Bridge, a chain of shoals and islands, lies at its southern end, further delineating the separation between the two countries.

15Geography
Intertropical Convergence Zone [ITCZ] a low -pressure zone is located
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Answer: (D) at the equator

Explanation

The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low-pressure belt that encircles the Earth generally near the equator. It is the area where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge. The intense sun and warm water at the equator heat the air, causing it to rise, which leads to high cloudiness, frequent thunderstorms, and heavy rainfall. While its specific position varies seasonally, following the Sun, it remains in the vicinity of the equator.

16GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Kanha National Park is famous for
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Answer: (D) Tigers

Explanation

Kanha National Park is widely recognized as one of India's premier tiger reserves and is particularly famous for its significant population of Royal Bengal Tigers. It was designated a tiger reserve in 1973 as part of Project Tiger, an initiative to protect India's endangered tiger population. The park provides an ideal habitat for these majestic big cats, contributing to a thriving tiger population. In fact, Kanha National Park is considered one of the best habitats for tigers in India.

17GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Nepanagar is related to which of the following industries?
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Answer: (B) Newsprint paper

Explanation

Nepanagar is an industrial township in the Burhanpur district of Madhya Pradesh, renowned for its newsprint paper mill, Nepa Mills Limited. Established in 1947 and commencing production in 1956, Nepa Mills was a pioneer in newsprint manufacturing, being the first newsprint paper mill in India and Asia. The town's economy is largely centered around this industry, which originally utilized local Salai wood and bamboo as raw materials. Today, the company has transitioned to using waste paper for newsprint production.

18GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following places of Madhya Pradesh is on or nearest to 80 degree east longitude?
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Answer: (D) Katni

Explanation

To determine which place is on or nearest to 80 degrees east longitude, we need to compare the longitudes of the given options. Jabalpur is located at approximately 79.95° E longitude. Rewa is located at approximately 81.3° E longitude. Panna's longitude is around 80.18° E. Katni is situated at approximately 80.39° E longitude. Comparing these values, Katni (80.39° E) is the closest to 80° East longitude among the options provided.

19EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Bhavantar Bhugtan Yojana of Madhya Pradesh is related to which sector?
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Answer: (B) Agriculture

Explanation

The Bhavantar Bhugtan Yojana, or price difference payment scheme, is a program launched by the Government of Madhya Pradesh. Its primary objective is to protect farmers from losses incurred due to distress sales of their agricultural produce when market prices fall below the Minimum Support Price (MSP). Under this scheme, the government directly compensates farmers for the difference between the MSP and the price at which they sell their crops in the market. The scheme was initially introduced for various crops, including oilseeds and pulses, and has been extended to cover several Kharif and Rabi crops like soybean and mustard, clearly indicating its focus on the agriculture sector.

20Science and Technology
Boarder Security Force [BSF] is responsible for guarding on borders of which countries?
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Answer: (C) Pakistan and Bangladesh

Explanation

The Border Security Force (BSF) is India's primary border guarding organization. It is specifically responsible for securing India's international borders with Pakistan and Bangladesh. The BSF was established in 1965 following the Indo-Pakistani War to ensure the security of India's borders. Its duties include preventing trans-border crimes, unauthorized entry, and smuggling activities along these frontiers. While other forces guard borders with different countries, the BSF's mandate is focused on Pakistan and Bangladesh.

21Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
Who among the following has not been the acting Governor of Madhya Pradesh?
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Answer: (C) Justice G.D.Dixit

Explanation

Justice G.D. Dixit has not served as an acting Governor of Madhya Pradesh. Justice N.D. Ojha served as the acting Governor of Madhya Pradesh from February 10, 1993, to May 25, 1993. Justice P.V. Dixit was an acting Governor of Madhya Pradesh from February 3, 1966, to February 9, 1966, and again from October 2, 1966, to October 14, 1966. Justice G.P. Singh also held the position of acting Governor of Madhya Pradesh on multiple occasions, including from May 26, 1993, to May 29, 1993, and from December 26, 1987, to March 29, 1989.

22Polity and Governance
Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Governor has the power to promulgate ordinances during recess of Legislature?
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Answer: (D) 213

Explanation

Article 213 of the Constitution of India grants the Governor the power to promulgate ordinances when the State Legislative Assembly (or both Houses in states with a Legislative Council) is not in session. This power is exercised when the Governor is satisfied that immediate action is necessary. An ordinance issued under Article 213 has the same force and effect as an Act of the Legislature. However, it must be laid before the state legislature and ceases to operate six weeks after the reassembly of the legislature if not approved. The Governor cannot promulgate an ordinance without instructions from the President in certain cases, such as if a similar bill would have required the President's prior sanction.

23EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
What was the growth rate of Gross State Domestic Product [GSDP] of Madhya Pradesh from the year 2011-12 to 2017-18?
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Answer: (D) 14.39%

Explanation

The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Madhya Pradesh at current prices was ₹3,15,562 crore in the financial year 2011-12. This figure increased to ₹7,26,284 crore by the financial year 2017-18. Calculating the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) over this six-year period reveals a growth rate of approximately 14.87%. The average of the annual nominal growth rates for GSDP during this period is approximately 14.98%. Both these calculations are closest to option D, 14.39%, indicating that the question refers to the nominal growth rate of GSDP.

24Polity and Governance
In which year was the office of the Parliamentary Secretary created first time in Independent India?
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Answer: (A) 1951

Explanation

The office of the Parliamentary Secretary in India was first created in 1951. These secretaries were appointed to assist ministers in their parliamentary work. This position, similar to Parliamentary Private Secretaries in the United Kingdom, does not have a statutory origin or derive authority from the Constitution of India. The Prime Minister administers the oath to Parliamentary Secretaries, not the President.

25Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Article of the India Constitution Related State
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Answer: (C) 371 C Meghalaya

Explanation

Article 371 C of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions with respect to the State of Manipur, not Meghalaya. This article was inserted by the Constitution (Twenty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1971, to address the unique socio-political and economic landscape of Manipur's Hill Districts. It allows for the creation of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from the Hill Areas. In contrast, Article 371 A is for Nagaland, Article 371 B is for Assam, and Article 371 D is for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

26Polity and Governance
How many seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha?
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Answer: (D) 84

Explanation

There are 84 seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SC) in the Lok Sabha. This number was established following the Delimitation Commission's order in 2008. This reservation is mandated by Article 330 of the Indian Constitution, which ensures representation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People. The allocation of these seats is based on the proportion of the Scheduled Caste population in the respective states and Union Territories.

27Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not correctly matched? | State | Allocation of Seats in the Rajya Sabha | |----------------|---------------------------------------| | a. Andhra Pradesh | 18 | | b. Odisha | 10 | | c. Tamil Nadu | 18 | | d. Maharashtra | 19 |
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Answer: (A) a

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh currently has 11 seats in the Rajya Sabha. The state's allocation was reduced from 18 to 11 seats after the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act of 2014, which led to the formation of Telangana. Therefore, the statement that Andhra Pradesh has 18 seats is incorrect. Odisha has 10 Rajya Sabha seats, Tamil Nadu has 18, and Maharashtra has 19, making these options correctly matched.

28HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
In which year was Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education established?
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Answer: (B) 1957

Explanation

Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE) was established in August 1957. It was initially known as Lakshmibai College of Physical Education (LCPE) and was founded by the Ministry of Education & Culture, Government of India. The institute is located in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, and was established in the centenary year of the First War of Independence. It was later renamed Lakshmibai National College of Physical Education (LNCPE) in 1973 and then conferred "Deemed to be University" status in 1995, becoming Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE).

29Art and Culture
En Passant is related to which game?
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Answer: (D) Chess

Explanation

En Passant is a special pawn capturing move unique to the game of chess. It allows a pawn to capture an opponent's pawn that has just moved two squares from its starting position and landed directly beside the first pawn. The capturing pawn moves to the square the enemy pawn "passed over," as if the enemy pawn had only moved one square. This capture must be made immediately on the turn after the two-square advance, or the option is forfeited. The rule was introduced to prevent pawns from easily evading capture by taking advantage of the two-square initial move.

30Art and Culture
The first Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award was given to whom?
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Answer: (A) Viswanathan Anand

Explanation

The first Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, India's highest sporting honor, was bestowed upon chess grandmaster Viswanathan Anand. He received this prestigious award in the year 1991-1992 for his exceptional achievements in the sport of chess and his outstanding performances on the international stage. Anand became India's first Grandmaster in 1988 and has been a pioneer in popularizing chess in the country. The award, now known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, recognizes spectacular and outstanding performance in sports.

31Art and Culture
Libero is related to which game?
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Answer: (D) Volleyball

Explanation

The Libero is a specialized defensive player in volleyball. This player wears a contrasting jersey and is restricted to playing in the back row. Their primary role is to excel in passing, digging, and receiving serves, contributing significantly to the team's ball control and keeping rallies alive. Liberos cannot serve, block, or attack the ball when it is entirely above the net. The position was introduced in 1998 to enhance defensive play and create longer, more exciting rallies.

32Art and Culture
Who was the first recipient of Dronacharya Award in 1985?
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Answer: (D) All of them

Explanation

The Dronacharya Award, instituted in 1985, recognizes outstanding coaches in sports and games in India. In its inaugural year, three distinguished coaches were honored with the award. These first recipients were O.M. Nambiar for Athletics, Om Prakash Bhardwaj for Boxing, and Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat (B.B. Bhagwat) for Wrestling. Since all three individuals listed in the options received the award in 1985, "All of them" is the correct answer.

33Quantitative Aptitude
What is the distance of Marathon Race?
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Answer: (C) 26 miles 385 yards

Explanation

The official distance of a marathon race is 26 miles and 385 yards. This distance was standardized by the International Amateur Athletic Federation (IAAF) in 1921. The specific length was established during the 1908 London Olympics, when the race route was extended to start at Windsor Castle and finish in front of the royal box at the Olympic stadium. This extended the original approximate 25-mile distance to precisely 26 miles and 385 yards, which is equivalent to 42.195 kilometers.

34Art and Culture
Which Indian player has won Gold Medal in Olympics?
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Answer: (C) Abhinav Bindra

Explanation

Abhinav Bindra is the correct answer because he became the first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold medal. He achieved this historic feat in the men's 10-meter air rifle event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics. In contrast, Gagan Narang won a bronze medal at the 2012 London Olympics, and Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore secured a silver medal at the 2004 Athens Olympics. Sushil Kumar won a bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics and a silver medal at the 2012 London Olympics.

35Art and Culture
The National Sports Day is celebrated on which day?
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Answer: (C) 29th August

Explanation

National Sports Day in India is celebrated on August 29th each year. This day commemorates the birth anniversary of the legendary Indian field hockey player, Major Dhyan Chand. Major Dhyan Chand, often referred to as the "Wizard of Hockey," played a pivotal role in India's three Olympic gold medal victories in hockey in 1928, 1932, and 1936. The observance of National Sports Day aims to honor his contributions and achievements, inspire young athletes, and promote the importance of sports and fitness across the nation. On this day, national sports awards are also presented by the President of India to recognize outstanding sportspersons and coaches.

36Art and Culture
The player who was awarded with Arjuna Award, Dronacharya Award, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna and Padma Shri is
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Answer: (D) Pullela Gopichand

Explanation

Pullela Gopichand is the only individual among the options to have received all four prestigious awards. He was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2000 for his achievements as a badminton player. Later, in recognition of his coaching excellence, he received the Dronacharya Award in 2009. His outstanding contribution to Indian sports was further acknowledged with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2001. Finally, he was honored with the Padma Shri in 2005, completing the set of these significant national accolades.

37GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following valleys of Madhya Pradesh is not a rift valley?
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Answer: (D) Chambal Valley

Explanation

The Narmada and Tapi valleys are well-known examples of rift valleys in Madhya Pradesh, formed by the down-dropping of land blocks between parallel faults. The Narmada River flows westward through a graben, a type of rift valley, situated between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges. Similarly, the Tapi River also flows through a rift valley. The Son Valley is also associated with the Son-Narmada Lineament, a significant tectonic feature. In contrast, the Chambal Valley is characterized by extensive badland topography and ravines, which are primarily a result of severe soil erosion and fluvial processes, rather than being a geological rift valley formed by tectonic rifting.

38GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Dhoogparh, the highest peak of Madhya Pradesh, is located at
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Answer: (B) Mahadeo Range

Explanation

Dhoopgarh, also known as Dhupgarh, is indeed the highest peak in Madhya Pradesh, standing at an elevation of 1,352 meters (4,436 ft). This prominent peak is located within the Mahadeo Hills, which form the northern section of the Satpura Range in central India. The Mahadeo Hills traverse districts such as Betul, Chhindwara, and Narmadapuram in southern Madhya Pradesh. Dhoopgarh is situated near the popular hill station of Pachmarhi, which is often referred to as the "Queen of Satpura".

39GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following rivers does not join river Chambal?
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Answer: (C) Betwa

Explanation

The Betwa River is a tributary of the Yamuna River, not the Chambal River. It originates in the Vindhya Range in Madhya Pradesh and flows northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh before joining the Yamuna near Hamirpur. In contrast, the Chambal River's major tributaries include the Kshipra, Kali Sindh, and Parbati rivers. The Chambal also eventually joins the Yamuna River, but at a different confluence point further downstream.

40GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following districts of Madhya Pradesh touches the State boundaries of Gujarat and Rajasthan?
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Answer: (A) Jhabua

Explanation

Jhabua district, situated in the western part of Madhya Pradesh, uniquely shares its boundaries with both Gujarat and Rajasthan. To its west, Jhabua borders the districts of Dahod and Chhota Udaipur in Gujarat. Additionally, the district's northern side touches the Banswara district of Rajasthan. This geographical placement makes Jhabua the correct answer as it is the only district among the options that connects with both states.

41GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
The climate of Madhya Pradesh is
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Answer: (D) monsoon

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh experiences a monsoon climate, which is characterized by distinct seasonal variations. The state receives over 85% to 90% of its total annual rainfall during the southwest monsoon season, typically from June to September. This heavy rainfall during specific months is a defining feature of a monsoon climate. While Madhya Pradesh also has hot summers and mild winters, the dominant influence of the monsoon winds on its precipitation patterns makes "monsoon" the accurate classification.

42GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
With which mineral production is Malaj Khand Associated?
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Answer: (B) Copper

Explanation

Malaj Khand, located in the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh, is famously associated with copper mineral production. It is home to the Malanjkhand Copper Project, which hosts India's largest open-pit copper mine and is the single largest copper deposit in the country. This project, operated by Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL), accounts for nearly 70% of India's copper reserves and contributes approximately 80% of HCL's total copper production. The region's economy and community are largely centered around these significant copper mining operations.

43GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which district of Madhya Pradesh has highest percentage of tribal population?
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Answer: (A) Jhabua

Explanation

Jhabua district in Madhya Pradesh has a very high percentage of tribal population. According to available data, Jhabua district has the highest proportion of Scheduled Tribes, with 86.8 percent of its total population belonging to tribal communities. This makes it the district with the highest percentage among the given options. The Bhil tribe is a major tribal group predominantly found in the western districts of Madhya Pradesh, including Jhabua. Other districts like Barwani (67%), Dindori (64.5%), and Mandla (57.2%) also have significant tribal populations, but Jhabua's percentage is higher.

44Art and CultureMadhya Pradesh-specific
Gujari Mahal was built by
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Answer: (C) Man Singh

Explanation

Gujari Mahal in Gwalior was constructed by Raja Man Singh Tomar in the 15th century. He built it for his ninth wife, Queen Mrignayani, who was a Gujar princess. The palace is a testament to the king's devotion and admiration for his queen. It is now an archaeological museum, housing various artifacts.

45GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following cities of Madhya Pradesh is not located on NH-3?
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Answer: (D) Shujalpur

Explanation

Shujalpur is not located on NH-3. NH-3, also known as Agra-Mumbai Road, passes through cities like Sendhwa, Mhow, and Sarangpur in Madhya Pradesh. Shujalpur is situated on NH-52 (formerly NH-27 and NH-12), which connects Sangrur in Punjab to Ankola in Karnataka. Therefore, Shujalpur is the correct answer as it is not on NH-3.

46EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Is Madhya Pradesh Budget, 2017-18, the provision for AMRUT Scheme is
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Answer: (C) Rs.700 crores

Explanation

In the Madhya Pradesh Budget for the financial year 2017-18, a provision of Rs. 700 crores was allocated for the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) Scheme. This allocation was aimed at funding urban development projects under the AMRUT mission across eligible cities in the state. The AMRUT scheme, a flagship program of the Government of India, focuses on providing basic urban amenities such as water supply, sewerage, and urban transport. State governments make specific budgetary provisions to support the implementation of these projects within their respective states.

47GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which one of the following districts of Madhya Pradesh has more than 1000 as sex ratio?
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Answer: (D) Dindori

Explanation

As per the 2011 Census, Dindori district in Madhya Pradesh has a sex ratio of 1002 females per 1000 males. In contrast, Anuppur district has a sex ratio of 976 females per 1000 males, Burhanpur district has 951 females per 1000 males, and Indore district has 928 females per 1000 males. Thus, Dindori is the only district among the given options with a sex ratio exceeding 1000.

48Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
Who among the following was not acted as the Chief Secretary of Madhya Pradesh?
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Answer: (D) P.K.Noronha

Explanation

R.P. Naik, K. Dubey (B.K. Dubey), and R.S. Khanna all served as Chief Secretaries of Madhya Pradesh at different times. R.P. Naik held the position, contributing to governance in the state. R.S. Khanna was a former Madhya Pradesh Chief Secretary who retired in March 1990. While R.P. Noronha (Ronald Carlton Vivian Pidade Noronha) was a notable and long-serving Chief Secretary of Madhya Pradesh, the individual P.K. Noronha has not held this post. Therefore, P.K. Noronha is the correct answer as he was not a Chief Secretary of Madhya Pradesh.

49Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
In which year was Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhinivam passed?
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Answer: (B) 1995

Explanation

The Madhya Pradesh Zila Yojana Samiti Adhiniyam was passed in the year 1995. This Act received the assent of the Governor on May 19, 1995, and was subsequently published in the Madhya Pradesh Gazette. Its primary purpose was to establish and regulate District Planning Committees (Zila Yojana Samitis) in each district of Madhya Pradesh. These committees are crucial for consolidating plans from Panchayats and Municipalities to prepare a comprehensive draft development plan for the entire district, in line with Article 243ZD of the Constitution of India.

50EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Which organization is giving financial support for Tejaswini Rural Women s Empowerment Programme ?
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Answer: (C) IFAD

Explanation

The Tejaswini Rural Women's Empowerment Programme receives financial support from the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD). IFAD is an international financial institution and a specialized United Nations agency that works to address poverty and hunger in rural areas of developing countries. The program aims to empower poor rural women by strengthening self-help groups and providing access to financial services and other opportunities. It was implemented in selected districts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, with funding from IFAD, the respective state governments, and local financial institutions.

51Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
Mukhya Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana in Madhya Pradesh was implemented from which year ?
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Answer: (C) 2010 11

Explanation

The Mukhya Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana in Madhya Pradesh was launched in the year 2010-11. This scheme aimed to provide road connectivity to villages not covered under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), specifically targeting general category villages with a population of less than 500 and tribal-dominated revenue villages with a population of less than 250. The Chief Minister announced this rural roads program in 2010 to improve connectivity and promote rural development.

52EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
From which year was MP incubation and Start up Policy implemented?
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Answer: (D) 2016

Explanation

The Madhya Pradesh Incubation and Startup Policy was implemented in the year 2016. This policy, officially known as the 'MP Incubation & Startup Policy 2016', was notified on October 1, 2016. It was formulated by the Government of Madhya Pradesh through its MSME Department to align with the 'Startup India' initiative of the Government of India and to foster an entrepreneurial ecosystem within the state. The policy aimed to provide various provisions and incentives to support startups and incubators.

53HistoryMadhya Pradesh-specific
In January 2018, Friends of MP Conclave was held in which city ?
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Answer: (C) Indore

Explanation

The Friends of MP Conclave was held in Indore from January 3rd to 4th, 2018. This event was organized by the Government of Madhya Pradesh to connect with people of Indian origin, particularly those with roots in the state, and others interested in fostering relationships with Madhya Pradesh. The conclave aimed to deliberate on the vision and future of the 'Friends of MP' initiative and how it could contribute to the state's socio-economic growth. Over 300 participants from around the globe attended the two-day event.

54Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
How many minimum hours of power supply is assured for rural agriculture purpose in Atal Jyoti Yojana 2013?
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Answer: (B) 12

Explanation

Under the Atal Jyoti Yojana 2013, launched by the Madhya Pradesh government, a minimum of 12 hours of power supply was assured for rural agriculture purposes. The scheme aimed to provide round-the-clock power for non-farming sectors and 12 hours for the agriculture sector. This assured supply was intended to support farmers with their irrigation and other agricultural activities. Former President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, during the launch of the Atal Jyoti Abhiyan, specifically highlighted the target of providing 12 hours of electricity for the agriculture sector.

55Science and Technology
The collection of linked information residing on computers which is available through internet is called
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Answer: (C) World Wide Web

Explanation

The World Wide Web, often shortened to "the Web," is a global system of interconnected computer networks that uses the internet's standard communication protocols. It is a system of interlinked hypertext documents and other web resources that are accessed via the internet. This collection allows users to access and navigate a vast amount of linked information residing on computers worldwide. Therefore, it accurately describes the collection of linked information available through the internet.

56Science and Technology
The first page displayed by Web browser after opening a web site is called
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Answer: (A) Homepage

Explanation

The first page displayed by a web browser after opening a website is universally known as the homepage. It serves as the main entry point and often provides an overview of the website's content, with links to other sections. The homepage is typically located at the root of the website's domain and is designed to give visitors a positive initial experience and help them navigate the site. Users can also set a preferred homepage for their web browser, which will be the first page they see when the application opens.

57Science and Technology
_____ offers services such as search capabilities, e-mail, news, stock price, weather information, sports and entertainment.
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Answer: (B) Portal

Explanation

A portal is a web-based platform that gathers information from various sources and presents it in a single, unified interface. It offers personalized access to a range of services, often requiring user authentication. These services commonly include search capabilities, e-mail, news, stock prices, weather information, sports, and entertainment. Unlike a general website, a portal is designed to provide a customized and interactive experience to specific users based on their roles or needs.

58Science and Technology
Which of the following acronyms is normally used to describe unsolicited junk e-mails ?
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Answer: (D) SPAM

Explanation

SPAM is the acronym normally used to describe unsolicited junk e-mails. These are typically unwanted messages sent in bulk, often for commercial advertising, phishing, or spreading malware. CRAM, DRAM, and JAM are not terms commonly associated with unsolicited junk emails. CRAM and DRAM refer to types of computer memory (Static Random Access Memory and Dynamic Random Access Memory, respectively), while JAM is not a standard acronym for this context.

59Science and Technology
Am intentionally disruptive software that spreads from computer to computer is known as
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Answer: (D) virus

Explanation

A computer virus is a type of malicious software that can copy itself and spread from one computer to another, often without the user's knowledge or permission. These viruses are designed to disrupt system operations, damage data, or steal information. In contrast, a search engine is a program used to find information on the internet, chat software facilitates real-time communication, and e-mail is a method for sending electronic messages. Therefore, a virus is the correct answer as it fits the description of intentionally disruptive software that spreads.

60Science and Technology
Which of the following is not an essential component required for video-conferencing system?
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Answer: (C) Telephone

Explanation

Video conferencing systems primarily rely on a video camera, display device, and microphone to transmit and receive both video and audio over an internet connection or network. While a telephone is used for audio communication, it is not an essential component for a video conferencing system itself. The audio aspect of video conferencing is typically handled through the microphone and speakers connected to the computer or dedicated conferencing hardware, utilizing the same network connection as the video. Therefore, a separate telephone line or device is not a prerequisite for a video conference.

61Science and Technology
Which of the following are the two essential features of cyber crime ?
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Answer: (B) Offender computer skills and victim ignorance of computer technology

Explanation

Cybercrime often relies on the perpetrator possessing specialized computer skills to exploit vulnerabilities and execute malicious acts. Conversely, a victim's lack of knowledge or awareness regarding computer security and online threats makes them susceptible to various cyberattacks. This disparity in technical understanding allows offenders to manipulate systems or individuals, making the victim's ignorance a key factor in the success of cybercrimes. Therefore, the combination of an offender's technical prowess and a victim's lack of awareness forms two essential features enabling cybercrime.

62Science and Technology
The term _____ refers to an individual, who breaks into computer systems without authorization, deliberately defaces Web sites for fraudulent purpose.
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Answer: (C) cracker

Explanation

The term "cracker" specifically refers to an individual who gains unauthorized access to computer systems with malicious intent, often to steal data, cause damage, or deface websites for fraudulent purposes. While a "hacker" can be a broad term, sometimes referring to individuals who explore systems without malicious intent (white hat hackers), a cracker's actions are inherently destructive and illegal. A "white hat" hacker works to improve security, and "attacker" is a more general term that doesn't fully capture the specific act of breaking into systems for fraudulent defacement. Therefore, "cracker" is the most precise term for the described individual.

63Science and Technology
When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to flooding of fake network traffic, it is known as
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Answer: (D) denial of service attack

Explanation

A denial of service (DoS) attack occurs when legitimate users are unable to access a website or online service due to malicious actors overwhelming the system with fake network traffic. This flood of traffic consumes the website's resources, making it unavailable to its intended users. The goal of a DoS attack is to disrupt normal operations and prevent access to the service. Options A, B, and C describe different types of malicious software or activities, but they do not directly refer to the act of making a website inaccessible by flooding it with traffic.

64Polity and Governance
Under which section of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes [Prevention of Atrocities] Act, 1989 is economic boycott defined?
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Answer: (B) Section 2[b c]

Explanation

Section 2[bc] of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, specifically defines 'economic boycott'. This definition includes actions such as refusing to deal with, work for, or do business with another person belonging to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe. It also covers denying opportunities, including access to services or contractual opportunities, or abstaining from professional or business relations that would ordinarily be maintained with another person. This section clarifies what constitutes an economic boycott, making such acts punishable under the Act if committed against members of SC/ST communities.

65Polity and Governance
Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes [Prevention of Atrocities] Act, 1989 is anticipatory bail prohibited?
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Answer: (C) Section 18

Explanation

Section 18 of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, specifically bars the application of Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which deals with anticipatory bail. This means that individuals accused of offenses under the SC/ST Act cannot be granted anticipatory bail. The legislative intent behind this prohibition is to prevent potential accused persons from evading arrest and to ensure that victims from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes receive prompt justice and protection. This provision aims to strengthen the Act's effectiveness in combating atrocities against these vulnerable communities.

66Polity and Governance
Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Rules, 1995 has Material for Annual Report been provided?
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Answer: (A) Section 18

Explanation

Section 18 of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Rules, 1995, specifically addresses "Material for Annual Report". This section mandates that the State Government must annually, before March 31st, submit a report to the Central Government. The report details the measures taken to implement the provisions of the Act and the various schemes/plans formulated during the preceding calendar year. This ensures accountability and monitoring of the Act's implementation. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

67Polity and Governance
Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribe [Prevention of Atrocities] Act, 1989, whoever, not being a member of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe, causes physical harm or mental agony of a member of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe on the allegation of practicing witchcraft or being a witch shall be punishable
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Answer: (A) with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but which may extend to five years and with fine.

Explanation

Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, specifically Section 3(1)(p) (as amended in 2016), whoever, not being a member of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe, causes physical harm or mental agony to a member of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe on the allegation of practicing witchcraft or being a witch, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but which may extend to five years and with fine. This provision was introduced to address specific atrocities related to witchcraft accusations. Therefore, option A accurately reflects the prescribed punishment under the Act. The other options do not align with the specific imprisonment terms and fines stipulated in the legislation.

68Polity and Governance
How many Sections are there Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes [Prevention of Atrocities] Act, 1989?
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Answer: (C) 23

Explanation

The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, contains a total of 23 sections. This Act was enacted by the Parliament of India to prevent atrocities and hate crimes against members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. It came into force on January 30, 1990. The Act also provides for the establishment of Special Courts for the trial of offenses and for the relief and rehabilitation of victims.

69Polity and Governance
Under which one of the following Sections of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has power of State Government to impose collective fine been provided?
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Answer: (B) Section 10 A

Explanation

Section 10A of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, specifically grants the State Government the power to impose a collective fine. This section allows the State Government to impose such a fine if, after an inquiry, it is satisfied that the inhabitants of an area are concerned in, or abetting, the commission of any offense punishable under the Act. It also covers situations where inhabitants harbor offenders, fail to assist in their apprehension, or suppress material evidence. The collective fine is apportioned among the inhabitants based on their respective means.

70Polity and Governance
Under which one of the following Sections of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has protection of action taken in good faith been provided?
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Answer: (D) Section 14 A

Explanation

Section 14A of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, explicitly provides for the protection of action taken in good faith. This section states that no suit, prosecution, or other legal proceeding shall lie against the Central Government or a State Government for anything which is in good faith done or intended to be done under this Act. It further clarifies that no legal proceeding shall lie against these governments for any damage caused or likely to be caused by such good faith actions. This provision safeguards government entities when they act with honest intent in carrying out the objectives of the Act. The other options, Section 16A, Section 15A, and Section 16B, deal with different aspects such as the non-applicability of the Probation of Offenders Act, the duty of the State Government to ensure rights, and the power to make rules, respectively.

71Polity and Governance
Under which of the following Sections of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 has offences by companies been provided?
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Answer: (C) Section 14

Explanation

Section 14 of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 specifically addresses "Offences by companies". This section stipulates that if a company commits an offense under the Act, every person responsible for the conduct of the company's business at the time of the offense shall be deemed guilty and liable for punishment. It also includes provisions for cases where an offense is committed with the consent or connivance of any director, manager, secretary, or other officer of the company. The other sections listed, such as Section 10 (Abetment of offence), Section 12 (Presumption by Courts in certain cases), and Section 16 (Act to override other laws), deal with different aspects of the Act.

72Polity and Governance
The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 extends to
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Answer: (A) whole of India

Explanation

The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, extends to the whole of India. This is explicitly stated in Section 1(2) of the Act itself, which declares its applicability across the entire nation. The Act was enacted to abolish "untouchability" and forbid its practice in any form, ensuring civil rights for all citizens. Therefore, its provisions are enforced throughout all states and Union Territories of India.

73Polity and Governance
Which statement is true in relation to the Protection of Human Rights Act?
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Answer: (B) The Act came into force on 28th September, 1993

Explanation

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, came into force on September 28, 1993. This date is explicitly stated in Section 1(3) of the Act itself. The Act was enacted to establish a National Human Rights Commission, State Human Rights Commissions, and Human Rights Courts for the better protection of human rights in India. Therefore, option B is the correct statement regarding the commencement of the Act.

74Polity and Governance
Who is not the ex officio member of the National Human Rights Commission?
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Answer: (B) The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India

Explanation

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) includes several ex officio members to ensure a broad representation of human rights concerns. These ex officio members are the chairpersons of various national commissions. Specifically, the Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities, the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, the Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women are all ex officio members of the NHRC. Additionally, the Chairpersons of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities are also ex officio members. The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India is not listed among these ex officio members.

75Polity and Governance
The term of office of members of the National Human Rights Commission from the date on which he/she enters upon his/her office is
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Answer: (B) five years or till the age of 70 years

Explanation

Prior to the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, the term of office for the Chairperson and members of the National Human Rights Commission was five years from the date they entered office, or until they attained the age of 70 years, whichever occurred earlier. This provision ensured a substantial tenure while also setting an age limit for holding the position. The 2019 amendment subsequently reduced this term to three years, while retaining the age limit of 70 years. Therefore, based on the original act, option B is correct.

76Polity and Governance
In relation to offences described under Section 175, Section 178, Section 179, Section 180 or Section 228 of the Indian Penal Code, the Human Rights Commission is to be deemed
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Answer: (B) Civil Court

Explanation

The Human Rights Commission is deemed a Civil Court in relation to offenses described under Sections 175, 178, 179, 180, or 228 of the Indian Penal Code. This is explicitly stated in Section 13(4) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The Act grants the Commission all the powers of a civil court when inquiring into complaints, including summoning witnesses, requiring document production, and receiving evidence on affidavits. These specific IPC sections deal with offenses like omitting to produce documents, refusing to take an oath, refusing to answer questions, refusing to sign statements, or intentionally insulting or interrupting a public servant in a judicial proceeding. Therefore, when such offenses occur in the presence or view of the Human Rights Commission, it functions with the authority of a Civil Court.

77Polity and Governance
While dealing with complaints of violation of Human Rights by the members of the armed forces, the Commission either on its own motion or on receipt of a petition will
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Answer: (C) seek a report from the Central Government

Explanation

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has specific procedures for handling complaints against members of the armed forces. When the Commission receives a petition or takes suo motu cognizance of a human rights violation by armed forces members, it does not conduct an inquiry itself. Instead, the Commission seeks a report from the Central Government. The Central Government is then required to inform the Commission of the action taken on its recommendations within three months. This limitation on the NHRC's direct investigative powers in matters involving the armed forces is a key aspect of its functioning.

78Polity and Governance
A Sitting Judge of the High Court or a Sitting District Judge can be appointed as a member of the State Human Rights Commission after consultation with
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Answer: (B) the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State

Explanation

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, mandates a specific consultation process for the appointment of judicial members to the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC). While the Governor appoints the chairperson and members of the SHRC based on the recommendations of a committee, a further consultation is required for sitting judges. Specifically, a sitting Judge of the High Court or a sitting District Judge can only be appointed as a member of the State Human Rights Commission after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State. This ensures that the head of the judiciary in the state is involved in the decision to appoint a serving judge to the human rights body.

79Polity and Governance
In the event of occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the Chairperson of the State Commission, who can authorize one of the members to act as Chairperson?
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Answer: (D) The Governor

Explanation

In the event of a vacancy in the office of the Chairperson of a State Commission, the Governor of the state is empowered to authorize one of the members of the Commission to act as the Chairperson. This power is typically granted under the relevant act establishing the State Commission, such as the State Human Rights Commission Act or similar legislation for other commissions. The Governor, as the constitutional head of the state, plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of such independent bodies by making interim arrangements. This provision ensures that the work of the commission does not halt due to a temporary vacancy in the Chairperson's office.

80Polity and Governance
Every member of the Commission, State Commission and every officer appointed or authorized by the Commission or State Commission to exercise functions under the Protection of Human Rights Act is to be deemed
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Answer: (B) Public Servant

Explanation

Section 39 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, explicitly states that "Every Member of the Commission, State Commission and every officer appointed or authorised by the Commission or the State Commission to exercise functions under this Act shall be deemed to be a public servant within the meaning of section 21 of the Indian Penal Code." This provision clarifies their legal status, ensuring they are subject to the same responsibilities and protections as other public servants. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

81Polity and Governance
The State Commission submits its annual report to the
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Answer: (B) State Government

Explanation

The State Public Service Commissions, including the Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission (MPPSC), are constitutional bodies established under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution. These commissions are responsible for recruiting candidates for various state government jobs through competitive examinations. While the annual report of the MPPSC is presented to the Governor, it is ultimately the State Government that is responsible for laying the report before the State Legislature. This process ensures accountability and transparency in the functioning of the commission to the elected representatives of the state. Therefore, the State Commission submits its annual report to the State Government.

82Polity and Governance
In the definition of armed forces under the Protection of Human Rights Act, which of the following is not included?
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Answer: (B) Armed Forces of the State

Explanation

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, specifically defines "armed forces" in Section 2(1)(a). This definition includes the naval, military, and air forces, and further encompasses any other armed forces of the Union. The Act's definition is limited to forces under the Union government. It does not extend to or include the "Armed Forces of the State," making option B the correct answer because it falls outside this specified scope.

83GeographyMadhya Pradesh-specific
Name the State Bird of Madhya Pradesh
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Answer: (C) Paradise flycatcher

Explanation

The Paradise flycatcher, specifically the Asian Paradise Flycatcher (Terpsiphone paradisi), is indeed the State Bird of Madhya Pradesh. This beautiful passerine bird is known for its distinctive long tail streamers in males, which can grow up to 30 cm. It is also locally known as 'Dudhraj' in Madhya Pradesh. These birds prefer thick forests and well-wooded habitats, feeding primarily on insects.

84Polity and Governance
What is the full form of NGT?
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Answer: (A) National Green Tribunal

Explanation

NGT stands for National Green Tribunal. It is a specialized judicial body established in India under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010. The NGT was formed to ensure the effective and expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forests, and other natural resources. Its principal bench is in New Delhi, with regional benches in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai. India is the third country in the world, after Australia and New Zealand, to establish such a dedicated environmental tribunal.

85Economy
Name the first State of India which is depend on organic farming.
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Answer: (C) Sikkim

Explanation

Sikkim became the first fully organic state in India in 2016. The initiative to transition to organic farming began in 2003 with a vision to ban chemical fertilizers and pesticides. This was driven by a desire to protect the environment, improve soil health, and promote healthier lifestyles for its residents. The Sikkim Organic Mission, launched in 2010, played a crucial role in fast-tracking this conversion, leading to all of its agricultural land being certified organic by 2015. In recognition of its efforts, Sikkim was awarded the prestigious Future Policy Gold Award by the United Nations Food and Agricultural Organization in 2018.

86Geography
The main air pollutant[s] in metropolitan cities is/are
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Answer: (C) CO₂ SO₂ and NO₂

Explanation

Carbon dioxide (CO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂), and nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) are significant air pollutants in metropolitan cities, primarily due to human activities. CO₂ is largely a product of fossil fuel combustion from vehicles, power generation, and industrial processes. SO₂ mainly originates from the burning of sulfur-containing fossil fuels, particularly coal and heavy oil in power plants and industrial facilities. NO₂ is predominantly generated from the combustion of fossil fuels in motor vehicles, power plants, and industrial boilers. These pollutants contribute to various environmental and health issues, including respiratory problems, smog, and acid rain.

87Geography
Which of the following is a medicinal crop?
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Answer: (B) Aloe vera

Explanation

Aloe vera is widely recognized as a medicinal crop due to its numerous therapeutic properties. Its succulent leaves contain a gel rich in vitamins, minerals, enzymes, and amino acids, which are beneficial for health. This gel is commonly used in traditional and modern medicine for its anti-inflammatory, antiseptic, and wound-healing effects. It is also utilized in cosmetics and skincare products for its moisturizing and soothing qualities. Sugarcane, cotton, and mahua, while economically important, are primarily cultivated for sugar production, fiber, and oil/alcohol respectively, and are not primarily considered medicinal crops.

88Science and Technology
The sunlight energy used by green plants in photosynthesis is transformed into
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Answer: (A) Chemical energy

Explanation

Green plants capture sunlight energy during photosynthesis. This light energy is then converted into chemical energy, which is stored in the bonds of organic molecules like glucose. This transformation is crucial for life on Earth, as it provides the energy foundation for most ecosystems. Therefore, the sunlight energy is ultimately transformed into chemical energy.

89Science and Technology
What is the audible range [hearing range] of humans?
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Answer: (A) 20Hz20000Hz

Explanation

The audible range, or hearing range, of humans is generally considered to be from 20 Hertz (Hz) to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz). This means that humans can typically perceive sounds with frequencies between these two limits. While this is the commonly stated range, individual hearing can vary, and factors like age can lead to a decrease in the ability to hear higher frequencies. Sounds below 20 Hz are known as infrasound, and those above 20,000 Hz are called ultrasound, both of which are generally inaudible to humans.

90Geography
Which of the following is a desert region?
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Answer: (A) Sindhu area

Explanation

The Sindhu (Indus) area, particularly its eastern parts, encompasses the Thar Desert, which is a large arid region. This desert experiences very low rainfall and extreme temperatures, characteristic of a desert environment. In contrast, the Gangetic area is a fertile plain known for its rich alluvial soil and high agricultural productivity. The Assam area is characterized by high rainfall and lush vegetation, while the Central India area, though it can have dry periods, is not predominantly a desert region.

91Geography
When is the International Earth Day celebrated?
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Answer: (C) 22nd April

Explanation

International Earth Day is celebrated annually on April 22nd. This date was chosen by U.S. Senator Gaylord Nelson and activist Denis Hayes for the first Earth Day in 1970, aiming to maximize student participation in environmental teach-ins. The United Nations General Assembly officially designated April 22nd as International Mother Earth Day in 2009. The day serves to demonstrate support for environmental protection and raise awareness about environmental issues globally.

92Art and Culture
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Names of Books Authors
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Answer: (D) Island of Lost Girls Kunal Basu

Explanation

The book "The Burning Forest" is authored by Nandini Sundar, making option A a correct match. "One Indian Girl" was written by Chetan Bhagat, confirming option B as correctly paired. Kiran Doshi is the author of "Jinnah Often Came to Our House," so option C is also a correct match. However, "Island of Lost Girls" is written by Jennifer McMahon or Alex Marwood, not Kunal Basu. Kunal Basu is known for other works such as "The Opium Clerk" and "The Japanese Wife." Therefore, the pair "Island of Lost Girls Kunal Basu" is not correctly matched.

93Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
Who among the following women won the by-edition in 2017 for the one Rajya Sabha seat from Madhya Pradesh?
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Answer: (C) Sampatiya Uikey

Explanation

Sampatiya Uikey won the by-election in 2017 for the one Rajya Sabha seat from Madhya Pradesh. The by-election was necessitated by the death of Union Minister Anil Madhav Dave. Sampatiya Uikey, a tribal leader from the Bharatiya Janata Party, was elected unopposed to the Rajya Sabha on July 31, 2017. She served the remainder of Dave's term until June 2022.

94Polity and Governance
How many times India and Pakistan exchanged the list of their nuclear installation under an agreement that aims to prevent both sides from attacking such installations till January 2018?
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Answer: (C) 27

Explanation

India and Pakistan annually exchange lists of their nuclear installations under the Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities. This agreement, signed in 1988 and effective from 1991, mandates both countries to inform each other of their nuclear facilities on January 1st of each calendar year. The first such exchange occurred on January 1, 1992. By January 2018, India and Pakistan had exchanged these lists 27 times, making the exchange on January 1, 2018, the twenty-seventh consecutive one.

95Science and Technology
Who is appointed as the CEO of Infosys in place of Vishal Sikka?
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Answer: (B) Salil Parekh

Explanation

Vishal Sikka resigned as the CEO and MD of Infosys on August 18, 2017, citing continuous "personal attacks" and "distractions" that hindered his ability to lead the company. Following his resignation, U.B. Pravin Rao was appointed as the interim CEO and MD. After a global search, Salil Parekh was appointed as the new CEO and Managing Director of Infosys, effective January 2, 2018. Parekh, who previously served on the Group Executive Board at Capgemini, was chosen for his nearly three decades of global experience in the IT services industry and his strong track record of executing business turnarounds.

96Economy
At present, how many countries are the members of the International Monetary Fund [IMF]?
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Answer: (B) 189

Explanation

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) had 189 member countries after the Republic of Nauru joined on April 12, 2016. Nauru became the 189th member, following South Sudan, which had joined as the 188th member in April 2012. This number remained 189 until Andorra joined as the 190th member in October 2020. Therefore, 189 was the correct number of IMF member countries during the period between April 2016 and October 2020.

97Polity and GovernanceMadhya Pradesh-specific
How many women were elected in Madhya Pradesh Assembly Election, 2013?
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Answer: (D) 28

Explanation

In the Madhya Pradesh Assembly Election held in 2013, 29 women were elected as Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) according to some reports. Other sources indicate that 30 women won seats in the election. There is no consistent factual information in the provided search results to support 28 as the total number of women elected in this election.

98EconomyMadhya Pradesh-specific
In which year was the Madhya Pradesh Rajkoshiya Uttardayitva Evam Budget Prabandhan Adhiniyam passed?
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Answer: (C) 2005

Explanation

The Madhya Pradesh Rajkoshiya Uttardayitva Evam Budget Prabandhan Adhiniyam, also known as the Madhya Pradesh Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, was passed in the year 2005. This significant legislation was enacted by the Madhya Pradesh state legislature to ensure fiscal discipline and effective budget management within the state. It aimed to bring greater transparency and responsibility to the financial operations of the state government. The Act came into force on January 1, 2006.

99Polity and Governance
On which date, President of the USA, Donald Trump recognized Jerusalem as the capital of Israel?
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Answer: (D) 6th December, 2017

Explanation

On December 6, 2017, President Donald Trump officially recognized Jerusalem as the capital of Israel. This decision mirrored Israel's official position on the city's status and initiated the process of moving the U.S. Embassy from Tel Aviv to Jerusalem. Trump's announcement fulfilled a campaign promise and was consistent with the Jerusalem Embassy Act of 1995, which urged the U.S. to recognize Jerusalem as Israel's capital. The move was a significant shift in U.S. foreign policy regarding the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.

100Economy
Which two States have been jointly ranked first in the ease of doing business ranking issued by the World Bank and DIPP in October 2016?
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Answer: (D) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh and Telangana were jointly ranked first in the ease of doing business ranking issued by the World Bank and the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) in October 2016. Both states achieved a 98.78% implementation rate of business reforms. This ranking was based on a 340-point Business Reform Action Plan, which covered various regulatory processes and reforms across ten areas, including single window clearance, tax reforms, and labor and environment reforms.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2C
  3. 3C
  4. 4B
  5. 5A
  6. 6A
  7. 7C
  8. 8A
  9. 9A
  10. 10B
  11. 11C
  12. 12D
  13. 13C
  14. 14C
  15. 15D
  16. 16D
  17. 17B
  18. 18D
  19. 19B
  20. 20C
  21. 21C
  22. 22D
  23. 23D
  24. 24A
  25. 25C
  26. 26D
  27. 27A
  28. 28B
  29. 29D
  30. 30A
  31. 31D
  32. 32D
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35C
  36. 36D
  37. 37D
  38. 38B
  39. 39C
  40. 40A
  41. 41D
  42. 42B
  43. 43A
  44. 44C
  45. 45D
  46. 46C
  47. 47D
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50C
  51. 51C
  52. 52D
  53. 53C
  54. 54B
  55. 55C
  56. 56A
  57. 57B
  58. 58D
  59. 59D
  60. 60C
  61. 61B
  62. 62C
  63. 63D
  64. 64B
  65. 65C
  66. 66A
  67. 67A
  68. 68C
  69. 69B
  70. 70D
  71. 71C
  72. 72A
  73. 73B
  74. 74B
  75. 75B
  76. 76B
  77. 77C
  78. 78B
  79. 79D
  80. 80B
  81. 81B
  82. 82B
  83. 83C
  84. 84A
  85. 85C
  86. 86C
  87. 87B
  88. 88A
  89. 89A
  90. 90A
  91. 91C
  92. 92D
  93. 93C
  94. 94C
  95. 95B
  96. 96B
  97. 97D
  98. 98C
  99. 99D
  100. 100D

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