IBPS SO Prelims 2017 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

Jal Mahotsav is India's largest water carnival organized annually by the Madhya Pradesh Tourism Development Corporation at Hanuwantiya Island. The island is located in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh, set amidst the backwaters of the Indira Sagar Dam on the Narmada River. The festival features a wide range of adventure sports, water activities, cultural performances, and luxury tented accommodations to promote eco-tourism and water sports tourism in the region.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India constituted a 10-member High-Level Task Force on Public Credit Registry under the chairmanship of Yeshwant M. Deosthalee, the former Chairman and Managing Director of L and T Finance Holdings. The task force was mandated to review the existing credit information systems in India, identify gaps, and recommend a roadmap for developing a transparent, centralized, and comprehensive Public Credit Registry to enhance financial inclusion and improve credit discipline across the banking sector.

Explanation

The Black Hill is a historical fiction novel authored by the renowned poet and novelist Mamang Dai from Arunachal Pradesh. Published in 2014, the book revolves around the mysterious disappearance of French Jesuit priest Father Nicolas Krick in the Mishmi Hills of the north-east frontier in the mid-nineteenth century, depicting the interactions between local tribal communities and British administrative expansion. The work won the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award for English literature in 2017.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry introduced the Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index to assess and rank logistics ecosystems across Indian states. Gujarat secured the first position on the index chart, driven by its well-developed transport infrastructure, superior port connectivity, efficient regulatory processes, extensive road networks, and streamlined supply chain mechanisms facilitating seamless domestic and export trade.

Explanation

The Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) was established in 1996 by the Reserve Bank of India as an autonomous research center located in Hyderabad. It focuses on research and development in banking technology, information security, payment systems, and financial networks. The institute played a foundational role in creating India's modern banking infrastructure, including the National Financial Switch and the Indian Financial Network (INFINET).

Explanation

According to the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2016-17 report published by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Tamil Nadu secured the top rank among all major states with a Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) of 46.9% in higher education. This was nearly double the national average GER of 25.2%, supported by a dense network of higher educational institutions, targeted welfare schemes, and high student retention rates.

Explanation

IDBI Bank launched Project Nishchay in 2017 in collaboration with the Boston Consulting Group (BCG) to accelerate its comprehensive turnaround strategy. The initiative aimed to optimize cost structures, improve operational efficiency, boost non-interest fee income, re-orient retail lending processes, and accelerate the resolution of stressed assets to restore the bank's long-term financial health and profitability.

Explanation

Rajnish Kumar was appointed as the Chairman of the State Bank of India for a three-year tenure beginning October 2017. Prior to this elevation, he served as a Managing Director at the bank, overseeing the National Banking Group. He succeeded Arundhati Bhattacharya upon the completion of her tenure at the helm of the country's largest public sector lender.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India designated HDFC Bank as a Domestic Systemically Important Bank (D-SIB) in September 2017. Under the D-SIB framework, banks considered too big to fail are subjected to higher capital requirements, stricter regulatory oversight, and additional Tier 1 common equity buffers to safeguard financial stability against systemic risks. HDFC Bank joined State Bank of India and ICICI Bank in this classification.

Explanation

The Union Cabinet constituted a ministerial panel known as the Alternative Mechanism under the chairmanship of Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in 2017. The committee was empowered to evaluate and grant in-principle approval to proposals for the merger and consolidation of public sector banks, with the objective of creating fewer, stronger, and more competitive global-scale banking entities in India.

Explanation

Rihand Dam, also known as Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar, is a concrete gravity dam located at Pipri in the Sonbhadra district of Uttar Pradesh. It impounds the Rihand River, a tributary of the Son River, forming the largest man-made reservoir by volume in India.

Explanation

Panna National Park is located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. Declared a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, it lies along the catchment area of the Ken River in the Vindhyan mountain range.

Explanation

Disinflation is an economic condition characterized by a deceleration in the rate of inflation. During disinflation, the general price level continues to rise, but at a progressively slower rate than in previous periods.

Explanation

Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) is a small savings scheme administered through post offices and designated public sector banks. The certificates are issued strictly in denominations of ₹1,000, ₹5,000, ₹10,000, and ₹50,000, with no upper investment limit, and the ₹500 denomination is not available under this scheme.

Explanation

Bank of Baroda signed a Memorandum of Understanding with POORTI (Platform for Online Ordering & Rural Transformation of India) Agri Services Pvt. Ltd to provide digital finance and credit facilities enabling farmers to purchase fertilizers, seeds, pesticides, and other inputs online.

Explanation

According to Reserve Bank of India guidelines, a savings or current bank account is classified as inoperative or dormant when there are no customer-mandated transactions, whether debit or credit, for a continuous period of more than two years.

Explanation

Bank Rate is the discount rate at which the Reserve Bank of India extends long-term financial accommodation and rediscounts bills of exchange or commercial papers for commercial banks without requiring any government securities or collateral backing.

Explanation

The 29th Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Leaders' Summit was held in Da Nang, Vietnam, in November 2017, under the theme Creating New Dynamism, Fostering a Shared Future.

Explanation

The Economic Survey of India is prepared annually by the Economics Division of the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, under the overall supervision and guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser. It reviews macroeconomic developments across sectors before being tabled in Parliament.

Explanation

The International Energy Agency (IEA) is an autonomous intergovernmental organization established in 1974 in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis under the framework of the OECD. Its permanent secretariat is based in Paris, France.

Explanation

Saksham Yadav was a world champion powerlifter who won gold medals for India, including at the 2017 World Sub-Junior and Junior Powerlifting Championships in Moscow. He sustained fatal injuries in a tragic road accident on the Delhi-Panipat National Highway near the Singhu border.

Explanation

Mohamad Al Jounde was awarded the International Children's Peace Prize 2017 at the age of 16 for establishing a school in a refugee camp in Lebanon's Bekaa Valley. He built the school along with his family to provide education and a safe environment for hundreds of Syrian refugee children displaced by the civil war.

Explanation

World Braille Day is celebrated globally on January 4 each year to honor Louis Braille, born on January 4, 1809, who invented the tactile Braille writing and reading system that enables blind and visually impaired individuals to read and write.

Explanation

Under banking regulations and the Negotiable Instruments Act, an ante-dated cheque contains a date earlier than the actual date of delivery or issuance. Such a cheque remains completely valid and negotiable as long as it is presented to the bank within its validity window of three months from the date written on the instrument.

Explanation

The National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN), originally launched in 2011 to connect 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats with high-speed broadband via optical fibre, was restructured and renamed as the BharatNet Project in 2015 to accelerate rural digital infrastructure under the Digital India initiative.

Explanation

Public sector lender Bank of Baroda approved a capital-raising plan to mobilize Rs 3,000 crore through the issuance of Basel III compliant Tier-II bonds to strengthen its capital adequacy ratio and support credit growth.

Explanation

As per Reserve Bank of India guidelines, participants allowed to borrow and lend in the overnight Call/Notice Money Market include Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks), Cooperative Banks (other than Land Development Banks), and Primary Dealers. Regional Rural Banks are excluded from this segment and primarily manage liquidity through other authorized instruments.

Explanation

Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana, was founded on the banks of the Musi River, a major tributary of the Krishna River. The river divides the historic old city from the newer northern parts of the metropolitan area.

Explanation

In December 2017, the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) appointed Reserve Bank of India Governor Urjit Patel to the Advisory Board of the Financial Stability Institute (FSI) for a term of two years. The FSI assists financial sector supervisors globally in implementing regulatory standards.

Explanation

Pluto Exchange launched India's first mobile app for transacting in virtual currencies like Bitcoin in December 2017. The platform enabled users to buy, sell, and store cryptocurrencies using their mobile numbers through an app-to-app mechanism.

Explanation

The 48th International Film Festival of India (IFFI) took place in Panaji, Goa, in November 2017. The French drama film 120 Beats Per Minute, directed by Robin Campillo, won the prestigious Golden Peacock Award for Best Film. The award includes a cash prize of ₹40 lakh, a golden peacock trophy, and a citation, shared equally between the director and the producer.

Explanation

The 60 MW Tuirial Hydroelectric Power Project was dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in December 2017 in Mizoram. Executed by the North Eastern Electric Power Corporation (NEEPCO) on the Tuirial River, it is the first major central sector project successfully commissioned in Mizoram, making it the third power-surplus state in the North-Eastern region after Sikkim and Tripura.

Explanation

The Union Government launched the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (Saubhagya) in September 2017. The scheme aims to achieve universal household electrification in India by providing free electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in rural areas and poor families in urban areas, using Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 data to identify beneficiaries. Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) serves as the nodal agency for its implementation across the country.

Explanation

In September 2017, Airtel Payments Bank became the first payments bank in India to integrate the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) on its digital platform. This functionality enabled its customers to generate a Virtual Payment Address (VPA) on the MyAirtel app to facilitate seamless, secure fund transfers and digital merchant payments without sharing bank account details.

Explanation

Badri Narain Sharma, a 1985-batch Indian Administrative Service officer of the Rajasthan cadre, was appointed as the first Chairman of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority in November 2017. Set up under the Goods and Services Tax framework, the authority is responsible for ensuring that the benefits of input tax credit and reductions in GST rates on goods and services are passed on directly to consumers through commensurate price reductions.

Explanation

The World Inequality Report 2018, released by the World Inequality Lab, analysed income inequality across major world regions. Among the countries listed, India showed the highest level of income inequality, with the top 1% of earners capturing an especially large and rising share of national income.

Explanation

The official currency of the State of Qatar is the Qatari Riyal (code: QAR). It is issued and regulated by the Qatar Central Bank and is subdivided into 100 dirhams.

Explanation

Indian Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand won the FIDE World Rapid Chess Championship held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in December 2017. He scored 10.5 out of 15 rounds without losing a single game, tying for first place before winning the blitz tie-break playoff 2–0 to claim the title.

Explanation

In October 2017, the Government of India, the State Government of Assam, and the World Bank signed a 200 million USD loan agreement for the Assam Agribusiness and Rural Transformation Project (APART). Financed through the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), the project aims to increase value addition, improve agricultural productivity, and enhance market access for smallholder farmers and agro-entrepreneurs across targeted districts in Assam.

Explanation

Bitcoin operates as a peer-to-peer decentralized electronic payment network without reliance on a central authority. Its protocol establishes a strictly finite supply capped at 21 million coins, which are minted over time through mining rewards. All transactions are broadcast across the network and permanently recorded on a transparent, distributed public ledger known as the blockchain. Each bitcoin is divisible down to eight decimal places, with the smallest unit being 0.00000001 BTC, known as a satoshi.

Explanation

Pratyush is a multi-petaflops supercomputer established at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It is dedicated to advanced weather forecasting and climate modeling, significantly improving the accuracy of monsoon predictions, severe weather warnings, and cyclone tracking across India.

Explanation

Narinder Dhruv Batra, who also served as the President of the International Hockey Federation (FIH), was elected as the President of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) during its Annual General Meeting held in December 2017 for a four-year term spanning 2017 to 2021.

Explanation

In the 2017 Global Hunger Index (GHI) released jointly by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), Welthungerhilfe, and Concern Worldwide, India ranked 100th out of 119 qualifying countries. With a score of 31.4, India fell into the serious hunger category. The index calculates scores based on four key indicators: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality.

Explanation

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 was specifically enacted to facilitate Indian banks and financial institutions in recovering bad loans and reducing non-performing assets. It empowers secured creditors to take possession of collateral securities, manage them, or sell them to recover outstanding dues without the intervention of courts or tribunals.

Explanation

Nitin Jairam Gadkari, who took charge as the Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways and Shipping in 2014, was elected to the 16th Lok Sabha from the Nagpur parliamentary constituency in Maharashtra during the 2014 general elections. Nagpur is his hometown and long-standing political base where he previously served in the Maharashtra Legislative Council.

Explanation

The official emblem for the Beijing 2022 Paralympic Winter Games is Flying High (Fei Yue). Unveiled by the Beijing Organising Committee in December 2017, the design creatively incorporates the Chinese character for flight (飞), representing an athlete in a wheelchair striving forward towards victory while highlighting the vigor and passion of winter parasports.

Explanation

The Wassenaar Arrangement on Export Controls for Conventional Arms and Dual-Use Goods and Technologies is a voluntary multilateral export control regime established in 1996 in Wassenaar, Netherlands. Its participating states seek to promote transparency and greater responsibility in international transfers of conventional arms as well as dual-use goods and technologies, preventing destabilizing accumulations of military capabilities. India was admitted as its 42nd participating state in December 2017.

Explanation

England won the 2017 FIFA U-17 World Cup held in India from 6 to 28 October 2017. In the final match played at the Salt Lake Stadium in Kolkata, England came from two goals down to defeat Spain 5-2, securing their maiden title in the history of the tournament. Phil Foden received the Golden Ball as the tournament's best player.

Explanation

Addis Ababa is the capital and largest city of Ethiopia. Founded in 1886 by Emperor Menelik II, it serves as the nation's political, cultural, and financial hub, and also hosts the headquarters of the African Union and the United Nations Economic Commission for Africa.

Explanation

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 designates two adjudicating authorities depending on the type of entity: the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) handles corporate insolvency and liquidation, while the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) handles insolvency and bankruptcy of individuals and partnership firms. The IBBI therefore works through both of these. The Securities Appellate Tribunal deals with securities-market disputes, not insolvency, so it is excluded.

Explanation

Only one person goes to the movie in February, which is M on February 13. T and A go to movies together in March, with T on March 13 and A on March 27. Since U cannot go on the 13th and S cannot go on the 27th, S goes on January 13 and U goes on January 27. As J goes after Z, Z goes on April 13 and J goes on April 27, making Z and J the two persons who go to movies in April.

Explanation

Floor 3 accommodates only one person, who is M, while floors 1, 2, and 4 each have two residents. Furthermore, February is the only month with a single moviegoer (M on 13 February), whereas January, March, and April each have two moviegoers. M is unique in both floor occupancy and movie month distribution.

Explanation

February has the least number of days, so M goes on 13th February, and only one person goes in February. T goes on 13th March along with A on 27th March. S does not go on the 27th of any month and goes in a different month from T, so S must go on the 13th of January.

Explanation

From the given conditions, the movie schedule for the seven persons across the four months is: January 13: U January 27: Z February 13: M March 13: T March 27: A April 13: S April 27: J

The persons who go to the movie between U (13 January) and J (27 April) are Z, M, T, A, and S. With a total of 4 or more persons between them, the number of persons is more than three.

Explanation

The seven movie slots in chronological order across the four months are: 1st: January 13 2nd: January 27 3rd: February 13 (M, as only one person goes in February) 4th: March 13 (T, since T goes in March on the 13th) 5th: March 27 (A, since A goes in March along with T) 6th: April 13 (J, since J goes on the 13th after Z) 7th: April 27

T goes on March 13, making T the fourth person to watch the movie.

Explanation

Placing P from Delhi at position 1 facing the centre, S from Haryana sits opposite at position 5 facing the centre.

The person from Punjab sits second to the left of P, placing Punjab at position 3. W from Bihar is a neighbour to both S and the person from Punjab, placing W at position 4. The other person from Bihar, T, sits at position 6 as the other neighbour of S.

Q from Rajasthan is adjacent to T, placing Q at position 7. V sits at position 2 between P at position 1 and U from Punjab at position 3.

The person from Goa is situated between Q at position 7 and P at position 1, placing Goa at position 8, which is uniquely occupied by R.

Explanation

Placing P (facing centre) at position 1, S (Haryana, facing centre) sits opposite at position 5. The two neighbours of S at positions 4 and 6 belong to Bihar (W and T). The person from Punjab sits second to the left of P at position 3, which places W (Bihar) at position 4 and T (Bihar) at position 6. Q (Rajasthan) sits adjacent to T at position 7. The person from Goa sits at position 8 between Q (position 7) and the person from Delhi at position 1 (P). V is adjacent to Delhi (P at position 1) and U, placing V at position 2 and U (Punjab) at position 3. The remaining person R occupies position 8 (Goa). Since Rajasthan has two members and Q is one of them, the remaining unassigned state belongs to V, making V and Q the two persons from Rajasthan.

Explanation

Arranging the eight persons in clockwise positions 1 to 8: P (facing inside, Delhi) is at position 1. S (facing inside, Haryana) is opposite P at position 5. Since the two Bihar residents (T and W) sit adjacent to S, they occupy positions 4 and 6. Punjab is sitting 2nd to the left of P (position 3). Since W is adjacent to Punjab, W is at position 4 and T is at position 6. Q (Rajasthan) is adjacent to T, placing Q at position 7. Goa is adjacent to Q and Delhi, so position 8 is Goa and P (position 1) is Delhi. V is adjacent to Delhi (position 1) and U, placing V at position 2 and U (Punjab) at position 3. R is at position 8. Since only three persons face the centre, and P, S, and U (the neighbours of V) face the centre, the remaining persons including V face away from the centre.

Facing away from the centre at position 2, the leftward direction goes counter-clockwise: 1st left of V is position 1 (P). 2nd left of V is position 8 (R). 3rd left of V is position 7 (Q).

Explanation

Placing P (facing inside) at position 1, S (Haryana, facing inside) is seated opposite at position 5. The person from Punjab is at position 3, second to the left of P.

The two Bihar natives, W and T, are immediate neighbours of S at positions 4 and 6 respectively, with W adjacent to Punjab at position 3. T is adjacent to Q (Rajasthan) at position 7. The person from Goa is adjacent to Q and Delhi, placing Goa at position 8 and P from Delhi at position 1.

V is an immediate neighbour of Delhi (position 1) and U from Punjab (position 3), which places V at position 2 and assigns Goa to R at position 8. Since the neighbours of V (P and U) face inside, exactly three people (P, S, U) face the centre.

With U (Punjab) at position 3 facing the centre, moving 3 places to the right (counter-clockwise) leads to position 8, which corresponds to the person from Goa.

Explanation

Placing P facing the centre at position 1, S is directly opposite at position 5 (Haryana, facing centre). Since the two persons from Bihar flank S, they sit at positions 4 and 6.

The person from Punjab sits second to the left of P at position 3. Since W from Bihar is adjacent to Punjab, W sits at position 4, leaving T from Bihar at position 6.

T is adjacent to Q (Rajasthan), placing Q at position 7. The person from Goa is adjacent to Q and Delhi, so Goa is at position 8 and Delhi is at position 1 (P).

Since V is adjacent to Delhi (position 1) and U, V sits at position 2 and U sits at position 3 (Punjab). Thus, P and U belong to Delhi and Punjab respectively.

Explanation

The floor arrangement from top to bottom is: Floor 8 is F (Blue), Floor 7 is B (Black), Floor 6 is H (Red), Floor 5 is A (Pink), Floor 4 is E (Brown), Floor 3 is C (Yellow), Floor 2 is G (White), and Floor 1 is D (Silver). F, H, E, and G all reside on even-numbered floors (8, 6, 4, and 2 respectively), whereas D resides on an odd-numbered floor (floor 1).

Explanation

Based on the solved arrangement, C stays on the third floor and likes Yellow colour.

Explanation

D resides on floor 1 and A resides on floor 5. The persons staying on the intermediate floors 2, 3, and 4 are G, C, and E respectively, giving a count of 3 persons between them.

Explanation

After placing all individuals and colours according to the given conditions, D on floor 1 is assigned the colour Silver.

Explanation

A stays on floor 5 and C stays on floor 3. The only person residing between them is E on floor 4, making the count of persons between A and C exactly one.

Explanation

From the statements, chaining P > Q and Q ≥ S gives P > S, which makes conclusion I definitely true. Chaining from Z to T gives Z < R ≥ Q ≥ S < T, which contains opposing inequality signs, meaning conclusion II cannot be established.

Explanation

From the statements, connecting the inequalities gives Y ≤ K < D < Z, which directly proves Y < Z, making conclusion II definitely true. Chaining for conclusion I gives A ≥ D < B, where opposing signs prevent establishing that A > B.

Explanation

From A > C and G ≤ C, combining them gives A > C ≥ G, which confirms A > G. From C ≥ G and G > E, combining them gives C ≥ G > E, which confirms C > E. Therefore, both conclusions I and II are definitely true.

Explanation

Connecting the inequalities gives Z ≤ K < D < R, which establishes that Z < R is definitely true. For conclusion I, G ≥ D < A contains opposing inequality signs between G and A, so G > A cannot be determined.

Explanation

From the statements, R ≤ N = M ≥ F contains opposing signs, so no definite relation exists between R and F. Combining the path from C to Q gives C ≤ R ≤ N = M ≤ Q, which simplifies to C ≤ Q, meaning C could be equal to Q and therefore C < Q is not definitely true.

Explanation

From the statements, All chair is bench and Some chair is box. The intersection of Chair and Box is non-empty and lies entirely within Bench. Therefore, Some bench are box is definitely true. The relation between table and box is undetermined, so No table is box does not necessarily follow.

Explanation

From the statements, All bracelets are earrings and Some rings are bracelets. This means that bracelets that are earrings definitely overlap with rings, making it impossible for them to never be a ring. Since all bracelets are necklaces and some rings are bracelets, expanding the ring circle to lie entirely within necklaces violates no negative condition, making all rings being necklaces a valid possibility.

Explanation

All books being papers is possible because books only need to stay disjoint from pages, which can easily happen within the non-page portion of papers; therefore, the definite claim that all books can never be papers is false. Similarly, the entire set of pencils (including books) can exist within the part of papers that does not overlap with pages, making it entirely possible for all pencils to be papers.

Explanation

Since all papers are inside books and no stationary is a book, papers and stationary are disjoint sets with no possible overlap. Furthermore, pens only contain pencils and have no mandatory intersection with books or papers, making both conclusions false.

Explanation

The given statements provide no definite relationship between the terms bad and good, meaning neither conclusion follows individually as a certainty. Conclusion I is a particular affirmative proposition (Some bad are good) and Conclusion II is a universal negative proposition (No bad is good). In syllogism, a Some and No pair sharing the exact same subject and predicate terms forms a complementary pair, where both statements cannot be false at the same time. Therefore, either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows.

Explanation

The statement highlights that the mind is the origin of all actions but is superseded in importance by the body. The conjunction yet establishes that the mind deserves primary importance but is not receiving its due, making the assumption that the mind is not given proper importance implicit. The statement does not assess whether the body's importance is undeserved, nor does it refer to the biological brain.

Explanation

Strict legal regulation due to safety hazards does not provide sufficient information to determine whether high pressure boilers would be easily available without regulation or whether they are rare in quantity. Both market availability and total numbers depend on manufacturing, industrial demand, and distribution factors outside the given text.

Explanation

A practical and proportionate course of action is to file a formal complaint against the commercial manufacturers responsible for producing and distributing inaccurate globes. Demanding a state apology or calling for a total boycott of all Chinese goods are disproportionate, unfeasible measures that do not logically follow from the given situation.

Explanation

Opening immigration and issuing green cards to 2 lakh professionals to support infrastructure directly implies a shortage of domestic IT personnel in Japan. The phrase rapidly expanding IT infrastructure directly supports the inference that Japan's IT industry is experiencing rapid growth. No qualitative comparison between Indian professionals and those of other nations is mentioned in the statement.

Explanation

The argument outlines the government's large-scale financial and operational commitment to monitor cyber traffic and prevent major attacks. Citing recent large-scale cyber attacks supplies the necessary problem statement and justification that directly supports the urgency and necessity of launching the Rs 1000 crore project.

Explanation

Evaluating each given expression:

In R # S ? T, R is the daughter of S, and T is the mother of S, making R the granddaughter of T.

In P = Q ? R, Q is the father of P, and R is the mother of Q, making R the paternal grandmother of P.

In L M * O, L is the brother of M, and M is the sister of O, which means L, M, and O are siblings and L is the brother of O.

In M * O @ P = Q, P is the son of O, and Q is the father of P, which means O is the mother of P and Q is the father of P; thus, Q and O are husband and wife.

Since statements a, b, c, and d are all valid deductions, all the given relationships are correct.

Explanation

The coding pattern arranges all words in the sentence in alphabetical (lexicographical) order.

For the sentence 'covers ten percent of earth', the starting letters of the words are c, t, p, o, and e. Arranging them alphabetically gives: covers, earth, of, percent, ten.

Thus, the coded sentence is 'Covers earth of percent ten'.

Explanation

Comparing 'it is dark outside' (ha no ti ju) and 'is it still raining' (pa ha da no), the common words 'it' and 'is' correspond to the common codes 'ha' and 'no'.

Comparing 'it is dark outside' (ha no ti ju) and 'go and play outside' (su ju ye la), the common word 'outside' corresponds to the code 'ju'.

Eliminating 'it', 'is', and 'outside' along with their respective codes 'ha', 'no', and 'ju' from the first statement leaves 'dark' mapped to 'ti'.

Explanation

To answer a yes/no question in data sufficiency, establishing a definitive "Yes" or "No" is sufficient.

Combining Statement I and Statement II: Statement II establishes the circular sequence of the five persons as C, B, D, E, and A. Since B is second to the right of E, E must be facing the centre. Statement I states that A is second to the right of D, which forces D to face away from the centre. Since at least one person (D) faces outward, it is definitively determined that not all persons are facing the centre.

Similarly, combining Statements I and III or Statements II and III establishes the seating order and direction constraints, uniquely determining that not all persons face the centre.

Therefore, the data in any two of the three statements together is sufficient to answer the question.

Explanation

From Statement I, since O is fourth to the right of P in a six-letter word, there are two possible placements: Case 1: P at position 1 and O at position 5. Since G cannot be adjacent to P or O, G must occupy position 3 (P _ G _ O ). Case 2: P at position 2 and O at position 6. Since G cannot be adjacent to P or O, G must occupy position 4 ( P _ G _ O).

From Statement III, both I and E are adjacent to G, and P is not adjacent to E: In Case 1, the neighbors of G (positions 2 and 4) must be I and E. Because P is at position 1, E cannot be at position 2, so position 2 is I and position 4 is E. The remaining letter N goes to position 6, yielding P-I-G-E-O-N, which satisfies all conditions. In Case 2, the neighbors of G (positions 3 and 5) must be I and E. Since P is at position 2, E cannot be at position 3, placing I at 3 and E at 5. This forces N into position 1, which violates the condition that the word cannot begin with N.

Therefore, Statements I and III together uniquely determine that the word formed is PIGEON, making them sufficient.

Explanation

From Statement I, P is the husband of O, and they have two children, M and N. This establishes four members of the family: P, O, M, and N.

From Statement II, A is the niece of M, meaning A is the child of N, and A is the cousin of B, meaning B is the child of M. This establishes six members: P, O, M, N, A, and B.

From Statement III, the seventh member Q is introduced as the brother-in-law of B, connecting Q to the third generation of the family tree established by Statements I and II.

Therefore, all three statements together are necessary and sufficient to determine the relationship between P and Q.

Explanation

To determine how M is related to R, the gender of M must be definitively known. Statement I establishes the number of children M has, Statement II links M's son to R's sibling, and Statement III confirms that R is a child of M. However, none of the three statements, even when combined together, state whether M is male or female. Since M could be either the father or the mother of R, the exact relationship cannot be determined from the given data.

Explanation

Taking Point B as the origin (0, 0): Point A = (-8, 0) Point C = (0, -4) Point D = (4, -4) Point F = (4, -4 + 6) = (4, 2) Point E = (4 - 8, 2) = (-4, 2) Point G = (-4, 2 - 2) = (-4, 0)

The displacement of Point G relative to Point A is: Δx = -4 - (-8) = +4 m (East) Δy = 0 - 0 = 0 m

Therefore, Point G is located 4 m to the East of Point A.

Explanation

Placing point B at the origin (0, 0): Point C is 4 m south of B, so C = (0, -4). Point D is 4 m east of C, so D = (4, -4). Point F is 6 m north of D, so F = (4, 2). Point E is 8 m west of F, so E = (-4, 2). Point G is 2 m south of E, so G = (-4, 0).

Since G is 4 m north of H, point H is located at (-4, -4).

Both H and D lie on the horizontal line y = -4. Distance between H and D = 4 - (-4) = 8 m.

Explanation

By analyzing the given conditions step-by-step: Box P (black) is placed 3 boxes away from Box W, and the silver box is immediately above Box W. Box R (white) is placed 2 boxes away from Box P, while Box T (red) is placed with 1 box between Box T and Box W, and 2 boxes between Box Q and Box T. Satisfying the conditions that more than 3 boxes exist between pink and silver, and between pink and yellow, gives the unique top-to-bottom arrangement (positions 7 to 1):

Position 7: Box S (Silver) Position 6: Box W (Yellow) Position 5: Box R (White) Position 4: Box T (Red) Position 3: Box V (Green) Position 2: Box P (Black) Position 1: Box Q (Pink)

The green box is at position 3 and the silver box is at position 7. The boxes between them are at positions 4, 5, and 6 (Boxes T, R, and W), making a total of 3 boxes.

Explanation

Placing the boxes in order from position 7 (top) to position 1 (bottom) based on the given conditions: Position 7: Box S (Silver) Position 6: Box W (Yellow) Position 5: Box R (White) Position 4: Box T (Red) Position 3: Box V (Green) Position 2: Box P (Black) Position 1: Box Q (Pink)

Box W is at position 6 with the silver box S directly above it at position 7. Box P (Black) is placed at position 2, three boxes below W. Box R (White) is at position 5, two boxes above P. Box T (Red) is at position 4, one box below W, and Box Q is at position 1, two boxes below T. Box W is yellow, placing S directly above it, leaving box Q at position 1 to be pink, which satisfies the condition of having four boxes between the yellow and pink boxes.

Explanation

Arranging the boxes in order from position 7 (top) to position 1 (bottom) based on the clues:

Position 7: Box S (Silver) Position 6: Box W (Yellow) Position 5: Box R (White) Position 4: Box T (Red) Position 3: Box V (Green) Position 2: Box P (Black) Position 1: Box Q (Pink)

Box T is the red colour box at position 4, and box R at position 5 is placed immediately above it.

Explanation

From the given conditions, the 7 boxes are arranged from top to bottom (7 to 1) as follows: Position 7: S (Silver) Position 6: W (Yellow) Position 5: R (White) Position 4: T (Red) Position 3: V (Green) Position 2: P (Black) Position 1: Q (Pink)

Box W is at position 6 and Box Q is at position 1. The boxes between them are R, T, V, and P, which totals 4 boxes.

Explanation

Seven people live on floors 1 to 7. Sanya has exactly three people living above her, which places Sanya on floor 4, with floors 5, 6 and 7 above her; combining this with the clue that only one person lives between Sanya and the Paris-goer, and that Urmila lives just above Rishi and does not go to London, the full arrangement resolves to Rishi (1st, Shanghai), Urmila (2nd, Paris), Vini (3rd, Durban), Sanya (4th, Madrid), Yasir (5th, Dubai), Pankaj (6th, London) and Tina (7th, Istanbul). Since Tina occupies the topmost floor, option a is correct.

Explanation

Arranging the 8 positions from 1 to 8 (left to right): Position 1: F (Hockey, facing North) Position 2: A (Volleyball, facing North) Position 3: G (Kabaddi, facing South) Position 4: I (Chess) Position 5: D (Cricket) Position 6: H (Tennis, facing North) Position 7: C (Swimming, facing South) Position 8: E (Basketball, facing South)

Since C is seated at position 7 facing South, the direction to C's immediate left is toward position 8. The person at position 8 plays Basketball.

Explanation

Arranging the 8 persons from left to right based on the given clues: F plays Hockey and faces North. A plays Volleyball and faces South. G plays Kabaddi and faces South. I plays Chess and faces North. D plays Cricket and faces North. H plays Tennis and faces North. C plays Swimming and faces South. E plays Basketball and faces South.

The person who plays Volleyball is A at position 2, and I sits at position 4. G sits at position 3, exactly between I and the person who plays Volleyball.

Explanation

Arranging the eight persons in positions 1 to 8 from left to right: Position 1: F (Hockey, facing North) Position 2: A (Volleyball, facing South) Position 3: G (Kabaddi, facing South) Position 4: I (Chess, facing North) Position 5: D (Cricket, facing North) Position 6: H (Tennis, facing North) Position 7: C (Swimming, facing South) Position 8: E (Basketball, facing South)

The person who plays Volleyball is A at position 2, and I is at position 4. Therefore, G sits at position 3, exactly between I and the person who plays Volleyball.

Explanation

From the given conditions: Position 1 plays Hockey and position 3 is G (facing South), because the Hockey player sits at one end and is second to the right of G. Since C and D are not neighbours of G and do not sit at the ends, with one person between them, D is at position 5 and C is at position 7 (facing South). I (Chess) is at position 4, sitting exactly between G (who plays Kabaddi at position 3) and D (position 5). Because A is to the immediate right of the person facing North, the person at position 1 faces North, placing A at position 2 facing South. Since A faces South, the person to the immediate right of A is at position 1, who plays Hockey.

Explanation

From the given conditions, the step-by-step seating arrangement from position 1 to 8 (left to right) is:

Position 1: F (Hockey, facing North) Position 2: A (Volleyball, facing South) Position 3: G (Kabaddi, facing South) Position 4: I (Chess, facing North) Position 5: D (Cricket, facing North) Position 6: H (Tennis, facing North) Position 7: C (Swimming, facing South) Position 8: E (Basketball, facing South)

In all other pairs (FA, DH, CE, IG), the two persons sit immediately adjacent to each other in the row. In the pair AD, A is at position 2 and D is at position 5, making them non-adjacent.

Explanation

Floors available for the five people are numbered 1 to 5, with ground floor being unoccupied.

From Statement I, J, I, and L occupy three consecutive floors in that order from top to bottom (J on top, then I, then L). If L, I, J occupy floors 1, 2, 3, then floors 4 and 5 remain for K and M. Since K must be on an even floor, K is on floor 4, forcing M onto floor 5, which contradicts that M is not on the topmost floor. If L, I, J occupy floors 2, 3, 4, neither remaining floor (1 or 5) is even for K. Thus, L, I, J must occupy floors 3, 4, 5 respectively. Placing K on the remaining even floor (floor 2) leaves floor 1 for M. This gives a unique arrangement where L lives on the third floor.

From Statement II, L is on an odd floor (1, 3, or 5), K is on an even floor (2 or 4), with {I, J} and {K, M} as adjacent pairs. Multiple valid arrangements exist where floor 3 can be occupied by L, I, or J, making Statement II alone insufficient.

Explanation

Blockchain is a decentralized, distributed ledger technology that enables direct peer-to-peer financial transactions across a network without the need for central authorities, clearinghouses, or intermediaries. By utilizing cryptographic protocols and consensus mechanisms, network nodes directly validate and record transactions. This disintermediation streamlines the transfer of digital assets, eliminates intermediary service fees, and drastically accelerates settlement speeds.

Explanation

Blockchain technology provides financial institutions with a decentralized, distributed ledger framework that serves as an alternative infrastructure for executing and settling transactions across inter-financial markets. By replacing centralized clearinghouses and traditional intermediary networks with cryptographic consensus protocols, financial institutions can directly verify, record, and transfer assets between institutional counterparties securely and immutably.

Explanation

Cryptocurrencies operate on decentralized peer-to-peer networks and are neither issued nor backed by sovereign governments or central banks. Their market liquidity depends entirely on willing market participants without any central bank serving as a lender of last resort or guaranteeing convertibility to fiat currency. Additionally, major cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin are designed with fixed mathematical supply caps rather than an unending supply.

Explanation

The author explicitly states that the harsh labels "the very definition of a bubble" and even "a fraud" are justified 'especially after the latest spell of wild price volatility,' directly tying the justification to bitcoin's extreme price swings. This matches option c, bitcoin's volatility, rather than its lack of backing, its misuse of blockchain, or its potential for illicit use, which are separate points made elsewhere in the passage.

Explanation

Checking each statement against the passage: option a is true since bitcoin's extreme volatility makes it 'much less useful' as a store of value; option b is true because the passage says blockchain 'could be transformative' and is 'potentially very powerful'; option c is true given the repeated emphasis on bitcoin's volatility and instability; and option d is true since tokens 'can succeed in a limited way as a means of exchange.' Because all four statements a-d are actually supported by the passage, none of them is false, making option e, 'None of these,' the correct choice.

Explanation

Statement (ii) is supported because the passage says blockchain, 'by reducing the need for central intermediaries, holds out the promise of processing transactions... more efficiently,' implying intermediaries currently hinder some transactions to an extent. Statement (i) is not supported, since the passage says banks and exchanges are merely 'exploring' blockchain applications, not that they are broadly supportive of bitcoin itself. Statement (iii) overstates the passage, which only mentions digital currency replacing cash as one speculative, unconfirmed idea 'worth study,' not an imminent development. Hence only statement (ii) can be inferred, matching option a.

Explanation

The adverb purportedly describes something that is stated, alleged, or believed to be true based on appearance or representation, though not definitively proven. The word supposedly carries the identical meaning, denoting that a condition or assertion is presumed, reputed, or claimed to be the case according to general belief or report without conclusive verification.

Explanation

The word radical refers to advocating thorough, fundamental, or sweeping changes in systems, ideas, or practices. In contrast, conservative describes a philosophy or stance that favors maintaining existing institutions, adhering to traditional values, and resisting abrupt or drastic transformation.

Explanation

The determiner "little" expresses a negative meaning equivalent to "hardly any" or "almost none", accurately conveying the restricted scope for open inquiry that leads to cultural norms remaining unquestioned. The original phrase is grammatically sound and fits the context without needing any alteration.

Explanation

The names of holy and religious scriptures require the definite article "the" before them, making "the Bible" grammatically correct. The standard idiomatic phrasing is "without the help of the Bible, and with just the views", which maintains parallel prepositional usage and proper article placement.

Explanation

The correlative structure such followed by a noun phrase takes as rather than such as to avoid redundancy. Additionally, when referring to something belonging to us without following it with a noun, the possessive pronoun ours must be used instead of the possessive determiner our. Therefore, such an intricately engineered bio system as ours provides the grammatically correct phrasing.

Explanation

The correct idiomatic expression is to make light of something, which means to treat something as if it were not serious or important. In this sentence, the plural subject Monu and Sonu requires a plural or simple past verb, and the past tense verb attempted matches the past tense in the subsequent clause (it was obvious that things were going badly for them). Therefore, attempted to make light of their difficulties is the grammatically and idiomatically correct form.

Explanation

The verb "top" acts as a transitive verb meaning to exceed, surpass, or be superior to. In this context, it directly takes the noun phrase "early performance" as its direct object, rendering the sentence grammatically sound and idiomatic as written. Adding prepositions like "in" or changing the structure disrupts the direct transitive relationship between the verb and its object.

Explanation

The verb "hurried" indicates physical motion toward a specific destination, which requires the preposition "to" to establish the direction and endpoint of movement. Using "to the booth's back" provides the grammatically correct prepositional phrase signifying movement toward the rear of the booth.

Explanation

The idiomatic expression "rank and file" denotes the ordinary members of a group or organization, particularly in trade unions or political parties, as distinguished from the leadership. In the given sentence, it appropriately contrasts the general membership of the Labour Union with the top engineers.

Explanation

The idiom a far cry from means completely different or distant from something. The expression requires the preposition from to establish the comparison between living in New York City and living in the countryside. The phrasing preserves the standard idiomatic construction, proper noun capitalization, and grammatical integrity required in the context of the sentence.

Explanation

Statement (i) ends with the mention of firecrackers, which directly connects to sentence 1 elaborating on how firecrackers are perceived or replaced across the world. Sentence 4 follows by relating New Year's Eve to Christmas and referencing a homeless child born to poor refugees. Sentence 3 logically succeeds sentence 4 by referencing the celebration of Christmas and echoing the motifs of the homeless, children, and refugees. Finally, sentence 2 concludes the thought by addressing criticism regarding the celebration of foreign festivals.

Explanation

Statement (i) introduces the mythological premise of Shiva opening his third eye as a terrible warning. Statement 3 directly explains this action by clarifying that it signifies an anger intense enough to incinerate anything in his path. Statement 1 draws an analogy between this mythological wrath and the global stand taken by women in 2017 against injustice. Statement 4 elaborates on this declaration of war by describing the furious outpouring of rage against men across all spheres. Finally, statement 2 concludes the narrative by transitioning from anger to the broader perspective of empowerment and unprecedented achievements.

Explanation

The introductory sentence mentions system administrators sharing gallows humour on a forum. Sentence 3 provides the first example of this humour, followed by sentence 2 which gives a second example using the parallel construction. Sentence 1 introduces the technical topic being discussed, namely the Meltdown and Spectre security flaws across major chipmakers, and sentence 4 directly qualifies the extensive range of devices affected by those processors. This establishes the coherent sequence 3-2-1-4.

Explanation

Statement (i) introduces the theme of the Indian economy appearing to regain strength. Sentence 3 logically follows by stating that the economy seems to have recovered from two enormous disruptions. Sentence 1 directly identifies those two disruptions as demonetisation and the rollout of the goods and services tax. Sentences 4 and 2 then provide concrete indicators supporting the apparent revival, detailing export growth, manufacturing expansion, and sovereign credit rating upgrades.

Explanation

Opening sentence (i) introduces the pristine environment of Singapore and Japan. Sentence 4 directly follows by questioning how such bustling foreign cities remain spotless without stray trash. Sentence 3 provides an immediate contrast by comparing foreign transit with litter-filled Indian public transport. Sentence 2 broadens the discussion to the social issue of public littering in India while noting that Indian homes are impeccably clean. Sentence 1 concludes the paragraph by contrasting the clean interior of homes with the dirty exterior of Indian streets and gullies.

Explanation

In the context of legal and environmental management, a problem that is not easily managed, regulated, or responsive to solutions is described as not being amenable or not being compliant. Both words function as suitable adjectives modifying water issues when paired with nor easily fixable.

Explanation

The verb relegate means to consign or dismiss to an inferior rank, condition, or isolated position, which accurately describes the adverse effect of harsh climate and geography on regional communities. Similarly, downgrade conveys the reduction of status or condition, fitting the negative context established by drought, food insecurity, and poverty.

Explanation

The passage describes how global transition policies will slow down rather than halt completely, creating ongoing policy disputes and arguments. Both contentious and debatable function as adjectives signifying that the subject of clean energy remains controversial and open to disagreement.

Explanation

The Fourth Industrial Revolution introduces advanced transport technologies capable of operating independently without human intervention. The adjectives autonomous and self-sufficient appropriately modify vehicles to denote self-driving, independent automotive technology aimed at reducing congestion and pollution.

Explanation

The sentence describes widespread civic unrest and rioting caused by massive grid failures. The adjective disgruntled describes the angry and dissatisfied state of the population, while unbridled describes unrestrained and uncontrolled behavior during public riots.

Explanation

The idiomatic phrases arriving in waves and arriving in swarms describe large numbers of immigrants entering a region in successive or overwhelming groups. Both collective nouns accurately complete the prepositional phrase following arriving in.

Explanation

The context describes desert conditions severe enough to cause weakness, dehydration, and undernourishment. The adjective oppressive characterizes heat that is heavy, stifling, and hard to endure, while torrid specifically describes intensely hot and dry weather typical of arid regions.

Explanation

In part A, the adverb almost improperly modifies the verb applauded; the intended meaning requires the quantifier phrase almost all his tricks to denote the proportion of tricks appreciated. In part C, the word following the definite article the and preposition of must be the noun performance rather than the base verb perform.

Explanation

In part B, the sentence requires the simple past tense verb wore to maintain parallel tense consistency with the past tense verb looked. In part D, the phrase easily removed clothing should use the adjective removable to appropriately describe the characteristic of the clothing item as easily removable clothing.

Explanation

In the opening part of the sentence, the noun phrase denotes composition and relationship, requiring the preposition "of" to form "The expanse of the young population" instead of "from". In the second part, the construction "makes it [adjective] for [noun] to [verb]" requires a predicate adjective; therefore, the noun "importance" must be replaced with the adjective "important".

Explanation

The sentence is grammatically sound in all respects. The introductory clause "it is important to realize" correctly governs the subsequent nominal clause, the parenthetical comparison "much like in the film industry" is properly punctuated with commas, and the singular subject "idea" agrees correctly with the singular verb "is".

Explanation

The plural subject "new agreements" in the first segment of the sentence governs the plural verb form "reflect" rather than the singular third-person form "reflects". The sentence additionally requires correction in the phrasing of the concluding segment to maintain standard syntactic form.

Explanation

Following the prepositional phrase structure "in the", a noun is required to specify a time frame. The noun "future" correctly completes the idiom "in the future", whereas the word "futuristic" functions as an adjective and cannot serve as the object of the preposition in this context.

Explanation

The surrounding clauses express general conditions and future possibilities using present-tense verbs such as "approaches" and "can be translated". To maintain consistent grammatical tense across the subordinate clause, the simple present verb form "improves" must replace the past tense form "improved".

Explanation

All highlighted words are used accurately. The infinitive "to visualise" maintains parallel structure with "to walk" and "to interact", the modal auxiliary "would" correctly frames the hypothetical visual scenario, the adverb "virtually" properly modifies the verb "interact", and the phrasal verb "take away from" correctly expresses diminishing or detracting from value.

Explanation

In the subordinate clause "as our ability to make use of data increase", the grammatical subject is the singular abstract noun "ability", not the plural object of the preposition "data". In the simple present tense, a singular third-person subject must agree with the singular verb form "increases".

Explanation

The verb "improve" requires an adverb of degree to describe how much the subject will progress. The adjective "significant" cannot modify a verb directly and must be changed to the adverbial form "significantly".

Explanation

The fixed idiomatic phrasal verb is "chip away at", which means to gradually dismantle, reduce, or diminish the power or benefits of something over time. Substituting "beyond" breaks the established prepositional particle structure of the phrasal verb.

Explanation

The sentence is grammatically well-formed throughout. The determiner "Another" properly precedes the singular noun "factor", the participial phrase "contributing to the rise of online retailers" correctly functions as an adjectival modifier, and "fast delivery" serves as an appropriate predicate nominative.

Explanation

The sentence refers to a completed past scenario indicated by the time phrase a few years ago followed by the conditional predicate would take. The conditional clause requires the simple past tense form ordered rather than the base present form order to maintain grammatical consistency.

Explanation

Delivery networks and supply chains are established and operated by online retailers or e-commerce platforms to fulfill orders, not by the buyers who purchase the goods. The word retailers or sellers fits the context correctly instead of consumers.

Explanation

The standard idiomatic expression used to report or attribute a statement to an individual is according to. The adverbial form accordingly is grammatically incorrect when followed directly by the preposition to in this context.

Explanation

While the passage mentions that the motor and insurance industries expect general safety benefits because over 90% of traffic accidents involve human error, it does not provide specific operational or financial details regarding how insurance agencies will benefit.

Explanation

In the context of emerging technological development, a blip denotes a minor, unexpected disruption or temporary deviation from an otherwise steady progression. Thus, interruptions represents the accurate contextual meaning.

Explanation

The passage quotes Christian Wolmar directly stating that driverless vehicles will not be accepted if there is a perception that they are not 100% safe. Complete public assurance regarding safety is presented as the primary condition for acceptance.

Explanation

The irony stems from the contrast between the primary marketing claim of autonomous vehicles—that eliminating human error would make transportation significantly safer—and the reality that these driverless vehicles have resulted in pedestrian fatalities during real-world testing.

Explanation

The term vanguard historically refers to the foremost division of an advancing military force and is used in modern English to describe being at the forefront or cutting edge of technological innovation, industry leadership, or policy development.

Explanation

The passage states that the conclusion of the government-backed autonomous pod trials in south London coincided with organisers reporting widespread public unease and concern regarding the implications of the technology for road safety and cybersecurity.

Explanation

The text notes that initial video footage reviewed by Arizona police suggested that the pedestrian walked out suddenly into traffic while wheeling a bicycle, which prevented the vehicle from reacting and braking in time.