When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major <u>hit</u>, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to <u>raise</u> concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a <u>toe hold</u> in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
What is the primary irony highlighted by the author regarding Company X's online game?
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Answer: (B) A game designed for entertainment and bonding ended up fostering addiction and isolation.
Explanation
The passage directly identifies the central irony in the third paragraph, noting that the game was marketed to promote entertainment and interpersonal bonding, but instead led to isolation, dependency, strained relationships, and addiction among its users.
2English Language
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
What negative consequences of the game were observed in children, as per the passage?
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Answer: (C) Many children showed signs of addiction, poor academic performance, irritability, and spent less time with family members.
Explanation
According to the passage, the widespread use of the online game led to severe behavioral and academic issues among young users. Children became addicted and struggled to manage their daily schedules, leading to declining grades, reduced participation, and a lack of discipline in school. At home, they exhibited increased irritability, behavioral problems, and spent significantly less time interacting with family members, resulting in strained domestic relationships.
3English Language
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
What can be inferred about the survey conducted by the independent organisation?
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Answer: (D) It confirmed widespread negative impacts, prompting a ban recommendation.
Explanation
The survey conducted by the independent organisation revealed widespread adverse effects on users, highlighting extreme dependency, falling academic achievement, and strained family relationships. Based on these severe social and behavioral consequences, the organisation concluded that the harm outweighed the commercial profits and recommended a nationwide ban on the game.
4English Language
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
According to the passage, what role did roommates play in revealing the social effects of the game?
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Answer: (C) They used the game as a bonding tool but lacked real interaction otherwise.
Explanation
The passage notes that roommates found their relationships remained smooth only during active gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, genuine conversations were reduced and interactions became minimal, highlighting how the game created superficial bonding during gameplay while fostering isolation and a lack of authentic interaction outside of it.
5English Language
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
Why did Company X's game gain global popularity so quickly after its launch?
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Answer: (C) The game quickly attracted millions of users and earned substantial profits, establishing the company's position in the gaming industry.
Explanation
According to the first paragraph of the passage, the market response to the game was immediate and overwhelming upon release. It rapidly accumulated users worldwide and generated 50 million dollars in revenue, leading to widespread industry recognition and establishing Company X as a dominant market player.
6English Language
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
How did teachers contribute to the concern about the game's impact?
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Answer: (B) They observed and reported a consistent decline in student behavior and academic performance.
Explanation
The passage explicitly mentions that as children grew addicted to the game, their studies suffered significantly, and teachers observed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline in school.
7English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) toe hold
Explanation
The original sentence reads: "What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern." The blank is therefore filled by 'toe hold', option (c).
8English Language
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
Choose the option that is the closest in meaning to the word "hit" as used in the passage:
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Answer: (B) Success
Explanation
In the passage, the phrase a major hit refers to the immense popularity, high profits, and widespread adoption achieved by the online game upon its release, making success the direct contextual synonym.
9English Language
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
Choose the word that is the opposite in meaning to "raise" as used in the passage:
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Answer: (C) Lower
Explanation
In the passage, the verb raise is used in the sense of bringing up, elevating, or increasing the level of concern. The direct antonym of raise is lower, which means to decrease, reduce, or bring down in level, volume, or intensity.
10English Language
When Company X introduced its online game, the market response was immediate and overwhelming. The very next year, the company earned huge profits and quickly gained users across the globe. Reports revealed that the game generated 50 million dollars worldwide, making it one of the most successful digital launches in recent years. This sudden success was seen as a major hit, granting Company X recognition and dominance in the industry.
Yet, beneath the shining surface of profits and popularity, a darker picture began to emerge. Parents started to raise concerns over the time children were spending on this game. Many young users became addicted, unable to manage their daily schedules, and their studies suffered significantly. Teachers noticed falling grades, a decline in participation, and a visible drop in discipline. At home, the situation worsened as children grew increasingly irritable, spending less time with family and showing signs of inappropriate behavior.
Roommates, on the other hand, reported that their relationships remained smooth only during gaming sessions. Once the console was turned off, interactions were minimal, and genuine conversations reduced. What was marketed as a tool for entertainment and bonding ironically created isolation and dependency. Parents found themselves struggling to establish healthy routines for their children, often entering into conflicts that left family ties strained.
An independent organisation decided to investigate these growing concerns and carried out a largescale survey. The data collected and the report submitted revealed an alarming trend. The impact of the game was largely negative, with cases of extreme dependency, reduced academic achievement, and antisocial tendencies being repeatedly recorded. What initially gave the company a toe hold in the international gaming market was now turning into a nationwide social concern.
The report strongly emphasized that while the company's financial growth was undeniable, the cost to society was far greater. Addiction had begun to reshape the daily lives of thousands of children, disturbing family harmony and disrupting the overall learning environment. Based on the overwhelming findings, the organisation recommended that the game should be banned in the country. The conclusion was clear: no amount of profit could justify the erosion of discipline, values, and future prospects of the younger generation.
What was the main recommendation made by the independent organisation after analyzing the impact of the game?
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Answer: (B) The organisation recommended that the game should be banned due to its harmful effects on children and society.
Explanation
According to the final paragraph of the passage, the independent organisation conducted a large-scale investigation into the negative impacts of the game, including addiction, reduced academic performance, and strained family relationships. Based on these findings, the report concluded that the social costs outweighed the company's financial profits and explicitly recommended that the game be banned nationwide to protect the discipline, values, and future prospects of young users.
11English Language
In the following question, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains no grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually incorrect, mark "All are incorrect" option as the answer choice.
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Answer: (D) The players were congratulated for their outstanding performance.
Explanation
(a) He insisted to go to the market even though he was not feeling well. Incorrect. Rule: after the verb 'insist', we use on + gerund (verb + ing). Correct form: He insisted on going to the market even though he was not feeling well. (b) She said she would rather stay home than going to the party. Incorrect. Rule: after 'would rather', we always use the base form of the verb, not the gerund. Correct form: She said she would rather stay home than go to the party. (c) The manager along with his team were present at the conference. Incorrect. Rule: when a singular subject is followed by phrases like 'along with', 'together with', or 'as well as', the verb agrees with the main subject, not the phrase. Correct form: The manager along with his team was present at the conference. (d) The players were congratulated for their outstanding performance. Correct. The passive voice structure (subject + was/were + past participle) is correctly used here. (e) All are incorrect — this does not hold, since option (d) is grammatically and contextually correct. Hence, the sentence in option (d) is the correct one.
12English Language
Directions: In the following question, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains no grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually incorrect, mark "All are incorrect" option as the answer choice.
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Answer: (C) The meeting has been rescheduled due to unavoidable circumstances.
Explanation
The sentence follows standard English grammar rules. It correctly employs the present perfect passive voice structure (has been + past participle verb), where the singular subject the meeting agrees with the singular auxiliary verb has been, followed by the past participle rescheduled and the adverbial phrase modifying the reason appropriately.
13English Language
Directions: In the following question, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains no grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually incorrect, mark "All are incorrect" option as the answer choice.
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Answer: (B) The data show a remarkable increase in productivity this year.
Explanation
In formal and academic English, data is treated as a plural count noun derived from the singular datum. Consequently, it correctly pairs with the plural verb show, ensuring proper subject-verb agreement.
14English Language
Directions: In the following question, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains no grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually incorrect, mark "All are incorrect" option as the answer choice.
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Answer: (B) The new policy aims at improving efficiency across departments.
Explanation
The verb aims agrees with the singular subject policy, and the prepositional phrase at improving correctly uses a gerund after the preposition at to indicate the purpose or objective.
15English Language
Directions: In the following question, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains no grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually incorrect, mark "All are incorrect" option as the answer choice.
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Answer: (D) The workers demanded that their wages be increased immediately.
Explanation
Verbs expressing demand, insistence, or recommendation take a that-clause in the subjunctive mood. In the mandative subjunctive structure (demand that + subject + base verb), the verb in the subordinate clause remains in its base or uninflected form, making "demanded that their wages be increased" grammatically correct.
16English Language
Directions: In the following question, few sentences are given. Choose and mark the sentence which contains no grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the sentences are grammatically and contextually incorrect, mark "All are incorrect" option as the answer choice.
● Correct
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Answer: (B) She congratulated him on his promotion to the post of manager.
Explanation
The verb congratulate takes the preposition on when referring to the event, occasion, or achievement being celebrated (congratulate someone on something). The sentence correctly follows standard prepositional usage and grammatical agreement throughout.
17English Language
Directions: In the following question, a passage is provided with few blanks. Choose the most suitable word from the given options to fill the respective blank.
The nation has recently (A) a surge in fake bomb threats targeting trains and flights, creating panic among passengers and disrupting essential travel services. Anonymous calls and messages falsely claimed the (B) of explosives, forcing authorities to carry out emergency checks. These incidents led to delays, cancellations, and inconvenience for thousands of travelers.
Union government ministers confirmed that detailed information about the threats had been (C) and stressed that such false alarms are treated as serious crimes. They noted that spreading fake information not only causes fear but also (D) security resources and diverts attention from genuine concerns.
Investigations are underway to (E) the sources of these false alerts. Early indications point to organized attempts to spread chaos. Officials assured that once the responsible organization is identified, strict punishment will be (F) under existing laws. The government has also directed railways and aviation authorities to step up security measures and verify all suspicious communications without delay.
While no actual explosives have been discovered, the gravity of the threats cannot be ignored. Passengers are advised to remain calm and cooperate with security checks, as the government reiterated its commitment to ensuring safety and penalizing those spreading fake threats.
Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank A?
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Answer: (A) faced
Explanation
In this context, the passage describes the country experiencing or confronting a sudden rise in disruptive security incidents. The past participle verb faced correctly collocates with a surge in threats to denote encountering a critical issue that requires immediate response and mitigation by authorities.
18English Language
Directions: In the following question, a passage is provided with few blanks. Choose the most suitable word from the given options to fill the respective blank.
The nation has recently (A) a surge in fake bomb threats targeting trains and flights, creating panic among passengers and disrupting essential travel services. Anonymous calls and messages falsely claimed the (B) of explosives, forcing authorities to carry out emergency checks. These incidents led to delays, cancellations, and inconvenience for thousands of travelers.
Union government ministers confirmed that detailed information about the threats had been (C) and stressed that such false alarms are treated as serious crimes. They noted that spreading fake information not only causes fear but also (D) security resources and diverts attention from genuine concerns.
Investigations are underway to (E) the sources of these false alerts. Early indications point to organized attempts to spread chaos. Officials assured that once the responsible organization is identified, strict punishment will be (F) under existing laws. The government has also directed railways and aviation authorities to step up security measures and verify all suspicious communications without delay.
While no actual explosives have been discovered, the gravity of the threats cannot be ignored. Passengers are advised to remain calm and cooperate with security checks, as the government reiterated its commitment to ensuring safety and penalizing those spreading fake threats.
Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank B?
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Answer: (B) presence
Explanation
In the context of security threats and hoax calls targeting transit systems, callers typically claim the physical existence or placement of hazardous materials on board. The term presence accurately describes the state of explosives being situated in a specific location, which directly triggers emergency inspection procedures by security authorities.
19English Language
Directions: In the following question, a passage is provided with few blanks. Choose the most suitable word from the given options to fill the respective blank.
The nation has recently (A) a surge in fake bomb threats targeting trains and flights, creating panic among passengers and disrupting essential travel services. Anonymous calls and messages falsely claimed the (B) of explosives, forcing authorities to carry out emergency checks. These incidents led to delays, cancellations, and inconvenience for thousands of travelers.
Union government ministers confirmed that detailed information about the threats had been (C) and stressed that such false alarms are treated as serious crimes. They noted that spreading fake information not only causes fear but also (D) security resources and diverts attention from genuine concerns.
Investigations are underway to (E) the sources of these false alerts. Early indications point to organized attempts to spread chaos. Officials assured that once the responsible organization is identified, strict punishment will be (F) under existing laws. The government has also directed railways and aviation authorities to step up security measures and verify all suspicious communications without delay.
While no actual explosives have been discovered, the gravity of the threats cannot be ignored. Passengers are advised to remain calm and cooperate with security checks, as the government reiterated its commitment to ensuring safety and penalizing those spreading fake threats.
Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank C?
● Correct
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Answer: (E) received
Explanation
In the given context, the passive construction indicates that authorities or ministers were provided with or collected the relevant details concerning the fake bomb threats. The past participle received correctly conveys that the necessary reports and information about these communications had reached the government officials for further assessment.
20English Language
Directions: In the following question, a passage is provided with few blanks. Choose the most suitable word from the given options to fill the respective blank.
The nation has recently (A) a surge in fake bomb threats targeting trains and flights, creating panic among passengers and disrupting essential travel services. Anonymous calls and messages falsely claimed the (B) of explosives, forcing authorities to carry out emergency checks. These incidents led to delays, cancellations, and inconvenience for thousands of travelers.
Union government ministers confirmed that detailed information about the threats had been (C) and stressed that such false alarms are treated as serious crimes. They noted that spreading fake information not only causes fear but also (D) security resources and diverts attention from genuine concerns.
Investigations are underway to (E) the sources of these false alerts. Early indications point to organized attempts to spread chaos. Officials assured that once the responsible organization is identified, strict punishment will be (F) under existing laws. The government has also directed railways and aviation authorities to step up security measures and verify all suspicious communications without delay.
While no actual explosives have been discovered, the gravity of the threats cannot be ignored. Passengers are advised to remain calm and cooperate with security checks, as the government reiterated its commitment to ensuring safety and penalizing those spreading fake threats.
Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank D?
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Answer: (C) wastes
Explanation
In the context of dealing with hoax calls and false alarms, emergency checks and security deployments needlessly consume personnel and operational assets, meaning the act wastes security resources while diverting attention from actual threats.
21English Language
Directions: In the following question, a passage is provided with few blanks. Choose the most suitable word from the given options to fill the respective blank.
The nation has recently (A) a surge in fake bomb threats targeting trains and flights, creating panic among passengers and disrupting essential travel services. Anonymous calls and messages falsely claimed the (B) of explosives, forcing authorities to carry out emergency checks. These incidents led to delays, cancellations, and inconvenience for thousands of travelers.
Union government ministers confirmed that detailed information about the threats had been (C) and stressed that such false alarms are treated as serious crimes. They noted that spreading fake information not only causes fear but also (D) security resources and diverts attention from genuine concerns.
Investigations are underway to (E) the sources of these false alerts. Early indications point to organized attempts to spread chaos. Officials assured that once the responsible organization is identified, strict punishment will be (F) under existing laws. The government has also directed railways and aviation authorities to step up security measures and verify all suspicious communications without delay.
While no actual explosives have been discovered, the gravity of the threats cannot be ignored. Passengers are advised to remain calm and cooperate with security checks, as the government reiterated its commitment to ensuring safety and penalizing those spreading fake threats.
Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank E?
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Answer: (C) identify
Explanation
In the context of the sentence, law enforcement and investigative agencies conduct inquiries specifically to determine the origin or individuals behind criminal acts. The verb identify means to establish or ascertain the identity of someone or something, which fits grammatically after the infinitive marker to and contextually aligns with tracing the origins of the threats.
22English Language
Directions: In the following question, a passage is provided with few blanks. Choose the most suitable word from the given options to fill the respective blank.
The nation has recently (A) a surge in fake bomb threats targeting trains and flights, creating panic among passengers and disrupting essential travel services. Anonymous calls and messages falsely claimed the (B) of explosives, forcing authorities to carry out emergency checks. These incidents led to delays, cancellations, and inconvenience for thousands of travelers.
Union government ministers confirmed that detailed information about the threats had been (C) and stressed that such false alarms are treated as serious crimes. They noted that spreading fake information not only causes fear but also (D) security resources and diverts attention from genuine concerns.
Investigations are underway to (E) the sources of these false alerts. Early indications point to organized attempts to spread chaos. Officials assured that once the responsible organization is identified, strict punishment will be (F) under existing laws. The government has also directed railways and aviation authorities to step up security measures and verify all suspicious communications without delay.
While no actual explosives have been discovered, the gravity of the threats cannot be ignored. Passengers are advised to remain calm and cooperate with security checks, as the government reiterated its commitment to ensuring safety and penalizing those spreading fake threats.
Which of the following is most suitable to fill the blank F?
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Answer: (B) enforced
Explanation
In legal and formal contexts, laws, rules, and penalties are implemented and applied using the verb enforce. In the given sentence, stating that strict punishment will be enforced under existing laws accurately conveys that legal penalties will be rigorously executed against the perpetrators.
23English Language
Directions: In the question given below two sentences are given which are grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them with the most suitable word given below the statements in the best possible way without changing the intended meaning. Choose the answer accordingly from the options to form a correct coherent sentence.
(I) She saved money for several months;
(II) She finally bought a new laptop.
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Answer: (B) so
Explanation
The first statement describes an action taken over time (saving money), and the second statement represents the direct result or outcome of that action (buying a new laptop). The conjunction 'so' is used to connect a cause to its logical consequence.
24English Language
Directions: In the question given below two sentences are given which are grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them with the most suitable word given below the statements in the best possible way without changing the intended meaning. Choose the answer accordingly from the options to form a correct coherent sentence.
(I) He prepared well for the interview;
(II) He did not get selected for the job.
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Answer: (A) yet
Explanation
The first statement describes a diligent effort, while the second presents a contrasting, unexpected negative outcome. The conjunction "yet" functions adversatively to link two contrasting independent clauses, conveying the meaning of "nevertheless" or "even so" without altering the intended context.
25English Language
Directions: In the question given below two sentences are given which are grammatically correct and meaningful. Connect them with the most suitable word given below the statements in the best possible way without changing the intended meaning. Choose the answer accordingly from the options to form a correct coherent sentence.
(I) The shop was closed;
(II) We could not buy any groceries.
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Answer: (B) therefore
Explanation
The second statement expresses a direct result or consequence of the condition stated in the first statement. The conjunctive adverb 'therefore' indicates cause and effect, logically linking the closure of the shop to the inability to purchase groceries.
26English Language
Directions: Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given below.
(A) The development of the electronic computer began in the 20th century, with machines like ENIAC marking a significant leap.
(B) Early computing devices such as the abacus and mechanical calculators laid the foundation for modern machines.
(C) Over time, computers evolved rapidly, moving from bulky machines to compact, powerful personal computers.
(D) In the 19th century, Charles Babbage conceptualized the Analytical Engine, often regarded as the first mechanical computer design.
(E) This evolution continued into the 21st century, leading to innovations like smartphones and cloud computing.
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Answer: (A) BDACE
Explanation
The paragraph follows a direct chronological progression tracing the history of computing. It begins with ancient foundations like the abacus and mechanical calculators, advances to the 19th-century Analytical Engine designed by Charles Babbage, moves into 20th-century electronic breakthroughs like the ENIAC, describes the subsequent miniaturization into personal computers, and concludes with 21st-century advancements such as smartphones and cloud computing. This establishes the logical sequence as B-D-A-C-E.
27English Language
Directions: Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given below.
(A) Glucose, commonly referred to as blood sugar, is the primary source of energy for the body's cells.
(B) When blood sugar levels drop too low, a person may experience dizziness, confusion, and even loss of consciousness.
(C) Such regulation is vital for maintaining stable blood sugar, ensuring overall health and the proper functioning of organs.
(D) Conversely, consistently high blood sugar can lead to serious health issues such as nerve damage, vision problems, and diabetes.
(E) The body carefully regulates these glucose levels through hormones like insulin, which enable cells to absorb sugar from the bloodstream.
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Answer: (D) AECBD
Explanation
Sentence A introduces the central subject, defining glucose and its role as the primary energy source. Sentence E follows directly by introducing how the body regulates these glucose levels using hormones like insulin. Sentence C uses the demonstrative phrase "Such regulation" to build on sentence E, explaining why maintaining stable levels is vital. Sentences B and D form a coherent pair detailing the consequences of imbalance, starting with the effects of low blood sugar in B, followed by the contrasting effects of high blood sugar in D introduced by the transition word "Conversely". This establishes AECBD as the logical order.
28English Language
Directions: In the given question, few sentences are given. Also, sentence (D) is fixed as the fourth sentence. Rearrange the remaining four sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.
(A) Wheat thrives on a cool growing season, followed by a warm, dry period for harvest.
(B) In many parts of the world, wheat is a staple food crop, cultivated extensively for its adaptability and nutritional value.
(C) With the help of modern techniques like mechanized irrigation and improved seed varieties, wheat production has seen significant growth.
(E) Given these requirements, farmers select suitable soils and time their sowing to secure a healthy yield.
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Answer: (E) BAEDC
Explanation
Sentence B serves as the general introduction, establishing wheat as a widely cultivated staple food crop. Sentence A follows by describing its specific growth requirements, such as a cool growing season and a warm, dry period. Sentence E naturally follows A because the phrase these requirements directly refers to the climatic conditions mentioned in A. With sentence D fixed at the fourth position, sentence C logically concludes the paragraph by discussing the overall growth in wheat production achieved through modern agricultural techniques.
29English Language
Directions: In the given question, few sentences are given. Also, sentence (D) is fixed as the fourth sentence. Rearrange the remaining four sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.
(A) Technology has become a defining force of modern life, reshaping domains from communication to healthcare and beyond.
(B) While it brings convenience and efficiency, it also raises concerns about privacy, mental health, and dependency.
(C) As innovations continue to emerge, society must learn to balance technological advancement with human values.
(D) These developments have deeply influenced human behavior, altering habits, routines, and even attention spans.
(E) This rapid pace of change has introduced both opportunities and challenges into daily routines.
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Answer: (B) AEBDC
Explanation
Sentence A establishes the central theme by introducing technology as a defining force reshaping multiple domains. Sentence E naturally follows by characterizing this transformation as a rapid pace of change that brings both opportunities and challenges. Sentence B elaborates on these dual aspects by detailing convenience and efficiency alongside concerns regarding privacy and mental health. With sentence D fixed in the fourth position discussing the deep influence on human behavior, sentence C logically concludes the paragraph with a forward-looking statement on the necessity of balancing ongoing innovation with human values.
30English Language
Directions: In the following question, a word is highlighted in the sentence given. Followed by few sentences are given using that word. Identify the sentences that have use the given word in the same meaning as used in the question statement.
The teacher asked the students to <u>show</u> their homework notebooks.
(A) They went to see a <u>show</u> at the theatre.
(B) His paintings are on <u>show</u> at the gallery.
(C) The wound did not <u>show</u> any sign of infection.
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Answer: (B) Both B and C
Explanation
In the question statement, "The teacher asked the students to show their homework notebooks," the word 'show' means to present, display, or exhibit. Checking the given sentences: (A) They went to see a show at the theatre — here 'show' means a performance or entertainment event, a different meaning. (B) His paintings are on show at the gallery — here 'on show' means on display/being exhibited, matching the sense of present/display. (C) The wound did not show any sign of infection — here 'show' means to exhibit or display signs, also matching the sense of present/indicate. So the word is used in the same sense as the question in both B and C, giving option (b) Both B and C.
31English Language
Directions: In the following question, a word is highlighted in the sentence given. Followed by few sentences are given using that word. Identify the sentences that have use the given word in the same meaning as used in the question statement.
He ate the <u>whole</u> cake by himself.
(A) The <u>whole</u> matter was discussed in the meeting.
(B) she is missed terribly and her death has left a <u>whole</u> in all our lives
(C) The <u>whole</u> class was present during the lecture.
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Answer: (B) Both A and C
Explanation
In the sentence, whole functions as an adjective meaning entire, complete, or all of something. Statement A uses whole to mean the entire matter or all aspects of the topic under discussion. Similarly, statement C uses whole to describe the entire class, signifying all of its members collectively. Both statements preserve the identical adjective sense of entirety seen in the original statement.
32English Language
Directions: In the following question, a word is highlighted in the sentence given. Followed by few sentences are given using that word. Identify the sentences that have use the given word in the same meaning as used in the question statement.
She has a <u>firm</u> belief in honesty.
(A) He started his own law <u>firm</u> in the city.
(B) The ground was <u>firm</u> after the heavy rain.
(C) The manager took a <u>firm</u> decision against corruption.
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Answer: (C) Only C
Explanation
In the sentence "She has a firm belief in honesty", the adjective "firm" denotes something strongly held, steadfast, and unwavering. In the sentence "The manager took a firm decision against corruption", "firm" is used in the identical sense of being resolute, decisive, and unyielding.
33English Language
Directions: In each of the questions given below, six words have been highlighted. These six words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option "No interchange required" as your choice.
The manager's <u>missing (A</u>) question about the <u>unexpected (B</u>) report seemed to abash him <u>completely (C</u>), leaving him <u>speechless (D</u>) and visibly <u>uncomfortable (E</u>) in front of <u>colleagues (F</u>).
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Answer: (B) A-B
Explanation
In the context of the sentence, a report is typically missing, while a question asked about it is unexpected. Interchanging missing and unexpected restores grammatical accuracy and contextual coherence: The manager's unexpected question about the missing report seemed to abash him completely, leaving him speechless and visibly uncomfortable in front of colleagues. All other highlighted words are already correctly positioned.
34English Language
Directions: In each of the questions given below, six words have been highlighted. These six words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option "No interchange required" as your choice.
<u>After (A</u>) hours of <u>relentless (B</u>) rain, the storm <u>abate (C</u>) to <u>began (D</u>), allowing residents to <u>cautiously (E</u>) step outside and <u>assess (F</u>) the flood damage.
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Answer: (A) C-D
Explanation
The main clause requires the past tense verb "began" followed by the base form verb "abate" after the particle "to" to form the full infinitive "to abate" (meaning to lessen in intensity or subside). Swapping the positions of C and D produces "the storm began to abate", which makes the sentence grammatically sound and contextually meaningful while preserving all other words in their correct places.
35English Language
Directions: In each of the questions given below, six words have been highlighted. These six words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option "No interchange required" as your choice.
The monarch <u>while (A</u>) to <u>abdicate (B</u>) his throne, choosing a <u>immense (C</u>) life of service, <u>decided (D</u>) his <u>successor (E</u>) prepared for <u>quieter (F</u>) responsibility.
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Answer: (C) A-D & C-F
Explanation
The sentence requires the main verb decided after the subject the monarch, followed by the infinitive to abdicate. The phrase choosing a quieter life correctly pairs the indefinite article a with a consonant sound, contrasting with the monarch stepping down. The conjunction while appropriately introduces the simultaneous subordinate clause describing his successor preparing for immense responsibility. Interchanging A with D and C with F yields: The monarch decided to abdicate his throne, choosing a quieter life of service, while his successor prepared for immense responsibility.
36English Language
Directions: In each of the questions given below, six words have been highlighted. These six words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option "No interchange required" as your choice.
The sudden <u>collapse (A</u>) of a strong financial <u>institution (B</u>) was <u>considered (C</u>) an <u>aberration (D</u>), shaking investor <u>confidence (E</u>) and disrupting the otherwise <u>stable (F</u>) market.
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Answer: (E) No interchange required
Explanation
The sentence is grammatically and contextually correct in its original form. The noun collapse appropriately describes the failure of a financial institution, considered an aberration correctly conveys that the event was seen as an anomaly, and investor confidence along with stable market fit standard business and economic collocations seamlessly.
37English Language
Directions: In each of the questions given below, six words have been highlighted. These six words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option "No interchange required" as your choice.
Many voters <u>chose (A</u>) to <u>abstain (B</u>) from the election, citing <u>participation (C</u>) with both <u>candidates (D</u>), which significantly <u>reduced (E</u>) overall turnout and <u>dissatisfaction (F</u>) rates.
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Answer: (A) C-F
Explanation
In the context of the sentence, voters choose to abstain when they are unhappy with the choices, making citing dissatisfaction with both candidates the appropriate cause. Consequently, abstaining lowers the overall turnout and participation rates. Swapping positions C and F correctly establishes this cause-and-effect relationship.
38English Language
Directions: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence has been quoted. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. Wherever no improvement is needed, choose 'No replacement required' as the answer.
Five years later, "<u>I was eating</u>" this same dish at the same restaurant.
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Answer: (C) am eating
Explanation
The original past continuous form 'was eating' does not fit the context, since the phrase 'Five years later' points to a future point in time rather than an already-completed past action. Present continuous tense is used to describe a fixed future plan or arrangement, which is the sense intended here, so 'am eating' is the correct replacement. 'Will have been eating' (future perfect continuous) would only be appropriate for an action continuing up to a specific future point, while 'has been eating' and 'had been eating' incorrectly suggest present-perfect or past-perfect continuity that does not match the intended future sense. Hence, the correct replacement is 'am eating'.
39English Language
Directions: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence has been quoted. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. Wherever no improvement is needed, choose 'No replacement required' as the answer.
I "<u>have been yet</u>" to go to the flower exhibition at Delhi University.
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Answer: (B) have yet
Explanation
The phrase have yet to + base verb is an idiomatic construction used to indicate that something expected or intended has not taken place up to the present moment. Therefore, replacing have been yet with have yet yields the grammatically sound sentence: I have yet to go to the flower exhibition at Delhi University.
40English Language
Directions: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence has been quoted. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. Wherever no improvement is needed, choose 'No replacement required' as the answer.
I had "<u>not only helped her by</u>" giving hints but also with providing her links.
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Answer: (A) helped her not only by
Explanation
The correlative conjunction pair not only ... but also requires parallelism. In the given sentence, but also is followed by a prepositional phrase (with providing her links), so not only must also precede a prepositional phrase (by giving hints). Placing helped her before not only ensures that both elements being joined share the same grammatical form.
41English Language
Directions: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence has been quoted. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. Wherever no improvement is needed, choose 'No replacement required' as the answer.
This secret will remain "<u>between you and I</u>."
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Answer: (A) between you and me
Explanation
Prepositions in English grammar are followed by pronouns in the objective case. In the compound object following the preposition between, the second pronoun must be in the objective form rather than the subjective form. While you functions as both a subject and an object pronoun, the first-person singular subjective pronoun I must be replaced with its objective counterpart me, making between you and me the grammatically correct construction.
42English Language
Directions: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence has been quoted. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. Wherever no improvement is needed, choose 'No replacement required' as the answer.
The train "<u>left before I reached</u>" the station.
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Answer: (D) had left before I reached
Explanation
When expressing two sequential actions that occurred in the past, the action that took place first is expressed in the past perfect tense (had + past participle), while the subsequent action is expressed in the simple past tense. Since the train departed prior to the arrival at the station, "had left" correctly denotes the earlier past action alongside "reached" for the later action.
43English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lakes are crucial freshwater reserves that support aquatic life, agriculture, and human needs. Their long- term health depends greatly on internal chemical processes. Two significant ones are phosphorus reactions and the chloride + water reaction.
Phosphorus, though essential for growth, becomes harmful when it enters lakes in excess through fertilizers, detergents, or untreated sewage. These phosphorus reactions trigger algal blooms that block sunlight and reduce oxygen. As algae decompose, oxygen levels in the lake lower, suffocating fish and disrupting biodiversity. Since phosphorus can remain trapped in sediments for years, its negative effects often persist long after the external supply is reduced.
The chloride + water reaction influences lakes differently. Chloride, introduced through road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily raises salinity. This alters water density and circulation, stressing species adapted to freshwater. Over time, plant diversity declines, fish populations shrink, and the water often acquires a taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation.
Lake water naturally contains several elements vital for ecological balance. Oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms, calcium supports shell- forming species like mollusks, while sodium and magnesium maintain mineral stability. When levels of elements such as chloride or phosphorus rise unnaturally, however, the lake's chemistry shifts in ways that damage both ecosystems and human use.
Monitoring these chemical reactions helps prevent major damage. Tracking phosphorus levels makes it possible to predict algal blooms, while chloride studies guide alternatives to road salt, such as sand or organic compounds. Establishing buffer zones around farms and improving wastewater treatment can also reduce nutrient flow into lakes.
Yet, implementing such measures often demands high costs or changes in established practices. Farmers may resist reducing fertilizer use, while cities in snowy regions rely heavily on road salts for safety. Balancing ecological preservation with economic and practical needs remains a challenge. If ignored, these reactions can leave lakes unsuitable for consumption, raising the risk of dehydration in communities dependent on them. Protecting the chemical balance of lakes is therefore vital not only for biodiversity but also for ensuring safe and reliable freshwater for human survival.
Why the effects of phosphorus on lake ecosystems are difficult to reverse?
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Answer: (D) Even after external inputs are reduced, phosphorus trapped in sediments continues to affect the ecosystem.
Explanation
Phosphorus binds to lake bottom sediments and remains sequestered there for extended periods. When environmental conditions shift, such as during seasonal stratification or bottom-water anoxia, this internally stored phosphorus is progressively re-released into the water column. This internal nutrient loading perpetuates eutrophication, algal blooms, and oxygen depletion over many years, sustaining the negative ecological impacts long after external inputs from runoff or wastewater have been curtailed.
44English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lakes are crucial freshwater reserves that support aquatic life, agriculture, and human needs. Their long- term health depends greatly on internal chemical processes. Two significant ones are phosphorus reactions and the chloride + water reaction.
Phosphorus, though essential for growth, becomes harmful when it enters lakes in excess through fertilizers, detergents, or untreated sewage. These phosphorus reactions trigger algal blooms that block sunlight and reduce oxygen. As algae decompose, oxygen levels in the lake lower, suffocating fish and disrupting biodiversity. Since phosphorus can remain trapped in sediments for years, its negative effects often persist long after the external supply is reduced.
The chloride + water reaction influences lakes differently. Chloride, introduced through road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily raises salinity. This alters water density and circulation, stressing species adapted to freshwater. Over time, plant diversity declines, fish populations shrink, and the water often acquires a taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation.
Lake water naturally contains several elements vital for ecological balance. Oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms, calcium supports shell- forming species like mollusks, while sodium and magnesium maintain mineral stability. When levels of elements such as chloride or phosphorus rise unnaturally, however, the lake's chemistry shifts in ways that damage both ecosystems and human use.
Monitoring these chemical reactions helps prevent major damage. Tracking phosphorus levels makes it possible to predict algal blooms, while chloride studies guide alternatives to road salt, such as sand or organic compounds. Establishing buffer zones around farms and improving wastewater treatment can also reduce nutrient flow into lakes.
Yet, implementing such measures often demands high costs or changes in established practices. Farmers may resist reducing fertilizer use, while cities in snowy regions rely heavily on road salts for safety. Balancing ecological preservation with economic and practical needs remains a challenge. If ignored, these reactions can leave lakes unsuitable for consumption, raising the risk of dehydration in communities dependent on them. Protecting the chemical balance of lakes is therefore vital not only for biodiversity but also for ensuring safe and reliable freshwater for human survival.
Why is the chloride + water reaction considered particularly disruptive to lake biodiversity?
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Answer: (C) It increases water salinity, which affects circulation and freshwater-adapted species.
Explanation
The passage explicitly states that the chloride plus water reaction introduces chloride through sources like road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily increasing salinity. This rise in salinity alters lake water density and circulation patterns, which stresses organisms specifically adapted to freshwater environments and leads to declines in plant diversity and fish populations.
45English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lakes are crucial freshwater reserves that support aquatic life, agriculture, and human needs. Their long- term health depends greatly on internal chemical processes. Two significant ones are phosphorus reactions and the chloride + water reaction.
Phosphorus, though essential for growth, becomes harmful when it enters lakes in excess through fertilizers, detergents, or untreated sewage. These phosphorus reactions trigger algal blooms that block sunlight and reduce oxygen. As algae decompose, oxygen levels in the lake lower, suffocating fish and disrupting biodiversity. Since phosphorus can remain trapped in sediments for years, its negative effects often persist long after the external supply is reduced.
The chloride + water reaction influences lakes differently. Chloride, introduced through road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily raises salinity. This alters water density and circulation, stressing species adapted to freshwater. Over time, plant diversity declines, fish populations shrink, and the water often acquires a taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation.
Lake water naturally contains several elements vital for ecological balance. Oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms, calcium supports shell- forming species like mollusks, while sodium and magnesium maintain mineral stability. When levels of elements such as chloride or phosphorus rise unnaturally, however, the lake's chemistry shifts in ways that damage both ecosystems and human use.
Monitoring these chemical reactions helps prevent major damage. Tracking phosphorus levels makes it possible to predict algal blooms, while chloride studies guide alternatives to road salt, such as sand or organic compounds. Establishing buffer zones around farms and improving wastewater treatment can also reduce nutrient flow into lakes.
Yet, implementing such measures often demands high costs or changes in established practices. Farmers may resist reducing fertilizer use, while cities in snowy regions rely heavily on road salts for safety. Balancing ecological preservation with economic and practical needs remains a challenge. If ignored, these reactions can leave lakes unsuitable for consumption, raising the risk of dehydration in communities dependent on them. Protecting the chemical balance of lakes is therefore vital not only for biodiversity but also for ensuring safe and reliable freshwater for human survival.
Which of the following measures is NOT mentioned as a strategy to mitigate chemical imbalance in lakes?
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Answer: (D) Using oxygenation devices to prevent fish suffocation
Explanation
Artificial aeration or using mechanical oxygenation devices to prevent fish suffocation is completely absent from the passage. While the text highlights that algal decomposition depletes dissolved oxygen and suffocates aquatic life, it restricts the discussed mitigation measures to watershed management, chemical monitoring, agricultural buffer zones, de-icing alternatives, and wastewater treatment rather than mechanical in-lake interventions.
46English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lakes are crucial freshwater reserves that support aquatic life, agriculture, and human needs. Their long- term health depends greatly on internal chemical processes. Two significant ones are phosphorus reactions and the chloride + water reaction.
Phosphorus, though essential for growth, becomes harmful when it enters lakes in excess through fertilizers, detergents, or untreated sewage. These phosphorus reactions trigger algal blooms that block sunlight and reduce oxygen. As algae decompose, oxygen levels in the lake lower, suffocating fish and disrupting biodiversity. Since phosphorus can remain trapped in sediments for years, its negative effects often persist long after the external supply is reduced.
The chloride + water reaction influences lakes differently. Chloride, introduced through road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily raises salinity. This alters water density and circulation, stressing species adapted to freshwater. Over time, plant diversity declines, fish populations shrink, and the water often acquires a taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation.
Lake water naturally contains several elements vital for ecological balance. Oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms, calcium supports shell- forming species like mollusks, while sodium and magnesium maintain mineral stability. When levels of elements such as chloride or phosphorus rise unnaturally, however, the lake's chemistry shifts in ways that damage both ecosystems and human use.
Monitoring these chemical reactions helps prevent major damage. Tracking phosphorus levels makes it possible to predict algal blooms, while chloride studies guide alternatives to road salt, such as sand or organic compounds. Establishing buffer zones around farms and improving wastewater treatment can also reduce nutrient flow into lakes.
Yet, implementing such measures often demands high costs or changes in established practices. Farmers may resist reducing fertilizer use, while cities in snowy regions rely heavily on road salts for safety. Balancing ecological preservation with economic and practical needs remains a challenge. If ignored, these reactions can leave lakes unsuitable for consumption, raising the risk of dehydration in communities dependent on them. Protecting the chemical balance of lakes is therefore vital not only for biodiversity but also for ensuring safe and reliable freshwater for human survival.
Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT based on the passage?
(I) The chloride + water reaction can affect the drinkability of lake water. (II) High chloride concentration leads to biodiversity decline and poor irrigation quality. (III) Phosphorus boosts plant diversity in lake ecosystems.
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Answer: (B) Both (I) and (II)
Explanation
According to the passage, the chloride and water reaction steadily raises salinity, altering water density and stressing freshwater species. This results in declining plant diversity, shrinking fish populations, and water that acquires an unpleasant taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation purposes. Conversely, elevated phosphorus levels trigger harmful algal blooms that block sunlight, deplete oxygen, and disrupt overall biodiversity rather than enhancing plant diversity.
47English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lakes are crucial freshwater reserves that support aquatic life, agriculture, and human needs. Their long- term health depends greatly on internal chemical processes. Two significant ones are phosphorus reactions and the chloride + water reaction.
Phosphorus, though essential for growth, becomes harmful when it enters lakes in excess through fertilizers, detergents, or untreated sewage. These phosphorus reactions trigger algal blooms that block sunlight and reduce oxygen. As algae decompose, oxygen levels in the lake lower, suffocating fish and disrupting biodiversity. Since phosphorus can remain trapped in sediments for years, its negative effects often persist long after the external supply is reduced.
The chloride + water reaction influences lakes differently. Chloride, introduced through road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily raises salinity. This alters water density and circulation, stressing species adapted to freshwater. Over time, plant diversity declines, fish populations shrink, and the water often acquires a taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation.
Lake water naturally contains several elements vital for ecological balance. Oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms, calcium supports shell- forming species like mollusks, while sodium and magnesium maintain mineral stability. When levels of elements such as chloride or phosphorus rise unnaturally, however, the lake's chemistry shifts in ways that damage both ecosystems and human use.
Monitoring these chemical reactions helps prevent major damage. Tracking phosphorus levels makes it possible to predict algal blooms, while chloride studies guide alternatives to road salt, such as sand or organic compounds. Establishing buffer zones around farms and improving wastewater treatment can also reduce nutrient flow into lakes.
Yet, implementing such measures often demands high costs or changes in established practices. Farmers may resist reducing fertilizer use, while cities in snowy regions rely heavily on road salts for safety. Balancing ecological preservation with economic and practical needs remains a challenge. If ignored, these reactions can leave lakes unsuitable for consumption, raising the risk of dehydration in communities dependent on them. Protecting the chemical balance of lakes is therefore vital not only for biodiversity but also for ensuring safe and reliable freshwater for human survival.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the passage?
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Answer: (B) Phosphorus comes solely from industrial sources and has no agricultural links.
Explanation
Phosphorus enters lake ecosystems through agricultural runoff containing fertilizers, as well as detergents and untreated sewage, making agriculture a direct contributor rather than an unrelated sector.
48English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lakes are crucial freshwater reserves that support aquatic life, agriculture, and human needs. Their long- term health depends greatly on internal chemical processes. Two significant ones are phosphorus reactions and the chloride + water reaction.
Phosphorus, though essential for growth, becomes harmful when it enters lakes in excess through fertilizers, detergents, or untreated sewage. These phosphorus reactions trigger algal blooms that block sunlight and reduce oxygen. As algae decompose, oxygen levels in the lake lower, suffocating fish and disrupting biodiversity. Since phosphorus can remain trapped in sediments for years, its negative effects often persist long after the external supply is reduced.
The chloride + water reaction influences lakes differently. Chloride, introduced through road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily raises salinity. This alters water density and circulation, stressing species adapted to freshwater. Over time, plant diversity declines, fish populations shrink, and the water often acquires a taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation.
Lake water naturally contains several elements vital for ecological balance. Oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms, calcium supports shell- forming species like mollusks, while sodium and magnesium maintain mineral stability. When levels of elements such as chloride or phosphorus rise unnaturally, however, the lake's chemistry shifts in ways that damage both ecosystems and human use.
Monitoring these chemical reactions helps prevent major damage. Tracking phosphorus levels makes it possible to predict algal blooms, while chloride studies guide alternatives to road salt, such as sand or organic compounds. Establishing buffer zones around farms and improving wastewater treatment can also reduce nutrient flow into lakes.
Yet, implementing such measures often demands high costs or changes in established practices. Farmers may resist reducing fertilizer use, while cities in snowy regions rely heavily on road salts for safety. Balancing ecological preservation with economic and practical needs remains a challenge. If ignored, these reactions can leave lakes unsuitable for consumption, raising the risk of dehydration in communities dependent on them. Protecting the chemical balance of lakes is therefore vital not only for biodiversity but also for ensuring safe and reliable freshwater for human survival.
Based on the passage, how does the chemical balance in lakes impact the survival of aquatic plants and animals?
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Answer: (C) Disruptions in chemical balance can cascade through the ecosystem, affecting biodiversity and human utility.
Explanation
According to the passage, unnatural increases in chemical elements like phosphorus and chloride severely alter the aquatic environment. Elevated phosphorus levels trigger algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen, leading to the suffocation of aquatic fauna. Simultaneously, rising chloride concentrations increase salinity and alter water circulation, which stresses freshwater species, causes plant diversity to decline, and shrinks fish populations while also rendering the water unfit for drinking and agricultural use. Consequently, chemical imbalances create chain reactions that undermine ecological health and degrade water resources essential for human utility.
49English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lakes are crucial freshwater reserves that support aquatic life, agriculture, and human needs. Their long- term health depends greatly on internal chemical processes. Two significant ones are phosphorus reactions and the chloride + water reaction.
Phosphorus, though essential for growth, becomes harmful when it enters lakes in excess through fertilizers, detergents, or untreated sewage. These phosphorus reactions trigger algal blooms that block sunlight and reduce oxygen. As algae decompose, oxygen levels in the lake lower, suffocating fish and disrupting biodiversity. Since phosphorus can remain trapped in sediments for years, its negative effects often persist long after the external supply is reduced.
The chloride + water reaction influences lakes differently. Chloride, introduced through road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily raises salinity. This alters water density and circulation, stressing species adapted to freshwater. Over time, plant diversity declines, fish populations shrink, and the water often acquires a taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation.
Lake water naturally contains several elements vital for ecological balance. Oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms, calcium supports shell- forming species like mollusks, while sodium and magnesium maintain mineral stability. When levels of elements such as chloride or phosphorus rise unnaturally, however, the lake's chemistry shifts in ways that damage both ecosystems and human use.
Monitoring these chemical reactions helps prevent major damage. Tracking phosphorus levels makes it possible to predict algal blooms, while chloride studies guide alternatives to road salt, such as sand or organic compounds. Establishing buffer zones around farms and improving wastewater treatment can also reduce nutrient flow into lakes.
Yet, implementing such measures often demands high costs or changes in established practices. Farmers may resist reducing fertilizer use, while cities in snowy regions rely heavily on road salts for safety. Balancing ecological preservation with economic and practical needs remains a challenge. If ignored, these reactions can leave lakes unsuitable for consumption, raising the risk of dehydration in communities dependent on them. Protecting the chemical balance of lakes is therefore vital not only for biodiversity but also for ensuring safe and reliable freshwater for human survival.
According to the passage, why is it difficult to protect lakes from harmful chemical changes?
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Answer: (C) Human reluctance and economic dependency hinder ecological practices.
Explanation
Implementing measures to protect lake chemistry is challenging because it requires high costs and disruptions to established practices. Farmers often resist reducing fertilizer application, and municipalities depend heavily on road salts for winter road safety, creating a persistent conflict between economic and practical necessities and ecological conservation.
50English Language
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Lakes are crucial freshwater reserves that support aquatic life, agriculture, and human needs. Their long- term health depends greatly on internal chemical processes. Two significant ones are phosphorus reactions and the chloride + water reaction.
Phosphorus, though essential for growth, becomes harmful when it enters lakes in excess through fertilizers, detergents, or untreated sewage. These phosphorus reactions trigger algal blooms that block sunlight and reduce oxygen. As algae decompose, oxygen levels in the lake lower, suffocating fish and disrupting biodiversity. Since phosphorus can remain trapped in sediments for years, its negative effects often persist long after the external supply is reduced.
The chloride + water reaction influences lakes differently. Chloride, introduced through road salts, mining, or industrial effluents, steadily raises salinity. This alters water density and circulation, stressing species adapted to freshwater. Over time, plant diversity declines, fish populations shrink, and the water often acquires a taste unsuitable for drinking or irrigation.
Lake water naturally contains several elements vital for ecological balance. Oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms, calcium supports shell- forming species like mollusks, while sodium and magnesium maintain mineral stability. When levels of elements such as chloride or phosphorus rise unnaturally, however, the lake's chemistry shifts in ways that damage both ecosystems and human use.
Monitoring these chemical reactions helps prevent major damage. Tracking phosphorus levels makes it possible to predict algal blooms, while chloride studies guide alternatives to road salt, such as sand or organic compounds. Establishing buffer zones around farms and improving wastewater treatment can also reduce nutrient flow into lakes.
Yet, implementing such measures often demands high costs or changes in established practices. Farmers may resist reducing fertilizer use, while cities in snowy regions rely heavily on road salts for safety. Balancing ecological preservation with economic and practical needs remains a challenge. If ignored, these reactions can leave lakes unsuitable for consumption, raising the risk of dehydration in communities dependent on them. Protecting the chemical balance of lakes is therefore vital not only for biodiversity but also for ensuring safe and reliable freshwater for human survival.
Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to "lower" as used in the passage:
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Answer: (C) raise
Explanation
In the passage, "lower" is used as a verb signifying a decrease or reduction in oxygen levels. The direct opposite of decreasing or dropping a physical quantity or level is to raise or increase it.
51Reasoning Ability
Directions: A number and word arrangement machine, when given an input, rearranges the words and the numbers following a particular set of rules. An illustration is given below of it.
Input: 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment 22 Plummet 34 Resentment
Step I: Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment Plummet 34 22 Step II: Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 Enactment 34 22 75 Step III: Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 22 75 34 Step IV: Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing Stipulate 48 22 75 34 59 Step V: Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 22 75 34 59 48 Step VI: Quashing Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 22 75 34 59 48 53
Input: 43 Purview 68 Chronic 73 Dismantle 47 Incumbent 38 Relegating 56 Doughty
What is the position of "Incumbent" in Step VI from the left end?
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Answer: (E) Third
Explanation
In Step VI of the arrangement, the word 'Incumbent' is third from the left end, so the correct answer is 'Third'.
52Reasoning Ability
Directions: A number and word arrangement machine, when given an input, rearranges the words and the numbers following a particular set of rules. An illustration is given below of it.
Input: 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment 22 Plummet 34 Resentment
Step I: Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment Plummet 34 22 Step II: Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 Enactment 34 22 75 Step III: Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 22 75 34 Step IV: Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing Stipulate 48 22 75 34 59 Step V: Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 22 75 34 59 48 Step VI: Quashing Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 22 75 34 59 48 53
Input: 43 Purview 68 Chronic 73 Dismantle 47 Incumbent 38 Relegating 56 Doughty
How many numbers are to the left of "Doughty" in Step III?
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Answer: (B) Three
Explanation
The arrangement follows two simultaneous rules at each step:
Words are moved to the extreme left in ascending alphabetical order of their second letter: Relegating (e), Chronic (h), Dismantle (i), Incumbent (n), Doughty (o), Purview (u).
Numbers are shifted to the extreme right alternating between the smallest and largest remaining numbers: 38 (smallest), 73 (largest), 43 (2nd smallest), 68 (2nd largest), 47 (3rd smallest), 56 (3rd largest).
In Step III, the numbers to the left of "Doughty" are 68, 47, and 56, giving a total of three numbers.
53Reasoning Ability
Directions: A number and word arrangement machine, when given an input, rearranges the words and the numbers following a particular set of rules. An illustration is given below of it.
Input: 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment 22 Plummet 34 Resentment
Step I: Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment Plummet 34 22 Step II: Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 Enactment 34 22 75 Step III: Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 22 75 34 Step IV: Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing Stipulate 48 22 75 34 59 Step V: Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 22 75 34 59 48 Step VI: Quashing Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 22 75 34 59 48 53
Input: 43 Purview 68 Chronic 73 Dismantle 47 Incumbent 38 Relegating 56 Doughty
Which of the following numbers will be 2ⁿᵈ to the left of the 3ʳᵈ number from the right end in step V?
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Answer: (A) 38
Explanation
The rearrangement follows a dual pattern at each step:
Words are shifted to the extreme left in alternating order of length and alphabetical priority: longest word (Relegating, 10 letters), shortest word (Chronic, 7 letters), second longest (Dismantle, 9 letters), second shortest (Doughty, 7 letters), third longest (Incumbent, 9 letters), and third shortest (Purview, 7 letters).
Numbers are shifted to the extreme right in alternating numerical order: smallest (38), largest (73), second smallest (43), second largest (68), third smallest (47), and third largest (56).
In Step V, looking at the numbers from the right end:
1st number from the right = 47
2nd number from the right = 68
3rd number from the right = 43
The number 2nd to the left of 43 is 38.
54Reasoning Ability
Directions: A number and word arrangement machine, when given an input, rearranges the words and the numbers following a particular set of rules. An illustration is given below of it.
Input: 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment 22 Plummet 34 Resentment
Step I: Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment Plummet 34 22 Step II: Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 Enactment 34 22 75 Step III: Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 22 75 34 Step IV: Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing Stipulate 48 22 75 34 59 Step V: Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 22 75 34 59 48 Step VI: Quashing Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 22 75 34 59 48 53
Input: 43 Purview 68 Chronic 73 Dismantle 47 Incumbent 38 Relegating 56 Doughty
In which of the following step "Purview 68 47" exists in the same order?
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Answer: (C) Step III
Explanation
The rearrangement machine operates on two alternating rules simultaneously:
Words are moved to the extreme left in the order of longest word, shortest word, second longest, second shortest, and so on (with alphabetical order as the tie-breaker for words of equal length).
Numbers are moved to the extreme right in the order of smallest number, largest number, second smallest, second largest, and so on.
For the given input:
43 Purview 68 Chronic 73 Dismantle 47 Incumbent 38 Relegating 56 Doughty
Order of word movements (to the left):
Relegating (longest: 10)
Chronic (shortest: 7, C < D < P)
Dismantle (2nd longest: 9, D < I)
Doughty (2nd shortest: 7, D < P)
Incumbent (3rd longest: 9)
Purview (3rd shortest: 7)
Order of number movements (to the right):
38 (smallest)
73 (largest)
43 (2nd smallest)
68 (2nd largest)
47 (3rd smallest)
56 (3rd largest)
The sequence Purview 68 47 appears consecutively in Step III.
55Reasoning Ability
Directions: A number and word arrangement machine, when given an input, rearranges the words and the numbers following a particular set of rules. An illustration is given below of it.
Input: 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment 22 Plummet 34 Resentment
Step I: Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader 75 Stipulate 48 Enactment Plummet 34 22 Step II: Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 Enactment 34 22 75 Step III: Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 59 Crusader Stipulate 48 22 75 34 Step IV: Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing Stipulate 48 22 75 34 59 Step V: Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 53 Quashing 22 75 34 59 48 Step VI: Quashing Stipulate Crusader Enactment Plummet Resentment 22 75 34 59 48 53
Input: 43 Purview 68 Chronic 73 Dismantle 47 Incumbent 38 Relegating 56 Doughty
What is the sum of the numbers at the odd position in Step IV from the right end?
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Answer: (C) 120
Explanation
Arrangement Logic:
Words are moved to the left end in each step in ascending order of their second letter: Relegating (e), Chronic (h), Dismantle (i), Incumbent (n), Doughty (o), Purview (u).
Numbers are moved to the right end in an alternating sequence of lowest, highest, second lowest, second highest, and so on: 38, 73, 43, 68, 47, 56.
The odd numbers located at the odd positions from the right end are 73 (3rd position) and 47 (7th position).
Sum = 73 + 47 = 120
56Reasoning Ability
Directions: Study the following alphanumeric- symbol series carefully and answer the questions based on it.
F M 9 0 * Y 7 U F G % $ 3 2 O 6 @ N X 4 # L 1 & Z R 6 * V S
Which of the following element is fourth to the right of 12ᵗʰ element from the left end?
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Answer: (D) 6
Explanation
Position of the required element from the left end = 12 + 4 = 16th element.
Counting elements from the left in the given series:
1st to 5th: F, M, 9, 0, *
6th to 10th: Y, 7, U, F, G
11th to 15th: %, , 3, 2, 0
16th: 6
The 16th element from the left end is 6.
57Reasoning Ability
Study the following alphanumeric- symbol series carefully and answer the questions based on it.
FM90*Y7UFG%$3206@NX4#L1&ZR6*VS
How many such consonants are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?
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Answer: (C) Two
Explanation
The required pattern is Symbol followed by Consonant followed by Number.
Scanning the series for symbols and checking the subsequent elements:
Y7: The symbol is followed by the consonant Y, which is followed by the number 7.
#L1: The symbol # is followed by the consonant L, which is followed by the number 1.
No other combination in the given sequence satisfies this condition, giving a total of 2 such consonants.
58Reasoning Ability
Study the following alphanumeric- symbol series carefully and answer the questions based on it.
FM90*Y7UFG%$3206@NX4#L1&ZR6*VS
What will be the sum of 3ʳᵈ odd number from left end and 2ⁿᵈ number from right end?
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Answer: (B) 4
Explanation
Scanning the series from the left end, the odd numbers encountered are 9 (first), 7 (second), and 3 (third). Thus, the third odd number from the left end is 3.
Scanning the series from the right end, the numbers encountered are 6 (first) and 1 (second). Thus, the second number from the right end is 1.
Sum = 3 + 1 = 4.
59Reasoning Ability
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:
Seven people- A, B, C, D, E, F and G- live on different floors of a 7- floor building but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor just above it is numbered 2, and so on. Who lives three floors below A.
Statement I: A lives on an even- numbered floor. E lives immediately above A. B lives on floor number 4. There are as many persons live above A as below G.
Statement II: D lives on a floor immediately above G. F does not live on the topmost floor. C lives on floor number 5 below A.
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Answer: (E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Explanation
From Statement I, A lives on an even floor and B lives on floor 4, so A is on floor 2 or 6. If A is on floor 6, E is on floor 7, and since the number of people above A equals the number below G, G is on floor 2. However, the occupants of floors 1, 3, and 5 remain undetermined among C, D, and F. Thus, Statement I alone is not sufficient.
From Statement II alone, the floor numbers for A and the others cannot be uniquely determined.
Combining both statements, since G is on floor 2 and D lives immediately above G, D must be on floor 3. Statement II also specifies C on floor 5 (below A = 6) and F on floor 1, eliminating any other configuration (if A were on floor 2, floor 5 could not be below A). Hence, A lives on floor 6 and D lives on floor 3, exactly three floors below A. Both statements together are necessary to answer the question.
60Reasoning Ability
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:
In a row of children facing North, where does Rajat stand in the row?
Statement I: Jyoti stands 3ʳᵈ from left end and 2ⁿᵈ to the left of Rajat who stands immediate left of the one who is 10ᵗʰ from the right end of the row.
Statement II: There are 19 children between Rajat and Meena, and Meena is 15ᵗʰ from one of the ends of the row.
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Answer: (A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
From Statement I, Jyoti is 3rd from the left end. Since Jyoti is 2nd to the left of Rajat, Rajat is 3 + 2 = 5th from the left end. Additionally, Rajat is immediately to the left of the person who is 10th from the right end, which places Rajat 11th from the right end (with total children = 5 + 11 - 1 = 15). Thus, Rajat's position is uniquely determined. Statement II does not specify which end Meena is counted from or whether Rajat is to her left or right, making it insufficient.
61Reasoning Ability
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:
In four family members, how is Rohan related to Meena?
Statement I: Rohan's father is the only brother of Meena's mother. Statement II: Meena's mother is the sister of the father of Rohan's sister.
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Answer: (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
From Statement I, Rohan's father is the brother of Meena's mother, establishing that Rohan's father and Meena's mother are siblings. Therefore, Rohan is Meena's cousin.
From Statement II, the father of Rohan's sister is Rohan's father. Since Meena's mother is the sister of Rohan's father, they are siblings, which also establishes that Rohan is Meena's cousin.
Since each statement independently determines the relationship, either statement alone is sufficient.
62Reasoning Ability
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer:
Eight boxes- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W- are stacked above each other but not necessarily in the same order.
Statement I: Box P is immediately above box Q. Box S is immediately above box R, which is not at the bottommost position.
Statement II: Box T is above box U but below box V. Box W is at the bottommost position. Box P is not at the topmost position.
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Answer: (D) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
63Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven Boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F and G placed one above the other and all are of different colours viz. Yellow, Brown, Pink, Green, Red, Black and Blue but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different items i.e., Balls, Pencils, Chocolate, Juice, Berry, Toys and Bottles but not necessarily in the same order.
Box A is placed three places above the brown colour. More than three boxes placed between box B and the box of yellow colour. Blue colour box placed below the box which is contains Bottles and placed above the box which contains Balls. The box contains Chocolate placed just above box B. Two boxes placed between box B and box E which contains Juice. Box C is of red colour and placed 2 places above box E. Brown colour box contains Pencil but that is not box B. Box F is placed above the box of yellow colour. Black colour box contains Toy's and placed below box D. Green colour box contains Berry.
How many boxes placed between black colour box and green colour box?
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Answer: (A) As many boxes placed below box D
Explanation
Arranging the boxes from top (7) to bottom (1) based on the given conditions gives:
Position 7: Box A, Pink, Chocolate
Position 6: Box B, Green, Berry
Position 5: Box C, Red, Bottles
Position 4: Box D, Brown, Pencil
Position 3: Box E, Blue, Juice
Position 2: Box F, Black, Toys
Position 1: Box G, Yellow, Balls
The black box is at position 2 and the green box is at position 6. The number of boxes placed between them is 3 (boxes at positions 3, 4, and 5).
Box D is at position 4, so the number of boxes placed below box D is also 3 (boxes at positions 1, 2, and 3).
64Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven Boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F and G placed one above the other and all are of different colours viz. Yellow, Brown, Pink, Green, Red, Black and Blue but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different items i.e., Balls, Pencils, Chocolate, Juice, Berry, Toys and Bottles but not necessarily in the same order.
Box A is placed three places above the brown colour. More than three boxes placed between box B and the box of yellow colour. Blue colour box placed below the box which is contains Bottles and placed above the box which contains Balls. The box contains Chocolate placed just above box B. Two boxes placed between box B and box E which contains Juice. Box C is of red colour and placed 2 places above box E. Brown colour box contains Pencil but that is not box B. Box F is placed above the box of yellow colour. Black colour box contains Toy's and placed below box D. Green colour box contains Berry.
Which of the following statement is not true?
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Answer: (D) Box C is placed just below box D
Explanation
Arranging the boxes from top (7) to bottom (1) based on the given clues:
Position 7: Box A (Pink, Chocolate)
Position 6: Box B (Green, Berry)
Position 5: Box C (Red, Bottles)
Position 4: Box D (Brown, Pencil)
Position 3: Box E (Blue, Juice)
Position 2: Box F (Black, Toys)
Position 1: Box G (Yellow, Balls)
Box C is at position 5 and Box D is at position 4. Therefore, Box C is placed immediately above Box D, not below it.
65Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven Boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F and G placed one above the other and all are of different colours viz. Yellow, Brown, Pink, Green, Red, Black and Blue but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different items i.e., Balls, Pencils, Chocolate, Juice, Berry, Toys and Bottles but not necessarily in the same order.
Box A is placed three places above the brown colour. More than three boxes placed between box B and the box of yellow colour. Blue colour box placed below the box which is contains Bottles and placed above the box which contains Balls. The box contains Chocolate placed just above box B. Two boxes placed between box B and box E which contains Juice. Box C is of red colour and placed 2 places above box E. Brown colour box contains Pencil but that is not box B. Box F is placed above the box of yellow colour. Black colour box contains Toy's and placed below box D. Green colour box contains Berry.
If box A and box E interchanged with each other then, how many boxes placed above box A?
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Answer: (A) Four
Explanation
Arranging the seven boxes from position 7 (top) to position 1 (bottom) using the given clues:
Position 7: Box A (Pink, Chocolate)
Position 6: Box B (Green, Berry)
Position 5: Box C (Red, Bottles)
Position 4: Box D (Brown, Pencil)
Position 3: Box E (Blue, Juice)
Position 2: Box F (Black, Toys)
Position 1: Box G (Yellow, Balls)
When Box A and Box E are interchanged, Box A moves to position 3. The boxes located above position 3 are those at positions 4, 5, 6, and 7, giving a total of four boxes above Box A.
66Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven Boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F and G placed one above the other and all are of different colours viz. Yellow, Brown, Pink, Green, Red, Black and Blue but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different items i.e., Balls, Pencils, Chocolate, Juice, Berry, Toys and Bottles but not necessarily in the same order.
Box A is placed three places above the brown colour. More than three boxes placed between box B and the box of yellow colour. Blue colour box placed below the box which is contains Bottles and placed above the box which contains Balls. The box contains Chocolate placed just above box B. Two boxes placed between box B and box E which contains Juice. Box C is of red colour and placed 2 places above box E. Brown colour box contains Pencil but that is not box B. Box F is placed above the box of yellow colour. Black colour box contains Toy's and placed below box D. Green colour box contains Berry.
If box D is related to bottles and box F is related to juice in the same way which of the following box is related to chocolate?
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Answer: (B) B
Explanation
Arranging the seven boxes from top (7) to bottom (1) based on the given conditions gives:
Position 7: Box A, Pink, Chocolate
Position 6: Box B, Green, Berry
Position 5: Box C, Red, Bottles
Position 4: Box D, Brown, Pencil
Position 3: Box E, Blue, Juice
Position 2: Box F, Black, Toys
Position 1: Box G, Yellow, Balls
The pattern relates each box to the item inside the box situated directly above it:
Box D (position 4) is directly below Bottles (position 5).
Box F (position 2) is directly below Juice (position 3).
Following the same logic, Box B (position 6) is directly below Chocolate (position 7).
67Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven Boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F and G placed one above the other and all are of different colours viz. Yellow, Brown, Pink, Green, Red, Black and Blue but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different items i.e., Balls, Pencils, Chocolate, Juice, Berry, Toys and Bottles but not necessarily in the same order.
Box A is placed three places above the brown colour. More than three boxes placed between box B and the box of yellow colour. Blue colour box placed below the box which is contains Bottles and placed above the box which contains Balls. The box contains Chocolate placed just above box B. Two boxes placed between box B and box E which contains Juice. Box C is of red colour and placed 2 places above box E. Brown colour box contains Pencil but that is not box B. Box F is placed above the box of yellow colour. Black colour box contains Toy's and placed below box D. Green colour box contains Berry.
How many boxes placed above the pink colour box?
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Answer: (C) None
Explanation
Arranging the 7 boxes from top (7) to bottom (1) based on the given conditions:
Position 7: Box A, Pink colour, contains Chocolate
Position 6: Box B, Green colour, contains Berry
Position 5: Box C, Red colour, contains Bottles
Position 4: Box D, Brown colour, contains Pencil
Position 3: Box E, Blue colour, contains Juice
Position 2: Box F, Black colour, contains Toys
Position 1: Box G, Yellow colour, contains Balls
Since the Pink colour box is at the topmost position (Position 7), zero boxes are placed above it.
68Reasoning Ability
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it: In a family, D is mother- in- law of N. N's spouse is only paternal aunt of E. P is the mother of E's sibling. V is the grandchild of P's father- in- law. C is father- in- law of V's mother who is U. A is the only nephew of N's spouse. L is paternal grandparent of A whose parent is G. R is parent of L's son- in- law and parent of H. Gender of G and H is same but different to N's child.
If R has a daughter, then, how will N's spouse relate to R's daughter?
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Answer: (A) Sister-in-law
Explanation
From the given information:
N's spouse is U (female), who is the daughter of L and D, and the sister of G.
G is married to P, and their children are A (male) and E (female).
C (father) and R (mother) are the parents of N (male) and H (male).
Since N is the son of R, any daughter of R is N's sister.
N's spouse (U) is the wife of N, which makes her the sister-in-law (brother's wife) of R's daughter.
69Reasoning Ability
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it: In a family, D is mother- in- law of N. N's spouse is only paternal aunt of E. P is the mother of E's sibling. V is the grandchild of P's father- in- law. C is father- in- law of V's mother who is U. A is the only nephew of N's spouse. L is paternal grandparent of A whose parent is G. R is parent of L's son- in- law and parent of H. Gender of G and H is same but different to N's child.
What is the relation of H with respect to E's cousin?
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Answer: (B) Uncle
Explanation
From the given information:
L (male) and D (female) are married. Their children are G (male) and U (female).
G is married to P (female), and their children are E (female) and A (male).
U is married to N (male), and their child is V (female).
C (male) and R (female) are married, and their children are N (male) and H (male).
E's cousin is V (child of U and N).
H is the brother of V's father, N.
Therefore, H is the paternal uncle of E's cousin V.
70Reasoning Ability
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it: In a family, D is mother- in- law of N. N's spouse is only paternal aunt of E. P is the mother of E's sibling. V is the grandchild of P's father- in- law. C is father- in- law of V's mother who is U. A is the only nephew of N's spouse. L is paternal grandparent of A whose parent is G. R is parent of L's son- in- law and parent of H. Gender of G and H is same but different to N's child.
Who among the following is A's mother?
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Answer: (C) P
Explanation
From the given relationships:
L (father) and D (mother) have two children: a son G and a daughter U.
U is married to N, which makes U the only paternal aunt of G's children.
G is married to P, and their children are E and A (the only nephew of U).
Therefore, P is the mother of A.
71Reasoning Ability
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it: In a family, D is mother- in- law of N. N's spouse is only paternal aunt of E. P is the mother of E's sibling. V is the grandchild of P's father- in- law. C is father- in- law of V's mother who is U. A is the only nephew of N's spouse. L is paternal grandparent of A whose parent is G. R is parent of L's son- in- law and parent of H. Gender of G and H is same but different to N's child.
If V is married to S, then how will S relate to N?
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Answer: (C) Son-in-law
Explanation
From the given family relationships:
U is the spouse of N and the only paternal aunt of E, while G is E and A's father (married to P). L and D are the parents of G and U, making L the paternal grandfather of A.
C and R are the parents of N and H. Since G is male, H is also male. The child of N and U is V, whose gender differs from G and H, making V female (N's daughter).
When V marries S, S becomes the husband of N's daughter, which makes S the son-in-law of N.
72Reasoning Ability
1 million species at risk of extinction: UN. Industrial farming, fishing are factors that threaten to end existence of many species, says report. Relentless pursuit of economic growth, twinned with the impact of climate change, has put an "unprecedented" one million species at risk of extinction.
Which of the following is a course of action for the following statement?
(I) This is the impact of the damage done by modern civilization to the natural world.
(II) Only a wide-ranging transformation of the global economic and financial system could pull ecosystems that are vital to the future of species and human communities worldwide.
(III) The essential, interconnected web of life on Earth is getting smaller and increasingly frayed due to this extinction.
(IV) "This loss is a direct result of human activity and constitutes a direct threat to human well-being in all regions of the world."
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Answer: (B) Only II is implicit
Explanation
Statement II is the course of action here, since it gives the corrective steps that should be taken, while statement I explains the causes behind the extinction and statement III discusses the aftermath of the problem. Since only II states a corrective action, only II is implicit.
73Reasoning Ability
Training and completing a first-time marathon reverse ageing of major blood vessels, according to a study which found that the older and slower runners benefit the most.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?
(I) Only first-time marathon runners will get benefit from it.
(II) Those who run fast gets older earlier than others.
(III) Blood vessels play a major role in ageing of the person.
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Answer: (B) Only III is implicit
Explanation
The study establishes that reversing the biological aging of major blood vessels provides significant rejuvenation benefits, demonstrating that the elasticity, health, and functioning of the vascular system are directly tied to the physiological aging process of an individual.
74Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square- shaped table. Four persons sit at the corners of the table and face inside, while the other four sit at the middle of each side and face outside. Each person is from a different city- Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Pune, Jaipur, Hyderabad, and Bengaluru. G sits two places away from the one who is from Pune. The one who sits immediate left of the one who is from Pune doesn't sit on the middle of the sides of the table. The one who is from Delhi sits third to the right of G. One person lives between the ones who are from Delhi and Chennai. A sits immediate right of the one who is from Chennai. No one sits between E and D who sits third to the left of A. C is from Jaipur and sits immediately to the right of B. B doesn't sit at the corners. Three persons sit between the ones who are from Kolkata and Mumbai. The ones who are from Mumbai and Delhi are not immediate neighbours. B and D are not from Bengaluru. F doesn't sit immediate right of A.
Who sits second to the left of the person who sits immediate left of the one who is from Hyderabad?
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Answer: (B) G
Explanation
Arranging the eight persons around the square table in clockwise order (positions 1 to 8):
Position 1 (Corner, facing inside): H from Chennai
Position 2 (Side, facing outside): B from Pune
Position 3 (Corner, facing inside): C from Jaipur
Position 4 (Side, facing outside): G from Mumbai
Position 5 (Corner, facing inside): D from Hyderabad
Position 6 (Side, facing outside): E from Bengaluru
Position 7 (Corner, facing inside): F from Delhi
Position 8 (Side, facing outside): A from Kolkata
From this arrangement:
The person from Hyderabad is D (at position 5, facing inside).
The person sitting immediately to the left of D is E (at position 6, facing outside).
Since E faces outside, the direction to the left is counter-clockwise: the first person to the left of E is D (position 5), and the second person to the left of E is G (position 4).
75Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square- shaped table. Four persons sit at the corners of the table and face inside, while the other four sit at the middle of each side and face outside. Each person is from a different city- Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Pune, Jaipur, Hyderabad, and Bengaluru. G sits two places away from the one who is from Pune. The one who sits immediate left of the one who is from Pune doesn't sit on the middle of the sides of the table. The one who is from Delhi sits third to the right of G. One person lives between the ones who are from Delhi and Chennai. A sits immediate right of the one who is from Chennai. No one sits between E and D who sits third to the left of A. C is from Jaipur and sits immediately to the right of B. B doesn't sit at the corners. Three persons sit between the ones who are from Kolkata and Mumbai. The ones who are from Mumbai and Delhi are not immediate neighbours. B and D are not from Bengaluru. F doesn't sit immediate right of A.
If A is related to Mumbai and in the same way E is related to Pune, then F is related to which among the following?
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Answer: (C) Jaipur
Explanation
Arranging the eight persons around the square table based on the given conditions gives the following clockwise arrangement starting from a corner:
Position 1 (Corner, facing in): H from Chennai
Position 2 (Side, facing out): B from Pune
Position 3 (Corner, facing in): C from Jaipur
Position 4 (Side, facing out): G from Mumbai
Position 5 (Corner, facing in): D from Hyderabad
Position 6 (Side, facing out): E from Bengaluru
Position 7 (Corner, facing in): F from Delhi
Position 8 (Side, facing out): A from Kolkata
The relation follows the logic where each person is mapped to the city of the person sitting directly opposite:
A at position 8 is opposite to G from Mumbai.
E at position 6 is opposite to B from Pune.
F at position 7 sits directly opposite to C, who is from Jaipur.
76Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square- shaped table. Four persons sit at the corners of the table and face inside, while the other four sit at the middle of each side and face outside. Each person is from a different city- Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Pune, Jaipur, Hyderabad, and Bengaluru. G sits two places away from the one who is from Pune. The one who sits immediate left of the one who is from Pune doesn't sit on the middle of the sides of the table. The one who is from Delhi sits third to the right of G. One person lives between the ones who are from Delhi and Chennai. A sits immediate right of the one who is from Chennai. No one sits between E and D who sits third to the left of A. C is from Jaipur and sits immediately to the right of B. B doesn't sit at the corners. Three persons sit between the ones who are from Kolkata and Mumbai. The ones who are from Mumbai and Delhi are not immediate neighbours. B and D are not from Bengaluru. F doesn't sit immediate right of A.
What is the position of H with respect to the one who is from Delhi?
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Answer: (C) Second to the left
Explanation
From the given arrangement, persons at the middle of the sides face outside while persons at the corners face inside:
Middle of sides (facing outside): G (Mumbai), E (Bengaluru), A (Kolkata), and B (Pune).
Corners (facing inside): D (Hyderabad), F (Delhi), H (Chennai), and C (Jaipur).
The one from Delhi (F) sits at a corner facing inside towards the center. Moving clockwise from F corresponds to F's left:
1st to the left of F is A (Kolkata)
2nd to the left of F is H (Chennai)
Thus, H sits second to the left of the one who is from Delhi.
77Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square- shaped table. Four persons sit at the corners of the table and face inside, while the other four sit at the middle of each side and face outside. Each person is from a different city- Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Pune, Jaipur, Hyderabad, and Bengaluru. G sits two places away from the one who is from Pune. The one who sits immediate left of the one who is from Pune doesn't sit on the middle of the sides of the table. The one who is from Delhi sits third to the right of G. One person lives between the ones who are from Delhi and Chennai. A sits immediate right of the one who is from Chennai. No one sits between E and D who sits third to the left of A. C is from Jaipur and sits immediately to the right of B. B doesn't sit at the corners. Three persons sit between the ones who are from Kolkata and Mumbai. The ones who are from Mumbai and Delhi are not immediate neighbours. B and D are not from Bengaluru. F doesn't sit immediate right of A.
Four of the following five belong to a certain group based on their facing direction. Find the one who does not belong to the group.
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Answer: (D) The one who is from Mumbai
Explanation
From the given conditions, the arrangement of persons and cities around the square table is:
Corner seats (facing inside): H from Chennai, C from Jaipur, D from Hyderabad, and F from Delhi.
Middle seats (facing outside): B from Pune, G from Mumbai, E from Bengaluru, and A from Kolkata.
F, H, C, and the person from Hyderabad (D) all sit at the corners of the table and face inside towards the center. The person from Mumbai (G) sits at the middle of a side and faces outside, making it the odd one out.
78Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square- shaped table. Four persons sit at the corners of the table and face inside, while the other four sit at the middle of each side and face outside. Each person is from a different city- Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Pune, Jaipur, Hyderabad, and Bengaluru. G sits two places away from the one who is from Pune. The one who sits immediate left of the one who is from Pune doesn't sit on the middle of the sides of the table. The one who is from Delhi sits third to the right of G. One person lives between the ones who are from Delhi and Chennai. A sits immediate right of the one who is from Chennai. No one sits between E and D who sits third to the left of A. C is from Jaipur and sits immediately to the right of B. B doesn't sit at the corners. Three persons sit between the ones who are from Kolkata and Mumbai. The ones who are from Mumbai and Delhi are not immediate neighbours. B and D are not from Bengaluru. F doesn't sit immediate right of A.
Who is from Bengaluru?
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Answer: (D) E
Explanation
Evaluating the seating positions around the square table where corner positions face inside and middle-side positions face outside:
Pune is at a middle position (facing outside) so that its immediate left is a corner.
B sits at the middle from Pune, and C sits to B's immediate right at a corner from Jaipur.
G sits at a middle position (two places away from Pune) and is from Mumbai.
F sits at a corner (third to the right of G) and is from Delhi.
H sits at a corner (one place away from Delhi) and is from Chennai.
A sits at the middle (immediate right of H) and is from Kolkata (opposite Mumbai).
D sits at a corner (third to the left of A) and is from Hyderabad.
E sits at the middle adjacent to D.
Since B and D cannot be from Bengaluru, E is from Bengaluru.
79Reasoning Ability
Statement: Due to the devastating floods in several states, the government has announced a special relief package for affected farmers.
Which of the following is an assumption implicit in this statement?
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Answer: (A) Farmers are among the worst-affected groups in flood-hit areas.
Explanation
An implicit assumption is an unstated premise necessary for the statement to hold logical validity. When the government introduces a targeted relief package specifically directed toward farmers in response to widespread flooding, it presupposes that the farming community has endured substantial damage and represents one of the critically impacted segments requiring immediate state intervention.
80Reasoning Ability
Statement: To reduce increasing air pollution levels in major cities, the government has decided to impose stricter emission norms for vehicles.
Which of the following is an assumption implicit in this decision?
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Answer: (B) Vehicular emissions are a significant contributor to rising pollution levels.
Explanation
For a targeted policy intervention to reduce overall air pollution by regulating vehicles, there must be a direct causal assumption that vehicular emissions contribute substantially to the worsening air quality. Without this link, imposing stricter emission standards on vehicles would fail to impact pollution levels meaningfully.
81Reasoning Ability
Read the given instructions carefully and answer the related questions:
A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and face north. H sits third to the right of K. B sits five places away from K. At most three persons sit between B and G who is an immediate neighbour of K. The number of persons sit between G and O is two times the number of persons sit between G and B. O sits fourth from the left end of the row. One person sits between O and V. As many persons sits to the left of V as to the right of M who sits immediate left of H. Not more than three person sits to the right of H.
How many persons sit between M and O?
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Answer: (D) Nine
Explanation
O is positioned 4th from the left end. Since V has one person between O and V, V is at position 2 or 6.
Let the total number of persons be N. The number of persons to the left of V equals the number of persons to the right of M. Since M is immediately left of H and H is third to the right of K, M is two places to the right of K and H is three places to the right of K. With at most 3 persons to the right of H, V must be at position 2, placing 1 person to the left of V and 1 person to the right of M, which makes H the last person at position N = pos(M) + 1.
The number of persons between G and B is 3, so the number of persons between G and O is 2 × 3 = 6. Since O is at position 4, G is at position 4 + 6 + 1 = 11.
Since G is an immediate neighbour of K and B is five places away from K with at most 3 persons between B and G, K is at position 12 and B is at position 7.
Consequently, M is at position 12 + 2 = 14, and H is at position 15. The number of persons sitting between M (position 14) and O (position 4) is 14 − 4 − 1 = 9.
82Reasoning Ability
Read the given instructions carefully and answer the related questions:
A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and face north. H sits third to the right of K. B sits five places away from K. At most three persons sit between B and G who is an immediate neighbour of K. The number of persons sit between G and O is two times the number of persons sit between G and B. O sits fourth from the left end of the row. One person sits between O and V. As many persons sits to the left of V as to the right of M who sits immediate left of H. Not more than three person sits to the right of H.
Who among the following sits seventh to the left of M?
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Answer: (C) B
Explanation
Position the individuals from left to right in a linear row facing north:
O sits fourth from the left end (position 4). Since one person sits between O and V, V can be at position 2 or position 6. If V is at position 6, there are 5 persons to the left of V, meaning 5 persons must sit to the right of M, which leaves 4 persons to the right of H, violating the condition that at most 3 persons sit to the right of H. Thus, V is fixed at position 2 (1 person to its left).
With 1 person to the left of V, exactly 1 person sits to the right of M. Since M sits immediately left of H, H is the last person in the row (position 15), M is at position 14, and the total length of the row is 15.
H sits third to the right of K, placing K at position 12. G is an immediate neighbour of K at position 11. B sits 5 places away from K to the left at position 7, leaving 3 persons between B and G, and 6 persons between G and O (satisfying 6 = 2 × 3).
Since M is at position 14, the person sitting seventh to the left of M is at position 14 - 7 = 7, which is B.
83Reasoning Ability
Read the given instructions carefully and answer the related questions:
A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and face north. H sits third to the right of K. B sits five places away from K. At most three persons sit between B and G who is an immediate neighbour of K. The number of persons sit between G and O is two times the number of persons sit between G and B. O sits fourth from the left end of the row. One person sits between O and V. As many persons sits to the left of V as to the right of M who sits immediate left of H. Not more than three person sits to the right of H.
How many persons sit in the row?
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Answer: (A) 15
Explanation
Position O is 4th from the left end, so O = 4.
Since B is 5 places away from K and G is an immediate neighbour of K with at most 3 persons between B and G, the number of persons between B and G must be 3.
The number of persons between G and O is 2 × 3 = 6, which places G at position 11 (4 + 6 + 1 = 11).
With G at 11 and 3 persons between G and B, B is at position 7, which gives K = 12.
H sits third to the right of K, so H = 15, and M sits immediately left of H at position 14.
One person sits between O and V, so V is at position 2.
The number of persons to the left of V is 1, which equals the number of persons to the right of M.
Thus, exactly 1 person sits to the right of M, making the total number of persons in the row 14 + 1 = 15.
84Reasoning Ability
If in the given word "CONCEPTUAL", all the letters are arranged in alphabetical order from the right end, then the position of how many letters remain unchanged in the new arrangement?
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Answer: (C) None
Explanation
The word CONCEPTUAL has 10 letters: C, O, N, C, E, P, T, U, A, L.
Arranging these letters in alphabetical order gives A, C, C, E, L, N, O, P, T, U.
Placing them in alphabetical order starting from the right end gives:
Original: C-O-N-C-E-P-T-U-A-L
New order: U-T-P-O-N-L-E-C-C-A
Comparing each position from 1 to 10:
Position 1: C and U
Position 2: O and T
Position 3: N and P
Position 4: C and O
Position 5: E and N
Position 6: P and L
Position 7: T and E
Position 8: U and C
Position 9: A and C
Position 10: L and A
None of the letters remain in their original positions.
85Reasoning Ability
If 'MUD' is written as 'FYS', and 'BAT' is written as 'VEH', then how is 'HAN' written, also the code of "HAN" should be a meaningful word?
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Answer: (D) PEN
Explanation
The coding logic reverses the order of the letters in the input word and shifts their alphabetical positions forward by +2, +4, and +6:
Third letter + 2 gives the first coded letter: N (14) + 2 = 16 (P)
Second letter + 4 gives the second coded letter: A (1) + 4 = 5 (E)
First letter + 6 gives the third coded letter: H (8) + 6 = 14 (N)
Combining these positions yields the meaningful word PEN.
86Reasoning Ability
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
Statements: D< H > U≥ E > N≥ P≤ K≤ R< S
Conclusions:
I. H > P
II. P≤ S
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Answer: (A) If only conclusion I is true
Explanation
From the given statement, evaluating the path between H and P:
H > U ≥ E > N ≥ P
Since the strictly greater sign (>) has the highest priority along the path, the resulting relation is H > P. Thus, conclusion I is definitely true.
Evaluating the path between P and S:
P ≤ K ≤ R < S
Since the strictly less sign (<) has the highest priority along the path, the resulting relation is P < S. Therefore, the relation P ≤ S does not follow.
87Reasoning Ability
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
Statements: P≥ M = O< D;R > O = T;R< H
Conclusions:
I. H > M
II. P≥ T
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Answer: (D) If both conclusions I and II are true
Explanation
Combining the statements via the common element O:
For Conclusion I, linking H > R with R > O and O = M gives the chain H > R > O = M, which establishes H > M.
For Conclusion II, linking P ≥ M = O with O = T gives the chain P ≥ O = T, which establishes P ≥ T.
Therefore, both conclusions are valid.
88Reasoning Ability
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
Statements: S > W≥ T≤ Z;K > R< J = N≥ T
Conclusions:
I. Z≥ J
II. R< S
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Answer: (E) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
Explanation
To evaluate Conclusion I (Z ≥ J), combine the statements involving Z and J via common element T: Z ≥ T ≤ N = J. Since opposite inequality signs (≥ and ≤) appear between Z and J, no definite relationship can be established.
To evaluate Conclusion II (R < S), combine the path from S to R via T: S > W ≥ T ≤ N = J > R. Opposite inequality signs (> and ≤) meet at T, meaning no definite relationship exists between S and R.
Neither conclusion follows from the given statements.
89Reasoning Ability
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
Statements: Y = A≥ R< V;I = B≤ V< L
Conclusions:
I. A≥ I
II. Y< B
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Answer: (C) If either conclusion I or II is true
Explanation
From the given statements, Y = A and I = B. Connecting A and B through common element V yields the path A ≥ R < V ≥ B. The presence of opposing inequality signs (< and ≥) means no definite relation can be established between A and B.
Substituting the equivalent variables into the conclusions gives A ≥ B for Conclusion I and A < B for Conclusion II. Together, these two conclusions exhaust all three possible relational states (greater than, equal to, or less than). Hence, they form a complementary pair where either conclusion I or II is true.
90Reasoning Ability
In the number '435673538', the digit which are less than 6 is subtracted by 2 and rest all the digits are subtracted by 1. Now remove all the repeated digits and then find the difference between sum of odd digits and sum of even digits in the new number formed after rearrangement?
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Answer: (B) 4
Explanation
Number 435673538: digits <6 (4,3,5,3,5,3) each -2 -> 2,1,3,1,3,1; digits >=6 (6,7,8) each -1 -> 5,6,7. New sequence by position: 2,1,3,5,6,1,3,1,7. Removing all digits that repeat (1 appears 3x, 3 appears 2x) leaves 2,5,6,7. Sum of odd digits (5+7=12) minus sum of even digits (2+6=8) = 4. Option (b).
91Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H- live on eight different floors of a building, where the floors are numbered from 1 to 8 (the bottom- most floor is numbered 1 and the top- most floor is numbered 8). Each of them likes a different subject - Philosophy, Chemistry, Biology, Science, English, Physics, Mathematics and Hindi.
Three persons live between H and the one who like English. At least three persons live below H. As many persons live above the one who likes English as below the one who likes Science. G likes Physics and lives on the second floor, immediately below E. More than two persons live between D and the one who likes Science. D doesn't like Philosophy and doesn't live on fourth floor. The one who likes Biology lives two floors above D. Two persons live between the ones who like Biology and Chemistry. The one who likes chemistry live immediately below C and immediately above A. A lives above F who lives three floors below the one who likes Hindi.
The number of floors above the floor on which A lives is one more than the number of floors below the floor on which the person who likes ______ lives.
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Answer: (D) Biology
Explanation
Arranging the eight persons from top to bottom (floors 8 to 1) according to the given clues yields:
Floor 8: H (Philosophy)
Floor 7: C (Hindi)
Floor 6: B (Chemistry)
Floor 5: A (Science)
Floor 4: F (English)
Floor 3: E (Biology)
Floor 2: G (Physics)
Floor 1: D (Mathematics)
A lives on floor 5, so the number of floors above A is 8 - 5 = 3.
Let the required person live on floor k, so the number of floors below is k - 1.
Given: 3 = (k - 1) + 1 => k = 3.
The person living on floor 3 likes Biology.
92Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H- live on eight different floors of a building, where the floors are numbered from 1 to 8 (the bottom- most floor is numbered 1 and the top- most floor is numbered 8). Each of them likes a different subject - Philosophy, Chemistry, Biology, Science, English, Physics, Mathematics and Hindi.
Three persons live between H and the one who like English. At least three persons live below H. As many persons live above the one who likes English as below the one who likes Science. G likes Physics and lives on the second floor, immediately below E. More than two persons live between D and the one who likes Science. D doesn't like Philosophy and doesn't live on fourth floor. The one who likes Biology lives two floors above D. Two persons live between the ones who like Biology and Chemistry. The one who likes chemistry live immediately below C and immediately above A. A lives above F who lives three floors below the one who likes Hindi.
Which subject does F like?
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Answer: (B) English
Explanation
Placing G with Physics on floor 2 puts E on floor 3. With H on floor 8, the condition of three floors between H and English places English on floor 4. Consequently, Science is on floor 5 to balance the equal number of floors above English (4 floors) and below Science (4 floors).
Since more than two floors separate D from Science (floor 5), D must be on floor 1. Biology is two floors above D on floor 3 (E), placing Chemistry on floor 6 (two floors above Biology).
The consecutive group of C, Chemistry, and A places C on floor 7, Chemistry on floor 6 (B), and A on floor 5. Since F lives below A and three floors below Hindi (floor 7), F is on floor 4 and likes English.
93Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H- live on eight different floors of a building, where the floors are numbered from 1 to 8 (the bottom- most floor is numbered 1 and the top- most floor is numbered 8). Each of them likes a different subject - Philosophy, Chemistry, Biology, Science, English, Physics, Mathematics and Hindi.
Three persons live between H and the one who like English. At least three persons live below H. As many persons live above the one who likes English as below the one who likes Science. G likes Physics and lives on the second floor, immediately below E. More than two persons live between D and the one who likes Science. D doesn't like Philosophy and doesn't live on fourth floor. The one who likes Biology lives two floors above D. Two persons live between the ones who like Biology and Chemistry. The one who likes chemistry live immediately below C and immediately above A. A lives above F who lives three floors below the one who likes Hindi.
Who lives exactly between G and the one who likes Philosophy?
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Answer: (C) The one who likes Science
Explanation
Arranging the persons and subjects on floors 1 to 8:
Floor 8: H (Philosophy)
Floor 7: C (Hindi)
Floor 6: B (Chemistry)
Floor 5: A (Science)
Floor 4: F (English)
Floor 3: E (Biology)
Floor 2: G (Physics)
Floor 1: D (Mathematics)
G lives on floor 2 and the one who likes Philosophy (H) lives on floor 8. The floor exactly midway between floor 2 and floor 8 is (2 + 8) / 2 = 5, where the person who likes Science lives.
94Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H- live on eight different floors of a building, where the floors are numbered from 1 to 8 (the bottom- most floor is numbered 1 and the top- most floor is numbered 8). Each of them likes a different subject - Philosophy, Chemistry, Biology, Science, English, Physics, Mathematics and Hindi.
Three persons live between H and the one who like English. At least three persons live below H. As many persons live above the one who likes English as below the one who likes Science. G likes Physics and lives on the second floor, immediately below E. More than two persons live between D and the one who likes Science. D doesn't like Philosophy and doesn't live on fourth floor. The one who likes Biology lives two floors above D. Two persons live between the ones who like Biology and Chemistry. The one who likes chemistry live immediately below C and immediately above A. A lives above F who lives three floors below the one who likes Hindi.
Which of the following combination is correct?
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Answer: (E) D-Mathematics
Explanation
From the given conditions:
G lives on floor 2 and likes Physics, with E immediately above on floor 3.
H lives on floor 8, placing the one who likes English on floor 4 (three persons between H and English).
With 4 persons above English, 4 persons must live below Science, placing Science on floor 5.
The block of C, Chemistry, and A requires C on floor 7, Chemistry on floor 6, and A on floor 5 (so A likes Science).
A lives above F, placing F on floor 4 (English), which is 3 floors below Hindi on floor 7 (C likes Hindi).
Biology is 2 floors above Chemistry with two persons between them, placing Biology on floor 3 (E likes Biology), which means D lives on floor 1.
Since D does not like Philosophy, H likes Philosophy, leaving D with Mathematics, and B on floor 6 with Chemistry.
The final floor arrangement from top to bottom (8 to 1) is:
8: H - Philosophy
7: C - Hindi
6: B - Chemistry
5: A - Science
4: F - English
3: E - Biology
2: G - Physics
1: D - Mathematics
95Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H- live on eight different floors of a building, where the floors are numbered from 1 to 8 (the bottom- most floor is numbered 1 and the top- most floor is numbered 8). Each of them likes a different subject - Philosophy, Chemistry, Biology, Science, English, Physics, Mathematics and Hindi.
Three persons live between H and the one who like English. At least three persons live below H. As many persons live above the one who likes English as below the one who likes Science. G likes Physics and lives on the second floor, immediately below E. More than two persons live between D and the one who likes Science. D doesn't like Philosophy and doesn't live on fourth floor. The one who likes Biology lives two floors above D. Two persons live between the ones who like Biology and Chemistry. The one who likes chemistry live immediately below C and immediately above A. A lives above F who lives three floors below the one who likes Hindi.
Which of the following statements is/are false?
I. E lives on floor above D's floor
II. B likes Science
III. No one lives above H
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Answer: (A) Only II
Explanation
Working through the 8-floor puzzle clues gives the following arrangement: Floor 1 - D (Mathematics), Floor 2 - G (Physics), Floor 3 - E (Biology), Floor 4 - F (English), Floor 5 - A (Science), Floor 6 - B (Chemistry), Floor 7 - C (Hindi), Floor 8 - H (Philosophy). All the given constraints are satisfied by this arrangement. Statement I (E is above D's floor, i.e. 3 > 1) is true. Statement II (B likes Science) is false, since B actually likes Chemistry. Statement III (no one lives above H) is true, since H is on the topmost floor, 8. So only statement II is false, making the answer 'Only II'.
96Reasoning Ability
If 'PLAYER' is written as '28', and 'NOISE' is written as '14', then how is 'HOCKEY' written?
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Answer: (C) 27
Explanation
The pattern relates the positional values of the first and last letters to the total length of the word:
Code = (Positional value of first letter + Positional value of last letter) - Total number of letters
For PLAYER:
P = 16, R = 18, Number of letters = 6
Code = (16 + 18) - 6 = 34 - 6 = 28
For NOISE:
N = 14, E = 5, Number of letters = 5
Code = (14 + 5) - 5 = 19 - 5 = 14
Applying the pattern to HOCKEY:
H = 8, Y = 25, Number of letters = 6
Code = (8 + 25) - 6 = 33 - 6 = 27
97Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point L is 15m south of point M. Point N is 13m west of point L. Point Q is 6m east of point M. Point R is exactly between Point M and Point Q. Point O is 9m north of point N. Point S is 6m south of point R. Point T is 7m east of point S. Point U is 11m south of point T.
In which direction is point T with respect to point M?
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Answer: (C) South-east
Explanation
Taking point M as the origin (0, 0), with the positive x-axis representing East and the positive y-axis representing North:
Point Q is 6m east of M, so Q is at (6, 0).
Point R is exactly between M and Q, which gives R at (3, 0).
Point S is 6m south of R, so S is at (3, -6).
Point T is 7m east of S, so T is at (3 + 7, -6) = (10, -6).
Since T has a positive x-coordinate (East) and a negative y-coordinate (South) relative to M (0, 0), point T is in the south-east direction from point M.
98Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point L is 15m south of point M. Point N is 13m west of point L. Point Q is 6m east of point M. Point R is exactly between Point M and Point Q. Point O is 9m north of point N. Point S is 6m south of point R. Point T is 7m east of point S. Point U is 11m south of point T.
What is the shortest distance between point S and point L?
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Answer: (A) √(90)m
Explanation
Set point M at origin (0, 0).
Point L is 15 m south of M, so L = (0, -15).
Point Q is 6 m east of M, so Q = (6, 0).
Point R is exactly between M and Q, so R = (3, 0).
Point S is 6 m south of R, so S = (3, -6).
The shortest distance d between S(3, -6) and L(0, -15) is given by the distance formula:
d = √((x₂ - x₁)² + (y₂ - y₁)²)
d = √((3 - 0)² + (-6 - (-15))²)
d = √(3² + 9²) = √(9 + 81) = √90 m
99Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point L is 15m south of point M. Point N is 13m west of point L. Point Q is 6m east of point M. Point R is exactly between Point M and Point Q. Point O is 9m north of point N. Point S is 6m south of point R. Point T is 7m east of point S. Point U is 11m south of point T.
Four of the following five points form a particular pattern in terms of direction and related to a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
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Answer: (E) O and T
Explanation
Setting point M at origin (0, 0), the coordinates of all points are:
M(0, 0)
L(0, -15)
N(-13, -15)
O(-13, -6)
Q(6, 0)
R(3, 0)
S(3, -6)
T(10, -6)
U(10, -17)
In each of the other pairs, the second point is located in the south-east direction with respect to the first point (positive change in x, negative change in y). For the pair formed by O(-13, -6) and T(10, -6), both share the exact same y-coordinate of -6, so point T lies directly due east of point O.
100Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point L is 15m south of point M. Point N is 13m west of point L. Point Q is 6m east of point M. Point R is exactly between Point M and Point Q. Point O is 9m north of point N. Point S is 6m south of point R. Point T is 7m east of point S. Point U is 11m south of point T.
What is the total distance from Point R to Point O?
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Answer: (D) 40 m
Explanation
Taking M = (0,0), L = (0,-15), N = (-13,-15), Q = (6,0), R = (3,0) (the midpoint of M and Q), and O = (-13,-6), the total distance from R to O is found by summing the given directional path: R to M (3 m) → M to L (15 m south) → L to N (13 m west) → N to O (9 m north), giving 3 + 15 + 13 + 9 = 40 m. Hence, the total distance from R to O is 40 m.
101Quantitative Aptitude
The efficiency of B is two times of the efficiency of A. Both started work together and after x days A left the work. If B completed 25% of the remaining work alone in 4 days, then find the value of x?
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Answer: (E) 6
Explanation
B alone completes the whole work in 4x4=16 days. Efficiency is inversely proportional to time, so time ratio A:B = 2:1 and A alone takes 32 days. Total work = 32 units. 3x + 2x4 = 32 => 3x = 24 => x = 6.
102Quantitative Aptitude
The cost price of a watch is Rs. 750 and a bag is Rs. 840. A shopkeeper sold the watch at profit of 20% and the bag at loss of 15% . Find the overall profit or loss received by the shopkeeper (in Rs.)?
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Answer: (D) 24
Explanation
Watch: CP=750, profit 20% => SP=900, profit=Rs150. Bag: CP=840, loss 15% => SP=714, loss=Rs126. Net = 150-126 = Rs24 profit.
103Quantitative Aptitude
The upstream speed of a boat is 15km / hr and the ratio of time taken by the boat to cover 105km upstream and 108km downstream 7:6 respectively. Find the speed of stream (in km / hr )?
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Answer: (A) 3
Explanation
Upstream speed is 15 km/hr, so the time taken to cover 105 km upstream is 105/15 = 7 hours. Since the ratio of upstream to downstream time is 7 : 6, the downstream time is 6 hours, which gives a downstream speed of 108/6 = 18 km/hr. The difference between the downstream and upstream speeds is 18 - 15 = 3 km/hr.
104Quantitative Aptitude
Two cars A and B started from point X & Y respectively, and the distance between these two points is 660km . Both cars started at 10AM and meet at 3PM . If speed of car A is 12km / hr more than that of B, then find the speed of car A (in km / hr )?
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Answer: (B) 72
Explanation
Total time taken to meet from 10 AM to 3 PM = 5 hours.
Relative speed of both cars = Total distance / Time = 660 / 5 = 132 km/hr.
Let the speeds of car A and car B be S_A and S_B respectively.
S_A + S_B = 132 km/hr
S_A - S_B = 12 km/hr
Adding the two equations:
2 × S_A = 144
S_A = 72 km/hr.
105Quantitative Aptitude
Abhi and Bhushan started a business with capital of Rs. 2000 & Rs. 3000 respectively. At the end of 8 months, Divya joined the business with capital of Rs. 4000. At the end of a years, the profit share of Divya is Rs. 6000. Find the total profit share of Abhi and Bhushan (in Rs.)?
Given Divya's share = 4 units = Rs. 6000.
1 unit = 6000 / 4 = Rs. 1500.
Combined share of Abhi and Bhushan = 6 + 9 = 15 units.
Total profit share of Abhi and Bhushan = 15 × 1500 = Rs. 22500.
106Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of area of a rectangle to a square is 7:6 and the perimeter of the square is 96 cm. If the ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 21:8 , then find the perimeter of the rectangle (in cm)?
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Answer: (C) 116
Explanation
Side of the square = Perimeter / 4 = 96 / 4 = 24 cm
Area of the square = 24² = 576 cm²
Using the area ratio of rectangle to square (7 : 6):
Area of the rectangle = (7 / 6) × 576 = 672 cm²
Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be 21x and 8x respectively:
Area = Length × Breadth
21x × 8x = 672
168x² = 672
x² = 4
x = 2
Dimensions of the rectangle:
Length = 21 × 2 = 42 cm
Breadth = 8 × 2 = 16 cm
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth) = 2 × (42 + 16) = 2 × 58 = 116 cm
107Quantitative Aptitude
A vessel contains 72 liters mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5:3 respectively. 40 liters mixture is taken out and x liters of pure added in the remaining mixture. If the quantity of milk becomes 7 times of the water in the final mixture, then find the value of x?
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Answer: (E) 64
Explanation
Initial quantity of mixture = 72 liters, with milk and water in the ratio 5 : 3.
After removing 40 liters of mixture, remaining mixture = 72 − 40 = 32 liters.
Quantity of milk in remaining mixture = (5 / 8) × 32 = 20 liters.
Quantity of water in remaining mixture = (3 / 8) × 32 = 12 liters.
When x liters of pure milk is added, the new quantity of milk is 20 + x, while water remains 12 liters.
According to the condition, milk becomes 7 times the water:
20 + x = 7 × 12
20 + x = 84
x = 84 − 20 = 64 liters.
108Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. The information is about the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy in three different cities.
The average number of orders delivered by Zomato in all three cities is 43 1/3. The total number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A and Zomato in B is in the ratio of 5:3, respectively. The number of orders delivered by Swiggy in C is 20 more than the orders delivered by Zomato in B. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in A and Swiggy in B is the same. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in C is 20% of the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A. The total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in A is 150.
The total number of orders delivered by Zomato in A is how many more or less than the total number of orders delivered by Swiggy in C.
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Answer: (A) 30
Explanation
Total orders delivered by Zomato across cities A, B, and C = 3 × 43 ⅓ = 130.
Let Swiggy orders in A = 5x and Zomato orders in B = 3x.
Zomato orders in C = 20% of 5x = x.
Swiggy orders in C = 3x + 20.
Given that total orders by Zomato and Swiggy together in A is 150, Zomato orders in A = 150 - 5x.
Sum of Zomato orders:
(150 - 5x) + 3x + x = 130
150 - x = 130
x = 20
Thus:
Orders by Zomato in A = 150 - 5(20) = 50
Orders by Swiggy in C = 3(20) + 20 = 80
Required difference = 80 - 50 = 30
109Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. The information is about the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy in three different cities.
The average number of orders delivered by Zomato in all three cities is 43 1/3. The total number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A and Zomato in B is in the ratio of 5:3, respectively. The number of orders delivered by Swiggy in C is 20 more than the orders delivered by Zomato in B. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in A and Swiggy in B is the same. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in C is 20% of the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A. The total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in A is 150.
Find the ratio of the number of orders delivered by Zomato in C to the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A.
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Answer: (A) 1:5
Explanation
The question directly states that the number of orders delivered by Zomato in C is 20% of the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A.
Ratio of Zomato in C to Swiggy in A = 20% : 100% = 20 : 100 = 1 : 5
110Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. The information is about the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy in three different cities.
The average number of orders delivered by Zomato in all three cities is 43 1/3. The total number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A and Zomato in B is in the ratio of 5:3, respectively. The number of orders delivered by Swiggy in C is 20 more than the orders delivered by Zomato in B. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in A and Swiggy in B is the same. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in C is 20% of the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A. The total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in A is 150.
The number of orders delivered by Swiggy in B is what percentage of the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy tighter in C?
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Answer: (B) 50%
Explanation
Total orders delivered by Zomato in cities A, B, and C = 3 × (43 1/3) = 130.
Let Swiggy orders in A = 5k and Zomato orders in B = 3k.
Zomato orders in C = 20% of 5k = k.
Swiggy orders in C = 3k + 20.
Since total orders delivered in A = 150, Zomato orders in A = 150 - 5k.
Equating the sum of Zomato orders to 130:
(150 - 5k) + 3k + k = 130
150 - k = 130
k = 20
Calculating the required values:
Swiggy orders in B = Zomato orders in A = 150 - 5(20) = 50.
Zomato orders in C = 20.
Swiggy orders in C = 3(20) + 20 = 80.
Total orders in C = 20 + 80 = 100.
Required percentage = (50 / 100) × 100 = 50%.
111Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. The information is about the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy in three different cities.
The average number of orders delivered by Zomato in all three cities is 43 1/3. The total number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A and Zomato in B is in the ratio of 5:3, respectively. The number of orders delivered by Swiggy in C is 20 more than the orders delivered by Zomato in B. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in A and Swiggy in B is the same. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in C is 20% of the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A. The total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in A is 150.
The number of orders delivered by Swiggy in D is average of the number of orders delivered by Zomato in A and C. If the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in D is 90% more than the number of orders delivered by Zomato in B, then find the number of orders delivered by Zomato in D.
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Answer: (C) 79
Explanation
Total orders delivered by Zomato in cities A, B, and C = 3 × 43 ⅓ = 130.
Let Swiggy in A = 5x and Zomato in B = 3x.
Zomato in C = 20% of 5x = x.
Total orders in A (Zomato + Swiggy) = 150, so Zomato in A = 150 - 5x.
Sum of Zomato orders: (150 - 5x) + 3x + x = 130
150 - x = 130
x = 20
Thus:
Zomato in A = 150 - 5(20) = 50
Zomato in B = 3(20) = 60
Zomato in C = 20
For city D:
Swiggy in D = (Zomato in A + Zomato in C) / 2 = (50 + 20) / 2 = 35
Total orders in D = 90% more than Zomato in B = 60 × 1.90 = 114
Zomato in D = Total orders in D - Swiggy in D = 114 - 35 = 79
112Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. The information is about the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy in three different cities.
The average number of orders delivered by Zomato in all three cities is 43 1/3. The total number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A and Zomato in B is in the ratio of 5:3, respectively. The number of orders delivered by Swiggy in C is 20 more than the orders delivered by Zomato in B. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in A and Swiggy in B is the same. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in C is 20% of the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A. The total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in A is 150.
The number of orders delivered by Zomato in F is 25% less than the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in C. If the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in F is 15 less than that of B, then find the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in F.
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Answer: (C) 95
Explanation
Total orders delivered by Zomato in A, B, and C = 3 × (43 ⅓) = 130.
Let the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A and Zomato in B be 5x and 3x respectively.
Orders by Zomato in C = 20% of 5x = x.
Orders by Zomato in A = 150 - Swiggy in A = 150 - 5x.
Orders by Swiggy in B = Zomato in A = 150 - 5x.
Orders by Swiggy in C = 3x + 20.
From total Zomato orders:
(150 - 5x) + 3x + x = 130
150 - x = 130
x = 20
Thus:
Swiggy in C = 3(20) + 20 = 80
Swiggy in B = 150 - 5(20) = 50
For city F:
Zomato in F = 80 × (1 - 0.25) = 60
Swiggy in F = 50 - 15 = 35
Total orders in F = 60 + 35 = 95
113Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. The information is about the total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy in three different cities.
The average number of orders delivered by Zomato in all three cities is 43 1/3. The total number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A and Zomato in B is in the ratio of 5:3, respectively. The number of orders delivered by Swiggy in C is 20 more than the orders delivered by Zomato in B. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in A and Swiggy in B is the same. The number of orders delivered by Zomato in C is 20% of the number of orders delivered by Swiggy in A. The total number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in A is 150.
Find the average number of orders delivered by Zomato and Swiggy together in B and C.
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Answer: (A) 105
Explanation
Total orders delivered by Zomato across all three cities = 3 × 43 1/3 = 130.
Let Swiggy in A (S_A) = 5x and Zomato in B (Z_B) = 3x.
Zomato in C (Z_C) = 20% of 5x = x.
Swiggy in C (S_C) = 3x + 20.
Zomato in A (Z_A) = 150 - S_A = 150 - 5x.
Swiggy in B (S_B) = Z_A = 150 - 5x.
Using total Zomato orders:
Z_A + Z_B + Z_C = 130
(150 - 5x) + 3x + x = 130
150 - x = 130
x = 20
Now compute the total orders in cities B and C:
City B total = Z_B + S_B = 3(20) + (150 - 5 × 20) = 60 + 50 = 110.
City C total = Z_C + S_C = 20 + (3 × 20 + 20) = 20 + 80 = 100.
Average orders in B and C = (110 + 100) / 2 = 105.
114Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the total number of people, the ratio of males to females, and the number of graduates people out of the total people in five different towns.
| Towns | Total number of people | Males : Females | Number of graduates people out of the total people |
|---|---:|---:|---:|
| A | 400 | 3:5 | 290 |
| B | 250 | 11:14 | 130 |
| C | 180 | 5:4 | 120 |
| D | 360 | 11:7 | 245 |
| E | 550 | 6:5 | 305 |
Note: Total people = Males + Females Total people = Number of people graduates + Number of people non-graduates.
Find the difference between the number of non-graduate people in A and D together and the number of females in E.
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Answer: (A) 25
Explanation
Number of non-graduate people in town A = 400 - 290 = 110
Number of non-graduate people in town D = 360 - 245 = 115
Total non-graduates in A and D together = 110 + 115 = 225
Total people in town E = 550
Ratio of males to females in town E = 6 : 5
Number of females in town E = (5 / (6 + 5)) × 550 = (5 / 11) × 550 = 250
Required difference = 250 - 225 = 25
115Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the total number of people, the ratio of males to females, and the number of graduates people out of the total people in five different towns.
| Towns | Total number of people | Males : Females | Number of graduates people out of the total people |
|---|---:|---:|---:|
| A | 400 | 3:5 | 290 |
| B | 250 | 11:14 | 130 |
| C | 180 | 5:4 | 120 |
| D | 360 | 11:7 | 245 |
| E | 550 | 6:5 | 305 |
Note: Total people = Males + Females Total people = Number of people graduates + Number of people non-graduates.
The non- graduate people in C are what percentage of the difference between the number of males in D and E?
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Answer: (C) 75%
Explanation
Total non-graduates in town C = Total people in C - Graduates in C
= 180 - 120 = 60
Males in town D = 360 × 11/(11 + 7) = 360 × 11/18 = 220
Males in town E = 550 × 6/(6 + 5) = 550 × 6/11 = 300
Difference between males in D and E = 300 - 220 = 80
Required percentage = (60 / 80) × 100 = 75%
116Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the total number of people, the ratio of males to females, and the number of graduates people out of the total people in five different towns.
| Towns | Total number of people | Males : Females | Number of graduates people out of the total people |
|---|---:|---:|---:|
| A | 400 | 3:5 | 290 |
| B | 250 | 11:14 | 130 |
| C | 180 | 5:4 | 120 |
| D | 360 | 11:7 | 245 |
| E | 550 | 6:5 | 305 |
Note: Total people = Males + Females Total people = Number of people graduates + Number of people non-graduates.
If 40% of the number of graduates are male in A, then find the difference between the number of non- graduate males and the number of graduate females in A.
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Answer: (C) 140
Explanation
In Town A:
Total population = 400
Ratio of Males to Females = 3 : 5
Total males = (3/8) × 400 = 150
Total graduates = 290
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the total number of people, the ratio of males to females, and the number of graduates people out of the total people in five different towns.
| Towns | Total number of people | Males : Females | Number of graduates people out of the total people |
|---|---:|---:|---:|
| A | 400 | 3:5 | 290 |
| B | 250 | 11:14 | 130 |
| C | 180 | 5:4 | 120 |
| D | 360 | 11:7 | 245 |
| E | 550 | 6:5 | 305 |
Note: Total people = Males + Females Total people = Number of people graduates + Number of people non-graduates.
The total number of people in F is 60% that of B, and the number of females in F is 40% less than that of C. Find the average number of males in F and D.
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Answer: (D) 161
Explanation
Total people in F = 60% of 250 = 150.
Number of females in C = (4 / 9) × 180 = 80.
Number of females in F = 80 × (1 - 0.40) = 48.
Number of males in F = Total in F - Females in F = 150 - 48 = 102.
Number of males in D = (11 / 18) × 360 = 220.
Average number of males in F and D = (102 + 220) / 2 = 322 / 2 = 161.
118Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the total number of people, the ratio of males to females, and the number of graduates people out of the total people in five different towns.
| Towns | Total number of people | Males : Females | Number of graduates people out of the total people |
|---|---:|---:|---:|
| A | 400 | 3:5 | 290 |
| B | 250 | 11:14 | 130 |
| C | 180 | 5:4 | 120 |
| D | 360 | 11:7 | 245 |
| E | 550 | 6:5 | 305 |
Note: Total people = Males + Females Total people = Number of people graduates + Number of people non-graduates.
The ratio of non- graduate males to females in B is 7:5, respectively. The number of male graduates in B is what percentage of the total number of people in A?
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Answer: (E) 10%
Explanation
Town B: total=250, M:F=11:14 (25 parts, 10 each) => Males=110, Females=140. Graduates=130, so non-graduates=120. Non-grad M:F=7:5 (12 parts,10 each) => non-grad males=70. Male graduates in B = 110-70=40. 40/400 (total in A) *100 = 10%.
119Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the total number of people, the ratio of males to females, and the number of graduates people out of the total people in five different towns.
| Towns | Total number of people | Males : Females | Number of graduates people out of the total people |
|---|---:|---:|---:|
| A | 400 | 3:5 | 290 |
| B | 250 | 11:14 | 130 |
| C | 180 | 5:4 | 120 |
| D | 360 | 11:7 | 245 |
| E | 550 | 6:5 | 305 |
Note: Total people = Males + Females Total people = Number of people graduates + Number of people non-graduates.
Find the ratio between the total number of females in A, D and E together to the total number of non- graduates in B and C together.
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Answer: (B) 32:9
Explanation
Calculate the number of females in towns A, D, and E:
Females in A = (5/8) × 400 = 250
Females in D = (7/18) × 360 = 140
Females in E = (5/11) × 550 = 250
Total females in A, D, and E = 250 + 140 + 250 = 640
Calculate the number of non-graduates in towns B and C:
Non-graduates in B = 250 - 130 = 120
Non-graduates in C = 180 - 120 = 60
Total non-graduates in B and C = 120 + 60 = 180
Required ratio = 640 : 180 = 32 : 9
120Quantitative Aptitude
A vessel contains 180 liters mixture of milk to water is 5:1.40% of the mixture taken out and x liters of pure milk added in the mixture. If the ratio of milk to water in resultant mixture becomes 7:1 , then find value of x?
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Answer: (D) 36
Explanation
Initial mixture volume is 180 L with milk and water in the ratio 5:1.
When 40% of the mixture is removed, 60% remains:
Remaining mixture = 0.60 × 180 = 108 L
Quantity of milk in remaining mixture = (5/6) × 108 = 90 L
Quantity of water in remaining mixture = (1/6) × 108 = 18 L
After adding x liters of pure milk, the ratio of milk to water becomes 7:1:
(90 + x) / 18 = 7 / 1
90 + x = 126
x = 126 - 90 = 36
121Quantitative Aptitude
The length of train A is x + 10 meters and length of train B is x + 20 meters respectively. Both trains cross each other is 11/2 seconds and speed of train A is 90 km / hr . The speed of train B is 40% more than that of train A, then find the time taken by the train B to cross a 110 meters long platform (in seconds)?
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Answer: (C) 8
Explanation
Speed of train A = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s.
Speed of train B = 25 × 1.40 = 35 m/s.
When both trains cross each other in opposite directions, relative speed = 25 + 35 = 60 m/s.
Total distance covered = (x + 10) + (x + 20) = 2x + 30 meters.
Using Distance = Speed × Time:
2x + 30 = 60 × (11/2)
2x + 30 = 330
2x = 300
x = 150 meters.
Length of train B = 150 + 20 = 170 meters.
Total distance to cross the platform = Length of train B + Length of platform = 170 + 110 = 280 meters.
Time taken = Distance / Speed of train B = 280 / 35 = 8 seconds.
122Quantitative Aptitude
A borrowed a sum of money from B at the rate of 8% per annum on simple interest for the first four years, 10% per annum for the next six years and 12% per annum for the period beyond ten years. If he pays a total of Rs. 12160 as interest only at the end of 15 years, then how much money did A borrowed?
For a total period of 15 years:
First 4 years at 8% = 4 × 8% = 32%
Next 6 years at 10% = 6 × 10% = 60%
Remaining 5 years (15 - 10) at 12% = 5 × 12% = 60%
Total interest percentage = 32% + 60% + 60% = 152% of Principal (P)
152% of P = Rs. 12160
P = (12160 × 100) / 152 = Rs. 8000
123Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of present age of Amit is to Manish is 3:2 , while five years ago, Amit's age was two times of Manish's age at that time. Five years hence, the sum of ages of Manish and Amit is equal to Lalit's age at that time, then find present age of Lalit?
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Answer: (E) 30
Explanation
Amit:Manish=3:2 => 3x,2x. Five yrs ago: 3x-5=2(2x-5) => x=5, so Amit=15, Manish=10. Five yrs hence: Amit=20, Manish=15, sum=35=Lalit's age then. Present age Lalit=35-5=30.
124Quantitative Aptitude
The area of a rectangle is equal to area of a right- angle triangle. The breadth of the rectangle is 18 cm and the base of the triangle is 8 cm more than the length of the rectangle and height of the triangle is 3 cm more than length of the rectangle. Find length (in cm) of the rectangle (length > breadth)
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Answer: (B) 24
Explanation
Let the length of the rectangle be L cm.
Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth = 18L
Area of right-angled triangle = ½ × Base × Height = ½(L + 8)(L + 3)
In each question is followed by two statement I & II. You have to determine which statement (s) is/are necessary/sufficient to answer the question and mark answer accordingly.
What is speed of train?
I. The train can cross 100m long platform in 10 sec & a trees in 5 sec.
II. The train can cross another train of same length coming from opposite direction at same speed in 20 sec.
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Answer: (D) Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer.
Explanation
Let the length of the train be L and its speed be v.
From Statement I:
Crossing a tree in 5 seconds gives: L = 5v
Crossing a 100 m platform in 10 seconds gives: L + 100 = 10v
Substituting L = 5v gives: 5v + 100 = 10v, which yields 5v = 100, so v = 20 m/s.
Thus, Statement I alone is sufficient.
From Statement II:
When crossing an identical train of length L moving in the opposite direction at the same speed v, the relative speed is 2v and the total distance is 2L.
Time = 2L / (2v) = L / v = 20 seconds.
This only gives L = 20v, leaving v undetermined.
Thus, Statement II alone is not sufficient.
126Quantitative Aptitude
In each question is followed by two statement I & II. You have to determine which statement (s) is/are necessary/sufficient to answer the question and mark answer accordingly.
In what time the tank will be filled by inlet pipes A, B & C together?
I. B alone takes 10 min to fill the tank. Part of Tank filled by A in 4 min is equal to part of tank filled by C in 8 min.
II. A alone & B alone can fill the tank in 10 & 12 min respectively. B & C when working together can fill tank in 6 min.
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Answer: (A) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer.
Explanation
From statement I, the rate of B is 1/10 tank/min, and 4 × (rate of A) = 8 × (rate of C), which gives the ratio of rates as rate(A) : rate(C) = 2 : 1. Since absolute rates for A and C cannot be determined, statement I alone is not sufficient.
From statement II, the filling rate of A is 1/10 per min and the rate of B is 1/12 per min. The combined rate of B and C is 1/6 per min, giving the rate of C as 1/6 - 1/12 = 1/12 per min. Therefore, the combined rate of A, B, and C is 1/10 + 1/12 + 1/12 = 1/10 + 1/6 = 4/15 per min, and the tank will be filled in 15/4 = 3.75 min. Statement II alone is sufficient.
127Quantitative Aptitude
In each question is followed by two statement I & II. You have to determine which statement (s) is/are necessary/sufficient to answer the question and mark answer accordingly.
What is probability of drawing 2 red balls from the bag?
I. there are 10 balls in the bag of which 3 are green balls which are 1 more than pink balls.
II. if there would be 2 more pink balls in the bag then number of pink balls will be equal to number red balls in the bag.
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Answer: (C) Both statement I & II together are necessary to answer.
Explanation
Probability of drawing 2 red balls is given by P = ᴿC₂ / ᴺC₂, where N is the total number of balls and R is the number of red balls.
From Statement I, total balls N = 10, green balls = 3, and pink balls = 3 − 1 = 2. However, the number of red balls remains unknown, making Statement I alone insufficient.
From Statement II, the relation R = Pink + 2 is given, but without the absolute number of pink balls or total balls, Statement II alone is insufficient.
Combining both statements gives Pink = 2, which yields Red = 2 + 2 = 4. With R = 4 and N = 10, P = ⁴C₂ / ¹⁰C₂ = 6 / 45 = 2/15. Thus, both statements together are necessary and sufficient.
128Quantitative Aptitude
Find the approximate value of (?) in the following questions.
189.98 + 49.96% of 539.98 + ? = 630.03
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Answer: (B) 170
Explanation
Approximate each term to its nearest convenient integer:
189.98 ≈ 190
49.96% ≈ 50% = ½
539.98 ≈ 540
630.03 ≈ 630
Substitute these approximations into the given equation:
190 + (50% of 540) + ? = 630
190 + 270 + ? = 630
460 + ? = 630
? = 630 - 460 = 170
129Quantitative Aptitude
Find the approximate value of (?) in the following questions.
(276.02)/(12.03) × (79.99)/(115.01) × ? = 31.99% of 199.98
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Answer: (A) 4
Explanation
(276.02/12.03)(79.99/115.01)? = 31.99% of 199.98. Approx: (276/12)(80/115)? ≈ 230.696? ≈16*? ... more precisely 23*0.6955=16.0; RHS≈32%*200=64. ?=64/16≈4.
130Quantitative Aptitude
(284.02 + 184.001 ÷ 3.997) ÷ (594.01 ÷ 9.02) = ?
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Answer: (D) 5
Explanation
Approximate each value to its nearest integer:
184.001 ÷ 3.997 ≈ 184 ÷ 4 = 46
In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
17, 35, 71, 143, 287, 575, 1150
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Answer: (B) 1150
Explanation
The series follows the recurrence relation Tₙ = 2 × Tₙ₋₁ + 1:
Each successive term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 2 and adding 1. Applying this pattern to 575 yields 1151, which makes 1150 the incorrect term in the sequence.
135Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
128, 32, 96, 240, 840, 3780, 20790
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Answer: (A) 32
Explanation
The pattern of multiplication between consecutive terms is:
128 × 0.5 = 64
64 × 1.5 = 96
96 × 2.5 = 240
240 × 3.5 = 840
840 × 4.5 = 3780
3780 × 5.5 = 20790
The multiplier increases by 1.0 at each step (0.5, 1.5, 2.5, 3.5, 4.5, 5.5). Therefore, 32 is incorrect and should be replaced by 64.
136Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
91, 235, 163, 199, 181, 190, 187.5
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Answer: (D) 187.5
Explanation
Series follows term(n+2)=average(term n, term n+1): (91+235)/2=163 ✓, (235+163)/2=199 ✓, (163+199)/2=181 ✓, (199+181)/2=190 ✓, but (181+190)/2=185.5, not the printed 187.5. So 187.5 is the wrong number.
137Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
15, 75, 129, 191, 243, 309, 357
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Answer: (C) 309
Explanation
The series follows a pattern of alternating second differences:
75 - 15 = 60
129 - 75 = 54 (second difference: -6)
191 - 129 = 62 (second difference: +8)
243 - 191 = 52 (second difference: -10)
The sequence of second differences is -6, +8, -10, +12, -14.
Applying the next second difference (+12):
Required difference = 52 + 12 = 64
Correct term = 243 + 64 = 307
Applying the final second difference (-14):
Final difference = 64 - 14 = 50
Final term = 307 + 50 = 357
Replacing 309 with 307 satisfies the series progression.
138Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
103,145,190,247,313,388
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Answer: (E) 145
Explanation
The differences between consecutive terms follow an arithmetic progression with a constant step of 9:
388 - 313 = 75
313 - 247 = 66
247 - 190 = 57
The preceding differences must therefore be 57 - 9 = 48 and 48 - 9 = 39.