IBPS SO Prelims 2016 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

Applying the transformation rules to each digit of the number 2368547: 2 is even: 2 − 1 = 1 3 is odd: 3 + 2 = 5 6 is even: 6 − 1 = 5 8 is even: 8 − 1 = 7 5 is odd: 5 + 2 = 7 4 is even: 4 − 1 = 3 7 is odd: 7 + 2 = 9

The newly formed number is 1557739. Counting the frequency of each digit shows that 1, 3, and 9 appear once each, while both 5 and 7 appear twice.

Explanation

From Statement I, T is at the extreme left end since no person stands to the left of T. With two persons between T and Q, Q occupies the 4th position from the left. J is to the immediate right of Q, placing J at the 5th position from the left. Since J is 3rd from the right end, exactly 2 persons are standing to the right of J. Thus, the total number of persons in the line is 5 + 2 = 7.

Statement II provides relative positions from the left end but does not define the right end of the line, making it impossible to determine the total count.

Explanation

From Statement I, setting Point J at (0, 0): Point Q is at (-2.5, 0) and Point P is at (-2.5, -2.5). Since F is the midpoint of line segment PX of length 5m and X is due east of F, the points P, F, and X are collinear along the horizontal axis, placing X at (-2.5 + 5, -2.5) = (2.5, -2.5). The distance JX = √((2.5 - 0)² + (-2.5 - 0)²) = √(6.25 + 6.25) = 2.5√2 m. Statement I alone is sufficient.

From Statement II, setting Point Q at (0, 0): Point J is at (2.5, 0), Point R is at (0, -5), Point Z is at (5, -5), and Point X is at (5, -2.5). The distance JX = √((5 - 2.5)² + (-2.5 - 0)²) = √(2.5² + (-2.5)²) = 2.5√2 m. Statement II alone is also sufficient.

Explanation

The recommendation proposes removing negative marking from the exam. Statement I points out that removing negative marking encourages blind guessing rather than testing genuine knowledge, which opposes the recommendation. Statement II demonstrates that removing negative marking hampers the ability to accurately identify and select top-performing candidates. Since both statements present distinct negative consequences that argue against the proposed change, both statements weaken the given information.

Explanation

A direct causal link is established between employee participation in key decision-making and achieving optimal (100%) productivity. When employees are given a stake in organizational decisions, it enhances their sense of ownership, engagement, and morale, directly driving higher output and proving to be an effective strategy for employee motivation.

Explanation

Number the eight positions around the square table clockwise from 1 to 8, where odd positions (1, 3, 5, 7) are corners facing outward and even positions (2, 4, 6, 8) are side middles facing inward. For an outward-facing person, right is clockwise and left is counter-clockwise.

Placing P at corner 1 (facing outward), R sits third to the right (clockwise) at position 4. Since one person sits between O and R, and O has neighbour M who sits opposite L (three persons between them), O is placed at position 2 and M at corner position 3. N sits second to the right of M at corner position 5. L is opposite M at corner position 7. S sits to the immediate right of L at position 8, leaving Q at position 6.

Since L is seated at position 7 facing outward, the left direction from L is counter-clockwise. Moving two positions counter-clockwise from position 7 arrives at position 5, where N is seated. Therefore, N is second to the left of L.

Explanation

Placing P at a corner facing outside, moving 3 places to the right (counter-clockwise) places R at the middle of a side facing the centre.

Working through the remaining constraints gives the unique circular arrangement in counter-clockwise order: P (corner, outside), S (side, centre), L (corner, outside), Q (side, centre), N (corner, outside), R (side, centre), M (corner, outside), and O (side, centre).

Since R sits in the middle of a side facing the centre, the direction to the left of R proceeds along the sequence N (first to the left), Q (second to the left), and L (third to the left). Therefore, L sits third to the left of R.

Explanation

Placing P at a corner facing outward, moving in a clockwise direction puts the positions as: P at corner 1, O at side 1, M at corner 2, R at side 2, N at corner 3, Q at side 3, L at corner 4, and S at side 4.

Since R sits at the middle of a side facing the centre, the right of R is in the counter-clockwise direction. Moving counter-clockwise from R to S gives the sequence M, O, P, and then S, meaning exactly three persons (M, O, and P) sit between R and S.

Explanation

For persons facing outside, right is clockwise and left is counter-clockwise; for persons facing the centre, right is counter-clockwise and left is clockwise.

Arranging the 8 positions sequentially in clockwise order (1 to 8): Positions 1, 3, 5, 7 are corners facing outward. Positions 2, 4, 6, 8 are side centers facing inward.

Placing P at position 1 (corner, facing out), the person third to the right of P is at position 4, which is R. Since only one person sits between O and R, and M is an immediate neighbour of O with L opposite to M, O must be at position 2 and M at position 3. From M at position 3 (facing out), N sits second to the right at position 5, L sits opposite M at position 7, and S sits to the immediate right of L at position 8.

Since O is at position 2 facing the centre, moving two positions to the left (clockwise) leads to position 4, where R sits.

Explanation

Placing P at a corner facing outside, R sits third to the right of P at the middle of a side. O sits with one person between itself and R at a side position. M sits adjacent to O at a corner, and N sits second to the right of M at another corner. L sits opposite to M at the remaining corner, and S sits to the immediate right of L at a side position, leaving Q at the final side position. Thus, S, Q, O, and R sit in the middle of the sides facing the centre, while M sits at a corner facing outside.

Explanation

All the given statements are affirmative (All fares are prices, Some prices are costs, All costs are tariffs). From a set of purely affirmative premises, no definite universal negative conclusion can be derived. Therefore, negative conclusions asserting that no fare is a tariff and no cost is a fare do not follow.

Explanation

From the statements, Some Prices are Costs (P ∩ C ≠ ∅) and All Costs are Tariffs (C ⊆ T). Combining these gives P ∩ T ≠ ∅, which directly confirms that at least some prices are tariffs, so Conclusion I definitely follows.

For Conclusion II, all given statements are affirmative (universal or particular affirmative). Since there is no negative constraint separating tariffs from prices, the subset relation Tariffs ⊆ Prices is entirely consistent with all premises (such as in a scenario where Tariffs = Costs = Prices). Thus, all tariffs being prices is a valid possibility, meaning Conclusion II also follows.

Explanation

From the statements, proof is disjoint from both evidence and indication. However, no direct relation is defined between evidence and indication. Since there is no restriction preventing indication from being an entirely contained subset within evidence, the possibility case where all indications are evidences is logically valid. Therefore, only Conclusion I follows.

Explanation

From the given statements, no definite relationship can be established between tests and wins. Conclusion I is a universal negative proposition (No test is a win) and Conclusion II is a particular affirmative proposition (Some tests are wins). Since both conclusions share identical subject and predicate elements, cannot be definitively deduced on their own, and form an E-I complementary pair, exactly one of them must be true.

Explanation

From the statements, Some tests are exams and No exam is a challenge. This means the specific portion of tests that are exams can never intersect with challenges. Consequently, all tests can never be challenges, which makes Conclusion I logically follow.

Regarding Conclusion II, since Some challenges are wins and No exam is a challenge, only the portion of wins that are challenges is restricted from being exams (Some wins are not exams). Other wins may still be exams, so the absolute statement No win is an exam does not follow.

Explanation

Arranging the twelve persons across the two parallel rows based on the given conditions gives the following unique positions from left to right (positions 1 to 6):

Row 1 (facing South): N (pos 1), O (pos 2), R (pos 3), P (pos 4), Q (pos 5), M (pos 6) Row 2 (facing North): D (pos 1), B (pos 2), E (pos 3), A (pos 4), C (pos 5), F (pos 6)

At position 1, N in Row 1 directly faces D in Row 2.

Explanation

Row 1 faces South (from left to right on paper: positions 1 to 6; right is towards 1 and left is towards 6) and Row 2 faces North (left is towards 1 and right is towards 6).

Since B faces the person third to the right of Q, Q must be at position 6 (facing South), placing the person facing B at position 3, and B at position 3 in Row 2. Three persons sit between Q (position 6) and N, so N is at position 2. R is not adjacent to N or Q, which fixes R at position 4. Since A sits second to the left of the person facing M, M must be at position 3 (facing B), placing A at position 1 in Row 2. Three persons sit between F and the person facing O (A at position 1), which places F at position 5 in Row 2 and O at position 1 in Row 1.

The arrangement for Row 1 from position 1 to 6 is: O, N, M, R, P, Q. The person facing B is M (position 3). Since Row 1 faces South, the person sitting second to the right of M is O (position 1).

Explanation

Numbering the six positions from left to right as 1 to 6 (from the perspective of row 2 facing North):

In Row 1 (facing South): Position 1 is occupied by O. Position 2 is occupied by N. Position 3 is occupied by M. Position 4 is occupied by R. Position 5 is occupied by P. Position 6 is occupied by Q.

In Row 2 (facing North): Position 1 is occupied by A. Position 2 is occupied by D. Position 3 is occupied by B. Position 4 is occupied by E. Position 5 is occupied by F. Position 6 is occupied by C.

The persons sitting at the extreme ends of Row 1 are O and Q, and the persons sitting at the extreme ends of Row 2 are A and C.

Explanation

Based on the given conditions, the step-by-step seating arrangement from left to right (positions 1 to 6) is:

Row-1 (facing South): O (pos 1), N (pos 2), M (pos 3), R (pos 4), P (pos 5), Q (pos 6) Row-2 (facing North): A (pos 1), D (pos 2), B (pos 3), E (pos 4), F (pos 5), C (pos 6)

Facing pairs at corresponding positions: O faces A (pos 1) N faces D (pos 2) M faces B (pos 3) R faces E (pos 4) P faces F (pos 5) Q faces C (pos 6)

Among the five options: RM (Row-1, positions 4 and 3) and BE (Row-2, positions 3 and 4) face each other. PQ (Row-1, positions 5 and 6) and CF (Row-2, positions 6 and 5) face each other. AD represents positions 1 and 2 in Row-2, but its corresponding facing pair (ON in Row-1) is not present in the options, making AD the odd one out.

Explanation

Arranging the twelve persons in two parallel rows of six each from West (Position 1) to East (Position 6):

Row-1 (facing South): Position 1: N Position 2: O Position 3: R Position 4: P Position 5: Q Position 6: M

Row-2 (facing North): Position 1: D Position 2: B Position 3: E Position 4: A Position 5: C Position 6: F

Step-by-step deduction: Q is at position 5, so third to the right of Q is position 2 (O), which is faced by B at position 2. Three persons sit between Q (position 5) and N (position 1). R sits at position 3, ensuring it is not adjacent to N or Q. Three persons (at positions 3, 4, 5) sit between B (who faces O) and F (at position 6). M is placed at position 6 (facing F), and A is second to the left of F at position 4. P fills position 4 in Row-1. In Row-2, C cannot sit adjacent to B, so C is at position 5. Since N does not face E, D is at position 1 and E is at position 3.

E sits at position 3 in Row-2 and directly faces R at position 3 in Row-1.

Explanation

Let Q be the total number of cars sold in the third quarter (October, November, and December) of last year. The given condition states that 12,000 > 2 × Q, which simplifies to Q < 6,000. Because the combined sales of all three months in the quarter were strictly less than 6,000 cars, the sales in any individual month of that quarter, including December of last year, could not exceed or equal 6,000.

Explanation

The premise states that the Hardalt tribe, which originally created Kalkaar, ceased to exist long ago, yet the threadwork remains actively produced and in high demand. For an extinct tribe's craft to continue existing and fulfilling sustained market demand in the present day, people outside the original tribe must have learned the craft, preserved the technique, and carried its production forward.

Explanation

A valid reason for a decline in participation must identify the root cause or underlying circumstance that produced the outcome, such as administrative challenges, logistical issues, financial constraints, or academic consequences. Stating that parents are unwilling to send their children merely asserts an attitude or describes a manifestation of reduced participation rather than providing the explanatory cause behind why they became unwilling. Consequently, it functions as a descriptive assertion rather than an explanatory reason for the decrease in participants.

Explanation

Assign each letter in SHARPLY its alphabetical positional value: S = 19, H = 8, A = 1, R = 18, P = 16, L = 12, Y = 25.

A valid pair satisfies |Position difference in word| = |Alphabetical difference|:

S (position 1) and Y (position 7): Position difference = 7 - 1 = 6 Alphabetical difference = 25 - 19 = 6 Letters between them in word: H, A, R, P, L (5 letters) Letters between them in alphabet: T, U, V, W, X (5 letters)

H (position 2) and L (position 6): Position difference = 6 - 2 = 4 Alphabetical difference = 12 - 8 = 4 Letters between them in word: A, R, P (3 letters) Letters between them in alphabet: I, J, K (3 letters)

Testing all remaining letter combinations yields no other matching pairs, giving a total of 2 pairs.

Explanation

Assign the days from Monday to Sunday in sequence:

Since Q visits on Wednesday, Madrid must be visited on Monday (if visited on Friday, T would be on Saturday, placing Sydney on Monday and R on Wednesday, which conflicts with Q).

With Madrid on Monday, T visits on Tuesday. Four persons visit between T (Tuesday) and Sydney, placing Sydney on Sunday. R visits on Friday (one person between R and Sydney), which means Berlin is on Thursday (immediately before R).

Chicago must be on Tuesday as it is visited before Berlin and not on Wednesday. Since more than three persons visit between Chicago (Tuesday) and P, P visits Sydney on Sunday.

Miami is on Wednesday, leaving Saturday for S and Jakarta, because two persons visit between Miami and each of S and Jakarta. V does not visit Berlin, so V visits Madrid on Monday, leaving Thursday for U.

Therefore, S visits a city on Saturday.

Explanation

Arranging the schedule from Monday to Sunday based on the given conditions gives: Monday: V visits Madrid Tuesday: T visits Chicago Wednesday: Q visits Miami Thursday: U visits Berlin Friday: R visits Kabul Saturday: S visits Jakarta Sunday: P visits Sydney

R (Friday) is related to the city visited on Saturday (Jakarta), and T (Tuesday) is related to the city visited on Wednesday (Miami). Following the same pattern of the day immediately following, V (Monday) is related to the city visited on Tuesday, which is Chicago.

Explanation

Arranging the schedule from Monday to Sunday: Q visits on Wednesday (Day 3). Since one person visits between Q and Madrid, Madrid is on Monday (Case 1) or Friday (Case 2).

T visits immediately after Madrid, and four persons visit between T and Sydney. In Case 2, Madrid on Friday places T on Saturday and Sydney on Monday, making R on Wednesday (one person between Sydney and R), which contradicts Q being on Wednesday. Thus, Madrid is on Monday, T is on Tuesday, Sydney is on Sunday, and R is on Friday.

Berlin is immediately before R (Thursday). Chicago is before Berlin but not Wednesday, so Chicago is on Tuesday (visited by T). More than three persons visit between Chicago (Tuesday) and P, which places P on Sunday. Therefore, P visits Sydney.

Explanation

Placing the given conditions chronologically from Monday to Sunday:

Q visits on Wednesday. One person visits between Q and the Madrid visitor, placing Madrid on Monday (since Madrid on Friday puts T on Saturday, Sydney on Monday, and R on Wednesday, which conflicts with Q).

T visits on Tuesday, immediately after Madrid. Four persons visit between T (Tuesday) and Sydney, fixing Sydney on Sunday. One person visits between Sydney and R, placing R on Friday. Berlin is immediately before R, so Berlin is on Thursday.

Chicago is visited before Berlin and not on Wednesday, so Chicago is on Tuesday with T. More than three persons visit between Chicago (Tuesday) and P, fixing P on Sunday with Sydney.

Two persons visit between Miami and Jakarta, requiring them on Wednesday and Saturday. Two persons visit between S and Miami, placing Miami on Wednesday with Q, Jakarta on Saturday with S, and the remaining city Kabul on Friday with R.

Since V does not visit Berlin, V visits Madrid on Monday, leaving U to visit Berlin on Thursday.

Explanation

Based on the given conditions, the final arrangement from Monday to Sunday is: Monday: V (Madrid) Tuesday: T (Chicago) Wednesday: Q (Miami) Thursday: U (Berlin) Friday: R (Kabul) Saturday: S (Jakarta) Sunday: P (Sydney)

In all other pairs, the person is matched with the exact day of their visit, whereas T visits on Tuesday rather than Thursday.

Explanation

Placing Q on Wednesday gives two possibilities for Madrid: Monday or Friday. If Madrid is on Friday, T is on Saturday, Sydney is on Monday, and R would fall on Wednesday, which conflicts with Q.

Therefore, Madrid is on Monday, which fixes the remaining sequence: Monday: V visits Madrid Tuesday: T visits Chicago Wednesday: Q visits Miami Thursday: U visits Berlin Friday: R visits Kabul Saturday: S visits Jakarta Sunday: P visits Sydney

R is the person who visits Kabul on Friday.

Explanation

P must be on an odd floor below 6 (floor 1, 3, or 5), with Y immediately above P.

Placing P on floor 3 places Y on floor 4. Since three people live between Y and W, W is on floor 8. R is equidistant from W and Y, placing R on floor 6. Z lives on an odd floor below Y (floor 4) other than floor 3, which places Z on floor 1.

With floors 2, 5, and 7 remaining, placing Q on floor 7 and X on floor 5 satisfies the condition that Q lives above X with exactly one person between them. The remaining person S is placed on floor 2.

The complete floor arrangement from top to bottom (floors 8 to 1) is W, Q, R, X, Y, P, S, Z. Therefore, P lives on floor 3.

Explanation

From the given conditions, the floor arrangement from top to bottom (floors 8 to 1) is: Floor 8: W Floor 7: Q Floor 6: R Floor 5: X Floor 4: Y Floor 3: P Floor 2: S Floor 1: Z

In each of the options except S- Three, there is a gap of two floors (a numerical difference of 3) between the floor on which the person lives and the floor number given: W (floor 8) and floor five: 8 - 5 = 3 Y (floor 4) and floor one: 4 - 1 = 3 Q (floor 7) and floor four: 7 - 4 = 3 X (floor 5) and floor eight: 8 - 5 = 3 S (floor 2) and floor three: 3 - 2 = 1

Thus, S- Three does not belong to the group.

Explanation

Placing P on floor 3 gives Y immediately above on floor 4. Setting W on floor 8 creates three floors between Y and W, with R at the exact midpoint on floor 6. Z occupies floor 1 as an odd floor below Y. Placing Q on floor 7 and X on floor 5 leaves one person (R) between them with Q above X, leaving S on floor 2.

The floor arrangement from floor 8 to floor 1 is W, Q, R, X, Y, P, S, Z. Since S is on floor 2 and X is on floor 5, both P (floor 3) and Y (floor 4) live between S and X.

Explanation

From the given conditions, placing P on odd floor 3 gives Y on floor 4 immediately above P. With three floors between Y and W, W is on floor 8. R sits midway between W and Y on floor 6. Since Z lives on an odd floor below Y other than floor 3, Z is on floor 1. Placing Q above X with one floor between them places Q on floor 7 and X on floor 5, leaving S on floor 2.

The original arrangement from floor 8 down to floor 1 is W, Q, R, X, Y, P, S, Z. After Q interchanges with Y and W interchanges with S, the new positions become floor 8: S, floor 7: Y, floor 6: R, floor 5: X, floor 4: Q, floor 3: P, floor 2: W, floor 1: Z. Thus, Q is on floor 4 and W is on floor 2, so P lives between them on floor 3.

Explanation

P lives on an odd floor below 6 and Y lives immediately above P. When P is on floor 3, Y is on floor 4.

Since three persons live between Y and W, W lives on floor 8.

R lives equidistant between W and Y, which places R at floor (8 + 4) / 2 = 6.

Z lives on an odd floor below Y (other than floor 3), so Z is on floor 1. Placing Q on floor 7 and X on floor 5 satisfies the condition that Q lives above X with exactly one person between them, leaving floor 2 for S.

Therefore, R lives on floor six.

Explanation

From the given statements, combining the relations with respect to common element R gives S = R > H ≥ P. Comparing S and P, the chain contains a strict inequality S > P, which directly confirms P < S. For the second relation, L ≤ R and P < R yield opposing inequalities between L and P, meaning no definite relation can be determined between L and P. Therefore, only Conclusion I is true.

Explanation

From the given statements, linking the path from W to Y gives W ≥ A = S ≥ U ≥ Y, which simplifies directly to W ≥ Y, or equivalently Y ≤ W. For the relation between W and K, the chain is W ≥ A = S ≥ U < K. Because the inequality symbols face opposite directions (≥ and <) between W and K, no definite relation can be established between them. Therefore, only the second conclusion holds true.

Explanation

From the given statement, the relevant relations involving Y, W, and M are Y ≤ U < W and M ≥ W.

Connecting these through the common variable W gives Y ≤ U < W ≤ M. Because of the strict inequality between U and W, it follows that Y < M. Thus, Conclusion I is definitely true.

For Conclusion II, relating S and D via W gives S < W and D < W (from W > D). Since both S and D are less than W, the inequality signs are in opposite directions (S < W > D), meaning no definite relationship between S and D can be established.

Explanation

From the given statements, combining S ≤ P = Q < J gives the chain S ≤ P < J. Since S is less than or equal to P and P is strictly less than J, it follows that S < J is definitely true.

For the first conclusion, combining P ≤ L and P < J gives L ≥ P < J. Because both L and J are greater than or equal to P, their mutual relationship cannot be determined, making J > L not definitely true. Therefore, only Conclusion II is true.

Explanation

From the statements, connecting S and Y gives S ≤ P = Q ≤ Y, which simplifies directly to S ≤ Y. The relation S ≤ Y means that either S < Y or S = Y. Therefore, either Conclusion I (Y > S) or Conclusion II (S = Y) is true.

Explanation

In this machine arrangement, words starting with a vowel are arranged at the extreme left in alphabetical order, while words starting with a consonant are arranged at the extreme right in reverse alphabetical order.

Input: offense 71 vaccine 12 39 garage absorb 86 earlier 25 malign 64 Step I: absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 earlier 25 malign 64 vaccine Step II: earlier absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 25 64 vaccine malign

Positions in Step II: 1: earlier, 2: absorb, 3: offense, 4: 71, 5: 12, 6: 39, 7: garage, 8: 86, 9: 25, 10: 64, 11: vaccine, 12: malign

After interchanging absorb with 86, and 39 with vaccine: Position 2 becomes 86 and Position 8 becomes absorb. Position 6 becomes vaccine and Position 11 becomes 39.

The element 25 is at position 9. The element seventh to the left of 25 is at position 9 - 7 = 2, which is 86.

Explanation

The arrangement follows a dual-end shifting rule: In Steps I to III, words starting with vowels are placed at the left end in alphabetical order (absorb, earlier, offense), while words starting with consonants are placed at the right end in reverse alphabetical order (vacance, malign, garage). In Steps IV to VI, odd numbers are arranged at the left end in descending order (71, 39, 25), while even numbers are arranged at the right end in ascending order (12, 64, 86).

Step-by-step arrangement for the given input: Input: offense 71 vacance 12 39 garage absorb 86 earlier 25 malign 64 Step I: absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 earlier 25 malign 64 vacance Step II: earlier absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 25 64 vacance malign Step III: offense earlier absorb 71 12 39 86 25 64 vacance malign garage Step IV: 71 offense earlier absorb 39 86 25 64 vacance malign garage 12

In Step IV, the first two elements are 71, offense and the last two elements are garage, 12.

Explanation

The arrangement follows a two-phase rule: In Steps I to III, words starting with a vowel are arranged at the left end in alphabetical order (absorb, earlier, offense), while words starting with a consonant are shifted to the right end in reverse alphabetical order (vaccine, malign, garage). In Steps IV to VI, odd numbers are shifted to the left end in descending order (71, 39, 25), while even numbers are shifted to the right end in ascending order (12, 64, 86).

Tracing the steps for the given input: Input: offense 71 vaccine 12 39 garage absorb 86 earlier 25 malign 64 Step I: absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 earlier 25 malign 64 vaccine Step II: earlier absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 25 64 vaccine malign Step III: offense earlier absorb 71 12 39 86 25 64 vaccine malign garage Step IV: 71 offense earlier absorb 39 86 25 64 vaccine malign garage 12 Step V: 39 71 offense earlier absorb 86 25 vaccine malign garage 12 64

In Step V, the elements absorb 86 25 vaccine appear together in the exact specified order.

Explanation

In the given arrangement machine, words starting with vowels are moved to the extreme left in alphabetical order, while words starting with consonants are moved to the extreme right in reverse alphabetical order across Steps I to III.

The step-by-step rearrangement for the given input is: Input: offense 71 vacance 12 39 garage absorb 86 earlier 25 malign 64 Step I: absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 earlier 25 malign 64 vacance Step II: earlier absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 25 64 vacance malign Step III: offense earlier absorb 71 12 39 86 25 64 vacance malign garage

In Step III, the sequence from 25 to malign is: 25, 64, vacance, malign. Thus, the elements situated exactly between 25 and malign are 64 and vacance.

Explanation

In this machine rearrangement, the words starting with vowels are moved to the left in alphabetical order (one per step), while words starting with consonants are moved to the right in reverse alphabetical order (Steps I to III). Then, odd numbers are arranged at the left in descending order, while even numbers are arranged at the right in ascending order (Steps IV to VI).

For the given input: Input: offense 71 vacance 12 39 garage absorb 86 earlier 25 malign 64 Step I: absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 earlier 25 malign 64 vacance Step II: earlier absorb offense 71 12 39 garage 86 25 64 vacance malign Step III: offense earlier absorb 71 12 39 86 25 64 vacance malign garage Step IV: 71 offense earlier absorb 39 86 25 64 vacance malign garage 12 Step V: 39 71 offense earlier absorb 86 25 vacance malign garage 12 64 Step VI: 25 39 71 offense earlier absorb vacance malign garage 12 64 86

The 7th element from the left end is vacance. The element 3rd to its left is at position 7 - 3 = 4 from the left end, which is offense.

Explanation

Comparing the first and second statements, gloves is the common word and xa is the common code, so gloves corresponds to xa.

Comparing the second and third statements, two is the common word and sh is the common code, so two corresponds to sh.

In the second statement, the remaining words are pairs and of, and the remaining codes are yc and tx. Neither word appears in any other statement, so each of the codes tx and yc represents either of or pairs.

Explanation

Comparing the first statement "gloves are found there" (coded as "vg xa xe co") and the third statement "found two new friends" (coded as "wd vg mu sh"), the only common word between them is "found". Similarly, the only code common to both statements is "vg". Therefore, the code for "found" is "vg".

Explanation

Comparing "gloves are found there" (vg xa xe co) with "all packets are new" (om co mu qk), the only common word between the two sentences is "are".

Correspondingly, the only common two-letter code shared between their code representations is "co". Therefore, the code for "are" is "co".

Explanation

From the coded sentences: 'gloves are found there' = vg xa ze co 'two pairs of gloves' = sh yc ti xa 'found two new friends' = wd vg nu sh 'all packets are new' = om co nu qk

Comparing the common words across sentences: gloves = xa, found = vg, are = co, two = sh, new = nu. The word 'writer' does not appear in any sentence, so it must take an unused code. Thus 'new writer gloves' = nu + (unused code) + xa. Among the options, only 'xa nu dy' contains both xa and nu. Hence the code for 'new writer gloves' is xa nu dy.

Explanation

Comparing the given statements to find common words and their respective codes: From gloves are found there and all packets are new, the common word are has the code co. From found two new friends and all packets are new, the common word new has the code mu.

In the statement all packets are new (om co mu qk), removing are (co) and new (mu) leaves the words all and packets corresponding to the codes om and qk in some order.

Given that blue is coded as af, the complete code for all blue packets consists of the set {af, om, qk}, written as af om qk.

Explanation

Total work = 12 women × 32 days = 384 woman-days.

The same work is also completed by 15 men and 16 women in 6 days: Total work = (15 men + 16 women) × 6 = 90 man-days + 96 woman-days.

Equating the two expressions for total work: 90 men + 96 women = 384 women 90 men = 288 women 1 man = 288 / 90 = 3.2 women

Converting 10 men into equivalent women: 10 men = 10 × 3.2 = 32 women

Days required for 10 men = Total work / Rate of 10 men = 384 / 32 = 12 days.

Explanation

Simple Interest SI = (P × R × T) / 100

Interest from the first scheme: SI₁ = (P × 9 × 4) / 100 = 36P / 100

Interest from the second scheme: SI₂ = (P × 12 × 2) / 100 = 24P / 100

According to the given condition: SI₁ - SI₂ = 360 (36P - 24P) / 100 = 360 12P / 100 = 360 P = (360 × 100) / 12 = 3000

Explanation

Let the present ages of Ram, Sonu, and Tina be R, S, and T respectively. Given: T = R + 10 T = S - 10

Subtracting the first equation from the second gives the age difference: S - R = 20 years

The difference in age between two people remains constant over time. Four years ago, the ratio of Ram's age to Sonu's age was 4 : 9. Let their ages four years ago be 4x and 9x. 9x - 4x = 20 5x = 20 x = 4

Ram's age four years ago = 4 × 4 = 16 years. Ram's present age = 16 + 4 = 20 years. Tina's present age = 20 + 10 = 30 years.

Explanation

The quantity of liquid remaining after n operations of removing x litres from total capacity C is given by: Remaining Milk = Initial Milk × (1 - x/C)ⁿ

Substituting Initial Milk = 60 litres, x = 12 litres, C = 60 litres, and n = 2: Remaining Milk = 60 × (1 - 12/60)² = 60 × (1 - 1/5)² = 60 × (4/5)² = 60 × (16/25) = 38.4 litres

Explanation

Approximating each term in the expression: 1346.92 + 46.94 ≈ 1347 + 47 = 1394 ≈ 1400 99.9 ≈ 100 6.98 ≈ 7

Substituting these approximate values into the equation: √? ≈ (1400 ÷ 100) - 7 √? ≈ 14 - 7 = 7 ? ≈ 7² = 49

Explanation

Approximating the given numbers to their nearest integers: 32.01² ≈ 32² = (2⁵)² = 2¹⁰ 512⁽1/3) = (2⁹)⁽1/3) = 2³ 33.99² / 16.97² ≈ (34 / 17)² = 2²

Substituting these into the expression: (2¹⁰ × 2³ × 2²) / 2⁹ = 2⁽10 + 3 + 2 - 9) = 2⁶

Equating the base-2 exponent to the right-hand side gives 6.

Explanation

Approximating the numbers to their nearest convenient values: 14.99% of 4799.995 ≈ 15% of 4800 = 720 170% of 7.111 ≈ 1.70 × 7.1 ≈ 12.07 ≈ 12 (12)² = 144

Solving for the unknown: 720 ÷ ? = 144 ? = 720 ÷ 144 = 5

Explanation

3/20 of 239 = ? + (1.6 × 0.499) ⇒ 35.85 = ? + 0.7984 ⇒ ? ≈ 35.05

This value is closest to 30 among the given options. Hence the answer is 30.

Explanation

Approximating each term to its nearest integer value: √(1296.002) ≈ √1296 = 36 8.996 ≈ 9 9.98 ≈ 10 39.4 ≈ 40

Applying the order of operations (BODMAS): ? ≈ (36 ÷ 9) × 10 + 40 ? ≈ 4 × 10 + 40 ? = 40 + 40 = 80

Explanation

Let the population of village B in 2013 be B. Population of village A in 2013 = 1.30 × B. Population of village A in 2014 = 1.20 × (1.30 × B) = 1.56 × B.

Given that the population of village A in 2014 is 7176: 1.56 × B = 7176 B = 7176 / 1.56 = 4600

Explanation

Let Tom's initial money be T. Ali receives 20% of T. From this received amount, Ali spends 25% on fees and 35% on uniforms, totaling 60% in expenses. The remaining amount with Ali is 100% - 60% = 40% of what he received.

Remaining money = 40% × (20% × T) = 0.40 × 0.20 × T = 0.08 × T

Given that the remaining amount is Rs. 2800: 0.08 × T = 2800 T = 2800 / 0.08 = 35,000

Thus, Tom initially had Rs. 35,000.

Explanation

Ratio of profit share is given by Investment × Time period.

Ratio of shares of A, B, and C: A : B : C = (3500 × 12) : (2500 × 12) : (6000 × 8) A : B : C = 42000 : 30000 : 48000 = 7 : 5 : 8

Total profit units = 7 + 5 + 8 = 20 units. Difference between C's share and B's share = 8 - 5 = 3 units.

Given that 3 units = Rs. 1977: 1 unit = 1977 / 3 = Rs. 659

Total annual profit = 20 × 659 = Rs. 13,180

Explanation

For Shop A: Ratio of hardbound to paperback = 2 : 3 Given paperback books = 1200 (3 parts) Hardbound books sold by Shop A = (2/3) × 1200 = 800

For Shop C: Ratio of hardbound to paperback = 1 : 3 Given paperback books = 600 (3 parts) Hardbound books sold by Shop C = (1/3) × 600 = 200

Percentage less = [(Hardbound by A − Hardbound by C) / Hardbound by A] × 100 Percentage less = [(800 − 200) / 800] × 100 = (600 / 800) × 100 = 75%

Explanation

For shop A, paperbacks correspond to 3 parts out of 5 in the ratio 2:3. Total books sold by shop A = 1200 × (5/3) = 2000. Non-fiction books sold by shop A = (100% − 60%) of 2000 = 40% of 2000 = 800.

For shop B, paperbacks correspond to 5 parts out of 6 in the ratio 1:5. Total books sold by shop B = 1000 × (6/5) = 1200. Non-fiction books sold by shop B = (100% − 65%) of 1200 = 35% of 1200 = 420.

Required percentage = (420 / 800) × 100 = 52.5%.

Explanation

For shop B, the ratio of hardbound to paperback books is 1:5, where 5 units equal 1000 paperbacks. Total books sold by shop B = 1000 × (1 + 5)/5 = 1200.

For shop D, the ratio of hardbound to paperback books is 3:5, where 5 units equal 675 paperbacks. Total books sold by shop D = 675 × (3 + 5)/5 = 135 × 8 = 1080.

Percentage by which shop B exceeds shop D = [(1200 - 1080) / 1080] × 100 = (120 / 1080) × 100 = 100/9% = 11 1/9%.

Explanation

Total books sold by Shop A = 1200 × (2 + 3) / 3 = 2000 Fiction books sold by Shop A = 60% of 2000 = 1200

Total books sold by Shop B = 1000 × (1 + 5) / 5 = 1200 Fiction books sold by Shop B = 65% of 1200 = 780

Average number of fiction books sold by shops A and B = (1200 + 780) / 2 = 1980 / 2 = 990

Explanation

Number of paperback books sold by shop D in February 2015 = 675.

Number of paperback books sold by shop D in March 2015 = 675 × 1.20 = 810.

Since paperbacks constituted 50% of the total books sold by shop D in March 2015: Total books sold in March 2015 = 810 / 0.50 = 1620.

Explanation

Total books sold by Shop C = 600 × (1 + 3) / 3 = 800. Non-fiction percentage for Shop C = 100% - 70% = 30%. Number of non-fiction books sold by Shop C = 30% of 800 = 240.

Total books sold by Shop D = 675 × (3 + 5) / 5 = 1080. Non-fiction percentage for Shop D = 100% - 75% = 25%. Number of non-fiction books sold by Shop D = 25% of 1080 = 270.

Required ratio = 240 : 270 = 8 : 9.

Explanation

Distance covered by the first scooter from 10:00 am to 12:00 pm (in 2 hours) = 50 kmph × 2 h = 100 km.

Remaining distance between the two scooters at 12:00 pm = 140 km - 100 km = 40 km.

Since they move towards each other, their relative speed = 50 kmph + 30 kmph = 80 kmph.

Time taken to meet = Remaining distance / Relative speed = 40 / 80 = ½ hour = 30 minutes.

Meeting time = 12:00 pm + 30 minutes = 12:30 pm.

Explanation

Let the cost price of each mobile phone be CP. Total cost price = 2 × CP

Selling price of the first phone = 1.30 × CP Selling price of the second phone = 1.30 × CP - 2500

Total selling price = 1.30 × CP + (1.30 × CP - 2500) = 2.60 × CP - 2500

With an overall profit of 5%, total selling price = 1.05 × (2 × CP) = 2.10 × CP

Setting the two expressions equal: 2.60 × CP - 2500 = 2.10 × CP 0.50 × CP = 2500 CP = 2500 / 0.50 = Rs. 5000

Explanation

For the first quadratic equation, 2x² - 21x + 52 = 0: The factors of 2 × 52 = 104 that sum to -21 are -13 and -8. 2x² - 13x - 8x + 52 = 0 (2x - 13)(x - 4) = 0 x = 13/2 = 6.5 or x = 4

For the second quadratic equation, 2y² - 11y + 12 = 0: The factors of 2 × 12 = 24 that sum to -11 are -8 and -3. 2y² - 8y - 3y + 12 = 0 (2y - 3)(y - 4) = 0 y = 3/2 = 1.5 or y = 4

Comparing the obtained values of x and y: For x = 6.5: 6.5 > 4 and 6.5 > 1.5 (x > y) For x = 4: 4 = 4 and 4 > 1.5 (x ≥ y)

Combining these comparisons gives x ≥ y.

Explanation

For the first quadratic equation, 3x² - 13x + 14 = 0: Split the middle term using factors of 3 × 14 = 42 that sum to -13, which are -6 and -7. 3x² - 6x - 7x + 14 = 0 3x(x - 2) - 7(x - 2) = 0 (3x - 7)(x - 2) = 0 Thus, x = 2 or x = 7/3 (≈ 2.33).

For the second quadratic equation, 2y² - 5y + 3 = 0: Split the middle term using factors of 2 × 3 = 6 that sum to -5, which are -2 and -3. 2y² - 2y - 3y + 3 = 0 2y(y - 1) - 3(y - 1) = 0 (2y - 3)(y - 1) = 0 Thus, y = 1 or y = 3/2 (1.5).

Comparing all pairs of roots: 2 > 1 and 2 > 1.5 7/3 > 1 and 7/3 > 1.5 Since every value of x is strictly greater than every value of y, x > y.

Explanation

For equation I: 4x² - 8x + 3 = 0 Splitting the middle term: 4x² - 6x - 2x + 3 = 0 2x(2x - 3) - 1(2x - 3) = 0 (2x - 1)(2x - 3) = 0 x = 0.5, 1.5

For equation II: 4y² - 15y + 14 = 0 Splitting the middle term: 4y² - 8y - 7y + 14 = 0 4y(y - 2) - 7(y - 2) = 0 (4y - 7)(y - 2) = 0 y = 1.75, 2

Comparing the values: 0.5 < 1.75 and 0.5 < 2 1.5 < 1.75 and 1.5 < 2

Every value of x is strictly less than every value of y, establishing x < y.

Explanation

For equation I: 2x² - 9x + 9 = 0 Factorizing the quadratic equation: 2x² - 6x - 3x + 9 = 0 2x(x - 3) - 3(x - 3) = 0 (2x - 3)(x - 3) = 0 x = 1.5, 3

For equation II: y² - 7y + 12 = 0 Factorizing the quadratic equation: y² - 4y - 3y + 12 = 0 y(y - 4) - 3(y - 4) = 0 (y - 3)(y - 4) = 0 y = 3, 4

Comparing the values of x and y: 1.5 < 3, 1.5 < 4, 3 = 3, and 3 < 4. This gives the relation x ≤ y.

Explanation

For equation I: 4x² + 19x + 22 = 0 4x² + 8x + 11x + 22 = 0 4x(x + 2) + 11(x + 2) = 0 (4x + 11)(x + 2) = 0 x = -2, -2.75

For equation II: 2y² + 11y + 15 = 0 2y² + 6y + 5y + 15 = 0 2y(y + 3) + 5(y + 3) = 0 (2y + 5)(y + 3) = 0 y = -2.5, -3

Comparing the roots: When x = -2, x > -2.5 and x > -3. When x = -2.75, x < -2.5 and x > -3. Since x is greater than y for some values and less than y for others, no consistent relationship can be established between x and y.

Explanation

For equation I, factorize x² + 8x + 15 = 0 into (x + 3)(x + 5) = 0, giving roots x = -3, -5.

For equation II, factorize y² + 3y + 2 = 0 into (y + 1)(y + 2) = 0, giving roots y = -1, -2.

Comparing all pairs: -3 < -1 and -3 < -2 -5 < -1 and -5 < -2

Every value of x is strictly less than every value of y, establishing x < y.

Explanation

The relation between consecutive terms is given by the formula: T(n+1) = (T(n) / 3) - 1

Applying the formula across the series: (606 / 3) - 1 = 202 - 1 = 201 (201 / 3) - 1 = 67 - 1 = 66 (66 / 3) - 1 = 22 - 1 = 21 (21 / 3) - 1 = 7 - 1 = 6 (6 / 3) - 1 = 2 - 1 = 1

Explanation

The series follows the pattern: Term(n) = Term(n-1) × k + k, where k increases by 0.5 at each step.

19 × 0.5 + 0.5 = 10 10 × 1.0 + 1.0 = 11 11 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 18 18 × 2.0 + 2.0 = 38 38 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 95 + 2.5 = 97.5

Explanation

The series follows the pattern of multiplying by n and subtracting (n + 1), where n starts from 1:

6 × 1 - 2 = 4 4 × 2 - 3 = 5 5 × 3 - 4 = 11 11 × 4 - 5 = 39 39 × 5 - 6 = 189

The missing number is 39.

Explanation

The difference between consecutive terms alternates in sign with magnitudes given by n × (n + 1): 24 + (1 × 2) = 26 26 - (2 × 3) = 20 20 + (3 × 4) = 32 32 - (4 × 5) = 12 12 + (5 × 6) = 42

Explanation

Find the differences between consecutive terms: 19 - 18 = 1 24 - 19 = 5 37 - 24 = 13 66 - 37 = 29

Now find the second differences: 5 - 1 = 4 13 - 5 = 8 29 - 13 = 16

The second differences follow a geometric progression with a common ratio of 2 (4, 8, 16, 32...). The next difference is 29 + 32 = 61. Therefore, the next number in the series is 66 + 61 = 127.

Explanation

Calculate the differences between consecutive terms: 19.6 - 19 = 0.6 20.8 - 19.6 = 1.2 23.2 - 20.8 = 2.4 28 - 23.2 = 4.8

The common pattern is that each successive difference is multiplied by 2: 0.6 × 2 = 1.2 1.2 × 2 = 2.4 2.4 × 2 = 4.8

Following this pattern, the next difference is 4.8 × 2 = 9.6. The next term in the series is 28 + 9.6 = 37.6.

Explanation

The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is given by the formula 2πrh.

From statement I, the base area is πr² = 154 cm², yielding r = √(154 × 7 / 22) = 7 cm, but the height h remains unknown.

From statement II, the volume is πr²h = 1232 cm³, which contains two variables and cannot be solved alone.

Combining both statements gives height h = Volume / Base Area = 1232 / 154 = 8 cm. Using r = 7 cm and h = 8 cm, the curved surface area is 2 × (22/7) × 7 × 8 = 352 cm².

Explanation

Let r be the radius of the circular field.

From Statement I, the diagonal of the largest inscribed square equals the diameter of the circle (2r). The area of this square is ½ × (diagonal)² = ½ × (2r)² = 2r² = 2450 cm², which gives r² = 1225 cm². The area of the circle is πr² = (22/7) × 1225 = 3850 cm². Thus, Statement I alone is sufficient.

From Statement II, the side of the circumscribing square equals the diameter of the circle (2r). The area of this square is (2r)² = 4r² = 4900 cm², which gives r² = 1225 cm². The area of the circle is πr² = (22/7) × 1225 = 3850 cm². Thus, Statement II alone is sufficient.

Since both statements independently yield the area of the circular field, either statement alone is sufficient.

Explanation

From Statement I: Combined 1-day work of A, B, and C = 1 / (48/13) = 13/48. Combined 1-day work of A and B = 1 / (24/5) = 5/24 = 10/48. Therefore, C's 1-day work = (A + B + C) - (A + B) = 13/48 - 10/48 = 3/48. Combined 1-day work of B and C = 1 / (48/7) = 7/48. Hence, B's 1-day work = (B + C) - C = 7/48 - 3/48 = 4/48 = 1/12, which gives 12 days for B alone. Statement I alone is sufficient.

From Statement II: Combined 1-day work of A, B, and C = 13/48. Combined 1-day work of A and C = 1 / (16/3) = 3/16 = 9/48. Therefore, B's 1-day work = (A + B + C) - (A + C) = 13/48 - 9/48 = 4/48 = 1/12, which also gives 12 days for B alone. Statement II alone is sufficient.

Explanation

From Statement I, let the initial quantities of juice and water be 8x and 3x litres respectively, giving a total mixture of 11x litres.

From Statement II, 11 litres of the mixture is removed, containing 8 litres of juice and 3 litres of water. After adding 6 litres of juice, the new quantities are: Juice = 8x - 8 + 6 = 8x - 2 litres Water = 3x - 3 litres

Given the new ratio is 10:3: (8x - 2) / (3x - 3) = 10 / 3 3(8x - 2) = 10(3x - 3) 24x - 6 = 30x - 30 6x = 24, which gives x = 4.

The initial quantity of mixture = 11x = 11 × 4 = 44 litres. Neither statement alone provides sufficient information, but both together uniquely determine the initial quantity.

Explanation

Statement I provides only percentage distributions without any concrete monetary figure, so the total amount cannot be determined from it.

From Statement II, let the total retirement fund be T. Expenditure on son's wedding and wife = 5% + 35% = 40% of T. Remaining money = 100% - 40% = 60% of T. From this remaining money, the percentage spent on investments = 28% + 22% + 35% = 85%. The leftover portion of the remaining money = 100% - 85% = 15%. This gives: 15% of 60% of T = ₹4,50,000 0.15 × 0.60 × T = ₹4,50,000 0.09 × T = ₹4,50,000 T = ₹50,00,000

Statement II alone is sufficient to calculate the retirement fund.

Explanation

Downstream speed = 15 + 3 = 18 km/h Upstream speed = 15 − 3 = 12 km/h

Let the time taken for each trip be t hours. Difference in distance covered = (18 − 12) × t = 24 km 6t = 24 t = 4 hours

Distance from B to C = Upstream speed × t = 12 × 4 = 48 km

Time taken to travel from C to B downstream = Distance / Downstream speed = 48 / 18 = 8/3 hours = 2 hours 40 minutes

Explanation

In forensic science and investigative contexts, the standard terminology for collecting physical evidence or chemical residues from a scene is to lift samples. Furthermore, the verb ascertain correctly pairs with whether to express the objective of determining or finding out with certainty if explosive traces exist.

Explanation

The sentence describes a scientific discovery regarding the relationship between body fat and taste sensitivity. The verb "found" functions as the past participle following "have" to report research findings, while "associated" appropriately pairs with the preposition "with" to express that one condition is linked to or correlated with another.

Explanation

The sentence requires a transitive verb denoting the act of supplying or serving food to a beneficiary group, alongside an appropriate modifier for a numerical count. The verb "provides" correctly indicates supplying mid-day meals, while "over" functions appropriately as a quantifier meaning more than one million school children.

Explanation

The sentence requires a noun to act as the subject regarding the progress of construction work and a gerund that logically connects to tackling a deficiency. Completion refers to the successful conclusion of building the new educational institutions, which directly enables them to produce graduates, thereby addressing the existing shortage of engineers in the region.

Explanation

The relative pronoun "that" refers to the singular noun antecedent "a movie", requiring a third-person singular present tense verb. Horror and comedy represent distinct artistic and cinematic categories, making "genres" the precise plural noun to complete the phrase describing the combination of these contrasting styles within a single film.

Explanation

The passage highlights that six of the hottest years on record since 1880 have taken place since 2004, alongside a continuous decline in sea ice extent and thickness over recent decades. These climatic statistics demonstrate that temperatures have been rising significantly in recent times.

Explanation

The passage notes that gathering data in the Arctic Ocean has historically been difficult, but the Marginal Ice Zone (MIZ) programme employs an elaborate network of sensors and Seagliders to measure crucial oceanic parameters. The author expresses a hopeful attitude through the phrase "With luck", anticipating that the researchers will successfully collect extensive data on the seasonal melting of the Arctic ice sheet to better comprehend the impacts of global climate change.

Explanation

Short-lived climate forcers such as methane, tropospheric ozone, and black carbon (soot) have a powerful greenhouse effect despite lingering in the atmosphere for a relatively short duration. In sensitive environments like the Arctic, deposited soot directly absorbs solar radiation on bright ice surfaces, accelerating seasonal melting and driving global climate warming.

Explanation

In the passage, the adverb "fairly" modifies the adjective "recent" to indicate degree or extent, expressing that the activity began relatively or quite recently rather than referring to justice, honesty, or impartiality.

Explanation

Passage sentence: 'gathering data in the Arctic Ocean is "hard"' — 'hard' here means difficult/demanding. The antonym among the options is 'undemanding' (b); the other options (delicate, sensitive, flexible, durable) are not opposites of 'difficult'.

Explanation

The phrase draws on the historical practice of miners carrying canaries into coal mines as an early warning system for toxic gases. In the context of the passage, the Arctic serves a similar function because it is uniquely and rapidly sensitive to rising global temperatures and shifts in greenhouse gases, acting as an early indicator of broader climate changes across the planet.

Explanation

The passage details that systematic data collection in the Arctic Ocean has begun under the Marginal Ice Zone (MIZ) programme, which is funded by the United States Navy. This programme utilizes a network of sensors and Seaglider robots to gather data on the seasonal melting of the ice sheet, seawater temperature, salinity, and ice layer thickness.

Explanation

The passage states that details regarding the shrinking ice cover remain obscure primarily because gathering data in the Arctic Ocean is inherently hard due to severe environmental and oceanic conditions. It mentions carbon monoxide and methane purely as an analogy for coal-mine canaries, with no reference to toxic gas concentrations, geopolitical boundary disputes, or a lack of scientific interest impeding data collection efforts in the Arctic.

Explanation

Sea ice monitoring has verified that mathematical simulations and predictive models of global warming are roughly accurate while simultaneously enabling scientists to reconstruct historical Arctic climate records dating back at least 2,000 years.

Explanation

The passage establishes the Arctic as the canary in global warming, serving as an early warning indicator of planetary climate shifts. It highlights the significance of systematic monitoring initiatives, such as the Marginal Ice Zone programme and satellite tracking, to measure sea-ice decline, water properties, and the potent heating effects of short-lived climate forcers like black carbon.

Explanation

The subject the planet is singular, so it requires the third-person singular present tense verb spins to state an ongoing scientific fact. Furthermore, expressing a comparison between the rotational speed of this planet and other celestial objects requires the comparative form faster followed by the conjunction than rather than the adverb then.

Explanation

The phrase "there is much to be learnt" is grammatically correct and idiomatically standard. The quantifier "much" functions as a pronoun modified by the passive infinitive "to be learnt", which appropriately expresses that a significant amount of knowledge can be gained or derived from the subject.

Explanation

In the phrase modifying the noun power, the appropriate adjective to describe a small amount or magnitude is low. The adverb very correctly intensifies the adjective low, forming the standard phrase very low power. The word lowly means humble in status or condition and is grammatically incorrect in this context.

Explanation

A present participle phrase is used after a comma to indicate the direct result or consequence of the preceding clause. The verb form raising correctly takes the direct object expectations, functioning as a non-finite clause that describes the outcome of China's slowing economic growth.

Explanation

In the given sentence, the auxiliary verb is is already present before the verb phrase. Following the auxiliary verb is in the active voice, the main verb must be in its present participle form (verb + ing) to form the present continuous tense. Replacing only adds to with only adding to yields is only adding to, which correctly completes the predicate and maintains subject-verb agreement.

Explanation

The idiomatic phrase "back on track" means returning to the right path, schedule, or previous good condition after experiencing a slowdown or disruption. It functions correctly in the context of restoring global economic growth through technological innovation. The other phrasing options are ungrammatical and alter the intended idiomatic meaning.

Explanation

The subject pronoun "we" is first-person plural and takes the base verb form "operate" in the simple present tense to maintain subject-verb agreement. The preposition "in" is the standard idiom used to describe functioning inside a specific context or setting, making "operate in" the correct phrasing.

Explanation

A modal auxiliary verb like can or could must be followed directly by the base form of the verb, which is be. Additionally, the comparative adjective less is required to maintain grammatical parallelism with the comparative conjunction than in the phrase less productive than more homogeneous teams. Combining the modal can with the base verb be and the comparative less yields a grammatically sound and meaningful sentence.

Explanation

In the present continuous tense, questions beginning with an interrogative pronoun acting as the subject follow the structure: Wh-word + auxiliary verb (is/are) + present participle (verb-ing). Therefore, the auxiliary verb precedes the main verb participle to form the grammatically correct question asking about an ongoing situation.

Explanation

The verb "let" is followed by an object and a bare infinitive (base form of the verb without "to"), requiring "go" rather than "gone" or "going" in the idiomatic expression "let oneself go" (meaning to neglect one's appearance or well-being). Additionally, "since" is the appropriate conjunction used with the present perfect tense ("has let") to denote the point in time in the past when the action began ("since he lost his job").

Explanation

In subject-verb agreement, a plural noun requires a plural verb. The noun children is irregular plural, so it must be followed by the plural verb demand rather than the singular form demands.

Explanation

The preposition on is unnecessary before the adverbial time expression modifying the preposition before. The correct phrasing is arrived only ten minutes before the actress, making the inclusion of on grammatically redundant.

Explanation

The word lately is an adverb meaning recently, which does not fit the context of describing time or timeliness after a linking verb. The predicate requires the adjective late to convey that the appropriate time for the activity has passed, making the correct phrasing It is a little late to play.

Explanation

The correct prepositional usage following the adjective annoyed to denote displeasure about an incident or situation is at, about, or by. Using the preposition on with annoyed is ungrammatical; the phrase should correctly read quite annoyed at it or quite annoyed about it.

Explanation

The sentence is grammatically correct in all its components. The gerund phrase "Drinking herbal tea" functions properly as the singular subject. The modal verb construction "can help" correctly takes the objective pronoun "you" followed by the bare infinitive "calm down", which is a standard complementation pattern for the verb "help". The prepositional phrase "during a stressful time" correctly modifies the action of calming down.

Explanation

The correct idiomatic expression is into a tizzy or in a tizzy, which denotes a state of nervous excitement, confusion, or agitation. Fizzy is an adjective describing effervescence or carbonation and cannot be used as a noun in this context. Replacing fizzy with tizzy makes the sentence grammatically and idiomatically sound.

Explanation

The infinitive marker "to" requires the base form of the verb (to + V1) when expressing purpose or intent. The phrase "to expediting" incorrectly uses a gerund/present participle and should be replaced with the base verb "to expedite".

Explanation

The noun plane requires an adjective to modify it. The compound adjective ill-fated, meaning destined to experience misfortune or disaster, is the grammatically correct form rather than the noun phrase ill-fate.

Explanation

The sentence is grammatically correct. The plural subject noun phrase is correctly followed by the simple past transitive verb, the participial clause properly modifies the subject, and the plural possessive pronoun agrees with the plural antecedent.

Explanation

The correct idiom or phrasal verb to denote paying a brief, informal, or unexpected visit is 'drop in' or 'drop by'. Therefore, the preposition 'in' or 'by' is missing after the verb 'dropped', and the correct phrase should be 'he dropped in for a visit' or 'he dropped by for a visit'.

Explanation

The paragraph opens with sentence F, which introduces the overarching theme of global food waste and mentions the findings of a report. Sentence C immediately follows by using the pronoun reference "It said" to elaborate on that report's specific findings regarding Asian countries, particularly India and China, making C the second sentence in the logical sequence F-C-A-E-B-D.

Explanation

The paragraph opens with F, introducing the global food waste statistics from a report. Sentence C follows logically with "It said", referring to the report and naming India and China as major culprits. Sentence A connects to C by comparing "these two Asian countries" and highlighting India's pre- and post-harvest waste in agricultural crops. Sentence D follows A, concluding the point about agricultural produce waste. Sentence E transitions to the broader category of overall food waste and India's seventh rank, which is then explained in sentence B. Therefore, the fourth sentence in the coherent sequence F-C-A-D-E-B is D.

Explanation

The sentence introduces the overarching topic by presenting global statistics on food wastage and citing a report. It functions as an independent opening statement, providing the necessary antecedent for the pronoun reference in the succeeding sentence, which elaborates on the findings of the report regarding specific regions.

Explanation

The paragraph opens with sentence F, which introduces the global statistic on food waste citing a report. Sentence C immediately follows, connecting through the pronoun referent referring back to the report and highlighting Asian countries, specifically India and China. Sentence A logically succeeds sentence C by using the phrase referring back to India and China to discuss India's contribution to crop waste. Following this, sentence E shifts to India's overall ranking, sentence B explains the reason for that ranking based on agricultural land use, and sentence D concludes the logical chain by linking agricultural land use to the high waste in crops. Therefore, sentence A is the third sentence in the coherent sequence F-C-A-E-B-D.

Explanation

The paragraph opens with F, which introduces the global food waste scenario cited in a report. Sentence C directly follows by detailing the report findings regarding Asian countries (India and China). Sentence A narrows down the focus to India between the two Asian nations. Sentence E introduces India's seventh rank in overall food waste, which is explained by sentence B regarding agricultural land usage. Finally, sentence D logically concludes the paragraph by linking India's agricultural land dominance to having the highest waste in cereals, pulses, fruits, and vegetables. Thus, the complete correct sequence is F-C-A-E-B-D, making D the sixth and final sentence.

Explanation

The idiomatic phrasal verb 'cut through' means to deal effectively with or bypass complex rules, procedures, or obstacles. In the context of economic reforms, cutting through red tape refers to simplifying official procedures and dismantling excessive bureaucratic regulations to promote economic growth and enterprise.

Explanation

In the context of the sentence, an adverb is required to modify the verb responded. Because the following clause describes a positive outcome with a healthy annual growth rate averaging close to 7 percent, the adverb well appropriately describes the economy's favorable reaction to the economic reforms.

Explanation

The conjunction "whether" is used to introduce alternative possibilities, functioning as part of the correlative construction "whether ... or ...". In the passage, it appropriately links the two categories of firms operating in the market, expressing that the economic growth benefited all companies regardless of whether they were of Indian or foreign origin.

Explanation

The modal auxiliary verb "will" requires a base form of a verb (V1) to complete the predicate of the subordinate clause. Contextually, the conjunction "while" introduces a contrast, indicating that even though opportunities for growth will continue to occur or take place in the future, certain product categories are reaching market saturation. The intransitive verb "happen" correctly completes the clause both grammatically and logically to signify the occurrence or materialization of growth opportunities.

Explanation

In business and marketing terminology, to tap a market or customer segment means to access, exploit, or draw resources from it. In the context of market saturation and high penetration rates, the most profitable or lucrative consumers have already been reached and utilized, making tapped the contextually and grammatically correct choice.

Explanation

In the context of business and economic development, the verb to sustain means to maintain, support, or keep an ongoing process in existence over an extended period. Following the infinitive marker to, the passage discusses the strategic need for firms to maintain their financial momentum and expansion despite market saturation, making sustain the most contextually and grammatically fitting choice to pair with growth and profitability.

Explanation

The passage discusses India's multifaceted issues, highlighting interrelated problems such as widespread poverty, low literacy, inadequate healthcare, and poor nutrition. The adjective complex precisely describes intricate, multidimensional problems that require innovative solutions to overcome.

Explanation

The phrase "only if" functions as a conditional connector specifying a necessary condition or prerequisite. In the context of the passage, India's economic and geopolitical aspirations will carry genuine significance exclusively on the condition that performance on social indicators is rapidly improved. The other words do not form a grammatically valid or idiomatic conditional clause with "if".

Explanation

In blank (149), the noun "constraints" functions as the head noun modified by "resource" to form the compound noun phrase "resource constraints". This standard term refers to the limitations and scarcity of available capital, infrastructure, and administrative capacity required to address socioeconomic challenges.

Explanation

Following the preposition in, a gerund is grammatically required to function as the object of the preposition. The verb addressing means actively dealing with, tackling, or resolving problems, which fits the context of handling the country's social challenges and issues.