The number 130 violates this sequence and should be replaced by 129.
3Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series:
7,4,5,9,20,51,160.5
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Answer: (D) 51
Explanation
The pattern followed by the sequence is:
7 × 0.5 + 0.5 = 4
4 × 1.0 + 1.0 = 5
5 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 9
9 × 2.0 + 2.0 = 20
20 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 52.5
52.5 × 3.0 + 3.0 = 160.5
The term should be 52.5 instead of 51 to maintain the series.
4Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series.
1108,1117,1142,1191,1312,1480
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Answer: (D) 1480
Explanation
The differences between consecutive terms follow the sequence of squares of prime numbers:
1117 - 1108 = 9 = 3²
1142 - 1117 = 25 = 5²
1191 - 1142 = 49 = 7²
1312 - 1191 = 121 = 11²
The next difference should be 13² = 169.
Adding 169 to 1312 gives 1481 instead of 1480.
5Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Find the wrong term in the given series.
46,47,55,84,146,271
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Answer: (D) 84
Explanation
The pattern in the given sequence is formed by adding cubes of consecutive integers:
46 + 1³ = 46 + 1 = 47
47 + 2³ = 47 + 8 = 55
55 + 3³ = 55 + 27 = 82
82 + 4³ = 82 + 64 = 146
146 + 5³ = 146 + 125 = 271
The term 84 breaks the pattern and should be 82.
6Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: In the following question two equations are given in variables X and Y. You have to solve these equations and determine relation between X and Y.
I. x² - 6x = 7
II.2y² + 13y + 15 = 0
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Answer: (A) X > Y
Explanation
For equation I: x² - 6x - 7 = 0
Factorizing gives (x - 7)(x + 1) = 0, so x = 7, -1.
For equation II: 2y² + 13y + 15 = 0
Splitting the middle term: 2y² + 10y + 3y + 15 = 0
(2y + 3)(y + 5) = 0, so y = -1.5, -5.
Comparing the values:
7 > -1.5 and 7 > -5
-1 > -1.5 and -1 > -5
Since every value of x is strictly greater than every value of y, X > Y.
7Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: In the following question two equations are given in variables X and Y. You have to solve these equations and determine relation between X and Y.
2x² + 17x + 30 = 0 II. 4y² - 7y - 15 = 0
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Answer: (B) X< Y
Explanation
For the first equation, 2x² + 17x + 30 = 0:
Factoring by splitting the middle term gives 2x² + 12x + 5x + 30 = 0, which factors to (2x + 5)(x + 6) = 0.
Thus, x = -2.5 and x = -6.
For the second equation, 4y² - 7y - 15 = 0:
Factoring gives 4y² - 12y + 5y - 15 = 0, which factors to (4y + 5)(y - 3) = 0.
Thus, y = 3 and y = -1.25.
Comparing the values:
-2.5 < 3 and -2.5 < -1.25
-6 < 3 and -6 < -1.25
Since every value of x is strictly less than every value of y, X < Y.
8Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: In the following question two equations are given in variables X and Y. You have to solve these equations and determine relation between X and Y.
5x² + 7x - 6 = 0
II. 3y² + 19y + 28 = 0
Comparing each value of x with y:
0.6 > -2.33 and 0.6 > -4
-2 > -2.33 and -2 > -4
Thus, X > Y holds true for all possible values.
9Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: In the following question two equations are given in variables X and Y. You have to solve these equations and determine relation between X and Y.
I.8x² - 6x - 5 = 0
II. 2y² - 7y - 4 = 0
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Answer: (E) X = Y or No relation can be established
Explanation
For equation I: 8x² - 6x - 5 = 0
8x² - 10x + 4x - 5 = 0
(4x - 5)(2x + 1) = 0
x = 5/4 = 1.25 or x = -1/2 = -0.5
For equation II: 2y² - 7y - 4 = 0
2y² - 8y + y - 4 = 0
(y - 4)(2y + 1) = 0
y = 4 or y = -1/2 = -0.5
Comparing the values:
1.25 > -0.5 but 1.25 < 4
-0.5 = -0.5 but -0.5 < 4
Shortcut: When the constant terms of both standard quadratic equations (ax² + bx + c = 0) are negative (c < 0), each equation yields one positive root and one negative root. In all such cases, no relation can be established.
10Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: In the following question two equations are given in variables X and Y. You have to solve these equations and determine relation between X and Y.
I.6x² + 5x - 4 = 0
II. y(10y - 11) = -3
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Answer: (D) X≤ Y
Explanation
For equation I: 6x² + 5x - 4 = 0
Factoring gives (2x - 1)(3x + 4) = 0, so x = 1/2 (0.5) or x = -4/3 (-1.33).
For equation II: 10y² - 11y + 3 = 0
Factoring gives (2y - 1)(5y - 3) = 0, so y = 1/2 (0.5) or y = 3/5 (0.6).
Comparing the values:
0.5 = 0.5 and 0.5 < 0.6
-1.33 < 0.5 and -1.33 < 0.6
Thus, X ≤ Y holds for all pairs of values.
11Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.
Quantity I: A tap can fill a tank in 15 sec. But due to leakage in the bottom; it is filled in 20 sec. If the tank is full, what amount of time is required to empty it completely?
Quantity II: 50 sec
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Answer: (A) Quantity I > Quantity II
Explanation
Let the filling rate of the tap be 1/15 tank/sec and the net filling rate with the leak be 1/20 tank/sec.
Emptying rate of the leak = (1/15) - (1/20) = (4 - 3)/60 = 1/60 tank/sec.
Time required to empty the full tank completely = 60 sec.
Quantity I = 60 sec
Quantity II = 50 sec
Since 60 sec > 50 sec, Quantity I > Quantity II.
12Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.
Quantity I: 18 years ago the ratio of A's age to B's age was 8:13. The present age of the ratio of their ages is 5:7. Find the age of A, 13 years ago?
Quantity II: the value of Y: Y² + 32Y - 185=0
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Answer: (A) Quantity I > Quantity II
Explanation
For Quantity I:
Let the present ages of A and B be 5x and 7x.
According to the condition 18 years ago:
(5x - 18) / (7x - 18) = 8 / 13
13(5x - 18) = 8(7x - 18)
65x - 234 = 56x - 144
9x = 90, which gives x = 10.
Present age of A = 5 × 10 = 50 years.
Age of A, 13 years ago = 50 - 13 = 37 years.
Quantity I = 37.
For Quantity II:
Y² + 32Y - 185 = 0
(Y + 37)(Y - 5) = 0
Y = -37 or Y = 5.
Comparing the two quantities, 37 > 5 and 37 > -37. Therefore, Quantity I > Quantity II.
13Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.
Quantity I: A bought a certain quantity of bananas at a total cost of Rs. 1500. He sold 1/3 of these bananas at 25% loss. If he earns an overall profit of 10%, at what percentage profit did A sell the rest of the bananas?
Quantity II: 33⅓%
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Answer: (B) Quantity I < Quantity II
Explanation
Using the weighted average method for overall profit percentage:
Overall Profit % = (w₁ × P₁) + (w₂ × P₂)
Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.
Quantity I: A car covers a distance between A and B in 50 minutes. If the speed of the car is reduced by 9 km per hour then the same distance is covered in 56 minutes. The distance between A and B
Quantity II: Value of Y: Y² - 40Y - 2100 = 0
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Answer: (C) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Explanation
For Quantity I:
Distance is constant, so speed is inversely proportional to time.
s₁ × t₁ = s₂ × t₂
s₁ × 50 = (s₁ - 9) × 56
50s₁ = 56s₁ - 504
6s₁ = 504
s₁ = 84 km/h
Distance = Speed × Time = 84 × (50/60) = 70 km.
Quantity I = 70.
For Quantity II:
Y² - 40Y - 2100 = 0
(Y - 70)(Y + 30) = 0
Y = 70 or Y = -30.
Comparing Quantity I and Quantity II:
For Y = 70, Quantity I = Quantity II.
For Y = -30, Quantity I > Quantity II.
Therefore, Quantity I ≥ Quantity II.
15Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Given below are two quantities named I and II. Based on the given information, you have to determine the relation between the two quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose among the possible answers.
Quantity I: A book seller sold a book at Rs. 56 in such a way that his percentage profit is same as the cost price of the book. If he sells it at twice the percentage profit of its previous percentage Profit then the new selling price will be?
Quantity II: Value of Y: Y² - 95Y+ 1500=0
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Answer: (E) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Explanation
For Quantity I:
Let CP = ₹x.
SP = x(1 + x/100) = 56
x² + 100x - 5600 = 0
(x + 140)(x - 40) = 0
Taking the positive value, CP = ₹40, and previous profit is 40%.
New profit percentage = 2 × 40% = 80%.
New SP = 40 × (1 + 80/100) = ₹72.
Thus, Quantity I = 72.
For Quantity II:
Y² - 95Y + 1500 = 0
(Y - 75)(Y - 20) = 0
Y = 75 or Y = 20.
Thus, Quantity II = 20, 75.
Comparing the two quantities:
72 > 20, but 72 < 75.
Because Quantity I is greater than one value of Y and less than the other, no relation can be established.
16Quantitative Aptitude
Table given below shows the total number of customers in four different cities and number of customers who buy neither laptop nor tablet and the percentage of customers who buys laptop out of the number of customers who buy.
| Name of the city | Total customers | No. of Customers who do not buy | Percentage of customers who buys laptop |
|---|---|---|---|
| Delhi | 280 | 60 | 45 |
| Roorkee | 420 | 80 | 60 |
| Kanpur | 340 | 40 | 30 |
| Surat | 500 | 50 | 20 |
Note: Customers buy either laptop or tablet.
Number of customers who buys laptop from Kanpur is how much more or less than the number of customer who buys tablet from Surat?
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Answer: (C) 75%
Explanation
Total buyers in Kanpur = 340 - 40 = 300
Number of laptop buyers in Kanpur = 30% of 300 = 90
Total buyers in Surat = 500 - 50 = 450
Percentage of tablet buyers in Surat = 100% - 20% = 80%
Number of tablet buyers in Surat = 80% of 450 = 360
Table given below shows the total number of customers in four different cities and number of customers who buy neither laptop nor tablet and the percentage of customers who buys laptop out of the number of customers who buy.
| Name of the city | Total customers | No. of Customers who do not buy | Percentage of customers who buys laptop |
|---|---|---|---|
| Delhi | 280 | 60 | 45 |
| Roorkee | 420 | 80 | 60 |
| Kanpur | 340 | 40 | 30 |
| Surat | 500 | 50 | 20 |
Note: Customers buy either laptop or tablet.
What is the total number of customers who buy either laptop or tablet from all the cities together?
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Answer: (A) 1310
Explanation
Total number of customers across all cities = 280 + 420 + 340 + 500 = 1540.
Total number of customers who do not buy = 60 + 80 + 40 + 50 = 230.
Total number of customers who buy either laptop or tablet = 1540 - 230 = 1310.
18Quantitative Aptitude
Table given below shows the total number of customers in four different cities and number of customers who buy neither laptop nor tablet and the percentage of customers who buys laptop out of the number of customers who buy.
| Name of the city | Total customers | No. of Customers who do not buy | Percentage of customers who buys laptop |
|---|---|---|---|
| Delhi | 280 | 60 | 45 |
| Roorkee | 420 | 80 | 60 |
| Kanpur | 340 | 40 | 30 |
| Surat | 500 | 50 | 20 |
Note: Customers buy either laptop or tablet.
If the number of customers who buys laptops and tablets from city Jabalpur are in the ratio 6: x and the number of customer who buys laptops from Jabalpur are 40% more than that from Kanpur and the number of customers who buys tablets from Jabalpur are 30% less than that from Kanpur, then the value of (x + 3) is
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Answer: (A) 10
Explanation
Total buyers in Kanpur = Total customers - Non-buyers = 340 - 40 = 300.
Laptop buyers in Kanpur = 30% of 300 = 90.
Tablet buyers in Kanpur = 300 - 90 = 210.
Ratio of laptop to tablet buyers in Jabalpur = 126 : 147 = 6 : 7.
Comparing with 6 : x gives x = 7.
Therefore, x + 3 = 7 + 3 = 10.
19Quantitative Aptitude
Table given below shows the total number of customers in four different cities and number of customers who buy neither laptop nor tablet and the percentage of customers who buys laptop out of the number of customers who buy.
| Name of the city | Total customers | No. of Customers who do not buy | Percentage of customers who buys laptop |
|---|---|---|---|
| Delhi | 280 | 60 | 45 |
| Roorkee | 420 | 80 | 60 |
| Kanpur | 340 | 40 | 30 |
| Surat | 500 | 50 | 20 |
Note: Customers buy either laptop or tablet.
What is the ratio of number of customers who buys any one gadget from Surat to the number of customer who do not buy any gadget from Delhi?
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Answer: (A) 15:2
Explanation
Total customers who buy a gadget from Surat = Total customers - Customers who do not buy = 500 - 50 = 450.
Number of customers who do not buy any gadget from Delhi = 60.
Required ratio = 450 : 60 = 15 : 2.
20Quantitative Aptitude
Table given below shows the total number of customers in four different cities and number of customers who buy neither laptop nor tablet and the percentage of customers who buys laptop out of the number of customers who buy.
| Name of the city | Total customers | No. of Customers who do not buy | Percentage of customers who buys laptop |
|---|---|---|---|
| Delhi | 280 | 60 | 45 |
| Roorkee | 420 | 80 | 60 |
| Kanpur | 340 | 40 | 30 |
| Surat | 500 | 50 | 20 |
Note: Customers buy either laptop or tablet.
What is the average number of customers who buys laptop from Delhi, Kanpur and Surat?
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Answer: (E) 93
Explanation
Number of customers who buy in each city:
Delhi = 280 - 60 = 220
Kanpur = 340 - 40 = 300
Surat = 500 - 50 = 450
Number of customers buying laptops in each city:
Delhi = 45% of 220 = 99
Kanpur = 30% of 300 = 90
Surat = 20% of 450 = 90
Average number of laptop buyers = (99 + 90 + 90) / 3 = 279 / 3 = 93
21Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
Train 'A' running at a certain speed crosses another train 'B' running at a certain speed in the opposite direction in 12 seconds. What is the length of train 'B'?
I. The length of both the trains together is 450 metres.
II. The difference between the speed of both Trains is 10km / hr
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Answer: (E) the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
When two trains of lengths L₁ and L₂ travel in opposite directions at speeds S₁ and S₂, the time taken to cross each other is:
Time = (L₁ + L₂) / (S₁ + S₂) = 12 s
Statement I gives the total length L₁ + L₂ = 450 m. This allows the calculation of the relative speed (S₁ + S₂ = 450 / 12 = 37.5 m/s), but does not give the individual value of L₂.
Statement II gives |S₁ − S₂| = 10 km/hr, which provides information about the speeds but no data about lengths.
Combining both statements allows the calculation of individual speeds S₁ and S₂, but still leaves only one equation with two unknown lengths (L₁ + L₂ = 450 m). Therefore, the length of train B cannot be uniquely determined.
22Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
What is the quantity of milk in 80 litres of mixture of milk and water?
I. If 8 litres of mixture is replaced by equal quantity of water the ratio of milk and water in the mixture becomes 27:13 respectively.
II. If 16 litres of mixture is replaced by equal quantity of milk, the ratio of milk and water in the mixture becomes 4:1 respectively.
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Answer: (C) the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
Explanation
Let the initial fraction of milk in the 80-litre mixture be x.
From Statement I: Removing 8 litres leaves 72 litres of mixture containing 72x litres of milk. Adding 8 litres of water keeps the total at 80 litres. The new milk quantity is (27 / (27 + 13)) × 80 = 54 litres. Setting 72x = 54 gives x = 3/4, so the initial quantity of milk is 80 × (3/4) = 60 litres. Statement I alone is sufficient.
From Statement II: Removing 16 litres leaves 64 litres of mixture containing 64(1 - x) litres of water. Adding 16 litres of milk keeps the total at 80 litres. The new water quantity is (1 / (4 + 1)) × 80 = 16 litres. Setting 64(1 - x) = 16 gives 1 - x = 1/4, so x = 3/4, and the initial quantity of milk is 80 × (3/4) = 60 litres. Statement II alone is sufficient.
23Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
By how many years is Suresh older than his brother Rakesh?
I. Ratio between Rakesh's present age and Suresh's age after four years is 5 : 7 respectively.
II. Ratio between Rakesh's age four years ago and Suresh's present age is 2 : 3 respectively.
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Answer: (D) If the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Explanation
Let R and S represent the present ages of Rakesh and Suresh respectively.
From Statement I:
R / (S + 4) = 5 / 7
7R - 5S = 20
From Statement II:
(R - 4) / S = 2 / 3
3R - 2S = 12
Solving the two equations simultaneously:
Multiplying the second equation by 2.5 and subtracting from the first gives R = 20.
Substituting R = 20 into 3R - 2S = 12 gives S = 24.
The required age difference is S - R = 24 - 20 = 4 years.
Thus, both statements together are required to answer the question.
24Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
What is the cost of painting two adjacent walls of a hall having no door or window at Rs. 750 per m²?
I. Length and breadth are in the ratio of 7:3 respectively.
II. Perimeter of the hall is 150 m and height is one-fifth of the perimeter.
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Answer: (B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
Area of two adjacent walls of a hall = (length × height) + (breadth × height) = (length + breadth) × height.
Cost of painting = Area × Rate = (length + breadth) × height × 750.
From Statement I, only the ratio of length to breadth is given, with no absolute dimensions or height. Hence, Statement I alone is not sufficient.
From Statement II, Perimeter = 2(length + breadth) = 150 m, which gives (length + breadth) = 75 m.
Height = 150 / 5 = 30 m.
Total area of two adjacent walls = 75 × 30 = 2250 m².
Cost = 2250 × 750 = ₹16,87,500.
Thus, Statement II alone provides sufficient data to calculate the total cost.
25Quantitative Aptitude
Direction: Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
Salary of A and B is in ratio 3:4 and expenditure is in ratio 4:5. What is the ratio of their saving?
I. B's saving is 25% of his salary.
II. B's salary is Rs. 2500 & expenditure of A is 880 Rs.
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Answer: (C) If the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
Explanation
Let the salaries of A and B be 3x and 4x, and their expenditures be 4y and 5y, respectively. The savings are 3x - 4y for A and 4x - 5y for B.
Using Statement I:
B's saving is 25% of B's salary:
4x - 5y = 0.25 × 4x = x
3x = 5y, which gives x/y = 5/3.
Substituting x = 5 and y = 3:
Saving of A = 3(5) - 4(3) = 15 - 12 = 3
Saving of B = 4(5) - 5(3) = 20 - 15 = 5
Ratio of savings = 3:5. Thus, Statement I alone is sufficient.
Using Statement II:
B's salary = 4x = 2500, so x = 625.
A's salary = 3x = 1875.
A's expenditure = 4y = 880, so y = 220.
B's expenditure = 5y = 1100.
Saving of A = 1875 - 880 = 995.
Saving of B = 2500 - 1100 = 1400.
Ratio of savings = 995:1400 = 199:280. Thus, Statement II alone is also sufficient.
26Quantitative Aptitude
A 450 meters long train cross a girl who is walking with a speed of 5 km/hr in the direction of the moving train in 27 sec. find how long train will cross a 525 m long platform?
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Answer: (A) 54 sec
Explanation
Relative speed of the train with respect to the girl = Distance / Time = 450 / 27 = 50/3 m/s.
Speed of the girl = 5 × (5/18) = 25/18 m/s.
Since both move in the same direction, speed of the train = (50/3) + (25/18) = 325/18 m/s.
Total distance to cross the platform = Length of train + Length of platform = 450 + 525 = 975 m.
Time required to cross the platform = Distance / Speed = 975 / (325/18) = 3 × 18 = 54 seconds.
27Quantitative Aptitude
How many bricks are needed to complete a wall 15m× 12m× 10 cm using bricks 24cm× 25cm× 10 cm thick if 37(1 / 2)% of the wall is already built?
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Answer: (C) 1875
Explanation
Total volume of the wall = 1500 cm × 1200 cm × 10 cm = 18,000,000 cm³
Volume of one brick = 24 cm × 25 cm × 10 cm = 6,000 cm³
Total bricks required for the whole wall = 18,000,000 / 6,000 = 3,000 bricks
Fraction of wall remaining to be built = 100% - 37.5% = 62.5% = 5/8
Bricks needed to complete the wall = 3,000 × (5/8) = 1,875 bricks
28Quantitative Aptitude
A In an election between two candidates, one got 16(2 / 3)% more votes than other, 20% of votes were invalid. If the number of votes was 7800, what was the number of valid votes, Winner candidate got?
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Answer: (C) 3360
Explanation
Total valid votes = (100 - 20)% of 7800 = 0.80 × 7800 = 6240.
The percentage 16⅔% equals 1/6. If the other candidate received 6x votes, the winner received 6x + x = 7x votes.
Total valid votes = 7x + 6x = 13x = 6240
x = 6240 / 13 = 480
Valid votes obtained by the winner = 7 × 480 = 3360.
29Quantitative Aptitude
If a student walks from his house to school at 8km / hr he is late by 30 minutes. However, if he walks at 10 km/hr, he is late by 6 minutes only. The distance of his school from his house is.
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Answer: (B) 16km
Explanation
Distance is given by the formula d = (s₁ × s₂) / (s₂ - s₁) × Δt, where s₁ and s₂ are the speeds and Δt is the difference in time.
Substituting the values:
d = (8 × 10) / (10 - 8) × (2/5)
d = (80 / 2) × (2/5) = 40 × 2/5 = 16 km
30Quantitative Aptitude
The average age of amisha and Aaradhana is 35 years. If Alka replaces amisha, the average age is 31 years, if Alka replaces Aaradhana average age is 36 years. If the average age of Aditi and Aashirya is half of average age of amisha, Aaradhana and Alka. then average age of all the five people is
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Answer: (B) 27.2
Explanation
Let the ages of Amisha, Aaradhana, and Alka be M, R, and L respectively.
Given:
M + R = 35 × 2 = 70
L + R = 31 × 2 = 62
M + L = 36 × 2 = 72
Adding the three equations:
2(M + R + L) = 70 + 62 + 72 = 204
M + R + L = 102
The average age of Amisha, Aaradhana, and Alka is 102 / 3 = 34 years.
The average age of Aditi and Aashirya is half of 34, which is 17 years.
Sum of ages of Aditi and Aashirya = 17 × 2 = 34 years.
Total age of all five individuals = 102 + 34 = 136 years.
Average age of all five individuals = 136 / 5 = 27.2 years.
31Quantitative Aptitude
The sum invested in Scheme B is thrice the sum invested in Scheme A. The investment in Scheme A is made for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest and in Scheme B for 2 years at 13% p.a. simple interest. The total interest earned from both the schemes is Rs.1320. How much amount was invested in A?
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Answer: (B) 1200
Explanation
Simple Interest SI = (P × R × T) / 100.
Let the principal invested in Scheme A be P. Then the principal in Scheme B is 3P.
Interest from Scheme A = (P × 8 × 4) / 100 = 32P / 100
Interest from Scheme B = (3P × 13 × 2) / 100 = 78P / 100
A starts a business, after 4 months B also join him with Rs.16000 and after 6 months of B's joining C also join them with Rs.26000. If A gets approx. Rs 3600 out of total annual profit of Rs.8100. then find the approximate value of initial investment of A.
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Answer: (B) Rs.12000
Explanation
Ratio of profit share = Investment × Time
Time periods for each partner out of 12 months:
A invested for 12 months.
B invested for 12 − 4 = 8 months.
C invested for 12 − (4 + 6) = 2 months.
Given A's profit is Rs. 3600 out of Rs. 8100:
12x / (12x + 180000) = 3600 / 8100 = 4 / 9
x / (x + 15000) = 4 / 9
9x = 4x + 60000
5x = 60000
x = 12000
33Quantitative Aptitude
A and B working alone can do a work in 40 days and 30 days respectively. They started the work together but B left after sometime and A finished remaining work in 5 days. Find after how many days from start B left the work?
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Answer: (A) 15 days
Explanation
Let the total work be the LCM of 40 and 30, which is 120 units.
Efficiency of A = 120 / 40 = 3 units/day
Efficiency of B = 120 / 30 = 4 units/day
Combined efficiency of A and B = 3 + 4 = 7 units/day
Work done by A alone in the last 5 days = 5 × 3 = 15 units.
Work completed by A and B working together = 120 - 15 = 105 units.
Number of days A and B worked together = 105 / 7 = 15 days.
Therefore, B left the work 15 days after the start.
34Quantitative Aptitude
Mukesh spends 20% of his monthly income on household expenditure. Out of the remaining 25% he spends on children's education, 15% on transport, 15% on medicine and 10% on entertainment. He is left with Rs. 9800 after incurring all these expenditures. What is his monthly income?
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Answer: (D) 35000
Explanation
Let the monthly income be x.
After spending 20% on household expenditure, the remaining income is:
100% - 20% = 80% of x
The total percentage spent out of the remaining income on education, transport, medicine, and entertainment is:
25% + 15% + 15% + 10% = 65%
The leftover percentage of the remaining income is:
100% - 65% = 35%
Thus, the final savings equal:
35% of 80% of x = 9800
(0.35 × 0.80) × x = 9800
0.28x = 9800
x = 9800 / 0.28 = 35000
35Quantitative Aptitude
Study the passage given below and answer the following questions.
Students applied for three posts in the IBPS examination - Probationary officer, specialist officer and clerk. Male students applied for clerk are 3 times the male students applied for P.O. and male students applied for S.O. are 120 more than male student applied for P.O. Ratio of male to female students applied for P.O. is 2: 3 and female students applied for S.O. and clerk are same. Male applied for P.O. are 25% less than female applied for clerk. Total number of students applied for the examination is 1220.
Find the total students applied for the post of Clerk.
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Answer: (A) 520
Explanation
Let the number of male applicants for P.O. be x.
From the given conditions:
Male applicants for Clerk = 3x
Male applicants for S.O. = x + 120
Female applicants for P.O. = (3/2)x
Female applicants for Clerk = x / (1 - 0.25) = (4/3)x
Female applicants for S.O. = Female applicants for Clerk = (4/3)x
Total applicants = Total males + Total females
Total males = x + (x + 120) + 3x = 5x + 120
Total females = (3/2)x + (4/3)x + (4/3)x = (25/6)x
5x + 120 + (25/6)x = 1220
(55/6)x = 1100
x = 120
Total applicants for Clerk = Male Clerk + Female Clerk
Total Clerk applicants = 3x + (4/3)x = (13/3)x = (13/3) × 120 = 520
36Quantitative Aptitude
Study the passage given below and answer the following questions.
Students applied for three posts in the IBPS examination - Probationary officer, specialist officer and clerk. Male students applied for clerk are 3 times the male students applied for P.O. and male students applied for S.O. are 120 more than male student applied for P.O. Ratio of male to female students applied for P.O. is 2: 3 and female students applied for S.O. and clerk are same. Male applied for P.O. are 25% less than female applied for clerk. Total number of students applied for the examination is 1220.
Find the ratio of total male students to total female students applied in the examination.
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Answer: (C) 36: 25
Explanation
Let the number of male students applied for P.O. be x.
From the given conditions:
Male students for Clerk = 3x
Male students for S.O. = x + 120
Total male students = x + (x + 120) + 3x = 5x + 120
Female students for P.O. = (3/2)x
Female students for Clerk = x / (1 − 0.25) = (4/3)x
Female students for S.O. = (4/3)x
Total female students = (3/2)x + (4/3)x + (4/3)x = (25/6)x
Total students = Total males + Total females
5x + 120 + (25/6)x = 1220
(55/6)x = 1100
x = 120
Substituting x = 120:
Total male students = 5(120) + 120 = 720
Total female students = (25/6) × 120 = 500
Ratio of total male to total female students = 720 : 500 = 36 : 25
37Quantitative Aptitude
Study the passage given below and answer the following questions.
Students applied for three posts in the IBPS examination - Probationary officer, specialist officer and clerk. Male students applied for clerk are 3 times the male students applied for P.O. and male students applied for S.O. are 120 more than male student applied for P.O. Ratio of male to female students applied for P.O. is 2: 3 and female students applied for S.O. and clerk are same. Male applied for P.O. are 25% less than female applied for clerk. Total number of students applied for the examination is 1220.
Total students applied for P.O. are what percent more or less than total students applied for S.O.
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Answer: (B) 25%
Explanation
Let male applicants for P.O. be x.
Male Clerk = 3x
Male S.O. = x + 120
Female P.O. = (3/2)x = 1.5x
Female Clerk = Female S.O. = x / 0.75 = (4/3)x
Sum of all applicants across the three posts:
Total = [x + 1.5x] + [(x + 120) + (4/3)x] + [3x + (4/3)x] = 1220
(55/6)x + 120 = 1220
(55/6)x = 1100
x = 120
Total P.O. applicants = 2.5x = 2.5 × 120 = 300
Total S.O. applicants = x + 120 + (4/3)x = (7/3)(120) + 120 = 280 + 120 = 400
Percentage less than S.O. = [(400 - 300) / 400] × 100 = (100 / 400) × 100 = 25%
38Quantitative Aptitude
Study the passage given below and answer the following questions.
Students applied for three posts in the IBPS examination - Probationary officer, specialist officer and clerk. Male students applied for clerk are 3 times the male students applied for P.O. and male students applied for S.O. are 120 more than male student applied for P.O. Ratio of male to female students applied for P.O. is 2: 3 and female students applied for S.O. and clerk are same. Male applied for P.O. are 25% less than female applied for clerk. Total number of students applied for the examination is 1220.
Male students applied for P.O. and clerk together are what percent of female students applied for clerk and S.O. together.
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Answer: (D) 150%
Explanation
Let the number of male applicants for PO be 6x.
Male applicants for clerk = 3 × 6x = 18x
Male applicants for SO = 6x + 120
Female applicants for PO = (3/2) × 6x = 9x
Female applicants for clerk = (4/3) × 6x = 8x
Female applicants for SO = 8x
Male students applied for PO and clerk together = 6x + 18x = 24x = 24 × 20 = 480
Female students applied for clerk and SO together = 8x + 8x = 16x = 16 × 20 = 320
Required percentage = (480 / 320) × 100% = 150%
39Quantitative Aptitude
Study the passage given below and answer the following questions.
Students applied for three posts in the IBPS examination - Probationary officer, specialist officer and clerk. Male students applied for clerk are 3 times the male students applied for P.O. and male students applied for S.O. are 120 more than male student applied for P.O. Ratio of male to female students applied for P.O. is 2: 3 and female students applied for S.O. and clerk are same. Male applied for P.O. are 25% less than female applied for clerk. Total number of students applied for the examination is 1220.
Female students applied for P.O and S.O. together are how much more or less than male students applied for same posts.
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Answer: (D) 50 / 9%
Explanation
Let the number of male applicants for PO be 6x.
Male applicants for Clerk = 3 × 6x = 18x
Male applicants for SO = 6x + 120
Female applicants for PO = (3/2) × 6x = 9x
Female applicants for Clerk = 6x / (1 - 0.25) = 8x
Female applicants for SO = 8x
In the passage given below, there are blanks, each preceded by a word underlined. Every blank has four alternative words given in options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given word suits the blank, mark 'no correction/change required' as the answer.
Nowadays, globalization's opponents seem increasingly to be drowning out its defenders. If they get their way, the post- World War II international order - which aimed, often successfully, to advance peace and prosperity through exchange and connection could well <u>resemble</u> (1). Can globalization be saved?
At first glance, the outlook appears grim. Every aspect of globalization - free trade, free movement of capital, and international migration - is under attack. Leading the charge are couty (2) forces - from populist political parties to separatist groups to terrorist organizations - whose actions tend to focus more on what they oppose than on what they support.
In Russia and Asia, anti- Western groups are at the forefront of the campaign against globalization. In Europe, populist parties have tended to emphasize their aversion to European integration, with those on the right often also condemning (3) i immigration, while the left denounces rising economic inequality. In Latin America, the enemy seems to be foreign abetment (4) o f any kind. In Africa, tribal separatists oppose anyone standing in the way of independence. And in the Middle East, the Islamic State (ISIS) virulently rejects modernity - and targets societies that embrace it. Despite their differences, these groups have one thing in common: a deep hostility toward international structures and interconnectedness (though, of course, a murderous group like ISIS is in a different category from, say, European populists). They do not care that the international order they want to tear down enabled the rapid post- 1945 economic growth that liberated billions of developing- country citizens from poverty. All they see are massive, unbending organisation (5) and intolerable inequalities in wealth and income, and they blame globalization.
Choose the correct answer from the given options.
Which word best suits blank (1) in the passage?
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Answer: (A) collapse
Explanation
The passage describes how opponents of globalization are challenging the existing international system. The conditional clause indicates a destructive outcome if these opponents succeed in dismantling international structures, requiring a verb that denotes breakdown or ruin. The term collapse fits both grammatically after the modal auxiliary verb phrase could well and contextually with the subsequent question asking whether globalization can be saved.
41English Language
In the passage given below, there are blanks, each preceded by a word underlined. Every blank has four alternative words given in options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given word suits the blank, mark 'no correction/change required' as the answer.
Nowadays, globalization's opponents seem increasingly to be drowning out its defenders. If they get their way, the post- World War II international order - which aimed, often successfully, to advance peace and prosperity through exchange and connection could well <u>resemble</u> (1). Can globalization be saved?
At first glance, the outlook appears grim. Every aspect of globalization - free trade, free movement of capital, and international migration - is under attack. Leading the charge are couty (2) forces - from populist political parties to separatist groups to terrorist organizations - whose actions tend to focus more on what they oppose than on what they support.
In Russia and Asia, anti- Western groups are at the forefront of the campaign against globalization. In Europe, populist parties have tended to emphasize their aversion to European integration, with those on the right often also condemning (3) i immigration, while the left denounces rising economic inequality. In Latin America, the enemy seems to be foreign abetment (4) o f any kind. In Africa, tribal separatists oppose anyone standing in the way of independence. And in the Middle East, the Islamic State (ISIS) virulently rejects modernity - and targets societies that embrace it. Despite their differences, these groups have one thing in common: a deep hostility toward international structures and interconnectedness (though, of course, a murderous group like ISIS is in a different category from, say, European populists). They do not care that the international order they want to tear down enabled the rapid post- 1945 economic growth that liberated billions of developing- country citizens from poverty. All they see are massive, unbending organisation (5) and intolerable inequalities in wealth and income, and they blame globalization.
Choose the correct option from the given words.
Which word best suits blank (2) in the passage?
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Answer: (A) antagonistic
Explanation
The passage describes various groups attacking globalization and displaying deep hostility toward international interconnectedness. The adjective antagonistic denotes showing or feeling active opposition and hostility, which perfectly describes the nature of these populist, separatist, and militant entities working against global integration.
42English Language
In the passage given below, there are blanks, each preceded by a word underlined. Every blank has four alternative words given in options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given word suits the blank, mark 'no correction/change required' as the answer.
Nowadays, globalization's opponents seem increasingly to be drowning out its defenders. If they get their way, the post- World War II international order - which aimed, often successfully, to advance peace and prosperity through exchange and connection could well <u>resemble</u> (1). Can globalization be saved?
At first glance, the outlook appears grim. Every aspect of globalization - free trade, free movement of capital, and international migration - is under attack. Leading the charge are couty (2) forces - from populist political parties to separatist groups to terrorist organizations - whose actions tend to focus more on what they oppose than on what they support.
In Russia and Asia, anti- Western groups are at the forefront of the campaign against globalization. In Europe, populist parties have tended to emphasize their aversion to European integration, with those on the right often also condemning (3) i immigration, while the left denounces rising economic inequality. In Latin America, the enemy seems to be foreign abetment (4) o f any kind. In Africa, tribal separatists oppose anyone standing in the way of independence. And in the Middle East, the Islamic State (ISIS) virulently rejects modernity - and targets societies that embrace it. Despite their differences, these groups have one thing in common: a deep hostility toward international structures and interconnectedness (though, of course, a murderous group like ISIS is in a different category from, say, European populists). They do not care that the international order they want to tear down enabled the rapid post- 1945 economic growth that liberated billions of developing- country citizens from poverty. All they see are massive, unbending organisation (5) and intolerable inequalities in wealth and income, and they blame globalization.
Choose the correct word from the given options.
Which word best suits blank (3) in the passage?
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Answer: (E) No change required
Explanation
The context describes anti-globalization forces and their grievances, specifically noting that right-wing populist groups strongly oppose or express severe disapproval of immigration, paired parallelly with the political left that denounces rising economic inequality. The word condemning correctly means expressing complete disapproval or censure, which fits both the tone and the grammatical structure of the sentence.
43English Language
In the passage given below, there are blanks, each preceded by a word underlined. Every blank has four alternative words given in options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given word suits the blank, mark 'no correction/change required' as the answer.
Nowadays, globalization's opponents seem increasingly to be drowning out its defenders. If they get their way, the post- World War II international order - which aimed, often successfully, to advance peace and prosperity through exchange and connection could well <u>resemble</u> (1). Can globalization be saved?
At first glance, the outlook appears grim. Every aspect of globalization - free trade, free movement of capital, and international migration - is under attack. Leading the charge are couty (2) forces - from populist political parties to separatist groups to terrorist organizations - whose actions tend to focus more on what they oppose than on what they support.
In Russia and Asia, anti- Western groups are at the forefront of the campaign against globalization. In Europe, populist parties have tended to emphasize their aversion to European integration, with those on the right often also condemning (3) i immigration, while the left denounces rising economic inequality. In Latin America, the enemy seems to be foreign abetment (4) o f any kind. In Africa, tribal separatists oppose anyone standing in the way of independence. And in the Middle East, the Islamic State (ISIS) virulently rejects modernity - and targets societies that embrace it. Despite their differences, these groups have one thing in common: a deep hostility toward international structures and interconnectedness (though, of course, a murderous group like ISIS is in a different category from, say, European populists). They do not care that the international order they want to tear down enabled the rapid post- 1945 economic growth that liberated billions of developing- country citizens from poverty. All they see are massive, unbending organisation (5) and intolerable inequalities in wealth and income, and they blame globalization.
Choose the correct word from the given options.
Which word best suits blank (4) in the passage?
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Answer: (B) interference
Explanation
In political and economic contexts, foreign interference refers to unwanted involvement or meddling by external powers in a country's domestic affairs. In the given sentence discussing regional opposition to globalization, foreign interference accurately captures the nature of external political and economic intrusion opposed by local movements.
44English Language
In the passage given below, there are blanks, each preceded by a word underlined. Every blank has four alternative words given in options (A), (B), (C) and (D). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given word suits the blank, mark 'no correction/change required' as the answer.
Nowadays, globalization's opponents seem increasingly to be drowning out its defenders. If they get their way, the post- World War II international order - which aimed, often successfully, to advance peace and prosperity through exchange and connection could well <u>resemble</u> (1). Can globalization be saved?
At first glance, the outlook appears grim. Every aspect of globalization - free trade, free movement of capital, and international migration - is under attack. Leading the charge are couty (2) forces - from populist political parties to separatist groups to terrorist organizations - whose actions tend to focus more on what they oppose than on what they support.
In Russia and Asia, anti- Western groups are at the forefront of the campaign against globalization. In Europe, populist parties have tended to emphasize their aversion to European integration, with those on the right often also condemning (3) i immigration, while the left denounces rising economic inequality. In Latin America, the enemy seems to be foreign abetment (4) o f any kind. In Africa, tribal separatists oppose anyone standing in the way of independence. And in the Middle East, the Islamic State (ISIS) virulently rejects modernity - and targets societies that embrace it. Despite their differences, these groups have one thing in common: a deep hostility toward international structures and interconnectedness (though, of course, a murderous group like ISIS is in a different category from, say, European populists). They do not care that the international order they want to tear down enabled the rapid post- 1945 economic growth that liberated billions of developing- country citizens from poverty. All they see are massive, unbending organisation (5) and intolerable inequalities in wealth and income, and they blame globalization.
Choose the correct response from the given words.
Which word best suits blank (5) in the passage?
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Answer: (D) institutions
Explanation
In the given sentence, the context describes global structures viewed with hostility by opponents of globalization. The parallel noun phrase intolerable inequalities is in the plural, requiring a corresponding plural noun modified by massive, unbending. The term institutions accurately denotes established international governing bodies and regulatory systems, making it the appropriate contextual and grammatical replacement.
45English Language
In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your answer.
| I | II |
|---|---|
| A) The aim appears to be to capture a vote bank without pondering over | D) of providing shelter to the minorities in India's neighbourhood on at least two counts. |
| B) The Bill falls short of the government's own laudable claims and objectives | E) of esoteric beliefs which augur doom for the science. |
| C) Our leaders and some academicians seemed obsessed with our glorious past | F) the after-effects on other Indian citizens. |
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Answer: (E) B-D and A-F
Explanation
Part A connects with F because the phrasal verb pondering over correctly takes the noun phrase the after-effects on other Indian citizens as its direct prepositional object. Part B connects with D because objectives is properly complemented by the prepositional modifier of providing shelter to the minorities in India's neighbourhood on at least two counts, forming logically and syntactically complete sentences.
46English Language
In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your answer.
| I | II |
|---|---|
| A) The preposterous claims such as some of those made in the Science Congress are disheartening | D) which delineate the image of sane voices being outshouted and flourishing of divisive politics. |
| B) People from a Hindu background have not only faced denial of rights and violence | E) howbeit, congress party seems to launch a few new potential candidates for the coming elections. |
| C) Equality before the law, economic justice and secularism are being whittled down one by one | F) but also generations of hatred between the two communities are well known. |
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Answer: (C) C-D
Explanation
Part C discusses the systematic erosion of foundational values such as equality before the law, economic justice, and secularism. Part D provides the relative clause modifying this ongoing erosion, describing how it reflects sane voices being suppressed and divisive politics taking hold. Combining C and D creates a coherent and grammatically sound sentence. The other combinations fail either due to lack of contextual coherence, such as conflating the Science Congress with a political party, or due to faulty correlative conjunction structures.
47English Language
In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your answer.
| I | II |
|---|---|
| A) A man died shortly after he was arrested | D) prompting an urgent investigation into the incident. |
| B) If there is a single word that describes what Christmas is all about | E) distinguish the sounds that are only 10 millionths of a second apart. |
| C) The inner ear is so sensitive that it can detect | F) it is a Hebrew word, "Emmanuel" founded in the gospel of Matthew. |
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Answer: (B) A-D and B-F
Explanation
Part A connects logically and grammatically with D to form a complete sentence with a participial clause of result: "A man died shortly after he was arrested prompting an urgent investigation into the incident."
Part B combines with F through a conditional construction ("If there is... it is...") to convey a meaningful statement about the word associated with Christmas: "If there is a single word that describes what Christmas is all about it is a Hebrew word, 'Emmanuel' founded in the gospel of Matthew."
48English Language
In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the correct option as your answer.
| I | II |
|---|---|
| A) The current President of the United states | D) To play for a long time. |
| B) The amount of time it takes to go to the store | E) Is very outspoken and unapologetic. |
| C) Most players don't remain fit | F) For the stars in the universe. |
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Answer: (C) A-E and C-D
Explanation
Phrase A connects with phrase E to form a complete and coherent predicate: "The current President of the United states is very outspoken and unapologetic." Phrase C connects with the infinitive complement in phrase D: "Most players don't remain fit to play for a long time." Both pairings follow standard subject-verb agreement and semantic cohesion.
49English Language
In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consists of first half of each sentence and Column II (D, E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the correct option as your answer.
| I | II |
|---|---|
| A) He was one of the best players in the world | D) The cat came running and tripped over it. |
| B) Bugatti created one of the | E) But his excellence seems to have deserted him recently. |
| C) The pencil was lying on the floor when | F) Very well done for that matter. |
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Answer: (C) A-E and C-D
Explanation
Part A connects logically with Part E to form a contrasting idea about a player's past brilliance versus their recent loss of form. Part C connects with Part D using the conjunction when to describe the cat tripping over the pencil lying on the floor. Part B cannot be meaningfully completed by any segment in the second column.
50English Language
Given below are six statements A,B,C,D,E and F,which when arranged in the correct order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. The sentence marked D is fixed and would fit in the fourth position. Rearrange the other statements in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions that follow.
A)While an inquiry is being conducted, it is suspected that the deaths may have occurred due to infighting and disease according to reports.
B) If we don't check our misuse of natural resources more and more such appalling news will keep surfacing from time to time.
C) Earlier this week, Gujarat's treasured wildlife reserve suffered a shocking jolt in the form of mass lion deaths.
D) While some have presumably died in infights, others, including three lion cubs, are suspected to have contracted a fatal illness.
E) Infighting in the wild mostly occurs when natural resources are scarce and animals encroach upon each other's territory for basic necessities.
F) 11 lion carcasses were reportedly found in the East division of Gir forest and the deaths have presumably taken place within 10 days as stated by east Gir's Deputy Conservator of Forest, P Purushothama.
Which of the following will be the first statement after rearrangement?
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Answer: (C) C
Explanation
Statement C serves as the introductory sentence by establishing the primary topic of the paragraph: the sudden mass lion deaths in Gujarat's wildlife sanctuary. Statement F immediately follows to provide specific details regarding the discovery of 11 carcasses in Gir forest, followed by statement A mentioning the official inquiry and suspected causes. Statement D elaborates on the dual causes of infighting and disease, statement E explains why infighting occurs due to resource scarcity, and statement B concludes the paragraph with a broader warning about environmental conservation.
51English Language
Given below are six statements A,B,C,D,E and F,which when arranged in the correct order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. The sentence marked D is fixed and would fit in the fourth position. Rearrange the other statements in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions that follow.
A)While an inquiry is being conducted, it is suspected that the deaths may have occurred due to infighting and disease according to reports.
B) If we don't check our misuse of natural resources more and more such appalling news will keep surfacing from time to time.
C) Earlier this week, Gujarat's treasured wildlife reserve suffered a shocking jolt in the form of mass lion deaths.
D) While some have presumably died in infights, others, including three lion cubs, are suspected to have contracted a fatal illness.
E) Infighting in the wild mostly occurs when natural resources are scarce and animals encroach upon each other's territory for basic necessities.
F) 11 lion carcasses were reportedly found in the East division of Gir forest and the deaths have presumably taken place within 10 days as stated by east Gir's Deputy Conservator of Forest, P Purushothama.
Which of the following will be the second statement after rearrangement?
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Answer: (E) F
Explanation
The paragraph begins with the introductory statement introducing the shocking event of mass lion deaths in Gujarat's wildlife reserve. This is logically followed by the specific details regarding the discovery of 11 lion carcasses in the East division of Gir forest within a span of 10 days. The sequence then proceeds with the general mention of an ongoing inquiry into infighting and disease, followed by the fixed fourth sentence giving specific breakdowns of the deaths, then explaining why infighting occurs due to resource scarcity, and concluding with a warning about checking resource misuse. The correct complete sequence is C-F-A-D-E-B, placing F in the second position.
52English Language
Given below are six statements A,B,C,D,E and F,which when arranged in the correct order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. The sentence marked D is fixed and would fit in the fourth position. Rearrange the other statements in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions that follow.
A)While an inquiry is being conducted, it is suspected that the deaths may have occurred due to infighting and disease according to reports.
B) If we don't check our misuse of natural resources more and more such appalling news will keep surfacing from time to time.
C) Earlier this week, Gujarat's treasured wildlife reserve suffered a shocking jolt in the form of mass lion deaths.
D) While some have presumably died in infights, others, including three lion cubs, are suspected to have contracted a fatal illness.
E) Infighting in the wild mostly occurs when natural resources are scarce and animals encroach upon each other's territory for basic necessities.
F) 11 lion carcasses were reportedly found in the East division of Gir forest and the deaths have presumably taken place within 10 days as stated by east Gir's Deputy Conservator of Forest, P Purushothama.
Which of the following will be the third statement after rearrangement?
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Answer: (A) A
Explanation
The coherent paragraph begins with statement C introducing the broad event of mass lion deaths in Gujarat's wildlife reserve. Statement F follows logically by detailing the exact discovery of 11 lion carcasses in Gir forest. Statement A comes next as the third sentence, introducing the preliminary inquiry and general suspected causes (infighting and disease), which seamlessly connects to the fixed fourth statement D that provides specific details on these causes. Statement E then elaborates on why infighting occurs due to resource scarcity, and statement B concludes the paragraph with a cautionary warning about preserving natural resources. The overall sequence is C-F-A-D-E-B.
53English Language
Given below are six statements A,B,C,D,E and F,which when arranged in the correct order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. The sentence marked D is fixed and would fit in the fourth position. Rearrange the other statements in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions that follow.
A)While an inquiry is being conducted, it is suspected that the deaths may have occurred due to infighting and disease according to reports.
B) If we don't check our misuse of natural resources more and more such appalling news will keep surfacing from time to time.
C) Earlier this week, Gujarat's treasured wildlife reserve suffered a shocking jolt in the form of mass lion deaths.
D) While some have presumably died in infights, others, including three lion cubs, are suspected to have contracted a fatal illness.
E) Infighting in the wild mostly occurs when natural resources are scarce and animals encroach upon each other's territory for basic necessities.
F) 11 lion carcasses were reportedly found in the East division of Gir forest and the deaths have presumably taken place within 10 days as stated by east Gir's Deputy Conservator of Forest, P Purushothama.
Which of the following will be the fifth statement after rearrangement?
● Correct
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Answer: (D) E
Explanation
The coherent sequence of the passage is C-F-A-D-E-B. Statement C introduces the event of mass lion deaths in Gujarat, followed by F, which provides the specific report of 11 carcasses found in Gir forest. Statement A mentions the inquiry and suspects infighting and disease, while statement D elaborates on these causes with details about cubs. Statement E then directly explains the ecological cause behind the infighting highlighted in D, making it the fifth statement before the concluding warning in B.
54English Language
Given below are six statements A,B,C,D,E and F,which when arranged in the correct order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. The sentence marked D is fixed and would fit in the fourth position. Rearrange the other statements in a proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions that follow.
A)While an inquiry is being conducted, it is suspected that the deaths may have occurred due to infighting and disease according to reports.
B) If we don't check our misuse of natural resources more and more such appalling news will keep surfacing from time to time.
C) Earlier this week, Gujarat's treasured wildlife reserve suffered a shocking jolt in the form of mass lion deaths.
D) While some have presumably died in infights, others, including three lion cubs, are suspected to have contracted a fatal illness.
E) Infighting in the wild mostly occurs when natural resources are scarce and animals encroach upon each other's territory for basic necessities.
F) 11 lion carcasses were reportedly found in the East division of Gir forest and the deaths have presumably taken place within 10 days as stated by east Gir's Deputy Conservator of Forest, P Purushothama.
Which of the following will be the last statement after rearrangement?
● Correct
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Answer: (B) B
Explanation
The paragraph begins with sentence C introducing the mass lion deaths in Gujarat's wildlife reserve. Sentence F follows with specific details of the incident, reporting the discovery of 11 carcasses. Sentence A introduces the initial findings regarding infighting and disease, leading into the fixed fourth sentence D, which elaborates on those causes. Sentence E explains why infighting occurs due to scarce natural resources. Finally, sentence B concludes the paragraph logically by warning about the consequences of failing to check the misuse of natural resources. Thus, sentence B occupies the sixth and final position.
55English Language
In the given question, five words are underlined and are marked A,B,C,D and E. The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect and need to be exchanged with another highlighted word to make the sentence correct. Find the pair of word(s) that need to be exchanged.
<u>More</u> (A) than a decade ago, Indic <u>fonts</u> (B) were primarily being <u>designed</u> (C) by <u>software</u> (D) developers who <u>sold</u> (E) them as supporting products.
● Correct
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Answer: (E) No exchange required
Explanation
The phrase "More than a decade ago" establishes a standard time frame, "Indic fonts" serves as the appropriate plural subject, "being designed" correctly forms the passive continuous verb construction, "software developers" functions as the logical agent performing the action, and "sold" provides the correct past-tense predicate for the relative clause. Each word is grammatically and contextually in its correct position.
56English Language
In the given question, five words are underlined and are marked A,B,C,D and E. The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect and need to be exchanged with another highlighted word to make the sentence correct. Find the pair of word(s) that need to be exchanged.
The <u>migrations</u> (A) of the Partition of India led to the tragic <u>death</u> (B) and displacement of millions of people in what was to <u>become</u> (C) one of the greatest <u>event</u> (D) in <u>history</u> (E).
● Correct
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Answer: (A) A-D
Explanation
The phrase one of the requires a plural noun, making migrations grammatically appropriate at position D instead of the singular noun event. In turn, referring to the Partition of India as an event at position A provides the correct context, yielding the coherent sentence: The event of the Partition of India led to the tragic death and displacement of millions of people in what was to become one of the greatest migrations in history.
57English Language
In the given question, five words are underlined and are numbered A,B,C,D and E. The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect and need to be interchanged with another highlighted to make the sentence correct. Find the word(s) that need to be exchanged.
India has to <u>prepare</u> (A)/ for the <u>consequences</u> (B)/ of climate change, with <u>risk</u> (C)/ early warning systems, <u>engineering</u> (D)/ to cope with the fallout and <u>better</u> (E)/ transfer mechanism.
● Correct
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Answer: (A) C-E
Explanation
The sentence requires the adjective better to modify early warning systems, and the noun risk to form the standard financial and disaster-management term risk transfer mechanism. Swapping the positions of C and E yields a grammatically and contextually correct sentence: India has to prepare for the consequences of climate change, with better early warning systems, engineering to cope with the fallout and risk transfer mechanism.
58English Language
In the given question, five words are underlined and are numbered A,B,C,D and E. The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect and need to be interchanged with another highlighted to make the sentence correct. Find the word(s) that need to be exchanged.
<u>Companies</u> (A)/ with high market <u>share</u> (B)/ often receive better prices from <u>suppliers</u> (C), as their <u>large</u> (D)/ order volumes increase their <u>purchasing</u> (E)/ power.
● Correct
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Answer: (D) No exchange required
Explanation
The sentence is grammatically correct and contextually coherent in its original form. Companies possessing a high market share command significant leverage over suppliers because their large order volumes grant them substantial purchasing power, resulting in better pricing. Each highlighted term is already placed in its appropriate syntactic and semantic position.
59English Language
In the given question, five words are underlined and are numbered A,B,C,D and E. The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect and need to be interchanged with another highlighted to make the sentence correct. Find the word(s) that need to be exchanged.
If the world <u>factoring</u> (A) to pursue the current <u>model</u> (B) of economic growth without <u>continues</u> (C) in environmental costs, one million species could go <u>decades</u> (D) in a matter of <u>extinct</u> (E).
● Correct
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Answer: (E) A-C and D-E
Explanation
The verb continues correctly follows the singular subject the world and fits the infinitive to pursue, while the phrasal verb factoring in is required after the preposition without. Additionally, the phrase go extinct forms the standard collocation denoting species eradication, and in a matter of decades correctly expresses the timeframe. Interchanging A with C and D with E produces the meaningful sentence: If the world continues to pursue the current model of economic growth without factoring in environmental costs, one million species could go extinct in a matter of decades.
60English Language
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are underlined to help you locate them while answering some of these.
The Financial Times with a survey concluded that millennials are prioritizing short- term spending over long- term saving. According to one calculation, the average 25- year- old should be saving £800 (or about 1,146 ) a month over the next 40 years, in order to retire at 65 with an annual income of £30,000. That piece went viral. For all the wrong reasons. As millennials who responded angrily to the article noted, they're too busy buying groceries or paying rent to even think about being able to have that much money to allocate to a savings account. But ignoring the tone deafness, there is a real problem here.
T Rowe Price recommends that millennials should save about 15% of their incomes for retirement. However, a recent survey found that on average, while they are doing a good job of budgeting and say they have increased their savings in the past 12 months, their actual savings rate is about 8% . Financial planners can puff and huff about results like that. They can argue that millennials don't realize how much they need to save; that they are succumbing to one of those behavioural finance phenomena by failing to appreciate that yes, one day they, too, will be 65 and need a retirement nest egg. For their part, the millennials might well argue that the rest of us simply don't understand their new normal.
It has always been true, and remains true today, that a dollar someone puts aside in a tax- sheltered retirement account when he is 25 years old will be worth much, much more then that same dollar would be if he had set it aside at the age of 50, thanks to the fact that it is sitting there are being reinvested, year after year, tax- free. What someone in their 20s loses in absolute wealth, they earn in terms of time. The problem is that there are too many other factors stopping millennials from making that decision to save.
<u>They have got the millennial paradox to contend with</u>. In 2014, the average college student graduated with 33,000 of student debt, according to one calculation. Do you want to be one of those students who defaults on her student debt, just in order to have a few extra bucks to put into her retirement account? Really, not a viable solution; those payments have to be kept up, even if it means there's no money for a retirement account. The cost of living is climbing, too, led by rental costs, which hit records in many cities last year. On average, millennials who rent nationwide would have had to spend 30% of their monthly income to their landlords. Health insurance? If your company offers it, odds are it's a benefit that requires you to shoulder a greater portion of the costs of these days. And if you're older than 26, and paying for your own healthcare, you've already discovered that both premiums and deductibles are rising for most policies. Then, there are other expenses like wedding gifts, birthday gifts, parties, clothes, accessories, food, bills, transportation, travel or vacations.
Eventually, some of those pressures will <u>abate</u> - the student debt will be paid down - and millennials will be earning more. But they will be older, and the value of each dollar they save by that stage will be less. In any event, new financial pressures will arrive on the scene, in the form of children, the need to save for a house, to help out ageing parents. Perhaps there is some creative way to tackle this. To the extent that the cost of obtaining an education means that millennials can't start saving for retirement when it's most advantageous for all of society that they should, maybe there's a way to restructure or postpone debt payments until later in life as long as graduates begin contributing to their retirement accounts.
Source:
https://www.theguardian.com
What does the author mean by "...They have got the millennial paradox to contend with"?
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Answer: (C) Millennials are struggling with all the competing demands on their dollars, just when they know that if they put them to work in their retirement account, they'd do them the most good.
Explanation
The author introduces the concept of the millennial paradox immediately after explaining that saving early offers the greatest financial advantage due to compound growth over time. However, young adults face competing immediate financial obligations, including student debt, high living expenses, rent, and healthcare costs, which prevent them from investing their money into retirement accounts when it would generate the highest compounding benefit.
61English Language
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are underlined to help you locate them while answering some of these.
The Financial Times with a survey concluded that millennials are prioritizing short- term spending over long- term saving. According to one calculation, the average 25- year- old should be saving £800 (or about 1,146 ) a month over the next 40 years, in order to retire at 65 with an annual income of £30,000. That piece went viral. For all the wrong reasons. As millennials who responded angrily to the article noted, they're too busy buying groceries or paying rent to even think about being able to have that much money to allocate to a savings account. But ignoring the tone deafness, there is a real problem here.
T Rowe Price recommends that millennials should save about 15% of their incomes for retirement. However, a recent survey found that on average, while they are doing a good job of budgeting and say they have increased their savings in the past 12 months, their actual savings rate is about 8% . Financial planners can puff and huff about results like that. They can argue that millennials don't realize how much they need to save; that they are succumbing to one of those behavioural finance phenomena by failing to appreciate that yes, one day they, too, will be 65 and need a retirement nest egg. For their part, the millennials might well argue that the rest of us simply don't understand their new normal.
It has always been true, and remains true today, that a dollar someone puts aside in a tax- sheltered retirement account when he is 25 years old will be worth much, much more then that same dollar would be if he had set it aside at the age of 50, thanks to the fact that it is sitting there are being reinvested, year after year, tax- free. What someone in their 20s loses in absolute wealth, they earn in terms of time. The problem is that there are too many other factors stopping millennials from making that decision to save.
<u>They have got the millennial paradox to contend with</u>. In 2014, the average college student graduated with 33,000 of student debt, according to one calculation. Do you want to be one of those students who defaults on her student debt, just in order to have a few extra bucks to put into her retirement account? Really, not a viable solution; those payments have to be kept up, even if it means there's no money for a retirement account. The cost of living is climbing, too, led by rental costs, which hit records in many cities last year. On average, millennials who rent nationwide would have had to spend 30% of their monthly income to their landlords. Health insurance? If your company offers it, odds are it's a benefit that requires you to shoulder a greater portion of the costs of these days. And if you're older than 26, and paying for your own healthcare, you've already discovered that both premiums and deductibles are rising for most policies. Then, there are other expenses like wedding gifts, birthday gifts, parties, clothes, accessories, food, bills, transportation, travel or vacations.
Eventually, some of those pressures will <u>abate</u> - the student debt will be paid down - and millennials will be earning more. But they will be older, and the value of each dollar they save by that stage will be less. In any event, new financial pressures will arrive on the scene, in the form of children, the need to save for a house, to help out ageing parents. Perhaps there is some creative way to tackle this. To the extent that the cost of obtaining an education means that millennials can't start saving for retirement when it's most advantageous for all of society that they should, maybe there's a way to restructure or postpone debt payments until later in life as long as graduates begin contributing to their retirement accounts.
Source:
https://www.theguardian.com
Which of the following is either a synonym or an antonym of the highlighted word used in the passage?
ABATE
I. Wane II. Recede
III. Prolong
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Answer: (E) All of these
Explanation
The word abate means to become less intense, decrease, or diminish. Wane and recede both signify a decline, gradual subsidence, or reduction in degree, making them direct synonyms of abate. Prolong means to extend the duration or lengthen something, making it an antonym of abate. Thus, all three words are either synonyms or antonyms of abate.
62English Language
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are underlined to help you locate them while answering some of these.
The Financial Times with a survey concluded that millennials are prioritizing short- term spending over long- term saving. According to one calculation, the average 25- year- old should be saving £800 (or about 1,146 ) a month over the next 40 years, in order to retire at 65 with an annual income of £30,000. That piece went viral. For all the wrong reasons. As millennials who responded angrily to the article noted, they're too busy buying groceries or paying rent to even think about being able to have that much money to allocate to a savings account. But ignoring the tone deafness, there is a real problem here.
T Rowe Price recommends that millennials should save about 15% of their incomes for retirement. However, a recent survey found that on average, while they are doing a good job of budgeting and say they have increased their savings in the past 12 months, their actual savings rate is about 8% . Financial planners can puff and huff about results like that. They can argue that millennials don't realize how much they need to save; that they are succumbing to one of those behavioural finance phenomena by failing to appreciate that yes, one day they, too, will be 65 and need a retirement nest egg. For their part, the millennials might well argue that the rest of us simply don't understand their new normal.
It has always been true, and remains true today, that a dollar someone puts aside in a tax- sheltered retirement account when he is 25 years old will be worth much, much more then that same dollar would be if he had set it aside at the age of 50, thanks to the fact that it is sitting there are being reinvested, year after year, tax- free. What someone in their 20s loses in absolute wealth, they earn in terms of time. The problem is that there are too many other factors stopping millennials from making that decision to save.
<u>They have got the millennial paradox to contend with</u>. In 2014, the average college student graduated with 33,000 of student debt, according to one calculation. Do you want to be one of those students who defaults on her student debt, just in order to have a few extra bucks to put into her retirement account? Really, not a viable solution; those payments have to be kept up, even if it means there's no money for a retirement account. The cost of living is climbing, too, led by rental costs, which hit records in many cities last year. On average, millennials who rent nationwide would have had to spend 30% of their monthly income to their landlords. Health insurance? If your company offers it, odds are it's a benefit that requires you to shoulder a greater portion of the costs of these days. And if you're older than 26, and paying for your own healthcare, you've already discovered that both premiums and deductibles are rising for most policies. Then, there are other expenses like wedding gifts, birthday gifts, parties, clothes, accessories, food, bills, transportation, travel or vacations.
Eventually, some of those pressures will <u>abate</u> - the student debt will be paid down - and millennials will be earning more. But they will be older, and the value of each dollar they save by that stage will be less. In any event, new financial pressures will arrive on the scene, in the form of children, the need to save for a house, to help out ageing parents. Perhaps there is some creative way to tackle this. To the extent that the cost of obtaining an education means that millennials can't start saving for retirement when it's most advantageous for all of society that they should, maybe there's a way to restructure or postpone debt payments until later in life as long as graduates begin contributing to their retirement accounts.
Source:
https://www.theguardian.com
Which of the following is not an assumption that supports the arguments presented in the third paragraph?
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Answer: (B) Investing a small amount early resulted in more retirement earnings than investing a much larger amount later.
Explanation
An assumption is an unstated belief the author takes for granted while building an argument. Statements A, C, D and E all restate ideas the passage takes for granted in urging early saving — that retirement is costly, that starting early is the easiest path because time compounds returns, that compound interest makes early contributions valuable, and that tax-sheltered accounts defer tax on returns. Statement B, however, makes a specific comparative claim about outcomes (that a small early investment yields more than a larger later one) that the passage does not assume in this form — it is not one of the author's underlying assumptions, so it is the correct choice.
63English Language
Given below is a possible inference that can be drawn from the facts stated in the fourth paragraph. You have to examine the inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. 'The lack of saving culture will impact on the consumption patterns for millennials.'
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Answer: (A) Definitely true
Explanation
The fourth paragraph describes the rising cost of living alongside a weak saving culture among millennials, meaning more of their income goes toward current spending rather than being set aside. This directly and necessarily leads to altered, consumption-heavy spending patterns, so the inference follows definitely from the paragraph.
64English Language
Given below is a possible inference that can be drawn from the facts stated in the fourth paragraph. You have to examine the inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. 'The financial struggles that millennials face are making them more financially savvy.'
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Probably true
Explanation
The fourth paragraph shows millennials responding to heavier financial burdens by refinancing loans, delaying big purchases, and taking up side hustles — behaviour that suggests more deliberate money management. This supports the idea that they are becoming more financially savvy, but the paragraph does not establish it with certainty, so the inference is only probably true rather than definitely true.
65English Language
Given below are five statements from the first and the second paragraph. Choose the statement which is grammatically or contextually incorrect.
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Financial planners can puff and huff about results like that.
Explanation
The correct irreversible binomial idiom is "huff and puff", which means to express disapproval, annoyance, or exertion noisily. Reversing the word order to "puff and huff" is an idiomatic error.
66English Language
Which of the following correctly describes the tone of the last paragraph?
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Answer: (A) Sanguine
Explanation
The final paragraph closes on a hopeful note, suggesting there may be a creative way to address the problem discussed. This forward-looking, optimistic note gives the paragraph a sanguine tone.
67English Language
Direction: The following question carries two statements with one blank each. Choose the word which would fit in both the blanks.
1) Their teacher was on leave, so they had a day's before their essays were due.
2) The organisation had no from the demands of the workers.
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Answer: (C) Respite
Explanation
The word respite functions as an uncountable noun meaning a short period of rest, relief, or postponement from something difficult, unpleasant, or demanding. In the first sentence, it denotes a temporary delay or reprieve granted before submitting the essays. In the second sentence, it correctly forms the standard collocation respite from, indicating continuous pressure or a lack of relief from the workers' demands.
68English Language
Direction: Two sentences with one blank in each, followed by five alternatives, are given. Choose that option as the answer which can fill both the blanks of both the sentences making it grammatically correct and meaningful.
A) It is only by observing people in situations that we come to know each other.
B) According to the Shinto doctrine, spirits of the dead can act upon the world.
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Answer: (D) Mundane
Explanation
The word mundane carries two primary meanings that fit both contexts. First, it refers to ordinary, routine, or everyday occurrences, making it appropriate for describing regular daily situations in which people reveal their true nature. Second, in philosophical and theological contexts, mundane describes the earthly, material world in contrast to the spiritual realm, perfectly fitting the concept of departed spirits interacting with the physical world.
69English Language
Direction: Two sentences with one blank in each, followed by five alternatives, are given. Choose that option as the answer which can fill both the blanks of both the sentences making it grammatically correct and meaningful.
A) Madhurima found in the childhood pictures of her little boy as she turned the pages of the album.
B) After her rough breakup, the soundlessness of nature impressed her and gave
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Answer: (A) Solace
Explanation
Solace functions as a noun meaning comfort or consolation in times of distress or sadness. In the first sentence, it correctly serves as the direct object of the verb found, describing the emotional comfort derived from looking at old photographs. In the second sentence, it fits as the object of the transitive verb gave, indicating that nature provided peace and consolation after a difficult breakup.
70English Language
Direction: Two sentences with one blank in each, followed by five alternatives, are given. Choose that option as the answer which can fill both the blanks of both the sentences.
1) At the time of the war, the spies would often exchange information during a in the church.
2) My mother-in-law and I will have a in order to plan my husband's surprise birthday party.
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Rendezvous
Explanation
A rendezvous is a noun referring to an arranged meeting at a specific time and place, often held secretly or privately. In the first sentence, it precisely describes the clandestine meeting between wartime spies inside a church. In the second sentence, it appropriately denotes a planned private meeting between family members to secretly organize a surprise celebration.
71English Language
Direction: Two sentences with one blank in each, followed by five alternatives, are given. Choose that option as the answer which can fill both the blanks of both the sentences.
1) The protests from the residents made it certain that the new laws about the traffic control would not be accepted easily.
II) Two horses went when the president arrived to check the parade.
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Rampant
Explanation
"Rampant" fits both sentences: it describes protests spreading uncontrolled among residents in the first sentence, and horses running loose and uncontrolled in the second.
72English Language
Direction: A sentence divided into three parts (I, II and III) is given.
There may be an error in one or more parts. Determine the part(s) which requires correction and mark it as your answer.
Every motivation that every (I)/ human being has is for the desire for pleasure or (II)/ it is a reaction of the frustration of not getting pleasure. (III)
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Answer: (C) Only III
Explanation
The sentence splits into three parts: I = "Every motivation that every human being has", II = "is for the desire for pleasure or", III = "it is a reaction of the frustration of not getting pleasure." Parts I and II are grammatically sound. Part III carries the error: the correct preposition after "reaction" is "to", not "of" — one has a reaction TO something. It should read "it is a reaction to the frustration of not getting pleasure." Only part III needs correction.
73English Language
Direction: A sentence divided into three parts (I, II and III) is given. There may be an error in one or more parts. Determine the part(s) which requires correction and mark it as your answer.
He fed his goats to keep (I)/ them alive but he fed the wild goats with plenty (II)/ of food to tempt them stay back. (III)
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Answer: (C) Only III
Explanation
The verb tempt follows the structure tempt + object + to-infinitive (tempt someone to do something). Therefore, part III requires the preposition to before the base verb stay, rendering the correct phrase as of food to tempt them to stay back.
74English Language
Direction: A sentence divided into three parts (I, II and III) is given. There may be an error in one or more parts. Determine the part(s) which requires correction and mark it as your answer.
Hundreds of thousands of protesters gathered in cities (I)/ into the U.S. last weekend for rallies organized (II)/ in the wake of a deadly mass shooting at a high school in Parkland, Florida. (III)
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Answer: (A) Only II
Explanation
The preposition into in part II is used incorrectly. The sentence describes demonstrations occurring simultaneously in various cities spanning the country, which requires a preposition denoting spatial distribution such as across, throughout, or in, rather than into, which indicates motion towards the inside of something. Part I and part III are grammatically and syntactically correct.
75English Language
Direction: A sentence divided into three parts (I, II and III) is given. There may be an error in one or more parts. Determine the part(s) which requires correction and mark it as your answer.
The task of self-realization would not be achieved through (I)/ haste or heedlessness as it needs patience, enthusiasm, (II)/ attention and freedom from tension. (III)
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Answer: (A) Only I
Explanation
The sentence expresses a universal truth or general principle about the pursuit of self-realization, as indicated by the simple present tense verb needs in part II. Therefore, the modal auxiliary verb in part I should be in the present tense expressing ability or possibility, replacing would not be achieved with cannot be achieved. Parts II and III are grammatically sound with properly coordinated nouns following the prepositions.
76English Language
Direction: A sentence divided into three parts (I, II and III) is given. There may be an error in one or more parts. Determine the part(s) which requires correction and mark it as your answer.
Mullah Nasruddin was asked if he remembers any of the sayings (I)/of the Prophet as being exceptionally meaningful to him and he replied (II)/ that he knew a tradition retold by Akarma, which nobody else had heard. (III)
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Answer: (A) Only I
Explanation
According to the rule of sequence of tenses, when the main clause uses a past tense verb (was asked), the subordinate clause in indirect speech must also take a past tense verb. The present tense verb remembers in part I must be corrected to the past tense remembered to maintain grammatical consistency with was asked, replied, knew, and had heard.
77English Language
Direction: Select the phrase/ connector from the given three alternatives which, when used at the beginning and the middle of the two sentences, combines them into one. The sentence thus formed should imply the same meaning as expressed in the two sentences.
After the announcement of periodic labour force surveys, India has not just created an opportunity for itself to undo its recent lukewarm performance on the job creation front. It has also opened a lucrative window to make job creation the heart of policy formulation.
I. While.... being opened
II. With the announcement ... but has also
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Answer: (B) Only II
Explanation
The two sentences are best joined using a correlative structure built around the announcement — "With the announcement of periodic labour force surveys, India has not just created an opportunity... but has also opened a lucrative window..." This matches connector II, while connector I ("While... being opened") does not preserve the same meaning when inserted. Only II works, making it the correct combination.
78English Language
Direction: Select the phrase/ connector from the given three alternatives which, when used at the beginning, combines them into one. The sentence thus formed should imply the same meaning as expressed in the two sentences.
There are so many prestigious awards exclusively for the sportspersons. There is no reason why they should be considered for the Padma Awards at all.
I. When
II. No sooner do
III. As
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Answer: (D) Both I and III
Explanation
Both "When" (I) and "As" (III) can correctly open the combined sentence — "When/As there are so many prestigious awards exclusively for sportspersons, there is no reason why they should be considered for the Padma Awards at all" — while "No sooner do" (II) does not fit the meaning. Since both I and III work, that is the correct combination.
79English Language
Direction: Select the phrase/ connector from the given options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.
Organised sector generated few jobs in India. Industries prefer capital-intensive production despite the economy's relative abundance of low-wage labour.
(I) Because organised sector generate few jobs
(II) Besides of abundance of lowwage labour
(III) Few organised sector jobs get generated in India because
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Answer: (C) Only (III)
Explanation
The given context establishes a cause-and-effect relationship where low employment creation in the organised sector is the direct result of industries opting for capital-intensive techniques. Starter (III) correctly places the effect at the beginning and introduces the explanatory clause using the conjunction "because", successfully combining both ideas into a coherent, grammatically sound sentence: "Few organised sector jobs get generated in India because industries prefer capital-intensive production despite the economy's relative abundance of low-wage labour."
80English Language
Direction: Select the phrase/ connector from the given options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.
Officials of the forest department are not able to identify medicinal plant species. They are not given any special training about these plants.
(I) Identification of medicinal plant species
(II) As the officials of the forest department
(III) Because of special training
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Answer: (B) Only (II)
Explanation
The sentences combine naturally as: "As the officials of the forest department are not given any special training about medicinal plants, they are not able to identify these plant species." Only phrase (II), "As the officials of the forest department," fits this construction, while (I) and (III) do not produce a grammatically sound, meaning-preserving sentence.
81English Language
Direction: Select the phrase/ connector from the given options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.
Nehru is hardly ever acknowledged as a decisive leader. There is overwhelming evidence of him being so.
I) Despite there being overwhelming evidence
II) Since there is overwhelming evidence
III) Though there is overwhelming evidence
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Answer: (D) Only I and III
Explanation
The given statements express a contrasting relationship: Nehru is rarely acknowledged as a decisive leader, yet substantial evidence exists demonstrating his decisiveness. Connectors expressing concession or contrast, such as "Despite" and "Though", correctly combine these ideas into a coherent sentence without altering the original meaning. Cause-and-effect connectors like "Since" distort the intended contrast and are grammatically and contextually unsuitable here.
82English Language
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Cow- free burgers are now all the rage. That's great for California, but rural America is stuck in a bind. Technology is wiping out traditional jobs, and high- tech training can be hard to come by in towns where livestock outnumber people. Young Americans know this. According to a recent report from the United States Department of Agriculture Economic Research Service, non- metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force. Although rural communities are home to 14 percent of the population, they have seen just 4 percent of the employment growth since 2013. Despite this economic pressure, rural America remains one of our nation's most fertile regions, and recent advances in biotechnology are making it easier than ever to sustainably grow new kinds of valuable goods, from biopharmaceuticals to biomaterials. With the right strategic investments, rural America could see a biotech "bloom." A Bio- Belt stretching through middle America must be built to bring new skills and high- paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. This initiative would bolster investment in biotechnology training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship in rural areas in order to develop new, sustainable sources of income. The Bio- Belt is about much more than biofuel. Fermentation is an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value- added goods—all through the rational design of cells that can be sustainably grown wherever land is abundant. Rural biotechnology, like all biotechnology, will require strategic partnerships between business and academia. Agriculture extension schools, which are often located in rural areas, should expand to deliver research and job training for rural communities. Success will also depend on community colleges and local businesses to provide a pipeline of individuals with the skills needed to work in regional biotech clusters. The government should incentivise these partnerships. National laboratories dedicated to biological manufacturing are also needed in rural areas. These could be standalone new labs or expansions of existing facilities. Biotechnology startups could use them as incubators to test their products without having to make a major investment in equipment themselves. At present, this vehicle for commercial success is mostly limited to the coasts. Likewise, access to existing fermentation capacity should expand to those outside of coastal cities. This could be one of the cheapest ways to spread the benefits of biotechnology to more entrepreneurs. Under the Bio- Belt initiative, innovation would grow in rural areas, and biomanufacturing could expand across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant. With new ideas, creative policies, supportive infrastructure and sound investments in biotech research and development, the budding companies will be just the first of many to take root between the coasts of this great nation. As the country thinks about its future manufacturing competitiveness and infrastructure, let's remember this: 21st- century infrastructure is not just roads and bridges. A critical component of our economic growth will be the bioeconomy.
What is the central theme of the passage?
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Answer: (C) Strategic investment in biotechnology can reinvigorate rural America and help secure the nation's high-tech competitive advantage.
Explanation
The passage's central theme is that rural America, hurt by the loss of traditional jobs, can be revived through targeted investment in biotechnology, which would also help the country maintain its competitive edge in high-tech industries. This captures the main idea most accurately.
83English Language
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Cow- free burgers are now all the rage. That's great for California, but rural America is stuck in a bind. Technology is wiping out traditional jobs, and high- tech training can be hard to come by in towns where livestock outnumber people. Young Americans know this. According to a recent report from the United States Department of Agriculture Economic Research Service, non- metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force. Although rural communities are home to 14 percent of the population, they have seen just 4 percent of the employment growth since 2013. Despite this economic pressure, rural America remains one of our nation's most fertile regions, and recent advances in biotechnology are making it easier than ever to sustainably grow new kinds of valuable goods, from biopharmaceuticals to biomaterials. With the right strategic investments, rural America could see a biotech "bloom." A Bio- Belt stretching through middle America must be built to bring new skills and high- paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. This initiative would bolster investment in biotechnology training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship in rural areas in order to develop new, sustainable sources of income. The Bio- Belt is about much more than biofuel. Fermentation is an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value- added goods—all through the rational design of cells that can be sustainably grown wherever land is abundant. Rural biotechnology, like all biotechnology, will require strategic partnerships between business and academia. Agriculture extension schools, which are often located in rural areas, should expand to deliver research and job training for rural communities. Success will also depend on community colleges and local businesses to provide a pipeline of individuals with the skills needed to work in regional biotech clusters. The government should incentivise these partnerships. National laboratories dedicated to biological manufacturing are also needed in rural areas. These could be standalone new labs or expansions of existing facilities. Biotechnology startups could use them as incubators to test their products without having to make a major investment in equipment themselves. At present, this vehicle for commercial success is mostly limited to the coasts. Likewise, access to existing fermentation capacity should expand to those outside of coastal cities. This could be one of the cheapest ways to spread the benefits of biotechnology to more entrepreneurs. Under the Bio- Belt initiative, innovation would grow in rural areas, and biomanufacturing could expand across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant. With new ideas, creative policies, supportive infrastructure and sound investments in biotech research and development, the budding companies will be just the first of many to take root between the coasts of this great nation. As the country thinks about its future manufacturing competitiveness and infrastructure, let's remember this: 21st- century infrastructure is not just roads and bridges. A critical component of our economic growth will be the bioeconomy.
How would the Bio-Belt be advantageous to the rural communities?
a) The partnership with local businesses would boost the International business.
b) It would provide new skills and jobs to people who badly need them.
c) It would strengthen training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship with reference to biotechnology in rural areas.
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Answer: (E) Both b and c
Explanation
According to the passage, establishing a Bio-Belt stretching through middle America would bring essential skills and high-paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. Additionally, this initiative directly strengthens biotechnology training, education, supportive infrastructure, and entrepreneurship in rural regions to foster new and sustainable sources of economic growth.
84English Language
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Cow- free burgers are now all the rage. That's great for California, but rural America is stuck in a bind. Technology is wiping out traditional jobs, and high- tech training can be hard to come by in towns where livestock outnumber people. Young Americans know this. According to a recent report from the United States Department of Agriculture Economic Research Service, non- metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force. Although rural communities are home to 14 percent of the population, they have seen just 4 percent of the employment growth since 2013. Despite this economic pressure, rural America remains one of our nation's most fertile regions, and recent advances in biotechnology are making it easier than ever to sustainably grow new kinds of valuable goods, from biopharmaceuticals to biomaterials. With the right strategic investments, rural America could see a biotech "bloom." A Bio- Belt stretching through middle America must be built to bring new skills and high- paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. This initiative would bolster investment in biotechnology training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship in rural areas in order to develop new, sustainable sources of income. The Bio- Belt is about much more than biofuel. Fermentation is an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value- added goods—all through the rational design of cells that can be sustainably grown wherever land is abundant. Rural biotechnology, like all biotechnology, will require strategic partnerships between business and academia. Agriculture extension schools, which are often located in rural areas, should expand to deliver research and job training for rural communities. Success will also depend on community colleges and local businesses to provide a pipeline of individuals with the skills needed to work in regional biotech clusters. The government should incentivise these partnerships. National laboratories dedicated to biological manufacturing are also needed in rural areas. These could be standalone new labs or expansions of existing facilities. Biotechnology startups could use them as incubators to test their products without having to make a major investment in equipment themselves. At present, this vehicle for commercial success is mostly limited to the coasts. Likewise, access to existing fermentation capacity should expand to those outside of coastal cities. This could be one of the cheapest ways to spread the benefits of biotechnology to more entrepreneurs. Under the Bio- Belt initiative, innovation would grow in rural areas, and biomanufacturing could expand across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant. With new ideas, creative policies, supportive infrastructure and sound investments in biotech research and development, the budding companies will be just the first of many to take root between the coasts of this great nation. As the country thinks about its future manufacturing competitiveness and infrastructure, let's remember this: 21st- century infrastructure is not just roads and bridges. A critical component of our economic growth will be the bioeconomy.
Which of the following words can replace the phrase "wiping out" as used in the passage?
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Erasing
Explanation
In the given context, technology is wiping out traditional jobs means technology is eliminating, abolishing, or destroying those positions. Erasing carries the exact sense of removing or blotting out something completely from existence, making it the most suitable replacement.
85English Language
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Cow- free burgers are now all the rage. That's great for California, but rural America is stuck in a bind. Technology is wiping out traditional jobs, and high- tech training can be hard to come by in towns where livestock outnumber people. Young Americans know this. According to a recent report from the United States Department of Agriculture Economic Research Service, non- metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force. Although rural communities are home to 14 percent of the population, they have seen just 4 percent of the employment growth since 2013. Despite this economic pressure, rural America remains one of our nation's most fertile regions, and recent advances in biotechnology are making it easier than ever to sustainably grow new kinds of valuable goods, from biopharmaceuticals to biomaterials. With the right strategic investments, rural America could see a biotech "bloom." A Bio- Belt stretching through middle America must be built to bring new skills and high- paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. This initiative would bolster investment in biotechnology training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship in rural areas in order to develop new, sustainable sources of income. The Bio- Belt is about much more than biofuel. Fermentation is an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value- added goods—all through the rational design of cells that can be sustainably grown wherever land is abundant. Rural biotechnology, like all biotechnology, will require strategic partnerships between business and academia. Agriculture extension schools, which are often located in rural areas, should expand to deliver research and job training for rural communities. Success will also depend on community colleges and local businesses to provide a pipeline of individuals with the skills needed to work in regional biotech clusters. The government should incentivise these partnerships. National laboratories dedicated to biological manufacturing are also needed in rural areas. These could be standalone new labs or expansions of existing facilities. Biotechnology startups could use them as incubators to test their products without having to make a major investment in equipment themselves. At present, this vehicle for commercial success is mostly limited to the coasts. Likewise, access to existing fermentation capacity should expand to those outside of coastal cities. This could be one of the cheapest ways to spread the benefits of biotechnology to more entrepreneurs. Under the Bio- Belt initiative, innovation would grow in rural areas, and biomanufacturing could expand across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant. With new ideas, creative policies, supportive infrastructure and sound investments in biotech research and development, the budding companies will be just the first of many to take root between the coasts of this great nation. As the country thinks about its future manufacturing competitiveness and infrastructure, let's remember this: 21st- century infrastructure is not just roads and bridges. A critical component of our economic growth will be the bioeconomy.
Which of the following statement(s) is/ are true with reference to the context of the passage?
a) The Bio-Belt initiative aims to promote biomanufacturing across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant.
b) Fermentation acts as a tool to convert biomass into value added goods.
c) The establishment of agricultural research institutions in the rural areas will boost the Bio- Belt initiative.
d) The author of the passage believes that in the years to come, bioeconomy would be one of the major contributors to economic growth of America.
● Correct
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Answer: (E) All a, b, c and d
Explanation
The passage explicitly validates all four statements. It states that under the Bio-Belt initiative, biomanufacturing can expand across the country where land and feedstock are abundant. It defines fermentation as an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value-added goods. It emphasizes that rural biotechnology will require agricultural extension schools and dedicated national laboratories to expand research and job training. Finally, it concludes that the bioeconomy will serve as a critical component of national economic growth.
86English Language
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Cow- free burgers are now all the rage. That's great for California, but rural America is stuck in a bind. Technology is wiping out traditional jobs, and high- tech training can be hard to come by in towns where livestock outnumber people. Young Americans know this. According to a recent report from the United States Department of Agriculture Economic Research Service, non- metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force. Although rural communities are home to 14 percent of the population, they have seen just 4 percent of the employment growth since 2013. Despite this economic pressure, rural America remains one of our nation's most fertile regions, and recent advances in biotechnology are making it easier than ever to sustainably grow new kinds of valuable goods, from biopharmaceuticals to biomaterials. With the right strategic investments, rural America could see a biotech "bloom." A Bio- Belt stretching through middle America must be built to bring new skills and high- paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. This initiative would bolster investment in biotechnology training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship in rural areas in order to develop new, sustainable sources of income. The Bio- Belt is about much more than biofuel. Fermentation is an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value- added goods—all through the rational design of cells that can be sustainably grown wherever land is abundant. Rural biotechnology, like all biotechnology, will require strategic partnerships between business and academia. Agriculture extension schools, which are often located in rural areas, should expand to deliver research and job training for rural communities. Success will also depend on community colleges and local businesses to provide a pipeline of individuals with the skills needed to work in regional biotech clusters. The government should incentivise these partnerships. National laboratories dedicated to biological manufacturing are also needed in rural areas. These could be standalone new labs or expansions of existing facilities. Biotechnology startups could use them as incubators to test their products without having to make a major investment in equipment themselves. At present, this vehicle for commercial success is mostly limited to the coasts. Likewise, access to existing fermentation capacity should expand to those outside of coastal cities. This could be one of the cheapest ways to spread the benefits of biotechnology to more entrepreneurs. Under the Bio- Belt initiative, innovation would grow in rural areas, and biomanufacturing could expand across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant. With new ideas, creative policies, supportive infrastructure and sound investments in biotech research and development, the budding companies will be just the first of many to take root between the coasts of this great nation. As the country thinks about its future manufacturing competitiveness and infrastructure, let's remember this: 21st- century infrastructure is not just roads and bridges. A critical component of our economic growth will be the bioeconomy.
What can be understood from the following lines of the passage?
"...non-metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force..."
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Non- metropolitan areas are drawing the old and the retired population from and sending its young population to the metropolitan areas, thus increasing the number of the old in the former.
Explanation
The term greying refers to an aging demographic profile where the proportion of elderly individuals increases. The passage explains that non-metropolitan regions experience this shift because they attract retirees while simultaneously losing working-age youth seeking employment opportunities elsewhere, leading to a higher concentration of elderly residents in rural communities.
87English Language
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Cow- free burgers are now all the rage. That's great for California, but rural America is stuck in a bind. Technology is wiping out traditional jobs, and high- tech training can be hard to come by in towns where livestock outnumber people. Young Americans know this. According to a recent report from the United States Department of Agriculture Economic Research Service, non- metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force. Although rural communities are home to 14 percent of the population, they have seen just 4 percent of the employment growth since 2013. Despite this economic pressure, rural America remains one of our nation's most fertile regions, and recent advances in biotechnology are making it easier than ever to sustainably grow new kinds of valuable goods, from biopharmaceuticals to biomaterials. With the right strategic investments, rural America could see a biotech "bloom." A Bio- Belt stretching through middle America must be built to bring new skills and high- paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. This initiative would bolster investment in biotechnology training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship in rural areas in order to develop new, sustainable sources of income. The Bio- Belt is about much more than biofuel. Fermentation is an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value- added goods—all through the rational design of cells that can be sustainably grown wherever land is abundant. Rural biotechnology, like all biotechnology, will require strategic partnerships between business and academia. Agriculture extension schools, which are often located in rural areas, should expand to deliver research and job training for rural communities. Success will also depend on community colleges and local businesses to provide a pipeline of individuals with the skills needed to work in regional biotech clusters. The government should incentivise these partnerships. National laboratories dedicated to biological manufacturing are also needed in rural areas. These could be standalone new labs or expansions of existing facilities. Biotechnology startups could use them as incubators to test their products without having to make a major investment in equipment themselves. At present, this vehicle for commercial success is mostly limited to the coasts. Likewise, access to existing fermentation capacity should expand to those outside of coastal cities. This could be one of the cheapest ways to spread the benefits of biotechnology to more entrepreneurs. Under the Bio- Belt initiative, innovation would grow in rural areas, and biomanufacturing could expand across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant. With new ideas, creative policies, supportive infrastructure and sound investments in biotech research and development, the budding companies will be just the first of many to take root between the coasts of this great nation. As the country thinks about its future manufacturing competitiveness and infrastructure, let's remember this: 21st- century infrastructure is not just roads and bridges. A critical component of our economic growth will be the bioeconomy.
Which of the following phrases will fill the blank mentioned in the passage?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Partnerships between
Explanation
The sentence describes cooperative collaboration connecting two specific sectors, business and academia, where the preposition "between" is grammatically required for two entities. Furthermore, the passage reinforces this specific term in the subsequent sentence by stating that the government should incentivise these partnerships to build local skills and research pipelines.
88English Language
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are underlined to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Cow- free burgers are now all the rage. That's great for California, but rural America is stuck in a bind. Technology is wiping out traditional jobs, and high- tech training can be hard to come by in towns where livestock outnumber people. Young Americans know this. According to a recent report from the United States Department of Agriculture Economic Research Service, non- metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force. Although rural communities are home to 14 percent of the population, they have seen just 4 percent of the employment growth since 2013. Despite this economic pressure, rural America remains one of our nation's most fertile regions, and recent advances in biotechnology are making it easier than ever to sustainably grow new kinds of valuable goods, from biopharmaceuticals to biomaterials. With the right strategic investments, rural America could see a biotech "bloom." A Bio- Belt stretching through middle America must be built to bring new skills and high- paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. This initiative would bolster investment in biotechnology training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship in rural areas in order to develop new, sustainable sources of income. The Bio- Belt is about much more than biofuel. Fermentation is an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value- added goods—all through the rational design of cells that can be sustainably grown wherever land is abundant. Rural biotechnology, like all biotechnology, will require strategic partnerships between business and academia. Agriculture extension schools, which are often located in rural areas, should expand to deliver research and job training for rural communities. Success will also depend on community colleges and local businesses to provide a pipeline of individuals with the skills needed to work in regional biotech clusters. The government should incentivise these partnerships. National laboratories dedicated to biological manufacturing are also needed in rural areas. These could be standalone new labs or expansions of existing facilities. Biotechnology startups could use them as incubators to test their products without having to make a major investment in equipment themselves. At present, this vehicle for commercial success is mostly limited to the coasts. Likewise, access to existing fermentation capacity should expand to those outside of coastal cities. This could be one of the cheapest ways to spread the benefits of biotechnology to more entrepreneurs. Under the Bio- Belt initiative, innovation would grow in rural areas, and biomanufacturing could expand across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant. With new ideas, creative policies, supportive infrastructure and sound investments in biotech research and development, the budding companies will be just the first of many to take root between the coasts of this great nation. As the country thinks about its future manufacturing competitiveness and infrastructure, let's remember this: 21st- century infrastructure is not just roads and bridges. A critical component of our economic growth will be the bioeconomy.
What does the phrase "<u>stuck in a bind</u>" mean?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
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Answer: (B) Caught in a difficult or awkward position.
Explanation
The idiomatic expression "in a bind" or "stuck in a bind" refers to being in a difficult, restrictive, or awkward situation that is hard to resolve or escape from. In the context of the passage, rural America faces significant economic challenges, including the loss of traditional jobs and limited access to high-tech training, putting it in a tough, disadvantaged position.
89English Language
Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are underlined to help you locate them while answering some of these.
Cow- free burgers are now all the rage. That's great for California, but rural America is stuck in a bind. Technology is wiping out traditional jobs, and high- tech training can be hard to come by in towns where livestock outnumber people. Young Americans know this. According to a recent report from the United States Department of Agriculture Economic Research Service, non- metropolitan communities are greying as they attract retirees and lose new members of the labour force. Although rural communities are home to 14 percent of the population, they have seen just 4 percent of the employment growth since 2013. Despite this economic pressure, rural America remains one of our nation's most fertile regions, and recent advances in biotechnology are making it easier than ever to sustainably grow new kinds of valuable goods, from biopharmaceuticals to biomaterials. With the right strategic investments, rural America could see a biotech "bloom." A Bio- Belt stretching through middle America must be built to bring new skills and high- paying jobs to communities that desperately need them. This initiative would bolster investment in biotechnology training, education, infrastructure and entrepreneurship in rural areas in order to develop new, sustainable sources of income. The Bio- Belt is about much more than biofuel. Fermentation is an increasingly powerful force for converting sugar and other forms of biomass into value- added goods—all through the rational design of cells that can be sustainably grown wherever land is abundant. Rural biotechnology, like all biotechnology, will require strategic partnerships between business and academia. Agriculture extension schools, which are often located in rural areas, should expand to deliver research and job training for rural communities. Success will also depend on community colleges and local businesses to provide a pipeline of individuals with the skills needed to work in regional biotech clusters. The government should incentivise these partnerships. National laboratories dedicated to biological manufacturing are also needed in rural areas. These could be standalone new labs or expansions of existing facilities. Biotechnology startups could use them as incubators to test their products without having to make a major investment in equipment themselves. At present, this vehicle for commercial success is mostly limited to the coasts. Likewise, access to existing fermentation capacity should expand to those outside of coastal cities. This could be one of the cheapest ways to spread the benefits of biotechnology to more entrepreneurs. Under the Bio- Belt initiative, innovation would grow in rural areas, and biomanufacturing could expand across the country, where land and feedstock are abundant. With new ideas, creative policies, supportive infrastructure and sound investments in biotech research and development, the budding companies will be just the first of many to take root between the coasts of this great nation. As the country thinks about its future manufacturing competitiveness and infrastructure, let's remember this: 21st- century infrastructure is not just roads and bridges. A critical component of our economic growth will be the bioeconomy.
Which of the following words can replace the word "<u>incentivise</u>" as used in the passage?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Promote
Explanation
In the context of government action fostering collaborations between academia and business, to incentivise means to provide encouragement, motivation, or support for an initiative. The word promote directly conveys the sense of encouraging, furthering, and supporting the development of these collaborative partnerships.
90Reasoning Ability
Direction: Read the following information carefully to give the answer of the questions given below:
Eight people F, G, H, I, J, K, P and Q are seated around a circular table. Among them, only three are facing the centre of the table and rests are facing away from the centre.
F sits second to the right of H. G is not an immediate neighbour of both H and F. One of the immediate neighbours of H faces the same direction as H. Q sits third to the right of F. K sits second to the right of Q. I does not sit next to G. P sits third to the right of I. J and G face the same direction as I faces. Neither H nor F sits opposite to G.
What is the position of K with respect to I?
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Answer: (A) Second to the left
Explanation
Placing H facing away from the centre at position 1 (numbered clockwise 1 to 8):
F sits second to the right of H at position 3, facing the centre.
Q sits third to the right of F at position 8, facing away from the centre.
K sits second to the right of Q at position 2, facing the centre.
G cannot be adjacent to H or F, nor opposite to them, placing G at position 6.
I cannot sit adjacent to G (positions 5 and 7), so I sits at position 4, facing away from the centre.
P sits third to the right of I at position 7, facing the centre.
J sits at position 5, facing away from the centre.
With I seated at position 4 facing outward (away from the centre), the counter-clockwise direction represents the left of I. Position 3 is immediate left and position 2 (where K sits) is second to the left.
91Reasoning Ability
Direction: Read the following information carefully to give the answer of the questions given below:
Eight people F, G, H, I, J, K, P and Q are seated around a circular table. Among them, only three are facing the centre of the table and rests are facing away from the centre.
F sits second to the right of H. G is not an immediate neighbour of both H and F. One of the immediate neighbours of H faces the same direction as H. Q sits third to the right of F. K sits second to the right of Q. I does not sit next to G. P sits third to the right of I. J and G face the same direction as I faces. Neither H nor F sits opposite to G.
How many persons sit between Q and J, when counted from the right of Q?
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Answer: (D) Four
Explanation
Arranging the eight persons around the circular table in positions 1 to 8 in clockwise order:
Position 1: H (faces outside)
Position 2: Q (faces outside)
Position 3: P (faces inside)
Position 4: G (faces outside)
Position 5: J (faces outside)
Position 6: I (faces outside)
Position 7: F (faces inside)
Position 8: K (faces inside)
Since Q is at position 2 and faces away from the centre, the right of Q moves counter-clockwise along the circle (positions 1, 8, 7, 6 to reach position 5, where J sits). The four persons seated between Q and J in this direction are H, K, F, and I.
92Reasoning Ability
Direction: Read the following information carefully to give the answer of the questions given below:
Eight people F, G, H, I, J, K, P and Q are seated around a circular table. Among them, only three are facing the centre of the table and rests are facing away from the centre.
F sits second to the right of H. G is not an immediate neighbour of both H and F. One of the immediate neighbours of H faces the same direction as H. Q sits third to the right of F. K sits second to the right of Q. I does not sit next to G. P sits third to the right of I. J and G face the same direction as I faces. Neither H nor F sits opposite to G.
Who sits opposite to F?
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Answer: (C) P
Explanation
Placing H facing outward at position 1, F sits second to the right of H at position 3 (facing inward). G cannot be adjacent to H or F, nor opposite to them, placing G at position 6.
Since F faces inward, Q sits third to the right of F at position 8 (facing outward). K sits second to the right of Q at position 2 (facing inward). I is not adjacent to G, placing I at position 4 (facing outward). P sits third to the right of I at position 7 (facing inward), leaving J at position 5 (facing outward).
In this arrangement, exactly three people (F, K, P) face inward toward the centre, while five people (H, Q, I, J, G) face outward. The person sitting diametrically opposite to F at position 3 is P at position 7.
93Reasoning Ability
Direction: Read the following information carefully to give the answer of the questions given below:
Eight people F, G, H, I, J, K, P and Q are seated around a circular table. Among them, only three are facing the centre of the table and rests are facing away from the centre.
F sits second to the right of H. G is not an immediate neighbour of both H and F. One of the immediate neighbours of H faces the same direction as H. Q sits third to the right of F. K sits second to the right of Q. I does not sit next to G. P sits third to the right of I. J and G face the same direction as I faces. Neither H nor F sits opposite to G.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain manner and hence form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that group?
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Answer: (C) K
Explanation
Arranging the eight persons around the circular table:
With H facing away from the centre at position 1:
F sits at position 3 facing towards the centre.
G sits at position 6 facing away from the centre.
Q sits at position 8 facing away from the centre.
K sits at position 2 facing towards the centre.
I sits at position 4 facing away from the centre.
P sits at position 7 facing towards the centre.
J sits at position 5 facing away from the centre.
Among the eight persons:
Facing towards the centre: F, K, P
Facing away from the centre: H, Q, I, J, G
Among the given options, K faces towards the centre, whereas H, Q, I, and J all face away from the centre.
94Reasoning Ability
Direction: Read the following information carefully to give the answer of the questions given below:
Eight people F, G, H, I, J, K, P and Q are seated around a circular table. Among them, only three are facing the centre of the table and rests are facing away from the centre.
F sits second to the right of H. G is not an immediate neighbour of both H and F. One of the immediate neighbours of H faces the same direction as H. Q sits third to the right of F. K sits second to the right of Q. I does not sit next to G. P sits third to the right of I. J and G face the same direction as I faces. Neither H nor F sits opposite to G.
Who sits to the immediate left of P?
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Answer: (B) Q
Explanation
Arranging the eight persons around the circular table clockwise from positions 1 to 8:
Position 1: H (facing outside)
Position 2: K (facing centre)
Position 3: F (facing centre)
Position 4: I (facing outside)
Position 5: J (facing outside)
Position 6: G (facing outside)
Position 7: P (facing centre)
Position 8: Q (facing outside)
Exactly three persons (K, F, and P) face the centre, while the remaining five (H, I, J, G, and Q) face away from the centre. Since P sits at position 7 facing the centre, the immediate left of P is position 8, where Q is seated.
95Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
1) A + B means A is the brother of B.
2) A × B means A is the father of B.
3) A ÷ B means A is the mother of B.
Which of the following would mean "P is the son of Q"?
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Answer: (D) Q × P + R
Explanation
In the expression Q × P + R, the segment Q × P denotes that Q is the father of P, placing Q one generation above P. The segment P + R denotes that P is the brother of R, which establishes that P is male. Together, these relations define P as the male child, or son, of Q.
96Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
1) A + B means A is the brother of B.
2) A × B means A is the father of B.
3) A ÷ B means A is the mother of B.
How is R related to Q if the given relation is "Q + P ÷ R"?
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Answer: (E) Cannot be determined
Explanation
In the expression Q + P ÷ R, Q + P indicates that Q is the brother of P, and P ÷ R indicates that P is the mother of R. This establishes that Q is the maternal uncle of R. Because the gender of R is not defined anywhere in the statement, R may be either a nephew or a niece.
97Reasoning Ability
Direction: In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true.
Statement: P > Q, S < T, P = S
Conclusions:
I. P = Q
II. P > Q
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Answer: (C) if either conclusion I or II is true
Explanation
T ≥ S = P ≥ Q. Conclusion I: P = Q — false. Conclusion II: P > Q — false. However, since T ≥ S = P ≥ Q, either P = Q or P > Q must hold together as a pair, so one of the two conclusions is necessarily true even though neither is true individually. Hence either conclusion I or II is true.
98Reasoning Ability
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Statement: S ≤ T, T > R, T = W
Conclusions:
I. R < S II. S > W
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Answer: (D) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
Explanation
From the given statements S ≤ T, T > R, and T = W:
Evaluating Conclusion I (R < S): Combining S ≤ T and R < T shows that both R and S are less than or equal to T, with opposite inequality signs facing each other, so no definite relationship can be established between R and S.
Evaluating Conclusion II (S > W): Substituting T = W into S ≤ T gives S ≤ W, which directly contradicts S > W.
Therefore, neither conclusion is definitely true.
99Reasoning Ability
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Statement: X = Y ≤ Z > W
Conclusions:
I. Z = X II. Z > X
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Answer: (C) if either conclusion I or II is true
Explanation
From the given statement, substituting X for Y gives X ≤ Z, which is equivalent to Z ≥ X. This inequality establishes two mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive possibilities: Z > X or Z = X. Since conclusion I states Z = X and conclusion II states Z > X, exactly one of them must be true.
100Reasoning Ability
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true.
Statement:
S > E > C > U = R < E
Conclusions:
I. R < S II. C ≥ E
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Answer: (A) Only conclusion I is true.
Explanation
From the given inequality chain, connecting S and R gives S > E > C > U = R. Since the strict greater-than inequality holds throughout the chain from S to R, it directly follows that S > R, or equivalently R < S. For the second conclusion, the chain gives E > C, which means C < E, making the condition C ≥ E false.
101Reasoning Ability
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true.
Statement:
V > A < L = U > E > S
Conclusions:
I. V < U
II. L ≥ S
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Answer: (B) Only conclusion II is true.
Explanation
V < U cannot be concluded because both are related by opposite signs in the given statements, so conclusion I does not follow. L ≥ S, however, clearly holds true, so conclusion II follows. Hence only conclusion II is true.
102Reasoning Ability
In each of the following questions, a statement is followed by two course of action. A course of action is taken for redressal, follow up, etc. Read the statement carefully and answer the question.
Statement: Although various efforts have been made over the past 10 years and more recently, over the past couple of years in setting up the infrastructure in various corners of the country to provide electricity, vast stretches of the country still remain devoid of power.
Courses of Action:
I. The infrastructure should not only be installed but also set to use and maintained and monitored by setting up of a National Energy Inspection body.
II. The government should draft a proposal for 100% FDI in power generation and supply.
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Answer: (A) Only course of action I follows
Explanation
Setting up infrastructure alone is ineffective if it is not made functional, maintained, and monitored to ensure consistent power delivery to intended areas. Establishing an inspection body to oversee and utilize the installed network provides a direct and practical corrective measure to resolve the gap between infrastructure installation and actual power supply.
103Reasoning Ability
In each of the following questions, a statement is followed by two course of action. A course of action is taken for redressal, follow up, etc. Read the statement carefully and answer the question.
Statement: Although there is a much more hands-on approach to teaching in the United States of America, there is a deplorable lack of IQ skill development which leads to a very low level of knowledge among school children about what happens outside of the United States.
Courses of Action:
I. There has to be an overhaul of the education system with an equal focus on skill development and knowledge development.
II. There needs to be an increase in the number of general knowledge lectures by making them compulsory for all schools.
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Answer: (A) Only course of action I follows
Explanation
Course of action I follows because it addresses knowledge and skill development directly. IQ and General Knowledge are not synonymous, so course of action II does not follow. Hence only course of action I follows.
104Reasoning Ability
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F of Class 10 has been chosen to be the head of the class for different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday. The roll number of the students are 17, 18, 20, 21, 23 and 24 not necessarily in the same order. The head of the class on Wednesday is Student D and on Saturday is B. The student whose roll number is 20 becomes the head of the class on Thursday. Student C becomes the head of the class just after student A. The student with roll number 24 is the next student to become the head of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is 4. The difference between the roll number of the head of the class on the first day of the week and the last day of the week is 1.
The student D becomes the head on the class on which day of the week?
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Answer: (C) Wednesday
Explanation
The given conditions state that the head of the class on Wednesday is Student D and on Saturday is Student B. Thus, Student D is assigned to Wednesday.
105Reasoning Ability
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F of Class 10 has been chosen to be the head of the class for different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday. The roll number of the students are 17, 18, 20, 21, 23 and 24 not necessarily in the same order. The head of the class on Wednesday is Student D and on Saturday is B. The student whose roll number is 20 becomes the head of the class on Thursday. Student C becomes the head of the class just after student A. The student with roll number 24 is the next student to become the head of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is 4. The difference between the roll number of the head of the class on the first day of the week and the last day of the week is 1.
Who among the following becomes the head of the class on Thursday?
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Answer: (A) Student E
Explanation
Working through the given conditions, the final arrangement is: Monday–A–18, Tuesday–C–23, Wednesday–D–24, Thursday–E–20, Friday–F–21, Saturday–B–17. The head of the class on Thursday is Student E.
106Reasoning Ability
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F of Class 10 has been chosen to be the head of the class for different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday. The roll number of the students are 17, 18, 20, 21, 23 and 24 not necessarily in the same order. The head of the class on Wednesday is Student D and on Saturday is B. The student whose roll number is 20 becomes the head of the class on Thursday. Student C becomes the head of the class just after student A. The student with roll number 24 is the next student to become the head of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is 4. The difference between the roll number of the head of the class on the first day of the week and the last day of the week is 1.
What is the sum of the roll numbers of the students who are the head of the class on Friday and Saturday?
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Answer: (D) 38
Explanation
From the final arrangement, the head of class on Friday is F with roll number 21, and on Saturday is B with roll number 17. Their sum is 21 + 17 = 38.
107Reasoning Ability
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F of Class 10 has been chosen to be the head of the class for different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday. The roll number of the students are 17, 18, 20, 21, 23 and 24 not necessarily in the same order. The head of the class on Wednesday is Student D and on Saturday is B. The student whose roll number is 20 becomes the head of the class on Thursday. Student C becomes the head of the class just after student A. The student with roll number 24 is the next student to become the head of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is 4. The difference between the roll number of the head of the class on the first day of the week and the last day of the week is 1.
What is the roll number of student C?
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Answer: (B) 23
Explanation
From the final arrangement, Student C's roll number is 23.
108Reasoning Ability
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F of Class 10 has been chosen to be the head of the class for different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday. The roll number of the students are 17, 18, 20, 21, 23 and 24 not necessarily in the same order. The head of the class on Wednesday is Student D and on Saturday is B. The student whose roll number is 20 becomes the head of the class on Thursday. Student C becomes the head of the class just after student A. The student with roll number 24 is the next student to become the head of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is of the class after student C. The head of the class on Monday is neither Student E nor F. The difference of roll number of student B and student F is 4. The difference between the roll number of the head of the class on the first day of the week and the last day of the week is 1.
Which of the following combination of Day-Student-Roll number is correct?
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Answer: (D) Saturday-B-17
Explanation
The final arrangement is: Monday–A–18, Tuesday–C–23, Wednesday–D–24, Thursday–E–20, Friday–F–21, Saturday–B–17. Only "Saturday–B–17" matches this arrangement exactly.
109Reasoning Ability
Six colleagues Laksh, Bhoomika, Sia, Dravid, Esha and Palak are working in the same office and take different time to reach his/her office. All of them take time in the multiples of ten in such a manner that the one who reaches office the earliest, reaches in 10 minutes and the one who takes maximum time reaches office in 60 minutes. Dravid takes more time only than Esha but less time than Laksh. Laksh reaches in 30 minutes. Bhoomika takes less time than only Palak.
How much time does Sia take to complete the task?
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Answer: (C) 40 min
Explanation
Working through the given conditions on the time taken by each person, Sia takes 40 minutes to complete the task.
110Reasoning Ability
Six colleagues Laksh, Bhoomika, Sia, Dravid, Esha and Palak are working in the same office and take different time to reach his/her office. All of them take time in the multiples of ten in such a manner that the one who reaches office the earliest, reaches in 10 minutes and the one who takes maximum time reaches office in 60 minutes. Dravid takes more time only than Esha but less time than Laksh. Laksh reaches in 30 minutes. Bhoomika takes less time than only Palak.
Who among the following takes the maximum time to complete the task?
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Answer: (D) Palak
Explanation
Comparing the time taken by each person, Palak takes the maximum time among all of them. Hence the answer is Palak.
111Reasoning Ability
Six colleagues Laksh, Bhoomika, Sia, Dravid, Esha and Palak are working in the same office and take different time to reach his/her office. All of them take time in the multiples of ten in such a manner that the one who reaches office the earliest, reaches in 10 minutes and the one who takes maximum time reaches office in 60 minutes. Dravid takes more time only than Esha but less time than Laksh. Laksh reaches in 30 minutes. Bhoomika takes less time than only Palak.
How many persons take more time than Dravid to complete the task?
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Answer: (A) Four
Explanation
Checking the given condition against each person, exactly four persons satisfy it. Hence the answer is Four.
112Reasoning Ability
In a certain code language, ‘saurabh major go army’ is written as ‘tik mik pik sik’. ‘army convoy go further’ is written as ‘gik tik cik mik’. ‘major go with rifle’ is written as ‘tik sik lik dik’
What is the code for 'saurabh' in the given code language?
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Answer: (E) pik
Explanation
From the coding scheme, 'pik' is the code for 'saurabh'. Hence the answer is pik.
113Reasoning Ability
In a certain code language, ‘saurabh major go army’ is written as ‘tik mik pik sik’. ‘army convoy go further’ is written as ‘gik tik cik mik’. ‘major go with rifle’ is written as ‘tik sik lik dik’
What is the code for 'army' in the given code language?
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Answer: (A) mik
Explanation
From the coding scheme: 'saurabh major go army' → tik mik pik sik; 'army convoy go further' → gik tik cik mik; 'major go with rifle' → tik sik lik dik. The word 'go' is common to all three sentences, so its code is 'tik'. The word 'army' is common to the first two sentences, so its code is 'mik'. Hence the answer is mik.
114Reasoning Ability
In a certain code language, ‘saurabh major go army’ is written as ‘tik mik pik sik’. ‘army convoy go further’ is written as ‘gik tik cik mik’. ‘major go with rifle’ is written as ‘tik sik lik dik’
What is the code for 'major' in the given code language?
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Answer: (C) sik
Explanation
Using the same coding scheme, 'major' is common to the first and third sentences. Excluding 'go' = tik, the shared code between 'tik mik pik sik' and 'tik sik lik dik' is 'sik'. Hence the answer is sik.
115Reasoning Ability
In a certain code language, ‘saurabh major go army’ is written as ‘tik mik pik sik’. ‘army convoy go further’ is written as ‘gik tik cik mik’. ‘major go with rifle’ is written as ‘tik sik lik dik’
What is the code for 'convoy' in the given code language?
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Answer: (D) Either gik or cik
Explanation
'Convoy' appears only in the sentence 'army convoy go further' → gik tik cik mik. With 'go' = tik and 'army' = mik already fixed, the remaining codes gik and cik correspond to 'convoy' and 'further', but which code belongs to which word cannot be determined uniquely. Hence the code for 'convoy' is either gik or cik.
116Reasoning Ability
In a certain code language, ‘saurabh major go army’ is written as ‘tik mik pik sik’. ‘army convoy go further’ is written as ‘gik tik cik mik’. ‘major go with rifle’ is written as ‘tik sik lik dik’
What is the code for 'go' in the given code language?
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Answer: (B) tik
Explanation
From the coding scheme, 'go' is common to all three sentences, so its code is 'tik'. Hence the answer is tik.
117Reasoning Ability
Statement: The performance of the newly recruited professional needs to be evaluated over a period of time before confirmation.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of recruitment offer.
II. Generally, an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.
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Answer: (E) If both I and II are implicit
Explanation
An evaluation period before confirming employment is instituted precisely because an individual's actual on-the-job performance cannot be fully determined at the initial stage of making a recruitment offer, making Assumption I implicit. Furthermore, establishing a trial or probation period operates on the presupposition that the candidate will utilize this timeframe to actively demonstrate their competence and prove their value to the organization, which makes Assumption II implicit as well.
118Reasoning Ability
Statement: Should existing laws on crime against women be made more stringent?
Arguments:
I. Yes, existing laws are not strong enough to deter criminals.
II. No, the problem is not with the laws, but with their implementation.
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Answer: (C) If either I or II is strong
Explanation
Since it is stated that the existing laws are not strong enough, argument I is strong. Argument II states that there is no problem with the laws but the problem is with implementation, so II is also strong. However, I and II are contradictory: one says the laws are insufficient and the other says they are sufficient. Hence either I or II is strong.
119Reasoning Ability
Statement: Should parents be involved in arranging the marriage of their children?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this has been the practice for ages.
II. No, individuals should have the freedom to choose their life partners.
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Answer: (B) If only argument II is strong
Explanation
In logical reasoning, an argument is considered strong when it is rational, directly addresses the core issue, and is grounded in fundamental human rights or established principles. Personal autonomy and the freedom of an individual to choose their own life partner represent a strong, universally recognized right. Conversely, justifying a practice solely on the grounds of long-standing tradition or past custom is an appeal to tradition, which lacks substantive logical justification and is considered a weak argument.
120Reasoning Ability
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. Three persons sit between C and D. Either C or D sits at an extreme end of the line. The one who faces D sits third to the left of R. S faces the one who sits third to the left of A and he cannot sit adjacent to R. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A. Only one person sits between P and T, who is facing the one sitting on the immediate right of E. Neither E nor F faces R. V and Q cannot sit adjacent to each other.
Who among the following faces D?
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Answer: (D) V
Explanation
Three persons sit between C and D, with either C or D at an extreme end of the line, and the person facing D sits third to the left of R. S faces the person sitting third to the left of A and cannot sit adjacent to R, which rules out one of the two possible cases. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A, only one person sits between P and T (who faces the person seated immediately to the right of E), neither E nor F faces R, and V and Q do not sit adjacent to each other. Working through these constraints places V in the position asked about. Hence the answer is V.
121Reasoning Ability
How many persons sit between A and E?
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Answer: (B) One
Explanation
Three persons sit between C and D, with either C or D at an extreme end of the line, and the person facing D sits third to the left of R. S faces the person sitting third to the left of A and cannot sit adjacent to R, which rules out one of the two possible cases. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A, only one person sits between P and T (who faces the person seated immediately to the right of E), neither E nor F faces R, and V and Q do not sit adjacent to each other. Working through these constraints, only one such position/pair satisfies all the conditions. Hence the answer is One.
122Reasoning Ability
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. Three persons sit between C and D. Either C or D sits at an extreme end of the line. The one who faces D sits third to the left of R. S faces the one who sits third to the left of A and he cannot sit adjacent to R. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A. Only one person sits between P and T, who is facing the one sitting on the immediate right of E. Neither E nor F faces R. V and Q cannot sit adjacent to each other.
Which of the following statements is true regarding F?
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Answer: (B) F faces Q
Explanation
Three persons sit between C and D, with either C or D at an extreme end of the line, and the person facing D sits third to the left of R. S faces the person sitting third to the left of A and cannot sit adjacent to R, which rules out one of the two possible cases. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A, only one person sits between P and T (who faces the person seated immediately to the right of E), neither E nor F faces R, and V and Q do not sit adjacent to each other. Working through these constraints, F faces Q. Hence the answer is 'F faces Q'.
123Reasoning Ability
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. Three persons sit between C and D. Either C or D sits at an extreme end of the line. The one who faces D sits third to the left of R. S faces the one who sits third to the left of A and he cannot sit adjacent to R. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A. Only one person sits between P and T, who is facing the one sitting on the immediate right of E. Neither E nor F faces R. V and Q cannot sit adjacent to each other.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
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Answer: (D) S
Explanation
Three persons sit between C and D, with either C or D at an extreme end of the line, and the person facing D sits third to the left of R. S faces the person sitting third to the left of A and cannot sit adjacent to R, which rules out one of the two possible cases. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A, only one person sits between P and T (who faces the person seated immediately to the right of E), neither E nor F faces R, and V and Q do not sit adjacent to each other. Working through these constraints places S in the position asked about. Hence the answer is S.
124Reasoning Ability
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting facing south. In row 2, P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member sitting in a row faces another member of the other row. Three persons sit between C and D. Either C or D sits at an extreme end of the line. The one who faces D sits third to the left of R. S faces the one who sits third to the left of A and he cannot sit adjacent to R. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A. Only one person sits between P and T, who is facing the one sitting on the immediate right of E. Neither E nor F faces R. V and Q cannot sit adjacent to each other.
Who among the following sits second to the right of the person who faces B?
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Answer: (C) R
Explanation
Three persons sit between C and D, with either C or D at an extreme end of the line, and the person facing D sits third to the left of R. S faces the person sitting third to the left of A and cannot sit adjacent to R, which rules out one of the two possible cases. The immediate neighbour of Q faces the immediate neighbour of A, only one person sits between P and T (who faces the person seated immediately to the right of E), neither E nor F faces R, and V and Q do not sit adjacent to each other. Working through these constraints places R in the position asked about. Hence the answer is R.
125Reasoning Ability
Statements:
Some keys are locks.
All locks are doors.
No door is a window.
Conclusions:
I. Some keys are windows.
II. No lock is a window.
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Answer: (D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Explanation
Neither conclusion I nor II follows from the given statement.
126Reasoning Ability
Statements:
All apples are bananas.
All bananas are cherries.
Some cherries are mangoes.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are mangoes.
II. All bananas are apples.
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Answer: (D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Explanation
From the statements, all apples are cherries (Apples ⊆ Bananas ⊆ Cherries). Since only some cherries are mangoes, the intersection between cherries and mangoes does not necessarily involve apples, so conclusion I does not follow. For conclusion II, the universal affirmative statement 'All apples are bananas' (A-type) converts by limitation only to the particular affirmative 'Some bananas are apples' (I-type), making 'All bananas are apples' invalid. Therefore, neither conclusion follows.
127Reasoning Ability
Statements:
Some pens are pencils.
Some pencils are erasers.
All erasers are sharpeners.
Conclusions:
I. Some sharpeners are pencils.
II. All pens being erasers is a possibility.
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Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows
Explanation
Only conclusion I follows from the given statement.
128Reasoning Ability
Direction: In question below are some statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some colours are reds. All reds are blacks. No black is a white.
Conclusions:
I. At least some colours are blacks.
II. All whites are colours.
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Answer: (A) Only conclusion I follows.
Explanation
Combining the first statement (Some colours are reds) with the second statement (All reds are blacks) directly yields the conclusion that Some colours are blacks. The phrase "at least some" is logically equivalent to "some", making Conclusion I definitely true. In contrast, there is no relation given that necessitates all whites being colours, so Conclusion II does not follow.
129Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
H*7)OM∧ %K⊕ L& 8P# & OY 7I4Q6R@8E6&W8)Z
How many letters are there in a sequence which is immediately preceded by a number or immediately followed by a symbol, letter counted only once?
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Answer: (D) Nine
Explanation
To find the letters satisfying the condition of being immediately preceded by a number or immediately followed by a symbol:
H is followed by symbol *.
M is followed by symbol ^.
K is followed by symbol ⊕.
L is followed by symbol &.
P is preceded by number 8 and followed by symbol #.
I is preceded by number 7.
Q is preceded by number 4.
R is preceded by number 6 and followed by symbol @.
E is preceded by number 8.
The other letters (O, O, Y, W, Z) satisfy neither condition. Thus, there are 9 such letters in total.
130Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
H*7)OM∧ %K⊕ L& 8P# & OY 7I4Q6R@8E6&W8)Z
If the first number is interchanged with the last number and the second number is interchanged with the second last number and so on upto the fourth number. Which of the following number is second to the right of the fourth letter from the left end?
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Answer: (C) 6
Explanation
Arranging the elements as per the given conditions gives two possible cases:
Case 1: H * 7 ) 0 M % K @ L & 8 P # & O Y 7 I 4 Q 6 R @ 8 E 6 & W 8 ) Z
Case 2: H * 8 ) 6 M % K @ L & 8 P # & O Y 6 I 4 Q 7 R @ 8 E 0 & W 7 ) Z
In both cases, L is the fourth element, and the element second to the right of L is 6. Hence the answer is 6.
131Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
H*7)OM∧ %K⊕ L& 8P# & OY 7I4Q6R@8E6&W8)Z
If we replace all the numbers to its place letter value. For example, 8 is replaced by H, then how many vowels are there in the series?
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Answer: (B) Three
Explanation
Arranging the elements as per the given conditions gives two possible cases:
Case 1: H * 7 ) 0 M % K @ L & 8 P # & O Y 7 I 4 Q 6 R @ 8 E 6 & W 8 ) Z
Case 2: H * G ) 0 M % K @ L & H P # & O Y G I D Q F R @ H E F & W H ) Z
Comparing the two cases and counting the positions that satisfy the given condition gives three. Hence the answer is Three.
132Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
H*7)OM∧ %K⊕ L& 8P# & OY 7I4Q6R@8E6&W8)Z
If we replace all the letters to its place number values then how many numbers are divisible by 4?
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Answer: (A) Seven
Explanation
Replacing each letter with its positional value in the English alphabet:
H = 8, O = 15, M = 13, K = 11, L = 12, P = 16, O = 15, Y = 25, I = 9, Q = 17, R = 18, E = 5, W = 23, Z = 26.
Among the replaced letter values, the numbers divisible by 4 are H (8), L (12), and P (16), giving 3 numbers.
Among the original numeric digits in the sequence, the numbers divisible by 4 are 8, 4, 8, and 8, giving 4 numbers.
Total count of numbers divisible by 4 = 3 + 4 = 7.
133Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
H*7)OM∧ %K⊕ L& 8P# & OY 7I4Q6R@8E6&W8)Z
Which of the following is seventh letter to the right of ninth number from the right end?
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Answer: (E) I
Explanation
Counting the numbers from the right end of the sequence gives 8, 6, 8, 6, 4, 7, 8, 0, and 7, making the first 7 the ninth number from the right end.
Moving to the right from this 7, the successive letters are M (1st), K (2nd), L (3rd), P (4th), O (5th), Y (6th), and I (7th).
134Reasoning Ability
Shalini walked 15m towards south, took a right turn and walked 3m. She took a right turn again and walked 15m before stopping. Which direction did Shalini face after stopping?
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Answer: (D) North
Explanation
Starting by walking south, Shalini faces South. A right turn rotates her heading 90° clockwise to face West. A second right turn rotates her heading another 90° clockwise to face North. After walking 15m North and stopping, her final facing direction is North.
135Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
W, X, Y, T, U, V and Z are seven colleagues, who live in seven storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1; the floor above it is numbered 2; and so on, until the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each of them works in different companies i.e. IOC, RIL, BPCL, SBI, Tata Motors, ONGC and HPCL but not necessarily in the same order. Z and X don't work in SBI. The one, who works in Tata motors, lives just above X. The one, who works in HPCL, lives above T. Z lives on the fifth floor. Neither X nor Z works in RIL. There are two floors between the floors on which X and V lives. The one, who works in ONGC, lives on the topmost floor. V lives on an even numbered floor. Y works in BPCL. There is only one floor between U and the one, who works in RIL. There are three floors between T and the one, who works in IOC.
Which of the following works in IOC?
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Answer: (D) The one, who lives two floors above X
Explanation
Arranging the seven persons and their respective companies from the topmost floor (7) to the ground floor (1):
Floor 7: W - ONGC
Floor 6: V - RIL
Floor 5: Z - IOC
Floor 4: U - Tata Motors
Floor 3: X - HPCL
Floor 2: Y - BPCL
Floor 1: T - SBI
X lives on floor 3 and Z lives on floor 5, which is two floors above X. Z works in IOC.
136Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
W, X, Y, T, U, V and Z are seven colleagues, who live in seven storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1; the floor above it is numbered 2; and so on, until the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each of them works in different companies i.e. IOC, RIL, BPCL, SBI, Tata Motors, ONGC and HPCL but not necessarily in the same order. Z and X don't work in SBI. The one, who works in Tata motors, lives just above X. The one, who works in HPCL, lives above T. Z lives on the fifth floor. Neither X nor Z works in RIL. There are two floors between the floors on which X and V lives. The one, who works in ONGC, lives on the topmost floor. V lives on an even numbered floor. Y works in BPCL. There is only one floor between U and the one, who works in RIL. There are three floors between T and the one, who works in IOC.
If V is related to Tata motors and T is related to HPCL then in the same way, Z is related to -
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Answer: (D) ONGC
Explanation
Arranging the seven colleagues and their companies from floor 7 to floor 1:
Floor 7: W (ONGC)
Floor 6: V (RIL)
Floor 5: Z (IOC)
Floor 4: U (Tata Motors)
Floor 3: X (HPCL)
Floor 2: Y (BPCL)
Floor 1: T (SBI)
In the given pattern, V on floor 6 is related to Tata Motors on floor 4 (two floors below), and T on floor 1 is related to HPCL on floor 3 (two floors above). Similarly, Z on floor 5 is related to the company two floors above on floor 7, which is ONGC.
137Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
W, X, Y, T, U, V and Z are seven colleagues, who live in seven storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1; the floor above it is numbered 2; and so on, until the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each of them works in different companies i.e. IOC, RIL, BPCL, SBI, Tata Motors, ONGC and HPCL but not necessarily in the same order. Z and X don't work in SBI. The one, who works in Tata motors, lives just above X. The one, who works in HPCL, lives above T. Z lives on the fifth floor. Neither X nor Z works in RIL. There are two floors between the floors on which X and V lives. The one, who works in ONGC, lives on the topmost floor. V lives on an even numbered floor. Y works in BPCL. There is only one floor between U and the one, who works in RIL. There are three floors between T and the one, who works in IOC.
How many persons are living above the one, who works in BPCL?
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Answer: (C) Five
Explanation
Placing Z on floor 5 and ONGC on floor 7, V must be on floor 6 (even floor) with X on floor 3 (two floors between V and X) so that Tata Motors is on floor 4 (just above X). Since T cannot be on floor 7 (HPCL is above T) and has three floors between it and IOC, T is on floor 1 and IOC is on floor 5. U is placed on floor 4 with RIL on floor 6 (one floor between U and RIL), which leaves W on floor 7, X on floor 3 (HPCL), and T on floor 1 (SBI). This places Y (BPCL) on the 2nd floor. Therefore, exactly 5 persons (on floors 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7) live above the one who works in BPCL.
138Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
W, X, Y, T, U, V and Z are seven colleagues, who live in seven storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1; the floor above it is numbered 2; and so on, until the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each of them works in different companies i.e. IOC, RIL, BPCL, SBI, Tata Motors, ONGC and HPCL but not necessarily in the same order. Z and X don't work in SBI. The one, who works in Tata motors, lives just above X. The one, who works in HPCL, lives above T. Z lives on the fifth floor. Neither X nor Z works in RIL. There are two floors between the floors on which X and V lives. The one, who works in ONGC, lives on the topmost floor. V lives on an even numbered floor. Y works in BPCL. There is only one floor between U and the one, who works in RIL. There are three floors between T and the one, who works in IOC.
Find the odd one.
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Answer: (D) V, SBI
Explanation
Arranging the colleagues from top to bottom based on the given conditions gives the unique floor-wise distribution:
Floor 7: W (ONGC)
Floor 6: V (RIL)
Floor 5: Z (IOC)
Floor 4: U (Tata Motors)
Floor 3: X (HPCL)
Floor 2: Y (BPCL)
Floor 1: T (SBI)
In all other pairs, the person and the employee of the given company live on immediately adjacent floors with a difference of one floor: W (7) and RIL (6), T (1) and BPCL (2), Z (5) and Tata Motors (4), and Y (2) and HPCL (3). In contrast, V lives on floor 6 while the person working in SBI lives on floor 1.
139Reasoning Ability
Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
W, X, Y, T, U, V and Z are seven colleagues, who live in seven storey building. The ground floor is numbered 1; the floor above it is numbered 2; and so on, until the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each of them works in different companies i.e. IOC, RIL, BPCL, SBI, Tata Motors, ONGC and HPCL but not necessarily in the same order. Z and X don't work in SBI. The one, who works in Tata motors, lives just above X. The one, who works in HPCL, lives above T. Z lives on the fifth floor. Neither X nor Z works in RIL. There are two floors between the floors on which X and V lives. The one, who works in ONGC, lives on the topmost floor. V lives on an even numbered floor. Y works in BPCL. There is only one floor between U and the one, who works in RIL. There are three floors between T and the one, who works in IOC.
Find the correct statement.
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Answer: (D) V lives three floors away from the one, who works in HPCL
Explanation
Placing the individuals and their companies on the seven floors from 7 to 1:
Floor 7: W (ONGC)
Floor 6: V (RIL)
Floor 5: Z (IOC)
Floor 4: U (Tata Motors)
Floor 3: X (HPCL)
Floor 2: Y (BPCL)
Floor 1: T (SBI)
Since V is on floor 6 and the person working in HPCL (X) is on floor 3, V lives exactly three floors away from the one who works in HPCL (6 - 3 = 3).