Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote- controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see ⁴⁺ and ' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
What is the underlying cause of a spark's occurrence?
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Answer: (A) The flow of electrons, from a point with an excess of electrons to a point with a shortage of electrons.
Explanation
According to the passage, a spark is created when electrons travel through the air between two points due to an extreme difference in electron concentration, moving from a region containing a surplus of electrons to one deficient in electrons.
2English Language
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote- controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see ⁴⁺ and ' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
How do electrons create a pathway for themselves in thin air without a physical wire?
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Answer: (B) They create a temporary conductive path by breaking up air molecules and forming ions
Explanation
Electrons overcome the insulating nature of air by breaking up air molecules into ions and freeing atomic electrons. This ionization process creates a temporary conductive channel in the air that functions like a wire, enabling the charge to traverse the gap as a spark.
3English Language
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote-controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see ^′^′ + ^′^′ and ' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
When does a spark occur in a battery?
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Answer: (B) When the battery is short-circuited
Explanation
Passage explains sparks occur when a large charge imbalance discharges through air rather than a controlled wire path; among the options, a short-circuited battery (sudden low-resistance discharge, often with arcing) is the real-world scenario matching this description. 'Connected to a circuit' (d) is explicitly the normal current-flow case, not a spark.
4English Language
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote-controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see ^′^′ + ^′^′ and ' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
What happens when the gap between electron surplus and deficiency becomes too extreme?
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Answer: (C) Electrons lose patience and create a spark by flying through the air
Explanation
According to the passage, when the difference between the surplus and deficiency of electrons becomes extreme, the electrons break up air molecules to ionize the path and fly through the air, producing a visible spark.
5English Language
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote- controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see '+' and '-' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
What is the similarity between a spark's occurrence and human society?
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Answer: (D) Both experience gradual unrest leading to sudden disturbances
Explanation
According to the passage, when the gap between the surplus and deficiency of electrons becomes extreme, electrons suddenly fly through the air to cause a disruption. The author explicitly compares this mechanism to human society, where tension or dissatisfaction builds up slowly over time until it suddenly erupts into a surprisingly large unrest.
6English Language
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote- controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see '+' and '-' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
What enables electrons to move easily through the air when a spark occurs?
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Answer: (D) The presence of conductive particles in the air
Explanation
Passage: electrons break up air molecules mid-air creating ions and free electrons, forming 'a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air.' This directly describes conductive particles (ions/free electrons) in the air, matching option (d).
7English Language
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote- controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see ' ^+ ' and ' ^+ ' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
What is a synonym for the word "equitable" as used in the passage?
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Answer: (B) just
Explanation
The word equitable means characterized by fairness, justice, and impartiality. In the passage, it describes the natural tendency of electrons to seek balance and eliminate disparities in their distribution, making just the appropriate synonym.
8English Language
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote- controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see ^′ + ^′ and ' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
What is the antonym of the word "surplus" as used in the passage?
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Answer: (A) deficiency
Explanation
The word surplus denotes an amount or quantity that is greater than what is needed or standard. In contrast, deficiency signifies a state of lacking, shortage, or insufficiency, making it the direct antonym in the given context.
9English Language
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
A spark is essentially an electric charge flying in the air between two points, one of which has a large quantity of surplus electrons while the other has too few. This difference in quantities of electrons can happen due to many reasons. Sometimes people have engineered it this way using chemicals: the simplest example is the battery that we use in everything from remote- controls to electric vehicles.
A point with a large number of surplus electrons is called the negative terminal (since electrons are negatively charged) and a point that is deficient of electrons is the positive terminal. This is why you see ^′ + ^′ and ' signs marked on every battery. In most situations - and unlike some people - electrons are extremely equitable in nature and dislike this difference in their quantities. So, given an opportunity, they will travel from a place where they are more in number to a place where they are fewer in number. This is why current flows when we attach a wire between the two ends of a battery, and in the process we make our fans move, or bulbs light up, etc. However, if we don't attach a wire and the electrons still want to move, what will they do?
If the gap between the surplus and the deficiency of electrons becomes too extreme, at some point, these electrons will lose all patience and decide to fly through the air, disrupting everything in between. This is not very dissimilar to human society. Sometimes, you might notice that something upsets people slowly over time, and then suddenly, there is a surprisingly large bit of unrest.
To be able to break out like this, electrons first need to break up air molecules mid- air, creating ions (charged atoms). In addition, many electrons inside the atoms are also pulled out, creating free electrons in the air. All this creates a region through which electrons can easily move - as if they have made a wire for themselves in thin air! And when they travel on this path, we see it as a spark.
Clouds are charged objects. When they move over large distances and collide with other clouds, they get more and more charged. At some point, this charge becomes too much for the clouds to hold, and breaks out as the lightning that we see (followed by the thunder that we hear).
What is the antonym of the word "disrupting" as used in the passage?
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Answer: (B) maintaining
Explanation
In the passage, the word disrupting means causing disorder, confusion, or turmoil in the normal structure or sequence of things. The terms disturbing, disorganizing, upsetting, and interrupting all act as synonyms denoting interference or disturbance. The antonym is maintaining, which signifies preserving, sustaining, or upholding order and stability without causing disturbance.
10English Language
Look after
(A) While her parents were away, Maria had to look after her younger siblings all weekend.
(B) The neighbors agreed to look after our cat while we were on vacation.
(C) He looked after his lost keys for an hour before finally finding them under the couch.
A word/phrase has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word/phrase has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.
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Answer: (A) Both A & B
Explanation
The phrasal verb "look after" means to take care of or be responsible for someone or something. It is correctly applied to supervising younger siblings in their parents' absence and caring for a pet during vacation. In contrast, searching for misplaced items requires the phrasal verb "look for".
11English Language
Take down
(A) The police managed to take down the criminal without anyone getting hurt.
(B) She took down the old curtains and replaced them with new ones.
(C) I asked my assistant to take down everything discussed during the meeting.
A word/phrase has been given in the question and used in the sentences below. Identify the statements where the word/phrase has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner.
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Answer: (B) All A, B, C
Explanation
The phrasal verb "take down" has multiple distinct, standard meanings in English:
To subdue, incapacitate, defeat, or arrest a person, as in capturing a suspect.
To dismantle or remove something hanging from a higher position, such as taking down curtains or decorations.
To record or write down spoken words, notes, or minutes during a discussion or speech.
All three sentences employ standard and idiomatic uses of the phrasal verb.
12English Language
(I) Architects are incorporating passive cooling systems into new residential buildings.
(II) This reduces reliance on air conditioning and cuts energy use.
(A) Because passive cooling systems improve energy efficiency...
(B) Although traditional designs prioritized aesthetics over function...
(C) Since passive cooling has been banned in modern architecture...
Complete the sentence meaningfully using the best possible starter. Choose the option that most effectively conveys the sequence and impact described in the original sentences.
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Answer: (A) Only A
Explanation
(I) architects incorporate passive cooling, (II) this cuts energy use. Starter (A) 'Because passive cooling systems improve energy efficiency...' logically completes the cause-effect chain. (B) talks about traditional designs prioritizing aesthetics, an unrelated contrast. (C) falsely claims passive cooling is banned, contradicting statement I. Only A fits meaningfully.
13English Language
The following question gives four sentences three of which definitively contain grammatical errors. Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct as the answer. If all four sentences have errors or all sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, choose "All are incorrect" as the answer.
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Answer: (D) The packaging was intentionally deceptive, aiming to persuade consumers that the product was worth the price.
Explanation
The sentence maintains complete grammatical accuracy and consistency in tense, structure, and modifier usage. The adverb intentionally correctly modifies the predicate adjective deceptive, the present participial phrase aiming to persuade consumers functions appropriately to indicate purpose or effect, and the subordinate clause that the product was worth the price correctly aligns in the past tense with the main verb was.
14English Language
The following question gives four sentences three of which definitively contain grammatical errors. Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct as the answer. If all four sentences have errors or all sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, choose "All are incorrect" as the answer.
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Answer: (C) Young children tend to become boisterous due to their abundance of energy and lack of social awareness.
Explanation
The sentence properly maintains subject-verb agreement with the plural subject "Young children" and the plural verb "tend". The adjective "boisterous" functions correctly as a subject complement following the linking verb "become", while the compound prepositional object correctly pairs the parallel noun phrases "abundance of energy" and "lack of social awareness" after the prepositional phrase "due to".
15English Language
The following question gives four sentences three of which definitively contain grammatical errors. Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct as the answer. If all four sentences have errors or all sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, choose "All are incorrect" as the answer.
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Answer: (E) All are incorrect
Explanation
The given directions specify selecting this choice when either all sentences contain errors or all four sentences are grammatically and contextually correct.
All four statements are grammatically sound:
The statement concerning farming machinery correctly pairs the singular subject life with the singular verb has changed and uses appropriate prepositional phrases.
The statement regarding the famous actor properly employs a prepositional phrase introduced by despite along with an accurate passive verb construction.
The statement about Kennedy uses a well-formed perfect participle phrase modifying the subject without any dangling modifier, alongside valid past-tense syntax.
The statement describing the championship victory uses following appropriately as a preposition of time with clear clause structure.
Because every given sentence is entirely error-free in grammar, tense, and context, the required condition is satisfied.
16English Language
The following question gives four sentences three of which definitively contain grammatical errors. Choose the sentence which is grammatically correct as the answer. If all four sentences have errors or all sentences are grammatically and contextually correct, choose "All are incorrect" as the answer.
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Answer: (E) All are incorrect
Explanation
Every sentence contains a clear grammatical error. The first sentence has a pronoun-antecedent mismatch where a masculine possessive pronoun is incorrectly used for a feminine subject. The second sentence uses the base verb form instead of the past participle required to function as an adjective. The third sentence uses an incorrect preposition, as the noun practice idiomatically takes the preposition of before a gerund. The fourth sentence lacks the required apostrophe to indicate singular possession. Consequently, every sentence is grammatically flawed.
17English Language
Five sentences are given in here. Rearrange these sentences in a meaningful order to answer the following questions.
(A) The country is also one of the world's largest producers of modern bioenergy and has big ambitions to scale up its usage.
(B) In addition to that, India is pioneering a new model of economic development that could avoid the carbonintensive approaches.
(C) Moreover, the International Energy Agency expects India to overtake China in the next few years to become the third largest ethanol market after the USA and Brazil.
(D) India's economic growth has been among the highest in the world over the past two decades.
(E) For this, its renewable electricity is growing at a fast rate, with new capacity additions on track to double by 2026.
Which of the following will be the third statement of the rearrangement?
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Answer: (E) E
Explanation
The paragraph opens with sentence D, which introduces India's remarkable economic growth over the past two decades. Sentence B follows by highlighting India's pioneering model of low-carbon development. Sentence E logically connects to this goal with the phrase 'For this', explaining the rapid growth of renewable electricity capacity. Sentence A then introduces modern bioenergy, and sentence C elaborates on ethanol market projections by the International Energy Agency. In this coherent sequence (D-B-E-A-C), sentence E occupies the third position.
18English Language
Five sentences are given in here. Rearrange these sentences in a meaningful order to answer the following questions.
(A) The country is also one of the world's largest producers of modern bioenergy and has big ambitions to scale up its usage.
(B) In addition to that, India is pioneering a new model of economic development that could avoid the carbonintensive approaches.
(C) Moreover, the International Energy Agency expects India to overtake China in the next few years to become the third largest ethanol market after the USA and Brazil.
(D) India's economic growth has been among the highest in the world over the past two decades.
(E) For this, its renewable electricity is growing at a fast rate, with new capacity additions on track to double by 2026.
Which of the following will be the last statement of the rearrangement?
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Answer: (C) C
Explanation
The paragraph begins with the introductory sentence D, which introduces India's economic growth. Sentence B follows by adding how India is pioneering a low-carbon development model. Sentence E connects directly to B through the phrase "For this", explaining the rapid growth in renewable electricity capacity. Sentence A broadens the scope of green energy by noting India's role as a major producer of modern bioenergy. Finally, sentence C reinforces the bioenergy theme by citing the International Energy Agency projection regarding India becoming the third largest ethanol market, making C the final sentence.
19English Language
Five sentences are given in here. Rearrange these sentences in a meaningful order to answer the following questions.
(A) The country is also one of the world's largest producers of modern bioenergy and has big ambitions to scale up its usage.
(B) In addition to that, India is pioneering a new model of economic development that could avoid the carbonintensive approaches.
(C) Moreover, the International Energy Agency expects India to overtake China in the next few years to become the third largest ethanol market after the USA and Brazil.
(D) India's economic growth has been among the highest in the world over the past two decades.
(E) For this, its renewable electricity is growing at a fast rate, with new capacity additions on track to double by 2026.
Which of the following will be the first statement of the rearrangement?
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Answer: (D) D
Explanation
An introductory sentence in a paragraph must be independent and introduce the broad theme without relying on preceding context. Sentence D establishes the primary subject by highlighting India's rapid economic growth over the past two decades. All other statements begin with additive transition words or referential phrases like also, in addition to that, moreover, and for this, making them dependent on preceding information.
20English Language
Five sentences are given in here. Rearrange these sentences in a meaningful order to answer the following questions.
(A) The country is also one of the world's largest producers of modern bioenergy and has big ambitions to scale up its usage.
(B) In addition to that, India is pioneering a new model of economic development that could avoid the carbonintensive approaches.
(C) Moreover, the International Energy Agency expects India to overtake China in the next few years to become the third largest ethanol market after the USA and Brazil.
(D) India's economic growth has been among the highest in the world over the past two decades.
(E) For this, its renewable electricity is growing at a fast rate, with new capacity additions on track to double by 2026.
Which of the following will be the second statement of the rearrangement?
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Answer: (B) B
Explanation
Sentence D introduces the broad topic by highlighting India's rapid economic growth over the past two decades. Sentence B logically follows by adding that alongside this growth, India is pioneering a new low-carbon model of economic development. Sentence E expands on how this model is being pursued via renewable electricity growth, while sentences A and C elaborate further on bioenergy and ethanol market expansions. Therefore, the complete coherent sequence is D-B-E-A-C, placing B in the second position.
21English Language
Five sentences are given in here. Rearrange these sentences in a meaningful order to answer the following questions.
(A) The country is also one of the world's largest producers of modern bioenergy and has big ambitions to scale up its usage.
(B) In addition to that, India is pioneering a new model of economic development that could avoid the carbonintensive approaches.
(C) Moreover, the International Energy Agency expects India to overtake China in the next few years to become the third largest ethanol market after the USA and Brazil.
(D) India's economic growth has been among the highest in the world over the past two decades.
(E) For this, its renewable electricity is growing at a fast rate, with new capacity additions on track to double by 2026.
Which of the following will be the fourth statement of the rearrangement?
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Answer: (A) A
Explanation
The paragraph opens with sentence D, establishing India's high economic growth. Sentence B follows by introducing the shift toward a low-carbon economic model. Sentence E connects directly to this model via the phrase "For this," detailing the expansion in renewable electricity. Sentence A adds another dimension to the clean energy transition by introducing bioenergy production, which is then further elaborated in sentence C with specific projections on ethanol usage. Thus, the coherent sequence is D-B-E-A-C, placing A in the fourth position.
22English Language
If a product or service is for good quality, it means that it is of a high standard. In the following question, a sentence is given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may contain an error. One of the following options can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option 'No replacement needed' as the correct answer.
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Answer: (D) If a product or service is of
Explanation
The preposition "of" is used to denote possessing a particular characteristic, condition, or standard, as in "of good quality". When two singular nouns, "product" and "service", are connected by the coordinating conjunction "or", the subject remains singular and requires the singular verb "is" for proper subject-verb agreement.
23English Language
Sally stared at the lounging figures, something imperious in its expression.
In the following question, a sentence is given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may contain an error. One of the following options can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option 'No replacement needed' as the correct answer.
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Answer: (C) something imperious in her expression
Explanation
The pronoun referring to the subject Sally must be the third-person feminine possessive pronoun her to maintain correct gender and number agreement. The adjective imperious correctly modifies the indefinite pronoun something postpositively. Therefore, the phrase correctly reads something imperious in her expression.
24English Language
The new revelations by the news outlet add to the services increasingly problematic reputation.
In the following question, a sentence is given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may contain an error. One of the following options can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option 'No replacement needed' as the correct answer.
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Answer: (B) add to the service's increasingly
Explanation
The subject of the sentence, the new revelations, is plural and takes the plural present tense verb add. The phrase problematic reputation belongs to the singular noun service, which requires the possessive form service's with an apostrophe. The correct preposition used with the verb add in this context is to.
25English Language
Each of the students have to submit his/her assignments by tomorrow.
In the following question, a sentence is given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may contain an error. One of the following options can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option 'No improvement required' as the correct answer.
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Answer: (B) Each of the students has
Explanation
In subject-verb agreement, the distributive pronoun "Each" is grammatically singular. When followed by the prepositional phrase "of the + plural noun", the main subject remains the singular pronoun "Each", requiring a singular verb. Since the action refers to an impending deadline indicated by "by tomorrow", the present tense singular verb "has" is required along with the plural noun "students".
26English Language
The dog wagged it's tail excitedly as it chased the ball in the park.
In the following question, a sentence is given with a part in bold. The given phrase in the bold may contain an error. One of the following options can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option 'No improvement required' as the correct answer.
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Answer: (C) its tail excitedly as it chased
Explanation
The word its is a possessive pronoun used to show ownership, whereas it's is a contraction of it is or it has. Since the sentence refers to the tail belonging to the dog, the possessive form its is required. Additionally, the main clause uses the past tense verb wagged, so the adverbial time clause must maintain sequence of tenses by using the past tense verb chased.
27English Language
COLUMN I
(A) When asked to give a review of the unappetizing diner
(B) The cleaning efficiency of the washing machine decreases
(C) The inhabitants of the village knew each other
COLUMN II
(D) but the newest driver's efficiency is being questioned after receiving several speeding citations.
(E) and instantly became suspicious of the stranger walking down the street.
(F) the only word she could think of to describe the fish was 'unsavory'.
In the question below, two columns are given, each containing three phrases/sentences. Choose the option that will connect the phrases to form meaningful and correct sentences.
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Answer: (D) Only A-F and C-E
Explanation
Phrase A connects logically with phrase F to form a coherent statement about reviewing food at a diner: "When asked to give a review of the unappetizing diner, the only word she could think of to describe the fish was 'unsavory'."
Phrase C pairs contextually with phrase E to describe the reaction of close-knit villagers to an unknown person: "The inhabitants of the village knew each other and instantly became suspicious of the stranger walking down the street."
28English Language
COLUMN I
(A) The truly generous give more of their possessions to those in need
(B) The president gave a nationwide address to the people of his nation
(C) Someone that is full of conceit tends to look down on others
COLUMN II
(E) following a horrific terrorist attack on the capital.
(F) and think of themselves as superior to everyone.
In the question below, two columns are given, each containing three phrases/sentences. Choose the option that will connect the phrases to form meaningful and correct sentences.
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Answer: (C) Only B-E and C-F
Explanation
Phrase B naturally connects with phrase E to describe the context of a presidential address delivered in the aftermath of a national crisis. Phrase C correctly joins with phrase F as both describe traits of a conceited person, maintaining grammatical parallelism between the verbs. Phrase A cannot form a meaningful or logical combination with either E or F.
29English Language
COLUMN I
(A) The company broke the law when it decided to disperse
(B) Avoid the temptation of sweet snacks
(C) Realistically speaking, chopping wood is just a very low-tech means
COLUMN II
(D) and munch on fruit and veggies instead
(E) its hazardous waste into the ocean.
(F) out of the building and head to their buses
In the question below, two columns are given, each containing three phrases/sentences. Choose the option that will connect the phrases to form meaningful and correct sentences.
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Answer: (D) Only A-E and B-D
Explanation
Phrase A connects grammatically and semantically with phrase E to form: "The company broke the law when it decided to disperse its hazardous waste into the ocean."
Phrase B pairs with phrase D using parallel imperative structures to form: "Avoid the temptation of sweet snacks and munch on fruit and veggies instead."
Phrase C cannot logically pair with any phrase in Column II to form a complete, coherent sentence.
30English Language
COLUMN I
(A) The students thought it would be advantageous
(B) If the city council rejects the company's proposal
(C) Vacationers on a cruise ship watched the pod of dolphins
COLUMN II
(D) is close to the side of the pool prior to the Sea world Show.
(E) knowing that they needed to work together
(F) the biggest factory in our town will be closed
In the question below, two columns are given, each containing three phrases/sentences. Choose the option that will connect the phrases to form meaningful and correct sentences.
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Answer: (B) Only B-F
Explanation
A first conditional sentence combines a dependent conditional clause in the simple present tense with an independent result clause using a future modal. Combining (B) "If the city council rejects the company's proposal" with (F) "the biggest factory in our town will be closed" forms a grammatically correct and semantically complete conditional statement.
31English Language
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to control the money supply and interest rates in an economy to achieve specific goals, such as price stability, and economic growth. Central banks use various tools to implement monetary policy, including open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
One key tool of monetary policy is open market operations, whereby the central bank buys or sells government securities in the open market. When the central bank buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates.
Another tool is reserve requirements, which mandate the amount of reserves banks must hold against their deposits. By adjusting reserve requirements, central banks can influence the amount of money banks can lend out, thereby affecting the money supply and interest rates.
Additionally, central banks set the discount rate, which is the interest rate at which banks can borrow funds directly from the central bank. By raising or lowering the discount rate, central banks can influence the cost of borrowing for banks, thus impacting the overall level of lending and economic activity.
Monetary policy decisions have significant implications for various of the economy. Lowering interest rates, for example, can stimulate borrowing and investment, leading to increased consumer spending and economic growth. However, it can also lead to inflation if the economy overheats. Conversely, raising interest rates can help control inflation but may also slow down economic activity and increase unemployment. Understanding the intricacies of monetary policy and its implications is crucial for policymakers, businesses, and individuals alike, as it directly influences the overall health and stability of the economy.
Which of the following accurately describes the primary objective of monetary policy as executed by central banks?
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Answer: (C) Attaining price stability, full employment, and economic growth.
Explanation
Central banks execute monetary policy by regulating the money supply, interest rates, and bank reserves to achieve macroeconomic objectives. These key goals encompass maintaining price stability by controlling inflation, supporting high employment levels, and fostering sustainable economic growth and development.
32English Language
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to control the money supply and interest rates in an economy to achieve specific goals, such as price stability, and economic growth. Central banks use various tools to implement monetary policy, including open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
One key tool of monetary policy is open market operations, whereby the central bank buys or sells government securities in the open market. When the central bank buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates.
Another tool is reserve requirements, which mandate the amount of reserves banks must hold against their deposits. By adjusting reserve requirements, central banks can influence the amount of money banks can lend out, thereby affecting the money supply and interest rates.
Additionally, central banks set the discount rate, which is the interest rate at which banks can borrow funds directly from the central bank. By raising or lowering the discount rate, central banks can influence the cost of borrowing for banks, thus impacting the overall level of lending and economic activity.
Monetary policy decisions have significant implications for various of the economy. Lowering interest rates, for example, can stimulate borrowing and investment, leading to increased consumer spending and economic growth. However, it can also lead to inflation if the economy overheats. Conversely, raising interest rates can help control inflation but may also slow down economic activity and increase unemployment. Understanding the intricacies of monetary policy and its implications is crucial for policymakers, businesses, and individuals alike, as it directly influences the overall health and stability of the economy.
How do open market operations influence the money supply, and consequently, interest rates?
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Answer: (C) By trading government securities to influence money supply and interest rates.
Explanation
Open market operations refer to the buying and selling of government securities in the open market by the central bank. When the central bank purchases government securities, it injects liquidity into the commercial banking system, expanding the money supply and exerting downward pressure on interest rates. Conversely, when the central bank sells securities, it absorbs excess liquidity, thereby contracting the money supply and increasing interest rates.
33English Language
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to control the money supply and interest rates in an economy to achieve specific goals, such as price stability, and economic growth. Central banks use various tools to implement monetary policy, including open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
One key tool of monetary policy is open market operations, whereby the central bank buys or sells government securities in the open market. When the central bank buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates.
Another tool is reserve requirements, which mandate the amount of reserves banks must hold against their deposits. By adjusting reserve requirements, central banks can influence the amount of money banks can lend out, thereby affecting the money supply and interest rates.
Additionally, central banks set the discount rate, which is the interest rate at which banks can borrow funds directly from the central bank. By raising or lowering the discount rate, central banks can influence the cost of borrowing for banks, thus impacting the overall level of lending and economic activity.
Monetary policy decisions have significant implications for various of the economy. Lowering interest rates, for example, can stimulate borrowing and investment, leading to increased consumer spending and economic growth. However, it can also lead to inflation if the economy overheats. Conversely, raising interest rates can help control inflation but may also slow down economic activity and increase unemployment. Understanding the intricacies of monetary policy and its implications is crucial for policymakers, businesses, and individuals alike, as it directly influences the overall health and stability of the economy.
In the context of monetary policy, what role do reserve requirements play in the banking system?
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Answer: (B) Regulating the liquidity of banks by mandating a portion of deposits to be retained.
Explanation
Reserve requirements are regulatory mandates established by the central bank that require commercial banks to hold a specified proportion of their total deposits as liquid reserves rather than lending them out. Adjusting these requirements alters the volume of loanable funds available within the banking system, directly regulating bank liquidity and steering the overall money supply and prevailing interest rates.
34English Language
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to control the money supply and interest rates in an economy to achieve specific goals, such as price stability, and economic growth. Central banks use various tools to implement monetary policy, including open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
One key tool of monetary policy is open market operations, whereby the central bank buys or sells government securities in the open market. When the central bank buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates.
Another tool is reserve requirements, which mandate the amount of reserves banks must hold against their deposits. By adjusting reserve requirements, central banks can influence the amount of money banks can lend out, thereby affecting the money supply and interest rates.
Additionally, central banks set the discount rate, which is the interest rate at which banks can borrow funds directly from the central bank. By raising or lowering the discount rate, central banks can influence the cost of borrowing for banks, thus impacting the overall level of lending and economic activity.
Monetary policy decisions have significant implications for various of the economy. Lowering interest rates, for example, can stimulate borrowing and investment, leading to increased consumer spending and economic growth. However, it can also lead to inflation if the economy overheats. Conversely, raising interest rates can help control inflation but may also slow down economic activity and increase unemployment. Understanding the intricacies of monetary policy and its implications is crucial for policymakers, businesses, and individuals alike, as it directly influences the overall health and stability of the economy.
Why is it important for central banks to strike a balance between stimulating economic activity and maintaining price stability?
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Answer: (C) To avoid excessive inflation or deflation that could destabilize the economy.
Explanation
Central banks must balance growth stimulation with price stability because unconstrained monetary expansion can cause the economy to overheat and trigger rapid inflation, whereas excessive tightening can stall economic activity and drive up unemployment. Maintaining this equilibrium ensures sustainable economic growth while protecting purchasing power and overall macroeconomic stability.
35English Language
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to control the money supply and interest rates in an economy to achieve specific goals, such as price stability, and economic growth. Central banks use various tools to implement monetary policy, including open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
One key tool of monetary policy is open market operations, whereby the central bank buys or sells government securities in the open market. When the central bank buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates.
Another tool is reserve requirements, which mandate the amount of reserves banks must hold against their deposits. By adjusting reserve requirements, central banks can influence the amount of money banks can lend out, thereby affecting the money supply and interest rates.
Additionally, central banks set the discount rate, which is the interest rate at which banks can borrow funds directly from the central bank. By raising or lowering the discount rate, central banks can influence the cost of borrowing for banks, thus impacting the overall level of lending and economic activity.
Monetary policy decisions have significant implications for various of the economy. Lowering interest rates, for example, can stimulate borrowing and investment, leading to increased consumer spending and economic growth. However, it can also lead to inflation if the economy overheats. Conversely, raising interest rates can help control inflation but may also slow down economic activity and increase unemployment. Understanding the intricacies of monetary policy and its implications is crucial for policymakers, businesses, and individuals alike, as it directly influences the overall health and stability of the economy.
Which statement regarding open market operations, as described in the passage, is incorrect?
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Answer: (D) Open market operations do not influence the money supply in the economy.
Explanation
According to the passage, open market operations directly influence the money supply in the economy. When the central bank buys government securities, it injects money into the banking system to increase the money supply. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system to reduce the money supply. Therefore, stating that open market operations do not influence the money supply is factually incorrect based on the text.
36English Language
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to control the money supply and interest rates in an economy to achieve specific goals, such as price stability, and economic growth. Central banks use various tools to implement monetary policy, including open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
One key tool of monetary policy is open market operations, whereby the central bank buys or sells government securities in the open market. When the central bank buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates.
Another tool is reserve requirements, which mandate the amount of reserves banks must hold against their deposits. By adjusting reserve requirements, central banks can influence the amount of money banks can lend out, thereby affecting the money supply and interest rates.
Additionally, central banks set the discount rate, which is the interest rate at which banks can borrow funds directly from the central bank. By raising or lowering the discount rate, central banks can influence the cost of borrowing for banks, thus impacting the overall level of lending and economic activity.
Monetary policy decisions have significant implications for various of the economy. Lowering interest rates, for example, can stimulate borrowing and investment, leading to increased consumer spending and economic growth. However, it can also lead to inflation if the economy overheats. Conversely, raising interest rates can help control inflation but may also slow down economic activity and increase unemployment. Understanding the intricacies of monetary policy and its implications is crucial for policymakers, businesses, and individuals alike, as it directly influences the overall health and stability of the economy.
Which of the following words is a synonym of 'mandate'?
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Answer: (B) compel
Explanation
To mandate means to give an official order, command, or requirement that makes an action compulsory. In legal, regulatory, and policy contexts, such as reserve requirements imposed by a central bank, a mandate obligates or compels institutions to comply with specified directives. Therefore, compel, which means to force or obligate someone to do something, is a direct synonym.
37English Language
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to control the money supply and interest rates in an economy to achieve specific goals, such as price stability, and economic growth. Central banks use various tools to implement monetary policy, including open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
One key tool of monetary policy is open market operations, whereby the central bank buys or sells government securities in the open market. When the central bank buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates.
Another tool is reserve requirements, which mandate the amount of reserves banks must hold against their deposits. By adjusting reserve requirements, central banks can influence the amount of money banks can lend out, thereby affecting the money supply and interest rates.
Additionally, central banks set the discount rate, which is the interest rate at which banks can borrow funds directly from the central bank. By raising or lowering the discount rate, central banks can influence the cost of borrowing for banks, thus impacting the overall level of lending and economic activity.
Monetary policy decisions have significant implications for various of the economy. Lowering interest rates, for example, can stimulate borrowing and investment, leading to increased consumer spending and economic growth. However, it can also lead to inflation if the economy overheats. Conversely, raising interest rates can help control inflation but may also slow down economic activity and increase unemployment. Understanding the intricacies of monetary policy and its implications is crucial for policymakers, businesses, and individuals alike, as it directly influences the overall health and stability of the economy.
Which of the following words is an antonym of 'inject'?
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Answer: (A) extract
Explanation
To inject means to introduce, insert, or force a substance or resource into a system or body. In contrast, to extract means to draw out, remove, or withdraw something from a source or system, making it the exact antonym.
38English Language
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Monetary policy refers to the actions taken by a central bank to control the money supply and interest rates in an economy to achieve specific goals, such as price stability, and economic growth. Central banks use various tools to implement monetary policy, including open market operations, reserve requirements, and discount rates.
One key tool of monetary policy is open market operations, whereby the central bank buys or sells government securities in the open market. When the central bank buys securities, it injects money into the banking system, increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates. Conversely, when it sells securities, it withdraws money from the banking system, reducing the money supply and raising interest rates.
Another tool is reserve requirements, which mandate the amount of reserves banks must hold against their deposits. By adjusting reserve requirements, central banks can influence the amount of money banks can lend out, thereby affecting the money supply and interest rates.
Additionally, central banks set the discount rate, which is the interest rate at which banks can borrow funds directly from the central bank. By raising or lowering the discount rate, central banks can influence the cost of borrowing for banks, thus impacting the overall level of lending and economic activity.
Monetary policy decisions have significant implications for various of the economy. Lowering interest rates, for example, can stimulate borrowing and investment, leading to increased consumer spending and economic growth. However, it can also lead to inflation if the economy overheats. Conversely, raising interest rates can help control inflation but may also slow down economic activity and increase unemployment. Understanding the intricacies of monetary policy and its implications is crucial for policymakers, businesses, and individuals alike, as it directly influences the overall health and stability of the economy.
Which of the following is the most suitable word for the given blank?
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Answer: (E) aspects
Explanation
The sentence requires a plural countable noun directly following the determiner "various" to serve as the object of the preposition and connect with "of the economy". The word "aspects" refers to distinct parts, facets, or elements of a system, making "various aspects of the economy" semantically coherent and grammatically precise in describing the broad economic impact of monetary policy.
39English Language
In the following questions a sentence is given with two blanks. The sentence is then provided with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as the correct answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option.
China's industrial output has 15% from 40% since the began.
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Answer: (C) dropped, crisis
Explanation
The first blank requires a past participle verb following the auxiliary verb has to indicate a quantitative decline from 40% to 15%. The second blank requires a singular noun following the definite article to specify the event or situation that triggered the decline. The combination of dropped and crisis satisfies both the grammatical structure and the contextual meaning of an economic downturn.
40English Language
In the following questions a sentence is given with two blanks. The sentence is then provided with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as the correct answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option.
The COVID- 19 pandemic is first and human tragedy, more than 120,000 and killing more than 4,200 people.
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Answer: (D) foremost, infecting
Explanation
The phrase first and foremost is a standard English idiom used to emphasize the most important aspect of something. In the second clause, infecting functions as a present participle that maintains grammatical parallelism with the coordinate participle killing.
41English Language
In the following questions a sentence is given with two blanks. The sentence is then provided with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as the correct answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option.
The growing of the climate crisis shows the need for immediate measures to drastically cut emissions now.
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Answer: (C) urgency, dire
Explanation
The sentence requires a noun for the first blank to denote the escalating critical nature of the situation, where urgency fits contextually. The second blank requires an adjective to describe the intensity of the required intervention, making dire need the standard and grammatically sound collocation.
42English Language
In the following questions a sentence is given with two blanks. The sentence is then provided with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as the correct answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option.
Emissions caused by economic downturns tend to be
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Answer: (C) reductions, temporary
Explanation
Economic downturns lead to reduced industrial output and energy consumption, resulting in emissions reductions. Because economic activity eventually recovers, such decreases in greenhouse gas emissions are typically short-lived or temporary rather than structural.
43English Language
In the following questions a sentence is given with two blanks. The sentence is then provided with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as the correct answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option.
More than 5 million people ______ already die ______ each year due to air pollution.
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Answer: (D) worldwide, prematurely
Explanation
The sentence describes global mortality statistics associated with environmental health hazards. The word worldwide correctly designates the geographic distribution of the population, functioning post-nominally after people. The adverb prematurely appropriately modifies the verb die to denote death occurring before the standard life expectancy due to the adverse effects of air pollution.
44English Language
In the following questions a sentence is given with two blanks. The sentence is then provided with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as the correct answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option.
In this ______ of crisis, there is a need to pay ______ to the safety and security of life and property.
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Answer: (D) situation, attention
Explanation
The phrase pay attention to is a standard English collocation meaning to listen to, watch, or consider something carefully. In the first blank, situation accurately describes the condition or circumstances of a crisis, making the sentence grammatically complete and contextually coherent.
45English Language
In the following questions a sentence is given with two blanks. The sentence is then provided with five options which consist of the words that can fill the given blanks. Choose that option as the correct answer which can fill the given blanks in the exact order as given in the option.
Despite facing numerous ______, the team of dedicated researchers persevered with unwavering ______ collaborating data to unravel the complexities of the scientific phenomenon.
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Answer: (B) obstacles, determination
Explanation
The sentence structure contrasts challenges faced with continued effort using the preposition despite. The first blank requires a plural countable noun denoting challenges or difficulties (obstacles), while the second blank requires a noun that pairs naturally with the adjective unwavering to express persistent resolve (determination).
46English Language
In each of the questions given below, four words have been highlighted. These four words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other.
The company's marketing demographics (A) includes advertising (B) specific strategy (C) and using digital platforms for targeting (D).
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Answer: (D) A-C & B-D
Explanation
Swapping A (demographics) with C (strategy) creates the logical noun phrase "marketing strategy" as the subject of the clause. Swapping B (advertising) with D (targeting) places the participle "targeting" before "specific demographics" as part of the parallel actions, followed by "using digital platforms for advertising". The resulting coherent sentence reads: "The company's marketing strategy includes targeting specific demographics and using digital platforms for advertising."
47English Language
In each of the questions given below, four words have been highlighted. These four words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other.
The environmental crisis requires (A) urgent action and future (B) among governments in order to preserve (C) our planet for cooperation (D) generations.
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Answer: (B) B-D
Explanation
The sentence discusses global collaborative efforts to protect the environment. The noun cooperation appropriately pairs with among governments to signify collective international action, while the adjective future logically modifies generations to describe preserving the planet for people in the time ahead. Exchanging positions B and D makes the sentence grammatically sound and contextually meaningful: The environmental crisis requires urgent action and cooperation among governments in order to preserve our planet for future generations.
48English Language
In each of the questions given below, four words have been highlighted. These four words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other.
The healthcare system needs to safety (A) patient's prioritize (B) and provide treatment (C) and affordable efficient (D) options.
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Answer: (C) A-B&C-D
Explanation
Following the infinitive marker "to", the base verb "prioritize" is required, which appropriately takes "patient's safety" as its object when words A and B are swapped. Additionally, exchanging words C and D places the adjective "efficient" in parallel with "affordable" to modify the compound noun "treatment options", yielding the coherent sentence: "The healthcare system needs to prioritize patient's safety and provide efficient and affordable treatment options."
49English Language
In each of the questions given below, four words have been highlighted. These four words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other.
The new educational curriculum skills (A) on developing critical (B) thinking and problem-solving focuses (C) among students (D).
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Answer: (A) A-C
Explanation
The subject "The new educational curriculum" requires the singular verb "focuses" followed by the preposition "on". Moving "skills" to position (C) completes the compound object "problem-solving skills" parallel to "critical thinking". The corrected sentence reads: "The new educational curriculum focuses on developing critical thinking and problem-solving skills among students."
50English Language
In each of the questions given below, four words have been highlighted. These four words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other.
The novel depths (A) a fascinating story with explores (B) characters that relatable (C) the provides (D) of human emotion.
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Answer: (D) A-D & B-C
Explanation
The sentence structure requires the verb provides at position A to complete the subject-verb pair with the singular subject novel, and the noun depths at position D following the definite article to form the phrase the depths of human emotion. Swapping A and D achieves this. Additionally, the adjective relatable is required before the noun characters at position B, and the verb explores is needed at position C to describe the action performed regarding the depths of human emotion. Swapping B and C completes this arrangement, yielding: The novel provides a fascinating story with relatable characters that explores the depths of human emotion.
51Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I - are seated in a single row facing north. Each person likes a different fruit- Apple, Mango, Plum, Cherry, Pear, Grapes, Orange, Kiwi and Guava. All the information provided is not necessarily in the given order.
B sits sixth to the right of the person who likes Plum. Three persons sit between the one who likes Plum and F. F sits immediate right of the person who likes Apple. The one who likes Cherry sits fourth to the left of the person who likes Apple. The person who likes Guava sits exactly between the person who likes Cherry and H. The person who likes Guava sits immediate right of person who likes Kiwi. One person sits between the person who likes Kiwi and G who doesn't like Apple. As many persons sit to the right of G as to the left of the person who likes Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry is an immediate neighbor of the person who likes Pear. Two persons sit between the person who likes Pear and E. The person who sits immediate right of E likes Grapes. More than three persons sit between the person who likes Grapes and Mango. C sits second to the right of the person who likes Mango and exactly between D and A. I and D are not immediate neighbours.
Who among the following sits immediate left of the one who sits fourth to the right of the person who likes Kiwi?
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Answer: (B) The person who likes Grapes
Explanation
Arranging the 9 persons from left to right (positions 1 to 9):
Position 1: D likes Mango
Position 2: G likes Cherry
Position 3: C likes Plum
Position 4: I likes Kiwi
Position 5: A likes Guava
Position 6: E likes Apple
Position 7: F likes Grapes
Position 8: H likes Strawberry
Position 9: B likes Pear
The person who likes Kiwi is at position 4. The person sitting fourth to the right of position 4 is at position 8 (likes Strawberry). The person sitting immediately to the left of position 8 is at position 7, who likes Grapes.
52Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I - are seated in a single row facing north. Each person likes a different fruit- Apple, Mango, Plum, Cherry, Pear, Grapes, Orange, Kiwi and Guava. All the information provided is not necessarily in the given order.
B sits sixth to the right of the person who likes Plum. Three persons sit between the one who likes Plum and F. F sits immediate right of the person who likes Apple. The one who likes Cherry sits fourth to the left of the person who likes Apple. The person who likes Guava sits exactly between the person who likes Cherry and H. The person who likes Guava sits immediate right of person who likes Kiwi. One person sits between the person who likes Kiwi and G who doesn't like Apple. As many persons sit to the right of G as to the left of the person who likes Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry is an immediate neighbor of the person who likes Pear. Two persons sit between the person who likes Pear and E. The person who sits immediate right of E likes Grapes. More than three persons sit between the person who likes Grapes and Mango. C sits second to the right of the person who likes Mango and exactly between D and A. I and D are not immediate neighbours.
Which among the following combinations is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) I - Kiwi
Explanation
Step-by-step arrangement of persons (1 to 9 from left to right facing north) and their liked fruits:
Plum at position 3 places B at position 9 (sixth to the right of Plum), F at position 7 (three persons between Plum and F), Apple at position 6 (immediate left of F), and Cherry at position 2 (fourth to the left of Apple).
Guava is at position 5 (midpoint of Cherry at 2 and H at 8), Kiwi is at position 4 (immediate left of Guava), and G is at position 2 (one person between Kiwi and G).
Seven persons sit to the right of G, placing Strawberry at position 8 (H likes Strawberry). Pear is at position 9 (B likes Pear).
E is at position 6 (two persons between Pear and E, so E likes Apple), and Grapes is at position 7 (immediate right of E, so F likes Grapes).
Mango is at position 1 (more than three persons between Grapes and Mango).
C sits at position 3 (second to the right of Mango) and is exactly between D (position 1) and A (position 5).
Since I and D are not neighbors, I is placed at position 4.
Final arrangement:
Position 1: D - Mango
Position 2: G - Cherry
Position 3: C - Plum
Position 4: I - Kiwi
Position 5: A - Guava
Position 6: E - Apple
Position 7: F - Grapes
Position 8: H - Strawberry
Position 9: B - Pear
The combination I - Kiwi is correct.
53Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I - are seated in a single row facing north. Each person likes a different fruit- Apple, Mango, Plum, Cherry, Pear, Grapes, Orange, Kiwi and Guava. All the information provided is not necessarily in the given order.
B sits sixth to the right of the person who likes Plum. Three persons sit between the one who likes Plum and F. F sits immediate right of the person who likes Apple. The one who likes Cherry sits fourth to the left of the person who likes Apple. The person who likes Guava sits exactly between the person who likes Cherry and H. The person who likes Guava sits immediate right of person who likes Kiwi. One person sits between the person who likes Kiwi and G who doesn't like Apple. As many persons sit to the right of G as to the left of the person who likes Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry is an immediate neighbor of the person who likes Pear. Two persons sit between the person who likes Pear and E. The person who sits immediate right of E likes Grapes. More than three persons sit between the person who likes Grapes and Mango. C sits second to the right of the person who likes Mango and exactly between D and A. I and D are not immediate neighbours.
What is the position of the person who likes Pear with respect to I?
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Answer: (C) Fifth to the right
Explanation
Arranging the nine persons from left to right at positions 1 to 9 based on the given conditions:
Position 1: D (Mango)
Position 2: G (Cherry)
Position 3: C (Plum)
Position 4: I (Kiwi)
Position 5: A (Guava)
Position 6: E (Apple)
Position 7: F (Grapes)
Position 8: H (Strawberry)
Position 9: B (Pear)
Since I is seated at position 4 and the person who likes Pear (B) is seated at position 9, the person who likes Pear is located five positions to the right of I (fifth to the right).
54Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I - are seated in a single row facing north. Each person likes a different fruit- Apple, Mango, Plum, Cherry, Pear, Grapes, Orange, Kiwi and Guava. All the information provided is not necessarily in the given order.
B sits sixth to the right of the person who likes Plum. Three persons sit between the one who likes Plum and F. F sits immediate right of the person who likes Apple. The one who likes Cherry sits fourth to the left of the person who likes Apple. The person who likes Guava sits exactly between the person who likes Cherry and H. The person who likes Guava sits immediate right of person who likes Kiwi. One person sits between the person who likes Kiwi and G who doesn't like Apple. As many persons sit to the right of G as to the left of the person who likes Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry is an immediate neighbor of the person who likes Pear. Two persons sit between the person who likes Pear and E. The person who sits immediate right of E likes Grapes. More than three persons sit between the person who likes Grapes and Mango. C sits second to the right of the person who likes Mango and exactly between D and A. I and D are not immediate neighbours.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Who among the following does not belong to the group?
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Answer: (D) B
Explanation
From the given conditions, the step-by-step seating arrangement from left to right (positions 1 to 9, all facing north) is determined as follows:
Position 1: D (Mango)
Position 2: G (Cherry)
Position 3: C (Plum)
Position 4: I (Kiwi)
Position 5: A (Guava)
Position 6: E (Apple)
Position 7: F (Grapes)
Position 8: H (Strawberry)
Position 9: B (Pear)
Evaluating the positions of each given entity:
The person who likes Plum sits at position 3.
G sits at position 2.
The person who likes Apple sits at position 6.
The person who likes Strawberry sits at position 8.
B sits at position 9, which is the extreme right end of the row.
All entities except B sit at interior positions of the row.
55Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I - are seated in a single row facing north. Each person likes a different fruit- Apple, Mango, Plum, Cherry, Pear, Grapes, Orange, Kiwi and Guava. All the information provided is not necessarily in the given order.
B sits sixth to the right of the person who likes Plum. Three persons sit between the one who likes Plum and F. F sits immediate right of the person who likes Apple. The one who likes Cherry sits fourth to the left of the person who likes Apple. The person who likes Guava sits exactly between the person who likes Cherry and H. The person who likes Guava sits immediate right of person who likes Kiwi. One person sits between the person who likes Kiwi and G who doesn't like Apple. As many persons sit to the right of G as to the left of the person who likes Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry is an immediate neighbor of the person who likes Pear. Two persons sit between the person who likes Pear and E. The person who sits immediate right of E likes Grapes. More than three persons sit between the person who likes Grapes and Mango. C sits second to the right of the person who likes Mango and exactly between D and A. I and D are not immediate neighbours.
How many persons sit between the person who likes Strawberry and D?
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Answer: (C) Six
Explanation
Arranging the 9 persons from left to right (positions 1 to 9 facing north):
Position 1: D (Mango)
Position 2: G (Cherry)
Position 3: C (Plum)
Position 4: I (Kiwi)
Position 5: A (Guava)
Position 6: E (Apple)
Position 7: F (Grapes)
Position 8: H (Strawberry)
Position 9: B (Pear)
The person who likes Strawberry is H at position 8, and D sits at position 1. The persons sitting between D and H are G, C, I, A, E, and F, which gives a total of 6 persons.
56Reasoning Ability
How many pair of letters are in the word 'BEAUTIFY', each of which have as many letters between them as in the English alphabet (both forward and backward direction).
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Answer: (B) Three
Explanation
BEAUTIFY letters at positions 1-8: B,E,A,U,T,I,F,Y (alphabet values 2,5,1,21,20,9,6,25). Checking all pairs for word-gap = alphabet-gap: (E,I) word-gap=3,alpha-gap=3 match; (U,T) word-gap=0,alpha-gap=0 match; (U,Y) word-gap=3,alpha-gap=3 match. Total 3 pairs = 'Three'.
57Reasoning Ability
In this question below, some statements are given following by five conclusions as five options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the statements carefully and decide which of the conclusion definitely follows from the given statement, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement: Only a few March is July. Only July is June. Only a few April is July.
Conclusions:
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Answer: (E) Some July is not March.
Explanation
The statement Only July is June means that all June is part of July, and June can have no intersection with any other entity. Consequently, no June can ever be March. Since the entire set of June resides within July and cannot be March, the portion of July occupied by June is definitely not March, which guarantees that some July is not March.
58Reasoning Ability
In this question below, some statements are given following by five conclusions as five options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the statements carefully and decide which of the conclusion definitely follows from the given statement, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement: Only a few Yellow is Blue. Only a few Red is Green. All Blue is Red.
Conclusions:
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Answer: (D) Some Blue is not Green is a possibility.
Explanation
The statement Only a few Red is Green implies Some Red is Green and Some Red is not Green. Since All Blue is Red, Blue lies entirely within the domain of Red. Green intersects a portion of Red, but it is not mandatory for Green to cover all of Blue. Therefore, a valid case exists where part or all of Blue lies outside Green, making the scenario where some Blue is not Green a valid possibility.
59Reasoning Ability
In this question below, some statements are given following by five conclusions as five options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the statements carefully and decide which of the conclusion definitely follows from the given statement, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Some Light is not White. Only a few Light is Color. Only White is Prism.
Conclusions:
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Answer: (E) All Prism is not color.
Explanation
In deductive syllogisms, the statement Only A is B is interpreted as All B are A with the restriction that B cannot belong to or intersect with any other entity. Consequently, Only White is Prism establishes that all Prism are exclusively White, which directly implies that No Prism is Color, or equivalently, All Prism is not Color.
60Reasoning Ability
In this question below, some statements are given following by five conclusions as five options. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read the statements carefully and decide which of the conclusion definitely follows from the given statement, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statement:
Only Box is Bottle. Only a few Mobile is Box. No Box is Device.
Conclusions:
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Answer: (C) Some Box is not Mobile.
Explanation
The statement Only Box is Bottle translates to All Bottle is Box, with the restriction that Bottle cannot have any relationship with any other category, meaning No Bottle is Mobile. Because Bottle occupies a part of Box and cannot be Mobile, that particular part of Box is definitely not Mobile. Thus, the conclusion that Some Box is not Mobile definitely follows.
61Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Fourteen persons sit in two parallel rows, where A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in row 1 and face south and H, I, J, K, L, M and N sit in row 2 and face north. Each person in row 1 faces a person in row 2 and vice versa. Each of them like a different fruit which are Papaya, Apple, Grapes, Cherry, Mango, Orange, Guava, Litchi, Kiwi, Banana, Plum, Apricot, Watermelon and Berry but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the left of the one who likes apple. Three persons sit between the one who likes apple and the one who likes watermelon. L faces the one who likes watermelon. The one who likes guava sits third to the left of L. Only two persons sit between the one who likes guava and the one who likes papaya who sits second to the left of the person who faces E. Three persons sit between E and F who faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes cherry. The one who likes cherry sits exactly between I and N. The one who likes mango sits second to the left of I. A faces the one who likes mango. As many persons sit to the left of A as to the right of H. M sits next to H and faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes plum. D and K face each other but none of them sits at the extreme end. The one who likes kiwi sits to the right of the one who likes berry but not in the same row as G. The one who likes litchi is the only neighbour of the one who likes Apricot. The one who likes grapes doesn't sit next to E.
Who among the following likes Apricot?
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Answer: (E) G
Explanation
Arranging Row 1 (facing South) and Row 2 (facing North) across 7 positions (1 to 7 from west to east):
Row 1 contains E (Apple) at position 3, C at position 6 (third to the left of Apple), F (Watermelon) at position 7 (three persons between Apple and Watermelon), A at position 2 (facing Mango), and D (Plum) at position 5 (facing K).
Row 2 contains J (Papaya) at position 1, H (Mango) at position 2, M at position 3, I (Guava) at position 4, K (Cherry) at position 5, N at position 6, and L at position 7.
Since the person who likes Litchi is the only neighbour of the person who likes Apricot, Apricot must sit at an extreme end. In Row 1, position 1 is an extreme end occupied by G, whose only adjacent neighbour is A at position 2 who likes Litchi. Therefore, G likes Apricot.
62Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Fourteen persons sit in two parallel rows, where A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in row 1 and face south and H, I, J, K, L, M and N sit in row 2 and face north. Each person in row 1 faces a person in row 2 and vice versa. Each of them like a different fruit which are Papaya, Apple, Grapes, Cherry, Mango, Orange, Guava, Litchi, Kiwi, Banana, Plum, Apricot, Watermelon and Berry but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the left of the one who likes apple. Three persons sit between the one who likes apple and the one who likes watermelon. L faces the one who likes watermelon. The one who likes guava sits third to the left of L. Only two persons sit between the one who likes guava and the one who likes papaya who sits second to the left of the person who faces E. Three persons sit between E and F who faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes cherry. The one who likes cherry sits exactly between I and N. The one who likes mango sits second to the left of I. A faces the one who likes mango. As many persons sit to the left of A as to the right of H. M sits next to H and faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes plum. D and K face each other but none of them sits at the extreme end. The one who likes kiwi sits to the right of the one who likes berry but not in the same row as G. The one who likes litchi is the only neighbour of the one who likes Apricot. The one who likes grapes doesn't sit next to E.
How many persons sit between J and the one who likes Kiwi?
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Answer: (E) One
Explanation
Solved the full 14-person double-row puzzle (row1 south-facing A-G, row2 north-facing H-N) using all clues (apple/watermelon/guava/papaya/cherry/mango chains, A_col=H_col from the left/right count clue, D=K facing, M next to H, litchi-apricot end pair, kiwi/berry, grapes not next to E). Consistent solution: J sits at column1 (papaya), kiwi is liked by M at column3, so exactly one person (column2) sits between J and the kiwi-liker → 'One'.
63Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Fourteen persons sit in two parallel rows, where A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in row 1 and face south and H, I, J, K, L, M and N sit in row 2 and face north. Each person in row 1 faces a person in row 2 and vice versa. Each of them like a different fruit which are Papaya, Apple, Grapes, Cherry, Mango, Orange, Guava, Litchi, Kiwi, Banana, Plum, Apricot, Watermelon and Berry but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the left of the one who likes apple. Three persons sit between the one who likes apple and the one who likes watermelon. L faces the one who likes watermelon. The one who likes guava sits third to the left of L. Only two persons sit between the one who likes guava and the one who likes papaya who sits second to the left of the person who faces E. Three persons sit between E and F who faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes cherry. The one who likes cherry sits exactly between I and N. The one who likes mango sits second to the left of I. A faces the one who likes mango. As many persons sit to the left of A as to the right of H. M sits next to H and faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes plum. D and K face each other but none of them sits at the extreme end. The one who likes kiwi sits to the right of the one who likes berry but not in the same row as G. The one who likes litchi is the only neighbour of the one who likes Apricot. The one who likes grapes doesn't sit next to E.
Which among the following combination is not correct?
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Answer: (D) H-Papaya
Explanation
Based on the seating arrangement, H sits second from the left end in Row 2 (facing north) directly opposite A. H likes Mango, while Papaya is liked by J, who sits at the extreme left end (first position) of Row 2. Therefore, the pairing of H with Papaya is incorrect.
64Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Fourteen persons sit in two parallel rows, where A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in row 1 and face south and H, I, J, K, L, M and N sit in row 2 and face north. Each person in row 1 faces a person in row 2 and vice versa. Each of them like a different fruit which are Papaya, Apple, Grapes, Cherry, Mango, Orange, Guava, Litchi, Kiwi, Banana, Plum, Apricot, Watermelon and Berry but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the left of the one who likes apple. Three persons sit between the one who likes apple and the one who likes watermelon. L faces the one who likes watermelon. The one who likes guava sits third to the left of L. Only two persons sit between the one who likes guava and the one who likes papaya who sits second to the left of the person who faces E. Three persons sit between E and F who faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes cherry. The one who likes cherry sits exactly between I and N. The one who likes mango sits second to the left of I. A faces the one who likes mango. As many persons sit to the left of A as to the right of H. M sits next to H and faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes plum. D and K face each other but none of them sits at the extreme end. The one who likes kiwi sits to the right of the one who likes berry but not in the same row as G. The one who likes litchi is the only neighbour of the one who likes Apricot. The one who likes grapes doesn't sit next to E.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one which doesn't belong to group?
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Answer: (B) The one who likes Cherry
Explanation
From the given arrangement, the fourteen persons are seated as follows:
Row 1 (facing South, positions 1 to 7 from left to right):
Position 1: Person liking Apricot (extreme end)
Position 2: A (Litchi)
Position 3: E (Apple)
Position 4: B/G (Orange/Banana)
Position 5: D (Plum)
Position 6: C (Grapes)
Position 7: F (Watermelon, extreme end)
Row 2 (facing North, positions 1 to 7 from left to right):
Position 1: J (Papaya, extreme end)
Position 2: H (Mango)
Position 3: M (Berry/Kiwi/Orange/Banana)
Position 4: I (Guava)
Position 5: K (Cherry)
Position 6: N (Berry/Kiwi/Orange/Banana)
Position 7: L (extreme end)
The one who likes Apricot, F, the one who likes Papaya, and L all occupy extreme end positions of their respective rows, while the one who likes Cherry occupies an inner seat at position 5 of Row 2.
65Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Fourteen persons sit in two parallel rows, where A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit in row 1 and face south and H, I, J, K, L, M and N sit in row 2 and face north. Each person in row 1 faces a person in row 2 and vice versa. Each of them like a different fruit which are Papaya, Apple, Grapes, Cherry, Mango, Orange, Guava, Litchi, Kiwi, Banana, Plum, Apricot, Watermelon and Berry but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the left of the one who likes apple. Three persons sit between the one who likes apple and the one who likes watermelon. L faces the one who likes watermelon. The one who likes guava sits third to the left of L. Only two persons sit between the one who likes guava and the one who likes papaya who sits second to the left of the person who faces E. Three persons sit between E and F who faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes cherry. The one who likes cherry sits exactly between I and N. The one who likes mango sits second to the left of I. A faces the one who likes mango. As many persons sit to the left of A as to the right of H. M sits next to H and faces the one who sits second to the right of the one who likes plum. D and K face each other but none of them sits at the extreme end. The one who likes kiwi sits to the right of the one who likes berry but not in the same row as G. The one who likes litchi is the only neighbour of the one who likes Apricot. The one who likes grapes doesn't sit next to E.
Which among the following statement is true?
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Answer: (D) A sits to the right of the one who likes watermelon
Explanation
Row 1 persons (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) face south, meaning right is toward the west (position 1) and left is toward the east (position 7). Row 2 persons (H, I, J, K, L, M, N) face north, where left is toward position 1 and right is toward position 7.
From the given conditions:
Apple is at position 3 in Row 1, so C sits third to the left at position 6.
Watermelon is at position 7 in Row 1 (three persons between Apple and Watermelon).
L sits at position 7 in Row 2, facing Watermelon.
Guava is at position 4 in Row 2 (third to the left of L).
Papaya is at position 1 in Row 2 (two persons between Guava and Papaya).
E is at position 3 in Row 1 (facing position 3, so Papaya at 1 is second to the left of it).
F is at position 7 in Row 1 (three persons between E and F), so F likes Watermelon.
Cherry is at position 5 in Row 2 (position 7 is second to the right of Cherry).
I is at position 4 and N is at position 6 in Row 2, placing Cherry at position 5 exactly between them.
Mango is at position 2 in Row 2 (second to the left of I).
A is at position 2 in Row 1 (facing Mango).
Since Row 1 faces south, position 2 (A) lies to the right of position 7 (F, who likes watermelon).
66Reasoning Ability
A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers and words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and its rearrangement.
Input: 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife 86 Dove 32 Village 90 Ring
Step I: Village 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife 86 Dove 32 Ring 90
Step II: Ring Village 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife Dove 32 90 86
Step III: Knife Ring Village 45 Close Grip 39 Dove 32 90 86 67
Step IV: Grip Knife Ring Village Close 39 Dove 32 90 86 67 45
Step V: Dove Grip Knife Ring Village Close 32 90 86 67 45 39
Step VI: Close Dove Grip Knife Ring Village 90 86 67 45 39 32
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 52 Chair 78 Flowers 41 Umbrella 90 Box 48 Table 65 Shelf
What is the position of the element "Chair" in Step VI?
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Answer: (D) Eleventh from the right
Explanation
The machine rearrangement places words in alphabetical order at the left end step-by-step (highest alphabetical order first, pushed rightwards as subsequent words are placed to the extreme left) and numbers in descending order at the right end (highest first, appended to the right).
In Step VI, the complete arrangement of the 12 elements is:
Box Chair Flowers Shelf Table Umbrella 90 78 65 52 48 41
Counting from the right end, 41 is 1st, 48 is 2nd, 52 is 3rd, 65 is 4th, 78 is 5th, 90 is 6th, Umbrella is 7th, Table is 8th, Shelf is 9th, Flowers is 10th, and Chair is 11th from the right.
67Reasoning Ability
A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers and words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and its rearrangement.
Input: 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife 86 Dove 32 Village 90 Ring
Step I: Village 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife 86 Dove 32 Ring 90
Step II: Ring Village 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife Dove 32 90 86
Step III: Knife Ring Village 45 Close Grip 39 Dove 32 90 86 67
Step IV: Grip Knife Ring Village Close 39 Dove 32 90 86 67 45
Step V: Dove Grip Knife Ring Village Close 32 90 86 67 45 39
Step VI: Close Dove Grip Knife Ring Village 90 86 67 45 39 32
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 52 Chair 78 Flowers 41 Umbrella 90 Box 48 Table 65 Shelf
Which among the following element is fifth to the right of Flowers in Step V?
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Answer: (A) Box
Explanation
In each step, words are arranged in reverse alphabetical order at the extreme left, and numbers are arranged in descending order at the extreme right.
Counting five positions to the right from Flowers in Step V: Shelf (1st), Table (2nd), Umbrella (3rd), 41 (4th), Box (5th).
68Reasoning Ability
A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers and words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and its rearrangement.
Input: 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife 86 Dove 32 Village 90 Ring
Step I: Village 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife 86 Dove 32 Ring 90
Step II: Ring Village 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife Dove 32 90 86
Step III: Knife Ring Village 45 Close Grip 39 Dove 32 90 86 67
Step IV: Grip Knife Ring Village Close 39 Dove 32 90 86 67 45
Step V: Dove Grip Knife Ring Village Close 32 90 86 67 45 39
Step VI: Close Dove Grip Knife Ring Village 90 86 67 45 39 32
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: 52 Chair 78 Flowers 41 Umbrella 90 Box 48 Table 65 Shelf
What is the sum of third and fifth number from the left end in Step III?
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Answer: (C) 126
Explanation
The arrangement rule shifts the words in reverse alphabetical order to the extreme left one by one, while simultaneously shifting the numbers in descending order to the extreme right one by one.
In Step III, counting numbers from the left end gives:
First number = 52
Second number = 41
Third number = 48
Fourth number = 90
Fifth number = 78
Sum of the third and fifth numbers = 48 + 78 = 126.
69Reasoning Ability
A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers and words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and its rearrangement. Input: 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife 86 Dove 32 Village 90 Ring Step I: Village 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife 86 Dove 32 Ring 90 Step II: Ring Village 45 Close 67 Grip 39 Knife Dove 32 90 86 Step III: Knife Ring Village 45 Close Grip 39 Dove 32 90 86 67 Step IV: Grip Knife Ring Village Close 39 Dove 32 90 86 67 45 Step V: Dove Grip Knife Ring Village Close 32 90 86 67 45 39 Step VI: Close Dove Grip Knife Ring Village 90 86 67 45 39 32 Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: 52 Chair 78 Flowers 41 Umbrella 90 Box 48 Table 65 Shelf
Which element is second to the left of seventh element from the right end in Step II?
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Answer: (B) Chair
Explanation
In the given arrangement machine, words are shifted to the extreme left one by one in reverse alphabetical order, while numbers are shifted to the extreme right one by one in descending order.
For the given input:
52 Chair 78 Flowers 41 Umbrella 90 Box 48 Table 65 Shelf
Step I moves Umbrella to the extreme left and 90 to the extreme right:
Umbrella 52 Chair 78 Flowers 41 Box 48 Table 65 Shelf 90
Step II moves Table to the extreme left and 78 to the extreme right:
Table Umbrella 52 Chair Flowers 41 Box 48 65 Shelf 90 78
The element second to the left of the seventh element from the right end corresponds to the (7 + 2) = 9th element from the right end, which is the 4th element from the left end: Chair.
70Reasoning Ability
If the first, fourth, fifth and eighth letters of the word "MYSTIQUE" are combined to form a meaningful word, what will be the third letter from the right end of the word formed? If more than one such word can be formed, mark the answer as X and if no such word can be formed, mark the answer as Y.
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Answer: (D) X
Explanation
The 1st, 4th, 5th, and 8th letters of the word MYSTIQUE are M, T, I, and E respectively.
Using the letters M, T, I, and E exactly once, multiple meaningful four-letter English words can be formed:
EMIT
ITEM
MITE
TIME
Since more than one meaningful word can be formed, the specified designation is X.
71Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - are from three different cities - Goa, Kerala, and Jammu. At least two persons and not more than three persons are from the same city, and each of them likes a different fruit among Mango, Apple, Orange, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Pineapple and Papaya but not necessarily in the same order. U is from the city different from W. Q and the person who likes Papaya are from the same city but both of them are not from Kerala. Q and W are from different cities. W is not from Goa. The person who likes papaya is not from the same city as U who is from the same city as the person who likes Mango. V likes Apple. T and Q are from the different cities. T is not from Kerala and doesn't like Mango. P is from Goa. V is from the same city as W. S is from the city different from T who likes Pineapple. S doesn't like Mango. The person who likes Pineapple and the person who likes Grapes are from same city. W doesn't like Grapes. S and the person who likes Orange are from same city. Q doesn't like Orange. W doesn't like Banana. The person who likes Banana is not from Jammu. S is not from Kerala.
From which among the following city R belongs and like which fruit?
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Answer: (D) Jammu, Mango
Explanation
P is from Goa. Since S and T are from different non-Kerala cities, one is in Goa and the other is in Jammu. Q cannot be in Kerala and is from a different city than T, placing Q and S in Goa, while T (who likes Pineapple) is in Jammu.
V and W cannot be in Goa, nor can they be in Jammu because W does not like Grapes while the Grapes lover shares a city with T. Thus, V (who likes Apple) and W (who likes Guava) belong to Kerala.
U is from a different city than W and the Papaya lover (S in Goa), so U is in Jammu. The person who likes Grapes and the person who likes Mango must also be in Jammu along with T (Pineapple). Since U shares a city with the person who likes Mango, U likes Grapes and the remaining person, R, belongs to Jammu and likes Mango.
72Reasoning Ability
Which among the following fruit does P like?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - are from three different cities - Goa, Kerala, and Jammu. At least two persons and not more than three persons are from the same city, and each of them likes a different fruit among Mango, Apple, Orange, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Pineapple and Papaya but not necessarily in the same order. U is from the city different from W. Q and the person who likes Papaya are from the same city but both of them are not from Kerala. Q and W are from different cities. W is not from Goa. The person who likes papaya is not from the same city as U who is from the same city as the person who likes Mango. V likes Apple. T and Q are from the different cities. T is not from Kerala and doesn't like Mango. P is from Goa. V is from the same city as W. S is from the city different from T who likes Pineapple. S doesn't like Mango. The person who likes Pineapple and the person who likes Grapes are from same city. W doesn't like Grapes. S and the person who likes Orange are from same city. Q doesn't like Orange. W doesn't like Banana. The person who likes Banana is not from Jammu. S is not from Kerala.
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Answer: (C) Mango
Explanation
From the given conditions, the eight persons are distributed across three cities:
Goa has three persons: P, T, and U. T likes Pineapple. Since the person who likes Grapes is from the same city as Pineapple, Grapes belongs to Goa. As U is from the same city as the person who likes Mango, Mango also belongs to Goa. Since T likes Pineapple and U is distinct from the person who likes Mango, U likes Grapes and P likes Mango.
Jammu has two persons: Q and S. S likes Orange and Q likes Papaya.
Kerala has three persons: V, W, and R. V likes Apple, R likes Banana, and W likes Guava.
Therefore, P likes Mango.
73Reasoning Ability
Which among the following statement is true?
I. S doesn't like Papaya.
II. W is from Kerela and likes Guava.
III. Q and R is from same city.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - are from three different cities - Goa, Kerala, and Jammu. At least two persons and not more than three persons are from the same city, and each of them likes a different fruit among Mango, Apple, Orange, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Pineapple and Papaya but not necessarily in the same order. U is from the city different from W. Q and the person who likes Papaya are from the same city but both of them are not from Kerala. Q and W are from different cities. W is not from Goa. The person who likes papaya is not from the same city as U who is from the same city as the person who likes Mango. V likes Apple. T and Q are from the different cities. T is not from Kerala and doesn't like Mango. P is from Goa. V is from the same city as W. S is from the city different from T who likes Pineapple. S doesn't like Mango. The person who likes Pineapple and the person who likes Grapes are from same city. W doesn't like Grapes. S and the person who likes Orange are from same city. Q doesn't like Orange. W doesn't like Banana. The person who likes Banana is not from Jammu. S is not from Kerala.
S is not from Kerala.
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Answer: (B) Only II
Explanation
From the given conditions, the distribution of persons, cities, and fruits is uniquely determined as follows:
Goa (3 persons): P likes Orange, Q likes Banana, and S likes Papaya.
Kerala (2 persons): V likes Apple and W likes Guava.
Jammu (3 persons): T likes Pineapple, while U and R like Mango and Grapes.
Evaluating the statements based on this arrangement:
Statement I is false because S likes Papaya.
Statement II is true because W is from Kerala and likes Guava.
Statement III is false because Q is from Goa while R is from Jammu.
74Reasoning Ability
Which of the following combination are correctly matched?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - are from three different cities - Goa, Kerala, and Jammu. At least two persons and not more than three persons are from the same city, and each of them likes a different fruit among Mango, Apple, Orange, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Pineapple and Papaya but not necessarily in the same order. U is from the city different from W. Q and the person who likes Papaya are from the same city but both of them are not from Kerala. Q and W are from different cities. W is not from Goa. The person who likes papaya is not from the same city as U who is from the same city as the person who likes Mango. V likes Apple. T and Q are from the different cities. T is not from Kerala and doesn't like Mango. P is from Goa. V is from the same city as W. S is from the city different from T who likes Pineapple. S doesn't like Mango. The person who likes Pineapple and the person who likes Grapes are from same city. W doesn't like Grapes. S and the person who likes Orange are from same city. Q doesn't like Orange. W doesn't like Banana. The person who likes Banana is not from Jammu. S is not from Kerala.
S is not from Kerala.
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Answer: (E) S - Papaya, Goa
Explanation
From the given conditions, the 8 persons are distributed across the three cities as follows:
Goa (3 persons):
P likes Orange
Q likes Banana
S likes Papaya
Jammu (3 persons):
T likes Pineapple
U likes Grapes
R likes Mango
Kerala (2 persons):
V likes Apple
W likes Guava
Matching each person with their respective fruit and city shows that S is from Goa and likes Papaya.
75Reasoning Ability
. If P is related to S and in the same way U is related to T then V is related to who among the following?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - are from three different cities - Goa, Kerala, and Jammu. At least two persons and not more than three persons are from the same city, and each of them likes a different fruit among Mango, Apple, Orange, Banana, Grapes, Guava, Pineapple and Papaya but not necessarily in the same order. U is from the city different from W. Q and the person who likes Papaya are from the same city but both of them are not from Kerala. Q and W are from different cities. W is not from Goa. The person who likes papaya is not from the same city as U who is from the same city as the person who likes Mango. V likes Apple. T and Q are from the different cities. T is not from Kerala and doesn't like Mango. P is from Goa. V is from the same city as W. S is from the city different from T who likes Pineapple. S doesn't like Mango. The person who likes Pineapple and the person who likes Grapes are from same city. W doesn't like Grapes. S and the person who likes Orange are from same city. Q doesn't like Orange. W doesn't like Banana. The person who likes Banana is not from Jammu. S is not from Kerala.
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Answer: (C) W
Explanation
From the given conditions, the distribution of persons and fruits across the three cities is:
Goa: P (Orange), Q (Banana), S (Papaya)
Jammu: T (Pineapple), U (Mango/Grapes), R (Grapes/Mango)
Kerala: V (Apple), W (Guava)
Since P and S belong to the same city (Goa), and U and T belong to the same city (Jammu), following the same pattern, V is paired with W from Kerala.
76Reasoning Ability
Statement: The rise of artificial intelligence (AI) is transforming industries by automating tasks and improving efficiency. While it creates new opportunities, it also raises concerns about job displacement and ethical usage. Addressing these challenges will be key to harnessing AI's full potential for societal benefit.
Conclusions:
I. AI will completely replace human jobs in all industries.
II. Ethical considerations are important to ensure responsible AI usage.
III. Industries adopting AI will likely see improvements in productivity.
IV. Job displacement is inevitable as AI adoption increases.
Which of the conclusions logically follow?
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Answer: (B) Only II and III
Explanation
Conclusion II directly follows because the statement identifies ethical usage as a key challenge that must be addressed to harness artificial intelligence for societal benefit. Conclusion III follows directly from the statement that artificial intelligence transforms industries by automating tasks and improving efficiency, which leads to productivity gains. Extreme claims such as complete job replacement across all industries or the absolute inevitability of displacement exceed the scope of the given premises, which only highlight opportunities, efficiency gains, and potential concerns.
77Reasoning Ability
Which of the following conclusion is drawn from the statement?
Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
Statement: The increasing use of renewable energy sources like solar and wind is seen as a solution to the global energy crisis. These sources are sustainable and reduce dependence on fossil fuels, which contribute to climate change. However, the transition faces challenges such as high initial investment costs and the intermittent nature of energy production. Governments and private sectors must collaborate to develop efficient storage systems and infrastructure to support this shift.
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Answer: (B) The global energy crisis can be addressed by adopting renewable energy sources supported by efficient infrastructure.
Explanation
The passage identifies renewable energy as a sustainable solution to the global energy crisis and climate change, while emphasizing that overcoming its inherent challenges—such as high initial costs and intermittent supply—requires governments and the private sector to collaborate in building adequate infrastructure and efficient energy storage systems.
78Reasoning Ability
Which of the following Inference can be drawn from the statement?
I. Collaboration between governments and private sectors is crucial to successfully transition to renewable energy.
II. Renewable energy sources completely eliminate the need for fossil fuels immediately after implementation.
III. The high initial investment costs and intermittent energy production are barriers to adopting renewable energy on a large scale.
Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
Statement: The increasing use of renewable energy sources like solar and wind is seen as a solution to the global energy crisis. These sources are sustainable and reduce dependence on fossil fuels, which contribute to climate change. However, the transition faces challenges such as high initial investment costs and the intermittent nature of energy production. Governments and private sectors must collaborate to develop efficient storage systems and infrastructure to support this shift.
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Answer: (C) Only I and III
Explanation
The statement highlights that high initial investment costs and intermittent energy production are key challenges facing the transition to renewables, directly supporting inference III. Furthermore, it explicitly notes that governments and the private sector must collaborate to build the necessary storage systems and infrastructure, making inference I a valid conclusion. The text specifies reducing dependence on fossil fuels rather than completely and immediately eliminating them.
79Reasoning Ability
Statement: Online education platforms have seen a significant rise in enrollment, driven by the flexibility and accessibility they offer. However, concerns remain about the effectiveness of virtual learning compared to traditional classroom settings.
Assumptions:
I. The flexibility and accessibility of online education platforms attract more learners. II. Traditional classroom settings are universally considered more effective than online learning. III. The rise in enrollment indicates that online education is becoming the preferred mode of learning for all subjects.
Which of the following assumptions logically follow from the given statement?
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Answer: (A) Only I
Explanation
The statement directly establishes that the significant rise in enrollment is driven by the flexibility and accessibility offered by online platforms. For this causal relationship to hold, it is inherently assumed that these two specific features act as key incentives that attract more learners to virtual education modes.
80Reasoning Ability
Six persons- A, B, C, D, E and F were born in the month of January on different dates in the same year. A was born on the date which is multiple of 4 and 5. B was born 10 days after A. D was born on the date which is multiple of 7. C was born 6 days before D but not on an even numbered date. No one was born on 1 and 31 January. F was born on prime numbered date but after C. E was born on 18 January. When was D born?
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Answer: (C) 21 January
Explanation
A was born on the only common multiple of 4 and 5 in January, which is 20 January, making B born on 30 January. For D born on a multiple of 7 (7, 14, 21, 28), subtracting 6 days gives the birth date of C:
If D is 7, C = 1 (not allowed since 1 January is excluded).
If D is 14, C = 8 (even, invalid).
If D is 21, C = 15 (odd, valid).
If D is 28, C = 22 (even, invalid).
Thus, D was born on 21 January, leaving F on a prime date after 15 January.
81Reasoning Ability
Statements: W< E≤ R = T > U ; H≥ K = L≥ R< V Conclusions: I: T > V II: E ≤ H
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
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Answer: (B) If only conclusion II is true.
Explanation
From the given statements, combining the relations linking E and H through the common element R gives E ≤ R and H ≥ K = L ≥ R, which simplifies directly to E ≤ R ≤ H, confirming that E ≤ H is true. For the relationship between T and V, substituting R = T into R < V gives T < V, making T > V false. Only the second conclusion follows.
82Reasoning Ability
Statements: W > R≥ Y = I≤ P ; A≤ S > Y≤ F = G
Conclusions: I: W > G II: S ≤ P
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
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Answer: (D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Explanation
Connecting W and G through common element Y gives W > R ≥ Y ≤ F = G. The presence of opposite inequality symbols (> and ≤) means no definite relationship exists between W and G, so conclusion I does not follow.
Connecting S and P through common element Y gives S > Y ≤ P. The opposite inequality symbols (> and ≤) prevent establishing a definite relationship between S and P, so conclusion II does not follow.
83Reasoning Ability
Fill in the blank with the appropriate symbols respectively as given below to make the statement A>G and U<N definitely true.
A = S > D≥ F_ G≤ H< U≤ T< P_ L = N > V
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Answer: (D) ≥ ,≤
Explanation
To make A > G definitely true, the chain connecting A to G must have non-conflicting greater-than symbols:
A = S > D ≥ F ≥ G
Since the strict inequality A > D holds and all subsequent relations are ≥, it follows directly that A > G.
To make U < N definitely true, the chain connecting U to N must maintain consistent less-than relations:
U ≤ T < P ≤ L = N
Because T < P is strictly less and the remaining relations are ≤ or =, combining them directly gives U < N.
84Reasoning Ability
Fill in the blank with the appropriate symbols respectively as given below to make the statement Y>W and B > X definitely false.
Q< W≤ E = R≤ T_ Y≥ Z≥ X< C_ V< B = N
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Answer: (C) >,>
Explanation
Substituting > in the first blank yields the chain W ≤ E = R ≤ T > Y. The presence of opposing inequality symbols (≤ and >) breaks the continuity between W and Y, so no definite relationship can be established, making Y > W false.
Substituting > in the second blank yields the chain X < C > V < B = N. The opposing inequality symbols (< and >) between X and B prevent any definite relationship, making B > X false.
Therefore, inserting > and > respectively ensures that both statements are false.
85Reasoning Ability
Eight books- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are kept one above another, but not necessarily in the same order. Which among them is kept immediately above book D?
Statement I: Only one book is kept above C and only three books are kept between C and G which is immediately below F.
Statement II: Only two books are kept between B and E which is immediately above F. As many books are kept above B as below A.
The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and answer the following questions:
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Answer: (D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
Number the positions from 1 at the bottom to 8 at the top.
From Statement I:
C is at position 7 since only one book is above it.
G is at position 3 because three books are between C and G.
F is at position 4 as G is immediately below F.
From Statement II combined with Statement I:
E is at position 5, immediately above F.
Since two books are between B and E, B must be at position 8 (placing B at 2 would require A at position 7, which is already occupied by C).
With 0 books above B, A must be at position 1 so that 0 books are below A.
The fixed arrangement from top to bottom is 8: B, 7: C, 6: Vacant, 5: E, 4: F, 3: G, 2: Vacant, 1: A.
The two remaining positions, 6 and 2, must be occupied by D and H. Since no condition differentiates D and H, D can be at position 6 (with C immediately above it) or at position 2 (with G immediately above it). Therefore, the data in both statements together are not sufficient to determine which book is immediately above D.
86Reasoning Ability
Cup is in which direction with respect to cooler?
Statement I: Table is 5m east of Cup and 4m south of TV, which is 3m east of AC. Cooler is 5m south of AC.
Statement II: Cooler is south-west of TV, which is 5m west of Hanger. Hanger is 4m north of Switch board, which is north-east of Cup.
The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and answer the following questions:
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Answer: (A) If the data given in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
Using Cartesian coordinates with Cup at (0, 0):
Table is at (5, 0).
TV is 4m north of Table at (5, 4).
AC is 3m west of TV at (2, 4).
Cooler is 5m south of AC at (2, -1).
The position of Cup relative to Cooler is (0 - 2, 0 - (-1)) = (-2, 1), which uniquely points North-West. Thus, Statement I alone is sufficient.
Statement II provides only directional sectors without fixed distances between Cooler, TV, and Cup, leaving the relative position of Cup with respect to Cooler indeterminate.
87Reasoning Ability
Seven persons - I, J, K, L, M, N and O are standing in a linear row facing south, but not necessarily in the same order. Who among them stands second from the left end?
Statement I: Only two persons stand between I and K where neither of them stands at the end. L stands to the immediate left of N. As many persons stand to the left of I as to the right of L. N doesn't stand at the extreme end.
Statement II: K stands second to the left of J. Only three persons stand between J and O who does not stand at the end. The number of persons stand to the left of M is one less than the right of K. K doesn't stand adjacent to M.
The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and answer the following questions:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) If the data given either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
Let the 7 positions from right to left for persons facing south be numbered 1 to 7, where position 1 is the right extreme and position 7 is the left extreme. The person second from the left end is at position 6.
From Statement I:
Since I and K do not sit at the ends and have two persons between them, their positions must be {2, 5} or {3, 6}.
L is to the immediate left of N, so pos(L) = pos(N) + 1.
The number of persons to the left of I equals the number to the right of L: 7 - pos(I) = pos(L) - 1, which gives pos(I) + pos(L) = 8.
If pos(I) = 2, then pos(L) = 6 and pos(N) = 5, which clashes with pos(K) = 5.
If pos(I) = 5, then pos(L) = 3 and pos(N) = 2, which clashes with pos(K) = 2.
If pos(I) = 6, then pos(L) = 2 and pos(N) = 1, which violates the condition that N is not at an extreme end.
If pos(I) = 3, then pos(K) = 6, pos(L) = 5, and pos(N) = 4, which is valid and uniquely places K at position 6 (second from the left end). Thus, Statement I alone is sufficient.
From Statement II:
K stands second to the left of J, so pos(K) = pos(J) + 2.
Three persons sit between J and O, and O is not at an extreme end. The possible valid placements are pos(J) = 1, pos(K) = 3, pos(O) = 5 or pos(J) = 2, pos(K) = 4, pos(O) = 6.
Persons to the left of M is one less than persons to the right of K.
In the first case, persons to the right of K is 2, so persons to the left of M is 1, giving pos(M) = 6 (K and M are not adjacent, valid).
In the second case, persons to the right of K is 3, so persons to the left of M is 2, giving pos(M) = 5 (K and M become adjacent, invalid).
Thus, Statement II uniquely places M at position 6 (second from the left end). Statement II alone is also sufficient.
88Reasoning Ability
Six children - U, V, W, X, Y and Z have different number of kites with them. Who among them has the second highest number of kites?
Statement I: V has more kites than Y who has less kites than W. Z has more kites than W but less kites than V. Statement II: Y has more kites than V. Only three children have less kites than V. Z has more kites than V but not more than Y.
The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and answer the following questions:
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Answer: (B) If the data given in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
From Statement II, since exactly three children have fewer kites than V, V must rank 3rd from the top among the 6 children. Both Y and Z have more kites than V, so they must occupy the top two positions (ranks 1 and 2). Since all children have different numbers of kites and Z does not have more kites than Y, Y is 1st and Z is 2nd. Thus, Z uniquely has the second highest number of kites, making Statement II alone sufficient.
Statement I only establishes the relative inequality V > Z > W > Y, leaving the positions of U and X unknown, so Statement I alone is not sufficient.
89Reasoning Ability
Which of the following can logically be inferred as a potential effect of the cause 'Governments are actively promoting the adoption of electric vehicles (EVs)?
Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
Statement: Global adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) is accelerating as governments push for lower carbon emissions. Major automakers are transitioning to EV production, spurred by advancements in battery technology and increasing consumer demand. However, the transition poses challenges, including inadequate charging infrastructure and the high cost of production. Overcoming these hurdles will be crucial to achieving sustainable transportation goals.
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Answer: (B) Charging infrastructure will expand to meet demand.
Explanation
Active government promotion accelerates the adoption and market share of electric vehicles, leading to higher vehicle density on roads. To support this growing fleet and overcome the bottleneck of inadequate facilities, public and private investments naturally flow into scaling up charging networks to meet the rising consumer and operational demand.
90Reasoning Ability
Which of the following course of action would logically help address the challenge that the adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) faces challenges such as inadequate charging infrastructure and high production costs?
Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
Statement: Global adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) is accelerating as governments push for lower carbon emissions. Major automakers are transitioning to EV production, spurred by advancements in battery technology and increasing consumer demand. However, the transition poses challenges, including inadequate charging infrastructure and the high cost of production. Overcoming these hurdles will be crucial to achieving sustainable transportation goals.
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Answer: (A) Governments should introduce subsidies for EV manufacturers to lower production costs.
Explanation
Subsidies provided by governments directly reduce capital and operational expenditures for manufacturers, offsetting high battery and development costs. This enables automakers to scale production, achieve economies of scale, and lower vehicle retail prices, directly resolving the bottleneck of high production costs highlighted in the transition to electric mobility.
91Reasoning Ability
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Find the one which doesn't belong to group?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
W is the mother- in- law of X. T is the brother- in- law of X who does not have a sibling. Z is the father- in- law of Y who is the spouse of T. V is the grandson of W but not the child of U. Z has only two children. Y is the aunt of S. S and V have opposite genders. U is sister- in- law of Y.
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Answer: (E) S
Explanation
From the given family relations:
Z is the father-in-law of Y, hence male.
T is the brother-in-law of X, hence male.
X is married to U (sister of T), hence male.
V is the grandson of W, hence male.
Since S and V have opposite genders and V is male, S is female. Therefore, S is the odd one out as she is female while the others are male.
92Reasoning Ability
How Z is related to V?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
W is the mother- in- law of X. T is the brother- in- law of X who does not have a sibling. Z is the father- in- law of Y who is the spouse of T. V is the grandson of W but not the child of U. Z has only two children. Y is the aunt of S. S and V have opposite genders. U is sister- in- law of Y.
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Answer: (B) Grand father
Explanation
Z and W are married and have two children, T and U. X has no siblings and is married to U, making T the brother-in-law of X, and W the mother-in-law of X. T is married to Y, which makes Z the father-in-law of Y and U the sister-in-law of Y. Since V is the grandson of W but not the child of U, V is the son of T and Y. Therefore, Z is the father of T and the grandfather of V.
93Reasoning Ability
What is the ratio of male to female respectively?
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
W is the mother- in- law of X. T is the brother- in- law of X who does not have a sibling. Z is the father- in- law of Y who is the spouse of T. V is the grandson of W but not the child of U. Z has only two children. Y is the aunt of S. S and V have opposite genders. U is sister- in- law of Y.
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Answer: (C) 1:1
Explanation
From the given conditions:
Z (male) and W (female) are married and have two children: T (male) and U (female).
T is married to Y (female), and they have a son, V (male).
U is married to X (male), and they have a daughter, S (female).
Counting the members by gender:
Males: Z, X, T, V (4 members)
Females: W, Y, U, S (4 members)
Ratio of male to female = 4 : 4 = 1 : 1.
94Reasoning Ability
Find the odd one out.
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Answer: (D) UVX
Explanation
ACF(+2,+3), DFI(+2,+3), KMP(+2,+3), SUX(+2,+3) all follow a +2,+3 letter-gap pattern; UVX follows +1,+2, making it the odd one out.
95Reasoning Ability
If in the given number "246859317" the digits at the odd position are increased by 1 then the digits are arranged in ascending order from left to right then what is the product of the 4th digits from both the ends in the new number thus formed?
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Answer: (C) 28
Explanation
Given number: 246859317 (9 digits).
Identify the odd-positioned digits from the left (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th, 9th) and increase each by 1:
1st digit: 2 + 1 = 3
3rd digit: 6 + 1 = 7
5th digit: 5 + 1 = 6
7th digit: 3 + 1 = 4
9th digit: 7 + 1 = 8
The resulting set of digits is 3, 4, 7, 8, 6, 9, 4, 1, 8.
Arranging all 9 digits in ascending order:
1, 3, 4, 4, 6, 7, 8, 8, 9
The 4th digit from the left end is 4.
The 4th digit from the right end is 7.
Product = 4 × 7 = 28.
96Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W go to different countries- Egypt, Canada, US, Chile, Germany, Armenia, Croatia and France for vacation but not necessarily in the same order. P goes to the country which name starts with a vowel. T doesn't go to France and Germany. Q and W doesn't go to France and Canada. R, V and U doesn't go to Armenia, Croatia and France. Q, W and T doesn't go to Armenia and US. T, U and V doesn't go to Canada. W goes to Germany. U and Q doesn't go to US and Chile.
R goes to which country?
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Answer: (B) Canada
Explanation
From the given conditions:
W is directly given as going to Germany.
U cannot go to Armenia, Croatia, France, Canada, US, or Chile, leaving Egypt for U.
Q cannot go to France, Canada, Armenia, US, or Chile, leaving Croatia for Q.
T cannot go to France, Germany, Armenia, US, or Canada, leaving Chile for T.
V cannot go to Armenia, Croatia, France, or Canada, leaving US for V.
P must go to a country starting with a vowel; since Egypt and US are taken, P goes to Armenia.
R cannot go to Armenia, Croatia, or France, and the only remaining available country for R is Canada.
97Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W go to different countries- Egypt, Canada, US, Chile, Germany, Armenia, Croatia and France for vacation but not necessarily in the same order. P goes to the country which name starts with a vowel. T doesn't go to France and Germany. Q and W doesn't go to France and Canada. R, V and U doesn't go to Armenia, Croatia and France. Q, W and T doesn't go to Armenia and US. T, U and V doesn't go to Canada. W goes to Germany. U and Q doesn't go to US and Chile.
T goes to which country?
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Answer: (D) Chile
Explanation
Given W goes to Germany.
France cannot be visited by T, Q, W, R, V, or U. Since P must visit a country starting with a vowel, S goes to France.
Canada cannot be visited by Q, W, T, U, V, or S, and P requires a vowel-initial country, so R goes to Canada.
Armenia is a vowel-initial country that cannot be visited by R, V, U, Q, W, T, or S, so P goes to Armenia.
The US cannot be visited by Q, W, T, or U, so V goes to the US.
U cannot visit Armenia, Croatia, France, US, or Chile, which means U goes to Egypt.
Q cannot visit the US or Chile, meaning Q goes to Croatia.
With all other persons and countries assigned, T goes to Chile.
98Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W go to different countries- Egypt, Canada, US, Chile, Germany, Armenia, Croatia and France for vacation but not necessarily in the same order. P goes to the country which name starts with a vowel. T doesn't go to France and Germany. Q and W doesn't go to France and Canada. R, V and U doesn't go to Armenia, Croatia and France. Q, W and T doesn't go to Armenia and US. T, U and V doesn't go to Canada. W goes to Germany. U and Q doesn't go to US and Chile.
Which among the following combination is not correct?
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Answer: (D) U-Armenia
Explanation
From the given conditions, W goes to Germany.
France cannot be visited by T, Q, W, R, V, U, or P (since P must visit a country starting with a vowel: Egypt, US, or Armenia), which leaves S visiting France.
Canada cannot be visited by Q, W, T, U, V, S, or P, which leaves R visiting Canada.
For U, Armenia, Croatia, France, Canada, US, and Chile are eliminated, so U visits Egypt.
For Q, France, Canada, Armenia, US, and Chile are eliminated, so Q visits Croatia.
For T, Armenia and US are eliminated from the remaining countries, so T visits Chile.
For V, Armenia is eliminated, so V visits US, leaving P visiting Armenia.
Thus, U is paired with Egypt, not Armenia.
99Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W go to different countries- Egypt, Canada, US, Chile, Germany, Armenia, Croatia and France for vacation but not necessarily in the same order. P goes to the country which name starts with a vowel. T doesn't go to France and Germany. Q and W doesn't go to France and Canada. R, V and U doesn't go to Armenia, Croatia and France. Q, W and T doesn't go to Armenia and US. T, U and V doesn't go to Canada. W goes to Germany. U and Q doesn't go to US and Chile.
Who among the following goes to Egypt?
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Answer: (C) U
Explanation
W visits Germany.
U cannot visit Armenia, Croatia, or France based on the condition that R, V, and U do not visit them.
U cannot visit Canada based on the condition that T, U, and V do not visit Canada.
U cannot visit the US or Chile based on the condition that U and Q do not visit them.
With Germany already assigned to W, Egypt is the only country remaining for U.
100Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W go to different countries- Egypt, Canada, US, Chile, Germany, Armenia, Croatia and France for vacation but not necessarily in the same order. P goes to the country which name starts with a vowel. T doesn't go to France and Germany. Q and W doesn't go to France and Canada. R, V and U doesn't go to Armenia, Croatia and France. Q, W and T doesn't go to Armenia and US. T, U and V doesn't go to Canada. W goes to Germany. U and Q doesn't go to US and Chile.
Q goes to which country?
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Answer: (E) Croatia
Explanation
W is directly assigned to Germany.
France cannot be visited by T, Q, W, R, V, or U. Since P must visit a country starting with a vowel, P cannot visit France, meaning S visits France.
Canada cannot be visited by Q, W, T, U, or V. Since P requires a vowel-starting country, R visits Canada.
Armenia cannot be visited by Q, T, U, or V, which leaves P to visit Armenia.
US cannot be visited by Q, T, or U, so V visits US.
Chile cannot be visited by Q or U, leaving T to visit Chile.
Croatia cannot be visited by U, which means Q visits Croatia, leaving U to visit Egypt.
101Quantitative Aptitude
In the following two equations questions numbered (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both equations and Give answer.
I. x² - 7x + 12 = 0
II. y² - 8y + 12 = 0
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Answer: (E) If x = y or no relation can be established
Comparing the values of x and y:
For x = 3 and y = 2, x > y.
For x = 3 and y = 6, x < y.
Because both x > y and x < y hold for different pairs of roots, no definitive relationship can be established between x and y.
102Quantitative Aptitude
In the following two equations questions numbered (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both equations and Give answer.
I. x² = 81
II. (y - 9)² = 0
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Answer: (D) If y ≥ x
Explanation
From equation I:
x² = 81
x = +9 or -9
From equation II:
(y - 9)² = 0
y - 9 = 0
y = 9
Comparing the values of x and y:
When x = +9, x = y (since y = 9).
When x = -9, x < y (since 9 > -9).
Combining both cases gives y ≥ x.
103Quantitative Aptitude
In each question two equations numbered (I) and (II) are given. Student should solve both the equations and mark appropriate answer.
I. x² - 7x - 18 = 0
II. y² - 19y + 90 = 0
Comparing the values of x and y:
When x = 9: x < 10 and x = 9
When x = -2: x < 10 and x < 9
Combining all cases yields x ≤ y.
104Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions, two equations (i) and (ii) are given, you have to solve both the equations and give answer accordingly.
(ii) 2x² - 9y + 10 = 0
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Answer: (C) x ≤ y
Explanation
Equation (i): 2x³ = √256, so x³ = 8, giving x = 2. Equation (ii): 2y² - 9y + 10 = 0, which has discriminant 1, giving y = (9 ± 1)/4 = 2.5 or 2. Comparing the values, x = 2 is either equal to y (when y = 2) or less than y (when y = 2.5), so in every case x ≤ y. Hence the relation is x ≤ y.
105Quantitative Aptitude
In each question two equations numbered (I) and (II) are given. Student should solve both the equations and mark appropriate answer.
I. x² - 15x + 56 = 0
II. y = ³√(512)
Comparing the values:
For x = 7 and y = 8, x < y.
For x = 8 and y = 8, x = y.
Therefore, x ≤ y.
106Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the cost price, markup percentage, and profit or loss percentage of five different articles.
| Articles | Cost price (In Rs) | Markup percentage | Profit or loss percentage |
| -------- | -----------------: | ----------------: | ------------------------: |
| A | 500 | 80% | 44% |
| B | --- | 60% | 40% |
| C | 640 | --- | -20% |
| D | --- | 50% | --- |
| E | 1200 | --- | -25% |
Note: (i) The negative percentage shows the loss suffered on the article. (ii) Few values are missing in the table. A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question on the basis of the given data.
The ratio of the discount percentage on article A to the markup percentage on article E is 4:5. Find the difference between the discount allowed on article E and the profit earned on article A (in Rs).
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Answer: (C) 380
Explanation
For Article A:
Cost Price = Rs 500
Marked Price = 500 × 1.80 = Rs 900
Selling Price = 500 × 1.44 = Rs 720
Profit on A = 720 - 500 = Rs 220
Discount on A = 900 - 720 = Rs 180
Discount percentage on A = (180 / 900) × 100 = 20%
Given the ratio of discount percentage on A to markup percentage on E is 4:5:
Markup percentage on E = 20% × (5 / 4) = 25%
Difference = Discount on E - Profit on A = 600 - 220 = Rs 380
107Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the cost price, markup percentage, and profit or loss percentage of five different articles.
| Articles | Cost price (In Rs) | Markup percentage | Profit or loss percentage |
| -------- | -----------------: | ----------------: | ------------------------: |
| A | 500 | 80% | 44% |
| B | --- | 60% | 40% |
| C | 640 | --- | -20% |
| D | --- | 50% | --- |
| E | 1200 | --- | -25% |
Note: (i) The negative percentage shows the loss suffered on the article. (ii) Few values are missing in the table. A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question on the basis of the given data.
If the average selling price of articles C, D, and E is Rs 830 2/3 and the profit percentage of article D is one-third of the markup percentage of article B, then find which of the following option is correct about the article D.
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Answer: (C) Both (a) & (b)
Explanation
Total selling price of articles C, D, and E = (830 ⅔) × 3 = Rs 2492.
Selling price of article C = 640 × (1 - 0.20) = Rs 512.
Selling price of article E = 1200 × (1 - 0.25) = Rs 900.
Selling price of article D = 2492 - (512 + 900) = Rs 1080.
Profit percentage of article D = 60% / 3 = 20%.
Cost price of article D = 1080 / 1.20 = Rs 900.
Profit earned on article D = 1080 - 900 = Rs 180.
Marked price of article D = 900 × 1.50 = Rs 1350.
Discount percentage on article D = [(1350 - 1080) / 1350] × 100 = (270 / 1350) × 100 = 20%.
108Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the cost price, markup percentage, and profit or loss percentage of five different articles.
| Articles | Cost price (In Rs) | Markup percentage | Profit or loss percentage |
| -------- | -----------------: | ----------------: | ------------------------: |
| A | 500 | 80% | 44% |
| B | --- | 60% | 40% |
| C | 640 | --- | -20% |
| D | --- | 50% | --- |
| E | 1200 | --- | -25% |
Note: (i) The negative percentage shows the loss suffered on the article. (ii) Few values are missing in the table. A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question on the basis of the given data.
Find which of the following statement/s is /are incorrect.
I. The discount percentage on the article A is more than 25%
II. The difference between the selling price of the article C and E more than the half of the selling price of the article A.
III. The loss suffered on the article C is equal to two-third of loss suffered article C.
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Answer: (D) Both I & III
Explanation
For article A, CP = ₹500, MP = 500 × 1.80 = ₹900, and SP = 500 × 1.44 = ₹720. The discount percentage is ((900 - 720) / 900) × 100 = 20%, which is not more than 25%, making statement I incorrect.
For article C, CP = ₹640, loss is 20%, so SP = 640 × 0.80 = ₹512 and loss = ₹128.
For article E, CP = ₹1200, loss is 25%, so SP = 1200 × 0.75 = ₹900 and loss = ₹300.
The difference between the SP of C and E is 900 - 512 = ₹388, which is greater than half of the SP of A (720 / 2 = ₹360), making statement II correct.
The loss suffered on article C is ₹128, which is not equal to two-third of the loss of any referenced article (two-third of ₹300 is ₹200), making statement III incorrect.
109Quantitative Aptitude
Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the cost price, markup percentage, and profit or loss percentage of five different articles.
| Articles | Cost price (In Rs) | Markup percentage | Profit or loss percentage |
| -------- | -----------------: | ----------------: | ------------------------: |
| A | 500 | 80% | 44% |
| B | --- | 60% | 40% |
| C | 640 | --- | -20% |
| D | --- | 50% | --- |
| E | 1200 | --- | -25% |
Note: (i) The negative percentage shows the loss suffered on the article. (ii) Few values are missing in the table. A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given question on the basis of the given data.
The cost price of article D is 80% of that of article A, and the discount allowed on article D is 10% . If the profit % on article D is equal to the markup percentage of article E, then find the discount percentage of article E.
In the given question, two quantities are given, one as 'Quantity I' and another as 'Quantity II'. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option. (Compare only numeric values)
Quantity I: A container has 60 liters of a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 3:2. 20 liters of this mixture is replaced with pure water. If the mixture is sold for Rs 20 per liter and cost of pure milk is Rs 35 per liter then find the profit (in Rs)
Quantity II: A shopkeeper has two varieties(A & B) of tea worth R200 / kg and R300 / kg . He mixes variety A & B in the ratio 2:3 respectively. Find the price(in Rs) per kg of the resulting mixture.
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Answer: (A) Quantity I > Quantity II
Explanation
For Quantity I:
Initial milk = 60 × (3/5) = 36 liters, and water = 24 liters.
When 20 liters of mixture is removed, milk removed = 20 × (3/5) = 12 liters.
Remaining milk in the final 60-liter mixture = 36 - 12 = 24 liters.
Cost price of mixture = Cost of 24 liters of milk = 24 × 35 = ₹840 (water has zero cost).
Selling price of mixture = 60 × 20 = ₹1200.
Profit = 1200 - 840 = ₹360.
For Quantity II:
Weighted average price of the mixture = (2 × 200 + 3 × 300) / (2 + 3) = (400 + 900) / 5 = ₹260 per kg.
Comparing the two numeric values: 360 > 260, so Quantity I > Quantity II.
111Quantitative Aptitude
Read the data carefully and answer the following questions. There are three classes: P, Q, and R in a school. Each class has two sections - A and B. For classes P and R, the ratio of students in section A to section B is 5:3. In class Q, half of the total students are in section A. The average number of students in classes P and R together is 144. The total number of students in class Q is 40 more than in class P. The total number of students in class P is 32 less than in class R. Note: Total students in any class = students in section A ^+ students in section B.
What is the ratio of the total number of students in section A of class Q to section B of class R?
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Answer: (A) 7:5
Explanation
Total students in P and R:
P + R = 144 × 2 = 288
R − P = 32
Adding the equations:
2R = 320 ⇒ R = 160
P = 160 − 32 = 128
Total students in class Q:
Q = P + 40 = 128 + 40 = 168
Section A of class Q:
Q_A = 168 / 2 = 84
Section B of class R with section ratio A:B = 5:3:
R_B = 160 × (3 / 8) = 60
Required ratio:
Q_A : R_B = 84 : 60 = 7 : 5
112Quantitative Aptitude
Read the data carefully and answer the following questions. There are three classes: P, Q, and R in a school. Each class has two sections - A and B. For classes P and R, the ratio of students in section A to section B is 5:3. In class Q, half of the total students are in section A. The average number of students in classes P and R together is 144. The total number of students in class Q is 40 more than in class P. The total number of students in class P is 32 less than in class R. Note: Total students in any class = students in section A + students in section B.
The total number of students in section B of class P is what percent of the total number of students in section B of class R?
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Answer: (B) 80%
Explanation
Total students in classes P and R = 144 × 2 = 288.
Given that R - P = 32, adding the two equations yields:
2R = 320 ⇒ R = 160
P = 288 - 160 = 128
Since both class P and class R have the same section distribution ratio of 5:3, the ratio of students in section B for both classes is directly proportional to their total student strength:
Required percentage = (Students in section B of P / Students in section B of R) × 100 = (P / R) × 100
= (128 / 160) × 100 = 80%
113Quantitative Aptitude
Read the data carefully and answer the following questions. There are three classes: P, Q, and R in a school. Each class has two sections - A and B. For classes P and R, the ratio of students in section A to section B is 5:3. In class Q, half of the total students are in section A. The average number of students in classes P and R together is 144. The total number of students in class Q is 40 more than in class P. The total number of students in class P is 32 less than in class R. Note: Total students in any class = students in section A + students in section B.
If the total number of students in classes P, Q, R, and S is 712, then what is the difference between the number of students in section A of class P and the total number of students in class S?
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Answer: (B) 176
Explanation
Total students in classes P and R = 144 × 2 = 288.
Given that R - P = 32, solving the simultaneous equations gives R = (288 + 32) / 2 = 160 and P = 128.
Total students in class Q = P + 40 = 128 + 40 = 168.
Total students in classes P, Q, and R = 128 + 168 + 160 = 456.
Total students in class S = 712 - 456 = 256.
For class P, the ratio of students in section A to section B is 5:3.
Number of students in section A of class P = (5 / 8) × 128 = 80.
Difference = 256 - 80 = 176.
114Quantitative Aptitude
Read the data carefully and answer the following questions. There are three classes: P, Q, and R in a school. Each class has two sections - A and B. For classes P and R, the ratio of students in section A to section B is 5:3. In class Q, half of the total students are in section A. The average number of students in classes P and R together is 144. The total number of students in class Q is 40 more than in class P. The total number of students in class P is 32 less than in class R. Note: Total students in any class = students in section A + students in section B.
What is the average number of students in section A of class Q and section B of class R?
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Answer: (D) 72
Explanation
Total students in classes P and R satisfy:
P + R = 144 × 2 = 288
R - P = 32
Solving these gives R = 160 and P = 128.
Total students in class Q = P + 40 = 128 + 40 = 168.
Students in section A of class Q = 168 / 2 = 84.
Students in section B of class R = (3 / 8) × 160 = 60.
Required average = (84 + 60) / 2 = 144 / 2 = 72.
115Quantitative Aptitude
Read the data carefully and answer the following questions. There are three classes: P, Q, and R in a school. Each class has two sections - A and B. For classes P and R, the ratio of students in section A to section B is 5:3. In class Q, half of the total students are in section A. The average number of students in classes P and R together is 144. The total number of students in class Q is 40 more than in class P. Note: Total students in any class = students in section A + students in section B.
What is the difference between the total number of students in section B and section A across all classes P, Q, and R?
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Answer: (D) 72
Explanation
The average number of students in classes P and R is 144, so their total sum is P + R = 144 × 2 = 288.
For both classes P and R, the ratio of students in section A to section B is 5 : 3.
Difference between section A and section B in classes P and R = (5/8 − 3/8) × (P + R) = (2/8) × 288 = 72.
In class Q, half of the total students are in section A, meaning section A and section B have an equal number of students, resulting in a difference of 0.
Total difference between section A and section B across all three classes = 72 + 0 = 72.
116Quantitative Aptitude
29,31,33,42,69,150,393 Find the wrong term in the following number series.
10,27,83,169,509,1021 Find the wrong term in the following number series.
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Answer: (A) 10
Explanation
The series follows an alternating pattern of operations between consecutive terms:
27 × 3 + 2 = 83
83 × 2 + 3 = 169
169 × 3 + 2 = 509
509 × 2 + 3 = 1021
Working backward using the alternating sequence of (× 2 + 3) and (× 3 + 2):
x × 2 + 3 = 27
2x = 24
x = 12
The first term should be 12 instead of 10.
120Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions a number series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
2000,400,160,96,76.8,90,92,16
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Answer: (C) 90
Explanation
Series 2000,400,160,96,76.8,90,92.16 follows division by 5,5/2,5/3,5/4,5/5,5/6 successively: 2000/5=400,400/2.5=160,160/(5/3)=96,96/(5/4)=76.8,76.8/(5/5)=76.8(not 90),76.8/(5/6)=92.16 (matches given last term). So 90 is the wrong term; it should be 76.8.
121Quantitative Aptitude
In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as 'Quantity I' and another as 'Quantity II'. You have to determine relationship between numerical value of these two quantities and choose the appropriate option.
Set A is a set of three consecutive prime numbers. Set B is a set of two consecutive odd numbers. The sum of largest number of set A and B is 62, while different between largest number of set A and B is 24. (Where largest number of set A > than largest number of set B)
Quantity I: Difference between smallest number of set A and set B.
Quantity II. 20
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Answer: (E) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Explanation
Let the largest number of Set A be Aₘax and of Set B be Bₘax.
Aₘax + Bₘax = 62
Aₘax − Bₘax = 24
Adding both equations gives 2 × Aₘax = 86, so Aₘax = 43 and Bₘax = 19.
Since Set A consists of three consecutive prime numbers ending with 43, the set is {37, 41, 43}, making its smallest number 37.
Since Set B consists of two consecutive odd numbers ending with 19, the set is {17, 19}, making its smallest number 17.
Quantity I = 37 − 17 = 20.
Quantity II = 20.
Therefore, Quantity I = Quantity II.
122Quantitative Aptitude
In the given question, two quantities are provided, one as 'Quantity 1' and another as 'Quantity 2'. You have to determine the relationship between the two quantities and choose the appropriate option (compare only numerical values).
Quantity 1: The average weight of a group of 100 people is 30kg . If ratio of boys to girls in the group is 3:2 and average weight of all boys of the group is 35kg , then find average weight of all females of the group?
Quantity 2: 24
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Answer: (C) Quantity 2 > Quantity 1
Explanation
Total weight of 100 people = 100 × 30 = 3000 kg.
With the ratio of boys to girls as 3:2, the number of boys is 60 and the number of girls is 40.
Total weight of 60 boys = 60 × 35 = 2100 kg.
Total weight of 40 girls = 3000 - 2100 = 900 kg.
Average weight of girls (Quantity 1) = 900 / 40 = 22.5 kg.
Quantity 2 = 24.
Comparing the two values, Quantity 2 > Quantity 1.
123Quantitative Aptitude
In the given question, two quantities are given, one as 'Quantity I' and another as 'Quantity II'. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option. (Compare only numeric values)
Quantity I: The average age of 10 men is 30 years. If 5 more men join the group, the new average becomes 28 years. Find the average age of the 5 new men.
Quantity II: The average score of 20 students in a test is 65. If the top 5 scorers have an average score of 80, then find the average score of the remaining 15 students.
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Answer: (B) Quantity 1< Quantity II
Explanation
For Quantity I:
Total age of 10 men = 10 × 30 = 300 years
Total age of 15 men = 15 × 28 = 420 years
Total age of the 5 new men = 420 - 300 = 120 years
Average age of the 5 new men = 120 / 5 = 24 years
For Quantity II:
Total score of 20 students = 20 × 65 = 1300
Total score of the top 5 students = 5 × 80 = 400
Total score of the remaining 15 students = 1300 - 400 = 900
Average score of the remaining 15 students = 900 / 15 = 60
Comparing the two values, Quantity I (24) < Quantity II (60).
124Quantitative Aptitude
A train is traveling at a speed of 90km / h . The train completely crosses a platform in 30 seconds. It then overtakes a man running at 18km / h in the same direction in 20 seconds. What is the length of the platform?
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Answer: (C) 350 meters
Explanation
Convert speeds to m/s:
Speed of the train = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s
Speed of the man = 18 × (5/18) = 5 m/s
Relative speed of the train with respect to the man in the same direction = 25 - 5 = 20 m/s.
Length of the train = Relative speed × Time taken to overtake the man
Length of the train = 20 × 20 = 400 meters
Distance covered while crossing the platform = Length of train + Length of platform = Speed of train × Time
400 + Length of platform = 25 × 30 = 750 meters
Length of platform = 750 - 400 = 350 meters
125Quantitative Aptitude
A boat goes from point A to B upstream and returns to A through the same path. If the time of journey from A to B is twice that of the time taken to travel from B to A, then the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the current is
The speed of a car is 60% more than the speed of a bus, while bus can cover X km distance in six hours and car can cover X + 80 distance km in five hours. If car increased its speed by ¼ th then find the time taken by car to cover (X + 160)km distance (In hours).
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Answer: (B) 5
Explanation
Let the speed of the bus be S_bus and the speed of the car be S_car.
Since S_car = 1.6 × S_bus:
Distance covered by bus in 6 hours:
X = 6 × S_bus ⇒ S_bus = X / 6
Distance covered by car in 5 hours:
X + 80 = 5 × S_car = 5 × (1.6 × S_bus) = 8 × S_bus
Substitute S_bus = X / 6:
X + 80 = 8 × (X / 6) = (4/3)X
X / 3 = 80
X = 240 km
Speed of the car:
S_car = (240 + 80) / 5 = 64 km/h
Increased speed of the car:
Sₙew = 64 + (1/4) × 64 = 80 km/h
Time taken to cover (X + 160) km:
Time = (240 + 160) / 80 = 400 / 80 = 5 hours
127Quantitative Aptitude
The side of a cube is 8 cm more than the side of a square. If the area of the square is 1 / 9 th of the lateral surface area of the cube, then find the volume of the cube?
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Answer: (C) 13824cm³
Explanation
Let the side of the cube be a cm. Then the side of the square is (a - 8) cm.
The lateral surface area of a cube is 4a², and the area of the square is (a - 8)².
According to the given condition:
(a - 8)² = (1/9) × 4a²
Taking square roots on both sides:
a - 8 = 2a/3
a/3 = 8
a = 24 cm
Volume of the cube = a³ = 24³ = 13824 cm³.
128Quantitative Aptitude
The average length of 20 wooden planks is 75 cm. When 4 new planks with lengths x, x+10, x + 20 and x+30 cm are added, the average length becomes 72 cm. Find the value of x.
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Answer: (A) 42
Explanation
Total length of 20 planks = 20 × 75 = 1500 cm.
Total length of 24 planks = 24 × 72 = 1728 cm.
Sum of lengths of the 4 new planks = 1728 - 1500 = 228 cm.
The sum of the four planks is x + (x + 10) + (x + 20) + (x + 30) = 4x + 60.
4x + 60 = 228
4x = 168
x = 42
129Quantitative Aptitude
The present age of A is 60% more than that of B and the present age of C is five years more than that of B. If the difference between the age of A and C after six years is 10, then find the age of A four year ago (in years).
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Answer: (E) Both (a) & (d)
Explanation
Let the present age of B be x years.
Present age of A = x + 0.6x = 1.6x
Present age of C = x + 5
The difference between the ages of two individuals remains constant over time:
(1.6x + 6) - (x + 5 + 6) = 10
0.6x - 5 = 10
0.6x = 15
x = 25
Present age of A = 1.6 × 25 = 40 years.
Age of A four years ago = 40 - 4 = 36 years.
Since 6² = 36, the value 36 is represented by both numerical forms.
130Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of income of P to that of Q is 2:3 and the ratio of expenditure of P to that Q is 5:6. If the income of Q is increased by 50% and expenditure is same, then the saving of Q becomes Rs.12000. If saving of P is Rs.3000, then find the income of P.
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Answer: (E) Rs.8000
Explanation
Let the initial incomes of P and Q be 2x and 3x, and their expenditures be 5y and 6y respectively.
From the saving of P:
2x - 5y = 3000
When the income of Q increases by 50%, the new income becomes 1.5 × 3x = 4.5x.
The new saving of Q is:
4.5x - 6y = 12000
Multiplying by 2 gives:
9x - 12y = 24000, or 3x - 4y = 8000
Multiplying the first equation by 4 and the simplified second equation by 5:
8x - 20y = 12000
15x - 20y = 40000
Subtracting the two equations:
7x = 28000
x = 4000
Income of P = 2x = 2 × 4000 = Rs. 8000.
131Quantitative Aptitude
There are four numbers, among which the smallest two numbers are in the ratio 5:7. The largest number is 2 more than the second-largest number. The average of the smallest and largest numbers is 22.5. Also, the average of four times the second smallest number and six times the second largest number is 126. Find the average of the four numbers.
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Answer: (E) 23.5
Explanation
Smallest two =5x,7x. Largest L=second-largest L2+2. (5x+L)/2=22.5→5x+L=45. (4·7x+6·L2)/2=126→28x+6L2=252. Substituting L=L2+2 into first eq: 5x+L2=43. Solving simultaneously gives x=3, L2=28, L=30, numbers=15,21,28,30. Average=(15+21+28+30)/4=94/4=23.5.
132Quantitative Aptitude
A spends 10% of his monthly income on rent, 20% on grocery and he spends 10% of the remaining income on transport. If A saves remaining amount and his monthly saving is Rs. 5040, then find the monthly income (in Rs.) of A.
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Answer: (A) 8000
Explanation
Let the monthly income of A be I.
Total expenditure on rent and grocery = 10% + 20% = 30% of I.
Remaining income after rent and grocery = 100% - 30% = 70% of I = 0.70 I.
Amount spent on transport = 10% of remaining income.
Final savings = 90% of remaining income = 0.90 × 0.70 I = 0.63 I.
Given savings = ₹5040:
0.63 I = 5040
I = 5040 / 0.63 = ₹8000.
133Quantitative Aptitude
Vessel X contains milk and water in the ratio of 5:4 respectively. 9 litres of mixture is removed and 20 litres of mixture from vessel Y which containing milk and water in the ratio 3:2 respectively is mixed in the remaining mixture in vessel X. If the ratio of milk to water in the resultant mixture in vessel X is 4:3, then find the quantity of mixture in vessel X initially?
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Answer: (C) 45 liters
Explanation
Let the initial mixture in vessel X be 9x litres, with milk = 5x and water = 4x.
When 9 litres is removed, milk removed = 5 litres and water removed = 4 litres.
From vessel Y, 20 litres is added (ratio 3:2), so milk added = (3/5) × 20 = 12 litres and water added = (2/5) × 20 = 8 litres.
Initial quantity of mixture in vessel X = 9x = 9 × 5 = 45 litres.
134Quantitative Aptitude
P, Q, and R can complete a piece of work in 24, 36, and 48 days respectively. They started working together, but after 8 days, P left. After another 2 days, Q also left and R continued working alone. Find the time taken by R to complete the remaining work.
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Answer: (B) 26/3
Explanation
Let the total work be the LCM of 24, 36, and 48, which is 144 units.
The individual efficiencies are:
P = 144 / 24 = 6 units/day
Q = 144 / 36 = 4 units/day
R = 144 / 48 = 3 units/day
Work done by P, Q, and R together in 8 days = 8 × (6 + 4 + 3) = 8 × 13 = 104 units.
Work done by Q and R together in the next 2 days = 2 × (4 + 3) = 2 × 7 = 14 units.
Total work completed in 10 days = 104 + 14 = 118 units.
Remaining work = 144 - 118 = 26 units.
Time taken by R alone to complete the remaining work = Remaining work / R's efficiency = 26/3 days.
135Quantitative Aptitude
A barrel contains 56 liters of kerosene. It has two taps. One tap (A) draws 500 ml every 6 minutes. After first 5 liters are drawn from the barrel, the second tap (B) also starts, it draws 1 liter in every 5 minutes. How many hours will be taken in all to empty the tank?
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Answer: (C) 4 hours
Explanation
Rate of Tap A = 0.5 liters / 6 minutes = 5 liters/hour.
Rate of Tap B = 1 liter / 5 minutes = 12 liters/hour.
Time taken by Tap A to empty the first 5 liters = 5 liters / 5 liters/hour = 1 hour.
Remaining kerosene = 56 - 5 = 51 liters.
Combined discharge rate of Tap A and Tap B = 5 + 12 = 17 liters/hour.
Time taken to empty the remaining volume = 51 liters / 17 liters/hour = 3 hours.
Total time taken = 1 + 3 = 4 hours.
136Quantitative Aptitude
A and B started a business with investments of Rs 8000 and Rs 12000. After four months, A withdrew two- fifths of his investment, and B added Rs 2000 more. If at the end of the year, the profit share of A is Rs 11000, then find the total profit (in Rs).
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Answer: (B) 36000
Explanation
Ratio of profit is proportional to the product of capital and investment duration.
Ratio of profit share A : B = 70400 : 160000 = 11 : 25.
Since 11 units correspond to A's share of Rs 11000:
1 unit = 11000 / 11 = Rs 1000.
Total profit = (11 + 25) × 1000 = 36 × 1000 = Rs 36000.
137Quantitative Aptitude
B is x more than C and A is x more than B. If A = 1000 . If average of A and C is 960, then what is the value of x?
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Answer: (D) 40
Explanation
B=C+x, A=B+x=C+2x, A=1000. Average of A,C=960→A+C=1920→C=920. Then 1000=920+2x→x=40.
138Quantitative Aptitude
The cost price of the article is 33.33% less than the selling price of the article. If the marked price of the article is 120% more than the cost price of the article and the discount given on the article is Rs 490, then find the markup price of the article (in Rs).
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Answer: (B) 840
Explanation
Let the selling price (SP) be 3x. Since the cost price (CP) is 33.33% (or ⅓) less than the selling price, CP = ⅔ × 3x = 2x.
The marked price (MP) is 120% more than CP:
MP = CP + 1.20 × CP = 2x + 2.4x = 4.4x
