IBPS SO Prelims 2019 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

According to the research detailed in the passage, the primary financial benefit of entrepreneurship emerges when former entrepreneurs re-enter the labor market. Their subsequent salaried roles pay equal to or higher than what comparable peers earn, as the labor market values the practical skills and experience acquired during self-employment.

Explanation

The passage explains that financial payoff from entrepreneurship shows up in two specific situations: first, entrepreneurs who persevere and stay self-employed for longer than two years end up making substantially more than similarly qualified salaried workers, and second, even those who eventually return to a salaried job benefit financially because the skills and experience gained during self-employment make them more valuable in the job market, earning them higher wages than if they had never tried entrepreneurship at all. Since both of these conditions (persevering past two years, and the added value of self-employment skills on returning to the workforce) are described as ways entrepreneurship pays off, the correct choice must combine option b (persevering longer than two years) and option c (skills giving a monetary advantage on returning to the workforce), which is exactly what option e states.

Explanation

Gustavo Manso’s study on experimentation and entrepreneurship demonstrated that entrepreneurs earn approximately 10% more in lifetime earnings than comparable salaried workers. The research showed that the option to quickly abandon unsuccessful ventures and return to wage work limits downside risk, meaning individuals with past entrepreneurial experience do not fare worse or suffer wage reductions in subsequent employment.

Explanation

The passage centers on research showing that entrepreneurship, though often assumed to be a poor financial choice, actually does pay off monetarily under certain conditions: entrepreneurs who persist beyond two years earn more than comparable salaried workers, and those who return to salaried work after a stint of self-employment also earn more because of the skills and experience they gained. Since the entire discussion revolves around the financial outcomes and eventual monetary stability entrepreneurship can bring rather than its risks alone, option c, "Entrepreneurship and financial stability," best captures this central theme, making it the most suitable title among the given choices.

Explanation

The idiom to take the plunge refers to committing decisively to a bold or risky course of action despite hesitations or hazards. In the context of career choices, it conveys appreciation that individuals willingly accept the financial uncertainties of entrepreneurship to pursue their passions and build new ventures rather than playing it safe with conventional employment.

Explanation

The passage repeatedly refers to people who leave paid jobs to try entrepreneurship as "workers" when discussing their eventual return to paid employment, for instance noting that persistent entrepreneurs "make substantially more than similar salaried workers." The word "Employees" does not appear in this context in the passage and is inconsistent with the term actually used there, making it the word that is inappropriate in context among the four highlighted terms, while "Approach," "Financial," and "Experiment" all correctly reflect language used elsewhere in the passage (such as Manso's differing "approach," the "financial" terms of the discussion, and the idea of "experimenting" with a new venture). Therefore option d, "Employees," is the word that should be marked as incorrect.

Explanation

'Pursue' means to follow, chase, or actively work toward achieving a goal or target. In contrast, 'circumvent' means to bypass or evade, and 'avoid' means to stay away from or shun. Since both actions represent the opposite of actively chasing or seeking something, both words serve as antonyms.

Explanation

The phrasal verb "hinge on" means to be contingent on, determined by, or dependent on something as a central condition. In the context of the sentence, Manso's theory relies entirely on the concept of experimentation as its foundational premise.

Explanation

A "stint" refers to a fixed or limited period of time spent doing a particular job, activity, or form of work. In the given sentence, the plural noun "stints" correctly fits both the contextual meaning of a period of working in self-employment and the grammatical requirement to agree with the plural verb "last".

Explanation

The word conventional denotes adherence to established customs, standard practices, or accepted social norms. Traditional similarly refers to beliefs, customs, or methods that have been established for a long time and are widely accepted, making it the direct synonym.

Explanation

The entire text revolves around the ongoing challenge of retaining skilled employees in the IT and corporate sectors. It addresses the factors driving attrition, particularly at the junior levels, the limitations of monetary compensation alone, and the strategic retention measures adopted by major companies like Cognizant and HCL. A title focusing on talent retention as a crucial corporate challenge encapsulates the complete central theme.

Explanation

According to the statement in the final paragraph, in an aggressive business environment where clients have many choices, what distinguishes a company is innovation and service delivery. This directly supports the inference that innovation and delivery excellence differentiate an enterprise from its competitors.

Explanation

Cognizant is an adjective meaning having knowledge, awareness, or consciousness of something. Conscious denotes being aware of and knowledgeable about facts and circumstances, making it the direct synonym.

Explanation

In a corporate service delivery context, client satisfaction is the standard professional metric and collocation describing a customer's contentment with services provided. Retaining talent directly supports both consistent project delivery and client satisfaction.

Explanation

Attrition denotes a gradual reduction, decrease in workforce numbers, or wearing down of a resource base. Buildup refers to an increase, accumulation, or gradual expansion over time, providing the exact antonym.

Explanation

The text outlines multiple reasons for high turnover among junior employees. It mentions higher studies as a primary driver, alongside career aspirations, marriage and relocation, as well as broader personal factors cited by industry experts. All these factors together explain junior-level attrition.

Explanation

HCL Technologies functions as a singular corporate entity, requiring the third-person singular present verb follows instead of follow in section A. Additionally, to maintain tense consistency with the present context and ongoing corporate philosophy, section B requires the present tense verb believes rather than the past tense believed.

Explanation

An artefact is an object crafted, shaped, or modified through human workmanship and skill, as distinguished from a naturally occurring item. In the context of technology and business, artefacts refers to human-made digital tools, code, and documentation assets created within the organization.

Explanation

The passage establishes that innovation is crucial to company success and heavily dependent on retaining skilled talent. It simultaneously emphasizes that compensation has limited feasibility and shelf-life, meaning monetary rewards alone cannot ensure employee retention.

Explanation

The passage emphasizes an employee-centric viewpoint, highlighting how organizational success depends on employee empowerment, engagement, growth, and the Employees First philosophy rather than treating the workforce purely through corporate compensation metrics.

Explanation

The noun hoard refers to a cache or accumulated store of valuable items or information kept hidden or preserved for future use. In contrast, a large crowd or gathering of people is designated by the homophone horde.

Explanation

The word buckle functions both as a noun denoting a clasp used for fastening straps or belts, and as a verb meaning to bend, collapse, or give way under physical strain or pressure. A unit of measure for agricultural grain is a bushel.

Explanation

The word bait denotes food or another lure used to entice fish or other animals to be captured, as well as an allurement, decoy, or enticement intended to trap or trick someone into a situation. The standard idiom expressing high certainty is a safe bet.

Explanation

The word current functions as an adjective meaning belonging to the present time, in common or general use, and as a noun referring to the continuous, directed movement of a body of water or air. The small dried fruit is spelled currant.

Explanation

The word team denotes a group of people organized to work together cooperatively, and in the phrasal verb team up, it signifies joining together with another person or entity to achieve a shared objective. The verb describing heavy rainfall or overflowing abundance is teem.

Explanation

Threat factors such as habitat loss and poaching directly reduce wildlife populations, making declining the contextually accurate term to describe the downward trajectory in hippo numbers.

Explanation

Because the species faces population decline and vulnerability, systematic tracking and data collection are of vital importance to guide effective conservation and wildlife management strategies.

Explanation

The passage contrasts established, pre-existing survey practices such as hazardous ground and aerial observations with newly introduced drone methods, identifying the long-standing practices as traditional methods.

Explanation

Because the hippopotamus is one of the most aggressive and hazardous wild animals in Africa, performing ground-level monitoring directly exposes researchers to danger, rendering such fieldwork unsafe.

Explanation

Hippos inhabit remote, marshy, and dense aquatic environments that present severe physical challenges for human travel and navigation, making inaccessible the fitting descriptor for their habitats.

Explanation

The standard English idiom is to keep an eye on someone or something, meaning to watch, track, or monitor them closely. In this context, researchers are attempting to monitor the hippo population.

Explanation

The verb inspired fits the context where environmental and logistical challenges stimulated researchers to develop and apply an innovative solution using drones.

Explanation

In statement C, the phrase a group of bureaucrat is incorrect because the noun following of must be pluralized when referring to members of a group, especially in parallel structure with scientists. It should correctly read a group of bureaucrats and scientists.

Explanation

When referring to living companions or people, accompanied takes the preposition by. The correct phrasing is The patient was accompanied by his friend.

Explanation

Hardly means barely or scarcely, which alters the intended meaning of working with great effort. The correct adverb of manner modifying the verb working is hard, making the proper phrasing working very hard.

Explanation

In statement I, the plural subject Young people requires the plural base verb eat instead of the singular form eats. In statement III, the past perfect auxiliary had must be followed by the past participle blocked rather than the base verb block.

Explanation

In statement I, the verb arrive is followed by the preposition at for specific destinations, so arrive at our destination is correct. In statement II, when two singular subjects are joined by neither... nor, the verb must be singular, so were should be replaced with was.

Explanation

The relative pronoun which functions as the subject of the subordinate clause referring back to the preceding action, combining the sentences smoothly into: Parents generally try to maximize the welfare of their children, which is subject to constraints of money and time.

Explanation

Both As and While function as subordinating conjunctions of time to connect two simultaneous actions, yielding: As/While the lecturer wandered from topic to topic, we wondered if there was any point to his discursive remarks.

Explanation

The conjunction Although establishes a contrast or concession between having a modicum of truth and being mostly fictitious, combining the sentences into: Although his story is based on a modicum of truth, most of the events he describes are fictitious.

Explanation

"Since" functions as a subordinating conjunction of cause or reason, synonymous with "because" or "as". Joining the sentences as "Since I didn't want to take a side in the argument, I put my headphones on and listened to some smooth jazz" correctly establishes the cause-and-effect relationship between the speaker's desire to remain neutral and the subsequent action taken.

Explanation

Both "As" and "Since" can be used as conjunctions of cause to combine the sentences logically: "As Akriti needs to learn Chinese, I will teach her" or "Since Akriti needs to learn Chinese, I will teach her." Both convey the intended cause-and-effect relationship between her need to learn and the decision to teach her without altering the original meaning.

Explanation

The verb abolish means to formally put an end to a system, practice, or institution, making it the appropriate fit for patriarchy. Conversely, liberate means to set someone free from a situation, which correctly collocates with everyone from an unjust society. Swapping words A and E restores both the logical meaning and grammatical coherence of the sentence.

Explanation

The sentence requires a past participle verb after the auxiliary has to construct the present perfect phrase distanced itself from. Simultaneously, the adverb fervently is required to modify the past perfect verb phrase had advocated. Swapping B and D restores grammatical precision and logical coherence to the sentence.

Explanation

The adjective groundbreaking correctly modifies the noun study to denote innovative research, while the noun composition naturally pairs with the adjective chemical to describe the constituent substances of old books. Exchanging these two words makes the sentence grammatically accurate and contextually meaningful.

Explanation

The present participle mitigating is required after the adverb potentially to function as a participial phrase indicating action, while the noun dependence correctly pairs with the definite article the and the prepositional phrase on wireless carriers. Swapping C and D restores proper syntax and meaning.

Explanation

Swapping totalitarian (A) with obsolete (C) makes contextual sense because fascists viewed liberal democracy as obsolete and advocated for a totalitarian one-party state. This interchange also rectifies the grammatical error of the indefinite article in "a obsolete" to "a totalitarian". Furthermore, swapping respond (D) with conflict (E) forms the appropriate noun phrase "armed conflict" and maintains parallelism with the verb form "respond effectively to economic difficulties".

Explanation

In sports terminology, particularly baseball, the phrasal verb "call out" refers to an umpire's official ruling that a batter or baserunner has failed to reach a base safely and is retired from play. Using "called out" makes the sentence idiomatically accurate and logically explains why the manager came onto the field to dispute the umpire's decision.

Explanation

The phrasal verb "throw away" means to waste, squander, or fail to make good use of an opportunity or advantage. In the context of neglecting studies to socialize, "threw away" correctly conveys that she wasted her opportunity to secure admission to the university.

Explanation

The phrasal verb "hang up" means to put clothing on a hanger or hook to keep it neat. In the given sentence, following the infinitive marker "to", the base form of the verb is required, making "hang up" the grammatically and contextually appropriate phrase.

Explanation

Corners face outside (where right is clockwise and left is counter-clockwise) and side-centers face inside (where right is counter-clockwise and left is clockwise).

Placing the person who likes Blue at side-center position 1 (facing inside): U sits fifth to the left of Blue at corner position 6 (facing outside). Orange is at corner position 4 (facing outside) with one person between U and Orange. P sits third to the right of Orange at side-center position 7 (facing inside) and likes Yellow. W sits at corner position 2 (facing outside), leaving two persons between P and W. Q sits at position 4 and likes Orange. Since R and T are immediate neighbors and R cannot neighbor W or like Orange, T sits at position 1 (likes Blue) and R sits at corner position 8 (facing outside). S sits third to the left of R at position 5 (facing inside), which places V at position 3 (facing inside). U (position 6) likes White as an immediate neighbor of S. V (position 3) likes Green, so S (position 5), who is second to the left of V, likes Red. Since R cannot like Red or Black, R likes Pink, leaving W at position 2 to like Black.

Explanation

Placing the persons at alternating middle (facing inside) and corner (facing outside) positions:

T is in the middle facing inside and likes Blue. U sits fifth to the left of T at a corner facing outside. Orange is placed at a corner, two seats away from U. P is third to the right of Orange at a middle position, and W is seated two places away from P at a corner.

Q is at the corner liking Orange, which places Yellow with P. R and T are adjacent, placing R at a corner and T in the middle with Blue. S sits third to the left of R in the middle, making U (neighbor of S) like White.

With V in the middle liking Green, Red is second to the left of Green at S. Since R cannot have Black or Red, R likes Pink, while W likes Black.

Explanation

From the given arrangement, T sits at the middle of the side facing inside and likes Blue color. Q sits at the corner facing outside, three positions clockwise from T. Since T is facing inside, moving three positions clockwise corresponds to the third position to the left of T. Therefore, Q is sitting third to the left of the one who likes Blue color, making the statement that Q sits fifth to the left incorrect.

Explanation

Arranging the eight persons around the square table alternating between sides (facing inside) and corners (facing outside): 1 (Middle, Inside): T (Blue) 2 (Corner, Outside): W (Black) 3 (Middle, Inside): V (Green) 4 (Corner, Outside): Q (Orange) 5 (Middle, Inside): S (Red) 6 (Corner, Outside): U (White) 7 (Middle, Inside): P (Yellow) 8 (Corner, Outside): R (Pink)

R is seated at corner 8, facing outside. For an outside-facing position, right is in the clockwise direction. Counting clockwise from R to V (who likes green at position 3), the people sitting between them are T (at position 1) and W (at position 2), which gives a total of two people.

Explanation

Step-by-step arrangement of persons and their colors around the square table:

Positions (arranged clockwise 1 to 8): Position 1 (Middle, facing inside): T likes Blue Position 2 (Corner, facing outside): W likes Black Position 3 (Middle, facing inside): V likes Green Position 4 (Corner, facing outside): Q likes Orange Position 5 (Middle, facing inside): S likes Red Position 6 (Corner, facing outside): U likes White Position 7 (Middle, facing inside): P likes Yellow Position 8 (Corner, facing outside): R likes Pink

Checking the combinations: Q likes Orange, S likes Red, U likes White, and V likes Green. All four individual combinations are correct.

Explanation

The code follows an alternating pattern of +1 and -1 applied to the position of each letter in the alphabet:

I (+1) = J M (-1) = L P (+1) = Q O (-1) = N S (+1) = T E (-1) = D

Applying this transformation to IMPOSE yields JLQNTD.

Explanation

From the given information, T is the mother of two children, S and Q. S is married to G, and their child is U. Q is the father of A, making U and A cousins. Since Y is the son-in-law of Q, A is female and married to Y. M is the granddaughter of Q, so M is female (the daughter of A and Y).

The known males in the family are S, Q, and Y (3 males). The known females are T, G, A, and M (4 females). Since the gender of U is not specified, U can be either male or female. Therefore, the total number of male members in the family is either 3 or 4.

Explanation

From the given statements, S is the son of T because T is the mother-in-law of S's wife G. Since S is the father of U, U is the grandchild of T. However, the gender of U is not specified anywhere in the given facts, which means U could be either the grandson or the granddaughter of T.

Explanation

T is the mother of two children, S and Q. S is married to G, and they have a child U. Q is the brother of S and has a child A, making U and A cousins. Since Y is the son-in-law of Q, Y is married to Q's daughter A. Thus, A is the wife of Y, and M is their daughter.

Explanation

Arranging the eight dates in chronological order: 9 January: G (Pune) 18 January: H (Bangalore) 9 February: B (Lucknow) 18 February: D (Chennai) 9 June: E (Mumbai) 18 June: F (Hyderabad) 9 August: C (Delhi) 18 August: A (Kolkata)

June is the only 30-day month, placing E on 9 June in Mumbai. Counting 3 slots back puts G on 9 January, and placing 2 people between G and D sets D on 18 February in Chennai. Chennai (18 February) and Kolkata (18 August) have 3 meetings between them, which places Bangalore on 18 January (5 slots before Kolkata) and Pune on 9 January before Bangalore.

Since H attends on the 18th before D, H is on 18 January. C must be on an odd date and shares a month with A (excluding February), fixing C on 9 August and A on 18 August.

Explanation

Arranging the eight meetings chronologically by date: January 9: G (Pune) January 18: H (Bangalore) February 9: B (Lucknow) February 18: D (Chennai) June 9: E (Mumbai) June 18: F (Hyderabad) August 9: C (Delhi) August 18: A (Kolkata)

The meeting in Pune is on January 9 and C attends the meeting on August 9. The meetings scheduled between January 9 and August 9 are on January 18, February 9, February 18, June 9, and June 18, giving a total of 5 meetings.

Explanation

Evaluating the meeting months for each pair: B and D both attend in February. C and A both attend in August. G and H both attend in January. E and F both attend in June. D attends in February while G attends in January, making this pair the only one where the two persons attend meetings in different months.

Explanation

From the scheduling constraints: June 9 is E (Mumbai) and June 18 is F (Hyderabad). January 9 is G (Pune) and January 18 is H (Bangalore). February 18 is D (Chennai). August 9 is C (Delhi) and August 18 is A (Kolkata). This leaves February 9 as the only available slot for B, which corresponds to the city Lucknow.

Explanation

Based on the schedule: June 18 is assigned to F in Hyderabad. H attends the meeting on January 18 in Bangalore. The meeting in Lucknow is attended by B on February 9. Therefore, the combination specifying June 18, H, and Lucknow is incorrect.

Explanation

From the conditions: D is lighter than only one person, placing D second in weight. A is heavier than F, E, and B (A > F > E > B). Since D is second, A must be the heaviest person at position 1. Person B is not the lightest, so C is placed at the lightest position (position 6). The descending order of weight is A (96 kg) > D > F > E (73 kg) > B > C.

Explanation

Arranging all six persons in increasing order of weight: Lightest (1st lightest): C 2nd lightest: B 3rd lightest: E (73 kg) 4th lightest: F 5th lightest: D 6th lightest (heaviest): A (96 kg)

Thus, B is the second lightest person.

Explanation

The weight ranking from heaviest to lightest is: A (96 kg) > D > F > E (73 kg) > B > C

Since D is lighter than A (96 kg) and heavier than F, who in turn is heavier than E (73 kg), the weight of D must satisfy 73 kg < weight of D < 96 kg. The value 85 kg falls within this valid range.

Explanation

In the number 28462742, pairs are found by checking |index_difference| = |digit_difference|: Digits 2 (1st) and 4 (3rd): index diff = 2, digit diff = 2 Digits 2 (1st) and 7 (6th): index diff = 5, digit diff = 5 Digits 8 (2nd) and 6 (4th): index diff = 2, digit diff = 2 Digits 8 (2nd) and 2 (8th): index diff = 6, digit diff = 6 Digits 4 (3rd) and 2 (5th): index diff = 2, digit diff = 2 Digits 4 (3rd) and 7 (6th): index diff = 3, digit diff = 3 Digits 6 (4th) and 2 (8th): index diff = 4, digit diff = 4 Digits 2 (5th) and 4 (7th): index diff = 2, digit diff = 2

With 8 valid pairs, the total exceeds seven.

Explanation

Comparing the given statements: 'dream' appears in statements 1, 2, and 3, corresponding to the common code 'rad'. 'bought' appears in statements 1 and 2, corresponding to the common code 'ogt'. 'Naina' appears in statements 1 and 4, corresponding to the common code 'ani'. In the first sentence 'Naina bought dream catcher' = 'ani rad chr ogt', removing 'ani' (Naina), 'rad' (dream), and 'ogt' (bought) leaves 'chr' as the code for 'catcher'.

Explanation

From statements 3 and 4, the phrase 'have a' corresponds to the codes 'lsn' and 'avn'. Given that 'everybody have dream' is coded as 'rad avn voy', and knowing that 'dream' is 'rad' and 'everybody' is 'voy', the code for 'have' is 'avn'. Substituting 'have' = 'avn' into the pair {'lsn', 'avn'} for 'have a' confirms that 'lsn' represents 'a'.

Explanation

In the given code language, comparing the first statement ('Naina bought dream catcher' = 'ani rad chr ogt') and the fourth statement ('Naina have a clinic' = 'cnc ani lsn avn') shows that 'Naina' is the only word common to both sentences. Similarly, 'ani' is the only common code between the two sets, establishing that 'Naina' is coded as 'ani'.

Explanation

Taking point B as the reference origin (0, 0): Point C is 4 m east at (4, 0). Point D is 3 m south of C at (4, -3). Point E is 8 m west of D at (-4, -3).

The shortest distance d between point B(0, 0) and point E(-4, -3) is calculated using the distance formula: d = √((Δx)² + (Δy)²) = √(4² + 3²) = √(16 + 9) = √25 = 5 m.

Explanation

Set the origin (0, 0) at point A. Point B is 6 m north of A at (0, 6). Point C is 4 m east of B at (4, 6). Point D is 3 m south of C at (4, 3). Point E is 8 m west of D at (-4, 3). Point F is 5 m south of E at (-4, -2).

A person walking 2 m south from point A reaches the position (0, -2). Since both point F (-4, -2) and the person's position (0, -2) lie on the horizontal line y = -2, the distance between them is |0 - (-4)| = 4 m.

Explanation

Taking starting point A as the origin (0, 0): Moving 6 m north to B gives coordinates (0, 6). Turning right and moving 4 m east to C gives coordinates (4, 6). Turning right and moving 3 m south to D gives coordinates (4, 3). Moving 8 m west to E gives coordinates (-4, 3). Moving 5 m south to F gives coordinates (-4, -2). Turning left and moving 8 m east to G gives coordinates (4, -2).

With respect to point G at (4, -2), point A at (0, 0) is located 4 m to the west and 2 m to the north, which is in the North-West direction.

Explanation

The quantifier "only a few apples are good" translates directly into two definite conditions: "some apples are good" and "some apples are not good". This immediately validates conclusion II. Furthermore, since there is no negative or limiting relationship stated between rotten and good, an overlap between them is completely permissible, making conclusion I valid as a possibility. Hence, both conclusions follow logically.

Explanation

The statement "Only potato is tomato" is equivalent to "All tomato are potato" with the strict condition that tomato cannot share an intersection with any other entity. Consequently, no tomato can ever be pumpkin, making the first possibility invalid. Furthermore, since "Some pumpkin are potato" is directly given as a definite fact in the premises, converting an already certain relation into a possibility is considered logically false in syllogism. Neither conclusion follows from the given statements.

Explanation

The statement "Only a few homosapiens are crazy" inherently means that "Some homosapiens are crazy" and "Some homosapiens are not crazy" are both definitively true. Therefore, conclusion I directly follows.

Since all homosapiens are brave, if all brave were crazy, all homosapiens would also have to be crazy. This contradicts the given condition that some homosapiens are definitely not crazy, making conclusion II impossible.

Explanation

Statement III states No wise is preparation, which by immediate conversion directly yields No preparation is wise, making conclusion II definitively true. Statement I states Some preparation are not good, which permits the possibility that some preparation are good without violating the condition that preparation and wise must remain disjoint; hence conclusion III is valid. Statement II states Only a few good are wise, which establishes that Some good are not wise is already a definite certainty, so expressing it as a possibility is invalid.

Explanation

Few holders are share means some holders are share, which allows the possibility that all share are holders, making Conclusion I true.

No bank is share is a universal negative statement, which directly implies the particular negative proposition that some bank is not share, making Conclusion II definitely true.

Only a few accounts are bank explicitly establishes as a definite fact that some accounts are not bank. Because a definite fact cannot be considered as a possibility, Conclusion III does not follow. Therefore, only conclusions I and II follow.

Explanation

Combining the given inequalities gives the single chain H ≥ R < P < K ≤ D.

For conclusion I: from R < P < K ≤ D, we have R < D, which is definitely true.

For conclusion II: between H and K, the inequality signs are in opposite directions (≥ and <), so no definite relationship can be established between H and K.

For conclusion III: from P < K ≤ D, we have P < D or D > P, which is definitely true.

Thus, both conclusions I and III are definitely true.

Explanation

Combining the given inequalities using Y = V: U < V = Y ≤ X < W

Evaluating the conclusions: For conclusion I (X > V): Since V = Y and Y ≤ X, we get X ≥ V. Thus, X > V is not definitely true. For conclusion II (U < W): From the combined chain U < V = Y ≤ X < W, it strictly follows that U < W. Therefore, only conclusion II is definitely true.

Explanation

From the combined statements, the path between P and M is P < J = O > M. The presence of opposite signs (< and >) between P and M means no definite relation can be established, so conclusion I (P > M) does not follow. Similarly, the path between X and J is X > P < J. With opposite signs between X and J, their relative order cannot be determined, so conclusion II (X < J) also does not follow. Neither conclusion is true.

Explanation

Placing the cars from left to right across positions 1 to 8 based on the given clues: Creta is parked at position 1 facing North, and Ford is parked at position 4 facing South. Honda is parked third to the left of Ford at position 7 facing North. BMW is parked at position 6 facing North, and Maruti is parked second to the right of BMW at position 8 facing South. Desire is parked third to the right of Maruti at position 5 facing South. Nano is parked second to the right of Desire at position 3 facing North. I10 is parked adjacent to Nano at position 2 facing South.

The complete arrangement from position 1 to 8 is: Creta (North), I10 (South), Nano (North), Ford (South), Desire (South), BMW (North), Honda (North), Maruti (South).

Since Ford is at position 4 facing South, its immediate right corresponds to position 3, which is occupied by Nano.

Explanation

Arranging the eight cars from left to right at positions 1 through 8 based on the given conditions:

Position 1: Creta (facing North) Position 2: I10 (facing South) Position 3: Nano (facing North) Position 4: Ford (facing South) Position 5: Desire (facing South) Position 6: BMW (facing North) Position 7: Honda (facing North) Position 8: Maruti (facing South)

Nano is parked at position 3 and Honda is parked at position 7. The cars parked between them are Ford (4), Desire (5), and BMW (6), giving a total of 3 cars.

Explanation

From the given conditions, the step-by-step arrangement of the eight cars from left to right (positions 1 to 8) is: Position 1: Creta (facing North) Position 2: I10 (facing South) Position 3: Nano (facing North) Position 4: Ford (facing South) Position 5: Desire (facing South) Position 6: BMW (facing North) Position 7: Honda (facing North) Position 8: Maruti (facing South)

Since Honda is parked at position 7 facing North, its left direction corresponds to moving towards position 1. Desire is parked at position 5, which is two places to the left, making Desire second to the left of Honda.

Explanation

From the given conditions, the step-by-step arrangement from left to right (positions 1 to 8) is:

Creta (facing North) I10 (facing South) Nano (facing North) Ford (facing South) Desire (facing South) BMW (facing North) Honda (facing North) Maruti (facing South)

Since BMW is placed at position 6 facing North, its right direction is towards positions 7 and 8. The two cars parked to the right of BMW are Honda (position 7) and Maruti (position 8).

Explanation

The given statement establishes a conditional probability of 86% that an individual with OCD suffers from depression, leaving a 14% possibility that they do not. This does not imply that every person with OCD experiences depression symptoms, making any absolute universal claim invalid. Furthermore, the probability of depression given OCD cannot be reversed to infer that a person suffering from depression necessarily has OCD. Therefore, neither conclusion logically follows with certainty.

Explanation

The Chief Manager's directive to prohibit newspaper reading during office hours implies that such an activity is considered undesirable during work time, which directly contradicts the first conclusion. Furthermore, such instructions are aimed at curbing non-productive tasks to improve or maintain workplace productivity, rendering the second conclusion invalid as well. Consequently, neither of the conclusions can be drawn from the given statement.

Explanation

The statement links the rise in petrol and diesel prices directly to an increase in the adoption of electric vehicles. For a price hike in conventional fuels to motivate consumers to switch to an alternative energy source, it must inherently be assumed that operating vehicles on electricity is more economical and less expensive than running them on petrol or diesel.

Explanation

The statement explicitly notes that the careless application of chemicalized disinfectants damaged the fertility of the soil, thereby ruining the chance of its further use. This directly implies that the soil will not be able to support productive yields in the future. In contrast, while floods and rains are cited alongside disinfectants as causes for the poor yield, the loss of soil fertility is specifically attributed to the chemical disinfectants rather than the precipitation or flooding.

Explanation

From the given conditions, the order from senior-most to junior-most is: President (Anuj), Vice President (Anish), Chairman (Ajay), Director (Akhil), Manager (Aakash), and Clerk (Arun). Therefore, Aakash holds the post of Manager.

Explanation

With Anuj as President and Ajay as Chairman, the post between them is Vice President, held by Anish. Since Vice President is not listed in the options, none of these is the correct choice.

Explanation

Arranging the six names in alphabetical order gives Aakash, Ajay, Akhil, Anish, Anuj, and Arun. Assigning them from President down to Clerk places Aakash as President, Ajay as Vice President, Akhil as Chairman, Anish as Director, Anuj as Manager, and Arun as Clerk. The fifth most senior person is Anuj.

Explanation

With Arun at the junior-most position of Clerk, Ajay is two positions above him at Chairman, which satisfies all seniority conditions relative to Anish and Anuj.

Explanation

In increasing order of seniority from Clerk to President, the second junior-most position is Manager. Based on the derived arrangement, Aakash is the Manager.

Explanation

Rahul and Ramesh own the TV. Mahesh and Garvit own the Tablet. The remaining three persons—Angad, Arjun, and Ravish—all own a Laptop.

Explanation

Garvit owns a Tablet as explicitly given. Mahesh cannot have a TV or a Laptop, which leaves Tablet as his gadget. Thus, Mahesh and Garvit both own a Tablet.

Explanation

Ramesh went with a TV, and Rahul does not have a Laptop or a Tablet, which means Rahul also has a TV. Since exactly two people own a TV, the pair is Ramesh and Rahul.

Explanation

Angad, Arjun, and Ravish form a group because all three own a Laptop, while Garvit owns a Tablet and does not belong to the group.

Explanation

Arjun does not share a gadget with Ramesh (TV) or Mahesh (Tablet). Therefore, Arjun has a Laptop.

Explanation

The 13th South Asian Games were hosted by Nepal from 1 to 10 December 2019 across three cities: Kathmandu, Pokhara, and Janakpur. The multi-sport event featured seven participating nations from the South Asian region competing in 26 different sports disciplines, with India leading the overall medal tally followed by Nepal.

Explanation

In September 2019, UCO Bank introduced a suite of customized digital banking products, including UCash, DigiLocker integration, and an upgraded mobile banking application. UCash enables customers to withdraw cash from ATMs without using a physical debit card, utilizing their mobile banking app for cardless transactions. DigiLocker integration allows users to digitally store and share official documents securely.

Explanation

In October 2019, the Reserve Bank of India rejected the proposed voluntary scheme of amalgamation between Lakshmi Vilas Bank and Indiabulls Housing Finance Limited, along with its wholly owned subsidiary Indiabulls Commercial Credit Limited. The central bank withheld approval shortly after placing Lakshmi Vilas Bank under the Prompt Corrective Action framework due to its high levels of net non-performing assets, insufficient capital adequacy ratio, and continuous negative return on assets.

Explanation

World Cancer Day is observed annually on February 4 to raise global awareness, improve education, and encourage personal and collective action against cancer. Led by the Union for International Cancer Control (UICC), the 2019 campaign launched the three-year theme "I Am and I Will" (spanning 2019 to 2021), highlighting how personal commitment and action can help reduce the global impact of the disease.

Explanation

Pravind Kumar Jugnauth became the Prime Minister of Mauritius in January 2017, succeeding his father Anerood Jugnauth, and later won a five-year mandate after leading the ruling Militant Socialist Movement coalition to a parliamentary majority in the November 2019 general elections.

Explanation

Bank of Baroda launched Baroda Kisan, a dedicated agriculture digital platform designed as a one-stop solution for the farming community. The platform caters to agricultural needs by providing crop advisory, weather forecasts, input supplies, financing solutions, and market linkage services to enhance farmers' productivity and income.

Explanation

Nippon Life Insurance Company, commonly known as Nissay, is a major Japanese life insurance company headquartered in Osaka, Japan. In 2019, it acquired a 75% controlling stake in Reliance Nippon Life Asset Management, leading to the rebranding of Reliance Mutual Fund as Nippon India Mutual Fund.

Explanation

The 25th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP 25) took place from 2 to 13 December 2019 in Madrid, Spain. Although Chile held the presidency of the conference, the venue was relocated to Madrid due to political unrest and protests in Santiago.

Explanation

NEFT stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer. It is a nationwide payment system owned and operated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that facilitates one-to-one funds transfer from any bank branch to any other bank branch across India.

Explanation

The 2019 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded with one half to James Peebles for theoretical discoveries in physical cosmology, and the other half jointly to Michel Mayor and Didier Queloz for the discovery of an exoplanet orbiting a solar-type star. Peebles developed a theoretical framework that forms the foundation of modern understanding of the universe's history from the Big Bang to the present day.

Explanation

In December 2019, Indian men's national football team captain and Bengaluru FC forward Sunil Chhetri signed a three-year deal to become the brand ambassador for the global sportswear brand PUMA, joining the company's roster of international sports ambassadors.

Explanation

Jana Small Finance Bank commenced its banking operations in March 2018 after transitioning from Janalakshmi Financial Services. The bank is headquartered in Bengaluru, Karnataka, and operates as a scheduled commercial bank focusing on financial inclusion and retail banking services across India.

Explanation

Bangkok, officially known in Thai as Krung Thep Maha Nakhon, is the capital and most populous city of Thailand. Situated in the central region of the country along the Chao Phraya River delta, it serves as Thailand's primary center for politics, commerce, education, and culture.

Explanation

The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) launched the ASPIRE (A Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industries and Entrepreneurship) scheme in 2015. The initiative aims to set up a network of technology centres and incubation centres to accelerate entrepreneurship, promote startups for innovation in the agro-industry, and create employment opportunities in rural and underserved areas.

Explanation

Krishan Kumar Modi was a leading Indian business leader and chairman of Modi Enterprises, a multi-dimensional conglomerate with interests in tobacco, tea, retail, and chemicals. He also served as the president of the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) and played a prominent role in the Confederation of Asia-Pacific Chambers of Commerce and Industry (CACCI).

Explanation

The 15th India-European Union Summit in 2020 was scheduled to take place in Brussels, Belgium, which serves as the de facto capital and headquarters of the European Union. High-level bilateral summits between India and the European Union alternate between New Delhi and Brussels to deliberate on strategic partnership, trade, climate change, and security cooperation.

Explanation

In 2019, the Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) entered into an agreement with Bangladesh to extend a USD 500 million Line of Credit (LoC) to finance defence-related procurement. This financing facility enables Bangladesh to purchase defence goods, equipment, and related services from India to modernize its armed forces and deepen bilateral strategic cooperation.

Explanation

King Willem-Alexander ascended the Dutch throne in April 2013 following the abdication of his mother, Queen Beatrix. In October 2019, King Willem-Alexander and Queen Maxima undertook a five-day state visit to India covering New Delhi, Mumbai, and Kerala to strengthen bilateral economic and political ties at the invitation of President Ram Nath Kovind.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India revised its guidelines for Non-Banking Financial Company - Peer to Peer Lending Platforms (NBFC-P2P) in December 2019 to raise the aggregate exposure cap of a single lender across all P2P platforms from ₹10 lakh to ₹50 lakh. Under these updated norms, lenders intending to invest more than ₹10 lakh across platforms are required to obtain and submit a net-worth certificate from a Chartered Accountant certifying a minimum net worth of ₹50 lakh.

Explanation

Wasim Jaffer achieved the milestone of becoming the first player in Indian domestic cricket history to play 150 Ranji Trophy matches in December 2019, during a match representing Vidarbha against Andhra. He also holds the record for the highest number of runs scored and the most centuries in the tournament's history.

Explanation

The 30th formal meeting of the heads of state and heads of government of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) took place at the Grove hotel in Watford, Hertfordshire, United Kingdom, on 3–4 December 2019. Known as the 2019 London Summit, this meeting commemorated the 70th anniversary of the founding of the transatlantic military alliance, which established its first headquarters in London in 1949.

Explanation

Under the notification issued by the Ministry of Finance, three regional rural banks in Uttar Pradesh—Baroda Uttar Pradesh Gramin Bank, Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank, and Purvanchal Bank—were amalgamated into a single entity called Baroda UP Bank under the sponsorship of Bank of Baroda, with its head office established at Gorakhpur.

Explanation

Wipro announced the launch of its state-of-the-art Cyber Defence Centre in Melbourne, Australia, with support from the Victorian Government via Invest Victoria. The facility was designed to provide end-to-end cybersecurity solutions, including round-the-clock security monitoring, threat hunting, incident response, and regulatory compliance services to both Australian and global enterprises, while creating local specialized technical jobs in Victoria.

Explanation

According to the World Meteorological Organization (WMO), global mean temperatures are projected to increase by 3 to 5 °C by the end of the century if the current trajectory of greenhouse gas emissions continues unabated. The WMO emphasized that atmospheric concentrations of major heat-trapping gases—carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide—have reached record highs, far exceeding the threshold needed to limit global warming to 1.5 °C or well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels.

Explanation

Effective from December 16, 2019, the Reserve Bank of India made the National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) facility operational on a 24x7 basis, 365 days a year. Transactions are settled in half-hourly batches throughout the day, amounting to a total of 48 settlement batches in a 24-hour cycle.

Explanation

According to the Reserve Bank of India guidelines for on-tap licensing of Small Finance Banks, an existing Payments Bank that is controlled by resident Indians is eligible to apply for conversion into a Small Finance Bank after completing 5 years of operations, subject to fulfilling the prescribed eligibility criteria and regulatory requirements.

Explanation

Bharat Bond ETF, India's first corporate debt exchange-traded fund, was launched by the Government of India in December 2019 to create an additional source of funding for Central Public Sector Enterprises. To encourage retail participation and deepen the corporate bond market, the unit value was fixed at ₹1,000, enabling small investors to purchase units with a low minimum investment amount.

Explanation

HDFC ERGO General Insurance Company launched the my:health Woman Suraksha policy, a specialized health insurance plan designed exclusively for women. The policy provides financial protection against critical illnesses, including various types of female-specific cancers, major medical conditions, surgical procedures, and pregnancy-related complications.

Explanation

Government e-Marketplace (GeM) signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Union Bank of India on 10 October 2019. Under this agreement, the bank facilitates a cashless, paperless, and transparent payment mechanism for government procurement, offering services such as transfer of funds via GeM Pool Accounts (GPA), advising of electronic Performance Bank Guarantees (e-PBG), and earnest money deposit management.

Explanation

The National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) launched interest rate options (IRO) on 10-year Government of India (GoI) benchmark bonds on December 23, 2019. Based on underlying sovereign securities such as the 7.26% 2029 and 6.45% 2029 government bonds, this derivative product provides institutional investors and market participants with a flexible mechanism to hedge against interest rate fluctuations and manage portfolio risk.

Explanation

Sudhir Dar was a prominent Indian cartoonist and illustrator widely celebrated for his witty pocket cartoons portraying everyday socio-political life. He started his career in 1961 as a staff cartoonist with The Statesman before moving to The Hindustan Times in 1967, where his daily pocket cartoon This is It ran for over two decades.

Explanation

Savitribai Phule Pune University signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Milestone International Education to set up an international campus in Doha, Qatar. This initiative was designed to offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses primarily catering to the Indian diaspora and other international students residing in Qatar.

Explanation

State Bank of India signed a loan agreement worth USD 277 million (around EUR 250 million) with the German development bank KfW to support an energy-efficient residential housing programme in India. Under this programme, financial assistance and loans are extended to both developers and homebuyers to support the construction and purchase of residential buildings that meet certified energy-efficiency and green standards, thereby reducing carbon emissions and promoting sustainable urban development.

Explanation

Indian Railways announced a 50% concession in the basic fare of sleeper and second-class passenger trains for youths participating in the Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat programme. This concession is granted for travelling beyond a distance of 300 km to attend exchange programmes organized under the initiative, aimed at enhancing mutual understanding and cultural connectivity across different states and union territories.

Explanation

Under the Foreign Exchange Management (Deposit) Regulations framed by the Reserve Bank of India, a Special Non-resident Rupee (SNRR) account may be opened by any person resident outside India having a business interest in India for putting through bona fide rupee transactions. The tenure of an SNRR account must be concurrent with the contract or business period of the non-resident entity and in no case can exceed 7 years.

Explanation

Vikas Swarup, a 1986-batch Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer, was appointed as Secretary (West) in the Ministry of External Affairs in December 2019. Prior to this role, he served as India's High Commissioner to Canada and as the official spokesperson of the Ministry of External Affairs.

Explanation

India was ranked 9th in the Climate Change Performance Index presented in December 2019 at the COP25 climate summit in Madrid. Jointly published by Germanwatch, the NewClimate Institute, and the Climate Action Network, the index evaluated the climate protection performance of 57 countries and the European Union. India entered the top 10 for the first time owing to its comparatively low per capita greenhouse gas emissions, low energy use levels, and ambitious renewable energy targets.

Explanation

Investment banks actively engage in trading, market making, underwriting, and holding large portfolios of tradable securities, equities, and derivative instruments. Since a substantial portion of their assets resides in the trading book and is marked-to-market daily, they face the highest exposure to fluctuations in market variables such as interest rates, equity prices, commodity prices, and foreign exchange rates.

Explanation

Under standard banking regulations in India, a Recurring Deposit (RD) account allows depositors to invest a fixed sum regularly, with the minimum permissible tenure set at 6 months. The tenure can extend up to a maximum period of 10 years (120 months), typically offered in quarterly multiples of 3 months.

Explanation

Following regulatory actions on Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative (PMC) Bank in late 2019, the Reserve Bank of India progressively increased the withdrawal limit for account holders to ₹25,000. This relaxation enabled more than 70% of the bank's depositors to withdraw their entire account balances, extending major relief to the majority of retail depositors.

Explanation

Guru Ghasidas National Park is situated in the Koriya district of Chhattisgarh. In late 2019, the Chhattisgarh State Wildlife Board decided to declare this national park as a tiger reserve, creating a contiguous wildlife corridor connecting Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh and Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand.

Explanation

According to the TRACE Bribery Risk Matrix released in November 2019, India was ranked 78th among 200 countries with a risk score of 48, indicating a moderate level of business bribery risk. The index measures business bribery risk across four domains: business interactions with the government, anti-bribery deterrence and enforcement, government and civil service transparency, and the capacity for civil society oversight.

Explanation

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and the Asia-Pacific Rural and Agricultural Credit Association (APRACA) jointly convened the 6th World Congress on Rural and Agriculture Finance in New Delhi in November 2019. The two-day international conference brought together global experts, policymakers, and financial institutions to deliberate on rural and agricultural finance innovations for achieving sustainable development and poverty alleviation.

Explanation

In 2019, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) granted approval under Section 31(1) of the Competition Act, 2002, for the amalgamation of the mutual fund businesses of Bank of Baroda (Baroda Asset Management India Limited) and BNP Paribas (BNP Paribas Asset Management India Private Limited). The transaction combined their respective asset management and trustee company operations in India to create a joint venture mutual fund entity.

Explanation

Manas Biosphere Reserve, located in the foothills of the Himalayas in Assam, was designated as a biosphere reserve by the Government of India in 1989. While it holds status as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, a Project Tiger reserve, and an elephant reserve, it has not been inducted into the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves under the Man and the Biosphere Programme.

Explanation

Exercise INDRA is a joint bilateral military exercise conducted between the armed forces of India and Russia. Initiated in 2003 as a bilateral naval drill, it has evolved over the years into a tri-service exercise involving the army, navy, and air force components of both nations.

Explanation

Exercise Yudh Abhyas is a regular bilateral military exercise between India and the United States designed to promote interoperability, counter-terrorism capabilities, and tactical cooperation. The 2019 edition marked the 15th iteration of this joint exercise and was hosted at Joint Base Lewis-McChord in Washington, USA.

Explanation

Lionel Messi won The Best FIFA Men's Player award at the ceremony held in Milan on 23 September 2019. This victory marked the sixth time he was named the world's top men's player by FIFA (2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2015, and 2019), after a prolific 2018–19 season in which he led Barcelona to the La Liga title and finished as Europe's top goalscorer.

Explanation

Ntangki National Park, established in 1993, covers an area of approximately 202 square kilometers in the Peren district of Nagaland. The park is renowned for its rich biodiversity, serving as a habitat for rare species including the Hoolock gibbon, golden langur, Asian palm civet, black stork, and monitor lizard.

Explanation

The 52nd ASEAN Foreign Ministers' Meeting (AMM), along with related post-ministerial conferences, was hosted by Thailand in Bangkok from 29 July to 3 August 2019. Held under Thailand's 2019 ASEAN Chairmanship theme, "Advancing Partnership for Sustainability," the meeting focused on building a people-centred ASEAN Community, promoting regional connectivity, and strengthening partnerships with external dialogue partners.