IBPS SO Prelims 2021 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

1English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. The state of India's economy is deeply worrying. By now, the facts are evident to all nominal GDP growth is at a 15- year low; unemployment is at a 45- year high; household consumption is at a four- decade low; bad loans in banks are at an all- time high; growth in electricity generation is at a 15- year low — the list of highs and lows is long and perturbing (A). But the state of the economy is worrying not because of these disturbing statistics. These are mere manifestations of a deeper underlying (B) that plagues the nation's economy today. A nation's state of the economy is also a function and reflection of the state of its society. The functioning of any economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and institutions. (C) Mutual foster (1) and self- confidence are the bedrock(2) of such social transactions(3) among people that trust (4) economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. There is a palpable climate of fear in our society today. Many industrialists tell me that they live in fear of harassment by government authorities. Bankers are reluctant to make new loans, for fear of retribution. Entrepreneurs are hesitant to put up fresh projects, for fear of failure attributed to ulterior motives. Technology start- ups, an important new engine of economic growth and jobs, (D) Policymakers in government and other institutions are scared to speak the truth or engage in intellectually honest policy discussions. There is profound fear and distrust among people who act as agents of economic growth. When there is such distrust, it adversely impacts economic transactions in a society. When transactions among people and institutions are negatively impacted, it leads to a slowdown of economic activity, and eventually, (E) This perilous state of fear, distrust and lack of confidence among citizens is a fundamental reason for our sharp economic slowdown. There is an air of helplessness too. Aggrieved citizens find nowhere to go to air their grievances. (F) Public trust in independent institutions, such as the media, judiciary, regulatory authorities and investigative agencies have been severely eroded. With the erosion of trust, there is a lack of a support system for people to seek refuge against unlawful tax harassment or unfair regulations. (G) This makes undertaking (1) lose their risk appetite(2) even further for entrepreneurs (3) new projects and creating(4) jobs. This toxic combination of deep distrust, pervasive fear and a sense of hopelessness in our society is stifling economic activity, and hence, economic growth. Which of the following option represent pair of synonym and antonym respectively for the word marked as (A) in the given passage?

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Answer: (C) Disquieting, Assuage

The word perturbing means causing mental disquiet, anxiety, or distress. Disquieting directly shares this meaning of inducing feelings of worry or unease, serving as an exact synonym. Conversely, assuage means to soothe, pacify, relieve, or alleviate distress, making it an appropriate antonym.

2English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. The state of India's economy is deeply worrying. By now, the facts are evident to all nominal GDP growth is at a 15- year low; unemployment is at a 45- year high; household consumption is at a four- decade low; bad loans in banks are at an all- time high; growth in electricity generation is at a 15- year low — the list of highs and lows is long and perturbing (A). But the state of the economy is worrying not because of these disturbing statistics. These are mere manifestations of a deeper underlying (B) that plagues the nation's economy today. A nation's state of the economy is also a function and reflection of the state of its society. The functioning of any economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and institutions. (C) Mutual foster (1) and self- confidence are the bedrock(2) of such social transactions(3) among people that trust (4) economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. There is a palpable climate of fear in our society today. Many industrialists tell me that they live in fear of harassment by government authorities. Bankers are reluctant to make new loans, for fear of retribution. Entrepreneurs are hesitant to put up fresh projects, for fear of failure attributed to ulterior motives. Technology start- ups, an important new engine of economic growth and jobs, (D) Policymakers in government and other institutions are scared to speak the truth or engage in intellectually honest policy discussions. There is profound fear and distrust among people who act as agents of economic growth. When there is such distrust, it adversely impacts economic transactions in a society. When transactions among people and institutions are negatively impacted, it leads to a slowdown of economic activity, and eventually, (E) This perilous state of fear, distrust and lack of confidence among citizens is a fundamental reason for our sharp economic slowdown. There is an air of helplessness too. Aggrieved citizens find nowhere to go to air their grievances. (F) Public trust in independent institutions, such as the media, judiciary, regulatory authorities and investigative agencies have been severely eroded. With the erosion of trust, there is a lack of a support system for people to seek refuge against unlawful tax harassment or unfair regulations. (G) This makes undertaking (1) lose their risk appetite(2) even further for entrepreneurs (3) new projects and creating(4) jobs. This toxic combination of deep distrust, pervasive fear and a sense of hopelessness in our society is stifling economic activity, and hence, economic growth. Which of the following words given in the options should come at the place marked as (B) in the above passage to make it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful? Also, the word should fill in the two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful. (I) Trickier to identify by far is systemic institutional , although suspicions are that Cricket South Africa (CSA) is now an organisation flirting with a nervous breakdown (II) Doctors' strike was the straw that finally broke the camel's back - the outcome of a deep that unfortunately has still not been corrected in the present budgetary allocation for health.

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Answer: (B) Malaise

The noun malaise refers to a general feeling of unease or a deep-rooted, pervasive problem affecting an economy, institution, or system. In the passage, it functions as the noun modified by the adjectives deeper and underlying to describe the core distress affecting the economy. In sentence I, systemic institutional malaise appropriately characterizes organizational dysfunction, while in sentence II, deep malaise accurately denotes an ongoing structural issue within the health sector.

3English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. The state of India's economy is deeply worrying. By now, the facts are evident to all nominal GDP growth is at a 15- year low; unemployment is at a 45- year high; household consumption is at a four- decade low; bad loans in banks are at an all- time high; growth in electricity generation is at a 15- year low — the list of highs and lows is long and perturbing (A). But the state of the economy is worrying not because of these disturbing statistics. These are mere manifestations of a deeper underlying (B) that plagues the nation's economy today. A nation's state of the economy is also a function and reflection of the state of its society. The functioning of any economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and institutions. (C) Mutual foster (1) and self- confidence are the bedrock(2) of such social transactions(3) among people that trust (4) economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. There is a palpable climate of fear in our society today. Many industrialists tell me that they live in fear of harassment by government authorities. Bankers are reluctant to make new loans, for fear of retribution. Entrepreneurs are hesitant to put up fresh projects, for fear of failure attributed to ulterior motives. Technology start- ups, an important new engine of economic growth and jobs, (D) Policymakers in government and other institutions are scared to speak the truth or engage in intellectually honest policy discussions. There is profound fear and distrust among people who act as agents of economic growth. When there is such distrust, it adversely impacts economic transactions in a society. When transactions among people and institutions are negatively impacted, it leads to a slowdown of economic activity, and eventually, (E) This perilous state of fear, distrust and lack of confidence among citizens is a fundamental reason for our sharp economic slowdown. There is an air of helplessness too. Aggrieved citizens find nowhere to go to air their grievances. (F) Public trust in independent institutions, such as the media, judiciary, regulatory authorities and investigative agencies have been severely eroded. With the erosion of trust, there is a lack of a support system for people to seek refuge against unlawful tax harassment or unfair regulations. (G) This makes undertaking (1) lose their risk appetite(2) even further for entrepreneurs (3) new projects and creating(4) jobs. This toxic combination of deep distrust, pervasive fear and a sense of hopelessness in our society is stifling economic activity, and hence, economic growth. The sentence given in (C) has four words underlined. Amongst the given underlined words which of the followings must interchange to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct and meaningful?

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Answer: (D) (1)- (4)

In the subject phrase, the adjective mutual modifies a noun, requiring trust instead of the verb foster to parallel self-confidence. In the relative clause that modifies social transactions, the plural antecedent requires the transitive verb foster rather than the noun trust to govern economic growth. Swapping words (1) and (4) yields the grammatically and contextually correct sentence: Mutual trust and self-confidence are the bedrock of such social transactions among people that foster economic growth.

4English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. The state of India's economy is deeply worrying. By now, the facts are evident to all nominal GDP growth is at a 15- year low; unemployment is at a 45- year high; household consumption is at a four- decade low; bad loans in banks are at an all- time high; growth in electricity generation is at a 15- year low — the list of highs and lows is long and perturbing (A). But the state of the economy is worrying not because of these disturbing statistics. These are mere manifestations of a deeper underlying (B) that plagues the nation's economy today. A nation's state of the economy is also a function and reflection of the state of its society. The functioning of any economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and institutions. (C) Mutual foster (1) and self- confidence are the bedrock(2) of such social transactions(3) among people that trust (4) economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. There is a palpable climate of fear in our society today. Many industrialists tell me that they live in fear of harassment by government authorities. Bankers are reluctant to make new loans, for fear of retribution. Entrepreneurs are hesitant to put up fresh projects, for fear of failure attributed to ulterior motives. Technology start- ups, an important new engine of economic growth and jobs, (D) Policymakers in government and other institutions are scared to speak the truth or engage in intellectually honest policy discussions. There is profound fear and distrust among people who act as agents of economic growth. When there is such distrust, it adversely impacts economic transactions in a society. When transactions among people and institutions are negatively impacted, it leads to a slowdown of economic activity, and eventually, (E) This perilous state of fear, distrust and lack of confidence among citizens is a fundamental reason for our sharp economic slowdown. There is an air of helplessness too. Aggrieved citizens find nowhere to go to air their grievances. (F) Public trust in independent institutions, such as the media, judiciary, regulatory authorities and investigative agencies have been severely eroded. With the erosion of trust, there is a lack of a support system for people to seek refuge against unlawful tax harassment or unfair regulations. (G) This makes undertaking (1) lose their risk appetite(2) even further for entrepreneurs (3) new projects and creating(4) jobs. This toxic combination of deep distrust, pervasive fear and a sense of hopelessness in our society is stifling economic activity, and hence, economic growth. Select the appropriate phrase for the blank marked as (D) which can make the given sentence contextually as well as grammatically correct.

Abeen stitched and knitted together to enthuse trust and confidence.Bto garner an elephant's share of the export opportunityCit is prudent to act quickly to restoring consumption demandDseem to live under a shadow of constant surveillance and deep suspicionENone of these.

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Answer: (D) seem to live under a shadow of constant surveillance and deep suspicion

The sentence begins with the plural noun phrase "Technology start-ups, an important new engine of economic growth and jobs," which requires a grammatically complete finite verb phrase to form an independent clause. The paragraph discusses the pervasive climate of fear, harassment, and reluctance among key economic actors, including industrialists, bankers, and entrepreneurs. The verb phrase starting with "seem to live under a shadow..." provides the correct plural verb agreement and contextually continues the theme of surveillance, fear, and suspicion affecting business confidence.

5English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. The state of India's economy is deeply worrying. By now, the facts are evident to all nominal GDP growth is at a 15- year low; unemployment is at a 45- year high; household consumption is at a four- decade low; bad loans in banks are at an all- time high; growth in electricity generation is at a 15- year low — the list of highs and lows is long and perturbing (A). But the state of the economy is worrying not because of these disturbing statistics. These are mere manifestations of a deeper underlying (B) that plagues the nation's economy today. A nation's state of the economy is also a function and reflection of the state of its society. The functioning of any economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and institutions. (C) Mutual foster (1) and self- confidence are the bedrock(2) of such social transactions(3) among people that trust (4) economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. There is a palpable climate of fear in our society today. Many industrialists tell me that they live in fear of harassment by government authorities. Bankers are reluctant to make new loans, for fear of retribution. Entrepreneurs are hesitant to put up fresh projects, for fear of failure attributed to ulterior motives. Technology start- ups, an important new engine of economic growth and jobs, (D) Policymakers in government and other institutions are scared to speak the truth or engage in intellectually honest policy discussions. There is profound fear and distrust among people who act as agents of economic growth. When there is such distrust, it adversely impacts economic transactions in a society. When transactions among people and institutions are negatively impacted, it leads to a slowdown of economic activity, and eventually, (E) This perilous state of fear, distrust and lack of confidence among citizens is a fundamental reason for our sharp economic slowdown. There is an air of helplessness too. Aggrieved citizens find nowhere to go to air their grievances. (F) Public trust in independent institutions, such as the media, judiciary, regulatory authorities and investigative agencies have been severely eroded. With the erosion of trust, there is a lack of a support system for people to seek refuge against unlawful tax harassment or unfair regulations. (G) This makes undertaking (1) lose their risk appetite(2) even further for entrepreneurs (3) new projects and creating(4) jobs. This toxic combination of deep distrust, pervasive fear and a sense of hopelessness in our society is stifling economic activity, and hence, economic growth. Select the appropriate filler for the blank marked as (E) in the given passage. (i) Accretion (ii) Stagnation (iii) Appurtenance

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Answer: (A) Only (ii)

The passage discusses the negative repercussions of distrust on economic transactions, stating that it leads to a slowdown of economic activity and eventually a prolonged period of no growth. Stagnation directly denotes a state of inactivity or lack of growth in an economy, making it the only contextually and grammatically correct filler. Accretion denotes growth or gradual accumulation, which conveys the opposite meaning, while appurtenance refers to an accessory or associated object, which is irrelevant to the context.

6English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. The state of India's economy is deeply worrying. By now, the facts are evident to all nominal GDP growth is at a 15- year low; unemployment is at a 45- year high; household consumption is at a four- decade low; bad loans in banks are at an all- time high; growth in electricity generation is at a 15- year low — the list of highs and lows is long and perturbing (A). But the state of the economy is worrying not because of these disturbing statistics. These are mere manifestations of a deeper underlying (B) that plagues the nation's economy today. A nation's state of the economy is also a function and reflection of the state of its society. The functioning of any economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and institutions. (C) Mutual foster (1) and self- confidence are the bedrock(2) of such social transactions(3) among people that trust (4) economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. There is a palpable climate of fear in our society today. Many industrialists tell me that they live in fear of harassment by government authorities. Bankers are reluctant to make new loans, for fear of retribution. Entrepreneurs are hesitant to put up fresh projects, for fear of failure attributed to ulterior motives. Technology start- ups, an important new engine of economic growth and jobs, (D) Policymakers in government and other institutions are scared to speak the truth or engage in intellectually honest policy discussions. There is profound fear and distrust among people who act as agents of economic growth. When there is such distrust, it adversely impacts economic transactions in a society. When transactions among people and institutions are negatively impacted, it leads to a slowdown of economic activity, and eventually, (E) This perilous state of fear, distrust and lack of confidence among citizens is a fundamental reason for our sharp economic slowdown. There is an air of helplessness too. Aggrieved citizens find nowhere to go to air their grievances. (F) Public trust in independent institutions, such as the media, judiciary, regulatory authorities and investigative agencies have been severely eroded. With the erosion of trust, there is a lack of a support system for people to seek refuge against unlawful tax harassment or unfair regulations. (G) This makes undertaking (1) lose their risk appetite(2) even further for entrepreneurs (3) new projects and creating(4) jobs. This toxic combination of deep distrust, pervasive fear and a sense of hopelessness in our society is stifling economic activity, and hence, economic growth. In the above passage, a sentence (F) is given in Italics. There may or may not be an error in one part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there is no error, then choose option (e) as your answer.

APublic trust in independent institutions,Bsuch as the media, judiciary, regulatory authoritiesCand investigative agenciesDhave been severely erodedENo error.

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Answer: (D) have been severely eroded

The head subject of the sentence is the singular noun phrase public trust. The intervening prepositional phrase in independent institutions, such as the media, judiciary, regulatory authorities and investigative agencies contains plural nouns acting as objects of the preposition, which do not change the number of the subject. According to the rules of subject-verb agreement, a singular subject takes a singular verb, so have been severely eroded must be corrected to has been severely eroded.

7English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. The state of India's economy is deeply worrying. By now, the facts are evident to all nominal GDP growth is at a 15- year low; unemployment is at a 45- year high; household consumption is at a four- decade low; bad loans in banks are at an all- time high; growth in electricity generation is at a 15- year low — the list of highs and lows is long and perturbing (A). But the state of the economy is worrying not because of these disturbing statistics. These are mere manifestations of a deeper underlying (B) that plagues the nation's economy today. A nation's state of the economy is also a function and reflection of the state of its society. The functioning of any economy is the result of the combined set of exchanges and social interactions among its people and institutions. (C) Mutual foster (1) and self- confidence are the bedrock(2) of such social transactions(3) among people that trust (4) economic growth. Our social fabric of trust and confidence is now torn and ruptured. There is a palpable climate of fear in our society today. Many industrialists tell me that they live in fear of harassment by government authorities. Bankers are reluctant to make new loans, for fear of retribution. Entrepreneurs are hesitant to put up fresh projects, for fear of failure attributed to ulterior motives. Technology start- ups, an important new engine of economic growth and jobs, (D) Policymakers in government and other institutions are scared to speak the truth or engage in intellectually honest policy discussions. There is profound fear and distrust among people who act as agents of economic growth. When there is such distrust, it adversely impacts economic transactions in a society. When transactions among people and institutions are negatively impacted, it leads to a slowdown of economic activity, and eventually, (E) This perilous state of fear, distrust and lack of confidence among citizens is a fundamental reason for our sharp economic slowdown. There is an air of helplessness too. Aggrieved citizens find nowhere to go to air their grievances. (F) Public trust in independent institutions, such as the media, judiciary, regulatory authorities and investigative agencies have been severely eroded. With the erosion of trust, there is a lack of a support system for people to seek refuge against unlawful tax harassment or unfair regulations. (G) This makes undertaking (1) lose their risk appetite(2) even further for entrepreneurs (3) new projects and creating(4) jobs. This toxic combination of deep distrust, pervasive fear and a sense of hopelessness in our society is stifling economic activity, and hence, economic growth. The sentence given in (G) has four words underlined. Amongst the given underlined words which of the following must interchange to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct and meaningful?

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Answer: (E) (1)- (3)

In the sentence labeled (G), swapping word (1) undertaking with word (3) entrepreneurs produces a grammatically sound and meaningful sentence: This makes entrepreneurs lose their risk appetite even further for undertaking new projects and creating jobs. Here, entrepreneurs correctly serves as the object of makes and the subject possessing risk appetite, while undertaking functions as a parallel gerund alongside creating.

8English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. Until recently most astronomers believed that the space between the galaxies in our universe was a nearperfect vacuum. This orthodox view of the universe is now being challenged by astronomers who believe that a heavy "rain" of gas is falling into many galaxies from the supposedly empty space around them. The gas apparently condenses into a collection of small stars, each a little larger than the planet Jupiter. These stars vastly outnumber the other stars in a given galaxy. The amount of "intergalactic rainfall" into some of these galaxies has been enough to double their mass in the time since they formed. Scientists have begun to suspect that this intergalactic gas is probably a mixture of gases left over from the "big bang" when the galaxies were formed and gas was forced out of galaxies by supernova explosions. It is well known that when gas is cooled at a constant pressure its volume decreases. Thus, the physicist Fabian reasoned that as intergalactic gas cools, the cooler gas shrinks inward toward the center of the galaxy. Meanwhile its place is taken by hotter intergalactic gas from farther out on the edge of the galaxy, which cools as it is compressed and flows into the galaxy. The net result is a continuous flow of gas, starting as hot gases in intergalactic space and ending as a drizzle of cool gas called a "cooling flow," into the central galaxy. A fairly heretical idea in the 1970's, the cooling- flow theory gained support when Fabian observed a cluster of galaxies in the constellation Perseus and found the central galaxy, NGC 1275, to be a strange- looking object with irregular, thin strands of gas radiating from it. According to previous speculation, these strands were gases that had been blown out by an explosion in the galaxy. Fabian, however, disagreed. Because the strands of gas radiating from NGC 1275 are visible in optical photographs, Fabian suggested that such strands consisted not of gas blown out of the galaxy but of cooling flows of gas streaming inward. He noted that the wavelengths of the radiation emitted by a gas would change as the gas cooled, so that as the gas flowed into the galaxy and became cooler, it would emit not x- rays, but visible light, like that which was captured in the photographs. Fabian's hypothesis was supported by Canizares' determination in 1982 that most of the gas in the Perseus cluster was at a temperature of 80 million degrees Kelvin, whereas the gas immediately surrounding NGC 1275 was at one- tenth this temperature. Which of the following is not in line with Fabians' observations?

ATemperature at the center of the galaxy is comparatively less than that of Perseus clusterBIntergalactic gas on cooling would emit visible light instead of x-raysCThere is continuous flow of gas toward the center of galaxy from different galaxiesDBoth (a) and (c)ENone of these.

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Answer: (C) There is continuous flow of gas toward the center of galaxy from different galaxies

Fabian observed that cooling flows originate from hot gas present in the surrounding intergalactic space rather than being transferred directly from other individual galaxies. As this intergalactic gas cools and condenses under pressure, it shrinks and flows inward toward the center of the central galaxy.

9English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. Until recently most astronomers believed that the space between the galaxies in our universe was a nearperfect vacuum. This orthodox view of the universe is now being challenged by astronomers who believe that a heavy "rain" of gas is falling into many galaxies from the supposedly empty space around them. The gas apparently condenses into a collection of small stars, each a little larger than the planet Jupiter. These stars vastly outnumber the other stars in a given galaxy. The amount of "intergalactic rainfall" into some of these galaxies has been enough to double their mass in the time since they formed. Scientists have begun to suspect that this intergalactic gas is probably a mixture of gases left over from the "big bang" when the galaxies were formed and gas was forced out of galaxies by supernova explosions. It is well known that when gas is cooled at a constant pressure its volume decreases. Thus, the physicist Fabian reasoned that as intergalactic gas cools, the cooler gas shrinks inward toward the center of the galaxy. Meanwhile its place is taken by hotter intergalactic gas from farther out on the edge of the galaxy, which cools as it is compressed and flows into the galaxy. The net result is a continuous flow of gas, starting as hot gases in intergalactic space and ending as a drizzle of cool gas called a "cooling flow," into the central galaxy. A fairly heretical idea in the 1970's, the cooling- flow theory gained support when Fabian observed a cluster of galaxies in the constellation Perseus and found the central galaxy, NGC 1275, to be a strange- looking object with irregular, thin strands of gas radiating from it. According to previous speculation, these strands were gases that had been blown out by an explosion in the galaxy. Fabian, however, disagreed. Because the strands of gas radiating from NGC 1275 are visible in optical photographs, Fabian suggested that such strands consisted not of gas blown out of the galaxy but of cooling flows of gas streaming inward. He noted that the wavelengths of the radiation emitted by a gas would change as the gas cooled, so that as the gas flowed into the galaxy and became cooler, it would emit not x- rays, but visible light, like that which was captured in the photographs. Fabian's hypothesis was supported by Canizares' determination in 1982 that most of the gas in the Perseus cluster was at a temperature of 80 million degrees Kelvin, whereas the gas immediately surrounding NGC 1275 was at one- tenth this temperature. Which of the following best define the purpose of the passage?

ADifferentiating between different approaches in analyzing certain phenomenon occurring in galaxiesBProviding counter argument against primeval assumptions about spaceCEstablishing universality of Laws of thermodynamicsDBoth (b) and (c)ENone of these.

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Answer: (B) Providing counter argument against primeval assumptions about space

The passage offers a counter-argument to long-held assumptions about the absence of matter in space, challenging that primeval view. This matches option (b), providing a counter argument against primeval assumptions about space.

10English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. Until recently most astronomers believed that the space between the galaxies in our universe was a nearperfect vacuum. This orthodox view of the universe is now being challenged by astronomers who believe that a heavy "rain" of gas is falling into many galaxies from the supposedly empty space around them. The gas apparently condenses into a collection of small stars, each a little larger than the planet Jupiter. These stars vastly outnumber the other stars in a given galaxy. The amount of "intergalactic rainfall" into some of these galaxies has been enough to double their mass in the time since they formed. Scientists have begun to suspect that this intergalactic gas is probably a mixture of gases left over from the "big bang" when the galaxies were formed and gas was forced out of galaxies by supernova explosions. It is well known that when gas is cooled at a constant pressure its volume decreases. Thus, the physicist Fabian reasoned that as intergalactic gas cools, the cooler gas shrinks inward toward the center of the galaxy. Meanwhile its place is taken by hotter intergalactic gas from farther out on the edge of the galaxy, which cools as it is compressed and flows into the galaxy. The net result is a continuous flow of gas, starting as hot gases in intergalactic space and ending as a drizzle of cool gas called a "cooling flow," into the central galaxy. A fairly heretical idea in the 1970's, the cooling- flow theory gained support when Fabian observed a cluster of galaxies in the constellation Perseus and found the central galaxy, NGC 1275, to be a strange- looking object with irregular, thin strands of gas radiating from it. According to previous speculation, these strands were gases that had been blown out by an explosion in the galaxy. Fabian, however, disagreed. Because the strands of gas radiating from NGC 1275 are visible in optical photographs, Fabian suggested that such strands consisted not of gas blown out of the galaxy but of cooling flows of gas streaming inward. He noted that the wavelengths of the radiation emitted by a gas would change as the gas cooled, so that as the gas flowed into the galaxy and became cooler, it would emit not x- rays, but visible light, like that which was captured in the photographs. Fabian's hypothesis was supported by Canizares' determination in 1982 that most of the gas in the Perseus cluster was at a temperature of 80 million degrees Kelvin, whereas the gas immediately surrounding NGC 1275 was at one- tenth this temperature. Select the appropriate filler for the blank given in the passage.

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Answer: (D) Falling

The sentence describes a continuous descent of intergalactic gas toward galaxies, using the metaphor of a heavy rain. Among the choices, falling is the only verb that grammatically and semantically fits the context of rain descending into many galaxies.

11English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. Until recently most astronomers believed that the space between the galaxies in our universe was a nearperfect vacuum. This orthodox view of the universe is now being challenged by astronomers who believe that a heavy "rain" of gas is falling into many galaxies from the supposedly empty space around them. The gas apparently condenses into a collection of small stars, each a little larger than the planet Jupiter. These stars vastly outnumber the other stars in a given galaxy. The amount of "intergalactic rainfall" into some of these galaxies has been enough to double their mass in the time since they formed. Scientists have begun to suspect that this intergalactic gas is probably a mixture of gases left over from the "big bang" when the galaxies were formed and gas was forced out of galaxies by supernova explosions. It is well known that when gas is cooled at a constant pressure its volume decreases. Thus, the physicist Fabian reasoned that as intergalactic gas cools, the cooler gas shrinks inward toward the center of the galaxy. Meanwhile its place is taken by hotter intergalactic gas from farther out on the edge of the galaxy, which cools as it is compressed and flows into the galaxy. The net result is a continuous flow of gas, starting as hot gases in intergalactic space and ending as a drizzle of cool gas called a "cooling flow," into the central galaxy. A fairly heretical idea in the 1970's, the cooling- flow theory gained support when Fabian observed a cluster of galaxies in the constellation Perseus and found the central galaxy, NGC 1275, to be a strange- looking object with irregular, thin strands of gas radiating from it. According to previous speculation, these strands were gases that had been blown out by an explosion in the galaxy. Fabian, however, disagreed. Because the strands of gas radiating from NGC 1275 are visible in optical photographs, Fabian suggested that such strands consisted not of gas blown out of the galaxy but of cooling flows of gas streaming inward. He noted that the wavelengths of the radiation emitted by a gas would change as the gas cooled, so that as the gas flowed into the galaxy and became cooler, it would emit not x- rays, but visible light, like that which was captured in the photographs. Fabian's hypothesis was supported by Canizares' determination in 1982 that most of the gas in the Perseus cluster was at a temperature of 80 million degrees Kelvin, whereas the gas immediately surrounding NGC 1275 was at one- tenth this temperature. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to given passage?

AThere is continuous increase in the mass of the planets since their formationBGalaxies are continuously bombarded with gases originated during supernovaCThe size of the condensed gases is comparatively large than many of the planets in the solar systemDBoth (a) and (b)ENone of these.

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Answer: (C) The size of the condensed gases is comparatively large than many of the planets in the solar system

According to the passage, the falling intergalactic gas condenses into a collection of small stars, each measuring slightly larger than the planet Jupiter. Since Jupiter is the largest planet in our solar system, these condensed stellar objects are comparatively larger than the planets of the solar system.

12English Language

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Some words are highlighted to help you answer some of the questions. Until recently most astronomers believed that the space between the galaxies in our universe was a nearperfect vacuum. This orthodox view of the universe is now being challenged by astronomers who believe that a heavy "rain" of gas is falling into many galaxies from the supposedly empty space around them. The gas apparently condenses into a collection of small stars, each a little larger than the planet Jupiter. These stars vastly outnumber the other stars in a given galaxy. The amount of "intergalactic rainfall" into some of these galaxies has been enough to double their mass in the time since they formed. Scientists have begun to suspect that this intergalactic gas is probably a mixture of gases left over from the "big bang" when the galaxies were formed and gas was forced out of galaxies by supernova explosions. It is well known that when gas is cooled at a constant pressure its volume decreases. Thus, the physicist Fabian reasoned that as intergalactic gas cools, the cooler gas shrinks inward toward the center of the galaxy. Meanwhile its place is taken by hotter intergalactic gas from farther out on the edge of the galaxy, which cools as it is compressed and flows into the galaxy. The net result is a continuous flow of gas, starting as hot gases in intergalactic space and ending as a drizzle of cool gas called a "cooling flow," into the central galaxy. A fairly heretical idea in the 1970's, the cooling- flow theory gained support when Fabian observed a cluster of galaxies in the constellation Perseus and found the central galaxy, NGC 1275, to be a strange- looking object with irregular, thin strands of gas radiating from it. According to previous speculation, these strands were gases that had been blown out by an explosion in the galaxy. Fabian, however, disagreed. Because the strands of gas radiating from NGC 1275 are visible in optical photographs, Fabian suggested that such strands consisted not of gas blown out of the galaxy but of cooling flows of gas streaming inward. He noted that the wavelengths of the radiation emitted by a gas would change as the gas cooled, so that as the gas flowed into the galaxy and became cooler, it would emit not x- rays, but visible light, like that which was captured in the photographs. Fabian's hypothesis was supported by Canizares' determination in 1982 that most of the gas in the Perseus cluster was at a temperature of 80 million degrees Kelvin, whereas the gas immediately surrounding NGC 1275 was at one- tenth this temperature. As per the passage 'intergalactic rainfall' is defined as

AMovement of gases from outer region of galaxies to the center.BCondensation of gases into collection of small starsCExpulsion of gases from galaxies due to supernova explosionsDchange in the wavelength of the gas during their coolingENone of these.

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Answer: (A) Movement of gases from outer region of galaxies to the center.

According to the passage, intergalactic rainfall refers to the process where intergalactic gas cools, shrinks, and flows continuously from the outer space surrounding a galaxy inward toward its center. As the cooler gas contracts toward the core, it is replaced by hotter gas from the outer edges, creating an inward flow of gas into the galaxy.

13English Language

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions following the passage. The Chinese market accounted for a third of worldwide smartphone sales in 2016, with about half a billion units sold. However, the size of this market didn't offer much protection to market leaders. As recently as last year, newcomers were still muscling in and snatching market share from under the noses of more well known, established brands. In the early stages of this market's development, after the launch of the iPhone in 2007, Apple and Samsung dominated. Then in 2015, two Chinese brands, Xiaomi and Huawei, crashed on to the scene and changed the story. By the end of that year, they had pushed Apple into third position and squeezed Samsung out of the top five. Just one year later, OPPO and VIVO (together known as OV), two unfamiliar Chinese brands that had nevertheless been cultivating the market for years, overturned the ranking again. OV took first and third positions in 2016, pushing Apple to fourth place. Samsung's market share shrank to just one third of that of the new market leader OPPO. And what happened to Xiaomi, briefly the market leader? Well, its business model was built around outsourcing most of its value chain and managing only retail, customer experience and brand image. It sold its products exclusively online and offered extremely competitive prices. However, the strategy later proved to be a huge drawback. In 2016, the Chinese mobile market was booming, and every player was seeking to expand production to meet growing demand. This resulted in a shortage of key components and fierce competition among brands to obtain them. The fully outsourced model meant Xiaomi had less bargaining power than its competitors. Because of a shortage of processors and DRAM, Xiaomi suffered a shipment shortage of 8 million units and its market share plunged. In this market, it would seem, the business model really matters. OV have worked hard on cultivating fruitful and respectful relationships with suppliers including Sony for cameras, Samsung for displays and Qualcomm for processors. It's well known in supplier circles, for example, that OV will pay for suppliers' dinner and offer free accommodation to technical staff sent from suppliers. The support from high quality global suppliers not only helps OV to implement their product strategy but also secures delivery support for OV during the peak season, when component shortages are common with competitors. This helps OV overcome their smaller supplier penetration compared with the global volumes of the competition. Then let's move on to their manufacturing. Unlike Xiaomi or Apple, OV built up their manufacturing capability from the outset. In fact, OV source every one of their mobile phones from their own factories. There are a number of advantages to this strategy. It ensures product quality, planning and capacity control. Plus, by developing and investing in their own efficient manufacturing, OV are better equipped to respond to increased demand without competing for precious capacity at outsourcers. Next, there's the distribution strategy. OV, for now, appear happy to let the other big players battle it out for the sophisticated city consumers' Renminbi. OV, on the other hand, target the smaller cities, towns and rural areas, so- called 'tier 3 and 4' locations. They back this up with sponsorship deals with pop stars, soccer clubs and TV dramas to appeal to this market. The smartphones themselves are sleek, simple and fast- charging. And most of them are sold via an enviably wide- reaching network of 200,000 reseller retail stores - bigger than that of any of their competitors - supported by warehouses at a local level. And finally, OV are willing to share profits with their distributors, forming a foundation for a long- term cooperation. The rebate that OV provides to distributors is very high for the industry, ranging from 5% to 10%. This is a powerful motivator for distributors and retailers to promote OV devices. However, OV's strategy of building up (I) production capacities poses risks. OV has already doubled their businesses in just one year; but such dramatic growth in the future could challenge their 100% in- house production strategy. This could mean they need to collaborate with outsourcers. Furthermore, should business growth slow down or decline, the cost of investing in production overcapacity might be difficult to absorb. How has nurturing a constructive relationship with the suppliers, helped OV?

AOV entered the market after partnership with some of the leading suppliers and distributors of Indian marketBOV could have assured delivery even when there exists component shortage due to high demandsCOV could easily subdue smaller supplier penetrationDboth (b) and (c)Eall of these

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Answer: (D) both (b) and (c)

The passage confirms that OV could have assured delivery even when component shortages existed, and that OV could easily subdue smaller supplier penetration. Since both statements are supported, the answer is option (d), both (b) and (c).

14English Language

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions following the passage. The Chinese market accounted for a third of worldwide smartphone sales in 2016, with about half a billion units sold. However, the size of this market didn't offer much protection to market leaders. As recently as last year, newcomers were still muscling in and snatching market share from under the noses of more well known, established brands. In the early stages of this market's development, after the launch of the iPhone in 2007, Apple and Samsung dominated. Then in 2015, two Chinese brands, Xiaomi and Huawei, crashed on to the scene and changed the story. By the end of that year, they had pushed Apple into third position and squeezed Samsung out of the top five. Just one year later, OPPO and VIVO (together known as OV), two unfamiliar Chinese brands that had nevertheless been cultivating the market for years, overturned the ranking again. OV took first and third positions in 2016, pushing Apple to fourth place. Samsung's market share shrank to just one third of that of the new market leader OPPO. And what happened to Xiaomi, briefly the market leader? Well, its business model was built around outsourcing most of its value chain and managing only retail, customer experience and brand image. It sold its products exclusively online and offered extremely competitive prices. However, the strategy later proved to be a huge drawback. In 2016, the Chinese mobile market was booming, and every player was seeking to expand production to meet growing demand. This resulted in a shortage of key components and fierce competition among brands to obtain them. The fully outsourced model meant Xiaomi had less bargaining power than its competitors. Because of a shortage of processors and DRAM, Xiaomi suffered a shipment shortage of 8 million units and its market share plunged. In this market, it would seem, the business model really matters. OV have worked hard on cultivating fruitful and respectful relationships with suppliers including Sony for cameras, Samsung for displays and Qualcomm for processors. It's well known in supplier circles, for example, that OV will pay for suppliers' dinner and offer free accommodation to technical staff sent from suppliers. The support from high quality global suppliers not only helps OV to implement their product strategy but also secures delivery support for OV during the peak season, when component shortages are common with competitors. This helps OV overcome their smaller supplier penetration compared with the global volumes of the competition. Then let's move on to their manufacturing. Unlike Xiaomi or Apple, OV built up their manufacturing capability from the outset. In fact, OV source every one of their mobile phones from their own factories. There are a number of advantages to this strategy. It ensures product quality, planning and capacity control. Plus, by developing and investing in their own efficient manufacturing, OV are better equipped to respond to increased demand without competing for precious capacity at outsourcers. Next, there's the distribution strategy. OV, for now, appear happy to let the other big players battle it out for the sophisticated city consumers' Renminbi. OV, on the other hand, target the smaller cities, towns and rural areas, so- called 'tier 3 and 4' locations. They back this up with sponsorship deals with pop stars, soccer clubs and TV dramas to appeal to this market. The smartphones themselves are sleek, simple and fast- charging. And most of them are sold via an enviably wide- reaching network of 200,000 reseller retail stores - bigger than that of any of their competitors - supported by warehouses at a local level. And finally, OV are willing to share profits with their distributors, forming a foundation for a long- term cooperation. The rebate that OV provides to distributors is very high for the industry, ranging from 5% to 10%. This is a powerful motivator for distributors and retailers to promote OV devices. However, OV's strategy of building up (I) production capacities poses risks. OV has already doubled their businesses in just one year; but such dramatic growth in the future could challenge their 100% in- house production strategy. This could mean they need to collaborate with outsourcers. Furthermore, should business growth slow down or decline, the cost of investing in production overcapacity might be difficult to absorb. Which of the following has been the approach followed by OV to attain a wider consumer base?

Athey have introduced flash sales to market their affordable but high quality smartphonesBthey do not target to expand their reach within larger and more advanced cities.Cthey only introduced the smartphones which had good quality along with mid-range pricingDOV markets its products by offering sponsorship to people with eminence in various fieldsEboth (b) and (d)

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Answer: (E) both (b) and (d)

According to the passage, OV chooses not to battle for sophisticated consumers in larger, advanced cities, focusing its reach instead on smaller cities, towns, and rural regions (tier 3 and 4 locations). To appeal to and build this wider consumer base, OV backs up its distribution strategy by signing sponsorship deals with pop stars, soccer clubs, and TV dramas.

15English Language

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions following the passage. The Chinese market accounted for a third of worldwide smartphone sales in 2016, with about half a billion units sold. However, the size of this market didn't offer much protection to market leaders. As recently as last year, newcomers were still muscling in and snatching market share from under the noses of more well known, established brands. In the early stages of this market's development, after the launch of the iPhone in 2007, Apple and Samsung dominated. Then in 2015, two Chinese brands, Xiaomi and Huawei, crashed on to the scene and changed the story. By the end of that year, they had pushed Apple into third position and squeezed Samsung out of the top five. Just one year later, OPPO and VIVO (together known as OV), two unfamiliar Chinese brands that had nevertheless been cultivating the market for years, overturned the ranking again. OV took first and third positions in 2016, pushing Apple to fourth place. Samsung's market share shrank to just one third of that of the new market leader OPPO. And what happened to Xiaomi, briefly the market leader? Well, its business model was built around outsourcing most of its value chain and managing only retail, customer experience and brand image. It sold its products exclusively online and offered extremely competitive prices. However, the strategy later proved to be a huge drawback. In 2016, the Chinese mobile market was booming, and every player was seeking to expand production to meet growing demand. This resulted in a shortage of key components and fierce competition among brands to obtain them. The fully outsourced model meant Xiaomi had less bargaining power than its competitors. Because of a shortage of processors and DRAM, Xiaomi suffered a shipment shortage of 8 million units and its market share plunged. In this market, it would seem, the business model really matters. OV have worked hard on cultivating fruitful and respectful relationships with suppliers including Sony for cameras, Samsung for displays and Qualcomm for processors. It's well known in supplier circles, for example, that OV will pay for suppliers' dinner and offer free accommodation to technical staff sent from suppliers. The support from high quality global suppliers not only helps OV to implement their product strategy but also secures delivery support for OV during the peak season, when component shortages are common with competitors. This helps OV overcome their smaller supplier penetration compared with the global volumes of the competition. Then let's move on to their manufacturing. Unlike Xiaomi or Apple, OV built up their manufacturing capability from the outset. In fact, OV source every one of their mobile phones from their own factories. There are a number of advantages to this strategy. It ensures product quality, planning and capacity control. Plus, by developing and investing in their own efficient manufacturing, OV are better equipped to respond to increased demand without competing for precious capacity at outsourcers. Next, there's the distribution strategy. OV, for now, appear happy to let the other big players battle it out for the sophisticated city consumers' Renminbi. OV, on the other hand, target the smaller cities, towns and rural areas, so- called 'tier 3 and 4' locations. They back this up with sponsorship deals with pop stars, soccer clubs and TV dramas to appeal to this market. The smartphones themselves are sleek, simple and fast- charging. And most of them are sold via an enviably wide- reaching network of 200,000 reseller retail stores - bigger than that of any of their competitors - supported by warehouses at a local level. And finally, OV are willing to share profits with their distributors, forming a foundation for a long- term cooperation. The rebate that OV provides to distributors is very high for the industry, ranging from 5% to 10%. This is a powerful motivator for distributors and retailers to promote OV devices. However, OV's strategy of building up (I) production capacities poses risks. OV has already doubled their businesses in just one year; but such dramatic growth in the future could challenge their 100% in- house production strategy. This could mean they need to collaborate with outsourcers. Furthermore, should business growth slow down or decline, the cost of investing in production overcapacity might be difficult to absorb. How has the coming in of the new smartphone manufacturers affected the position of trailblazers within the market?

Aeven after the new comers entering the marketing the established manufacturers had a stable demand, due to their superior quality of the productBthey have provided provide flagship-level mobiles with low price with the latest features which made the established companies spend higher on their technological setup.Cnewer manufacturers have grabbed the market opportunities and have shaken domination of established brandsDnewer smartphones were introduced at extremely lower rates which led to shunning off of the prominent smartphone brandsEnone of these

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Answer: (C) newer manufacturers have grabbed the market opportunities and have shaken domination of established brands

According to the passage, early market leaders Apple and Samsung initially dominated the smartphone landscape, but rapid entry by newer Chinese manufacturers disrupted this hierarchy. Newcomers steadily captured market opportunities, muscling in to snatch market share and repeatedly pushing the established brands down in market rankings.

16English Language

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions following the passage. The Chinese market accounted for a third of worldwide smartphone sales in 2016, with about half a billion units sold. However, the size of this market didn't offer much protection to market leaders. As recently as last year, newcomers were still muscling in and snatching market share from under the noses of more well known, established brands. In the early stages of this market's development, after the launch of the iPhone in 2007, Apple and Samsung dominated. Then in 2015, two Chinese brands, Xiaomi and Huawei, crashed on to the scene and changed the story. By the end of that year, they had pushed Apple into third position and squeezed Samsung out of the top five. Just one year later, OPPO and VIVO (together known as OV), two unfamiliar Chinese brands that had nevertheless been cultivating the market for years, overturned the ranking again. OV took first and third positions in 2016, pushing Apple to fourth place. Samsung's market share shrank to just one third of that of the new market leader OPPO. And what happened to Xiaomi, briefly the market leader? Well, its business model was built around outsourcing most of its value chain and managing only retail, customer experience and brand image. It sold its products exclusively online and offered extremely competitive prices. However, the strategy later proved to be a huge drawback. In 2016, the Chinese mobile market was booming, and every player was seeking to expand production to meet growing demand. This resulted in a shortage of key components and fierce competition among brands to obtain them. The fully outsourced model meant Xiaomi had less bargaining power than its competitors. Because of a shortage of processors and DRAM, Xiaomi suffered a shipment shortage of 8 million units and its market share plunged. In this market, it would seem, the business model really matters. OV have worked hard on cultivating fruitful and respectful relationships with suppliers including Sony for cameras, Samsung for displays and Qualcomm for processors. It's well known in supplier circles, for example, that OV will pay for suppliers' dinner and offer free accommodation to technical staff sent from suppliers. The support from high quality global suppliers not only helps OV to implement their product strategy but also secures delivery support for OV during the peak season, when component shortages are common with competitors. This helps OV overcome their smaller supplier penetration compared with the global volumes of the competition. Then let's move on to their manufacturing. Unlike Xiaomi or Apple, OV built up their manufacturing capability from the outset. In fact, OV source every one of their mobile phones from their own factories. There are a number of advantages to this strategy. It ensures product quality, planning and capacity control. Plus, by developing and investing in their own efficient manufacturing, OV are better equipped to respond to increased demand without competing for precious capacity at outsourcers. Next, there's the distribution strategy. OV, for now, appear happy to let the other big players battle it out for the sophisticated city consumers' Renminbi. OV, on the other hand, target the smaller cities, towns and rural areas, so- called 'tier 3 and 4' locations. They back this up with sponsorship deals with pop stars, soccer clubs and TV dramas to appeal to this market. The smartphones themselves are sleek, simple and fast- charging. And most of them are sold via an enviably wide- reaching network of 200,000 reseller retail stores - bigger than that of any of their competitors - supported by warehouses at a local level. And finally, OV are willing to share profits with their distributors, forming a foundation for a long- term cooperation. The rebate that OV provides to distributors is very high for the industry, ranging from 5% to 10%. This is a powerful motivator for distributors and retailers to promote OV devices. However, OV's strategy of building up (I) production capacities poses risks. OV has already doubled their businesses in just one year; but such dramatic growth in the future could challenge their 100% in- house production strategy. This could mean they need to collaborate with outsourcers. Furthermore, should business growth slow down or decline, the cost of investing in production overcapacity might be difficult to absorb. What have been the consequences faced by Xiaomi against its strategy of outsourcing most of its value chain? (i) The company had to compromise with the bargaining power which its competitors would otherwise have. (ii) The company had to undergo shortage of supply of major components (iii) They would produce limited quantity of smart phones, that made it difficult for the company to have a wider reach

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Answer: (B) both (i) & (ii)

The passage states that Xiaomi's business model of outsourcing most of its value chain resulted in having less bargaining power than its competitors when key components became scarce. Furthermore, it faced severe shortages of major components like processors and DRAM, leading to a shipment shortfall of 8 million units. The text does not state that Xiaomi deliberately produced a limited quantity to restrict its reach.

17English Language

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions following the passage. The Chinese market accounted for a third of worldwide smartphone sales in 2016, with about half a billion units sold. However, the size of this market didn't offer much protection to market leaders. As recently as last year, newcomers were still muscling in and snatching market share from under the noses of more well known, established brands. In the early stages of this market's development, after the launch of the iPhone in 2007, Apple and Samsung dominated. Then in 2015, two Chinese brands, Xiaomi and Huawei, crashed on to the scene and changed the story. By the end of that year, they had pushed Apple into third position and squeezed Samsung out of the top five. Just one year later, OPPO and VIVO (together known as OV), two unfamiliar Chinese brands that had nevertheless been cultivating the market for years, overturned the ranking again. OV took first and third positions in 2016, pushing Apple to fourth place. Samsung's market share shrank to just one third of that of the new market leader OPPO. And what happened to Xiaomi, briefly the market leader? Well, its business model was built around outsourcing most of its value chain and managing only retail, customer experience and brand image. It sold its products exclusively online and offered extremely competitive prices. However, the strategy later proved to be a huge drawback. In 2016, the Chinese mobile market was booming, and every player was seeking to expand production to meet growing demand. This resulted in a shortage of key components and fierce competition among brands to obtain them. The fully outsourced model meant Xiaomi had less bargaining power than its competitors. Because of a shortage of processors and DRAM, Xiaomi suffered a shipment shortage of 8 million units and its market share plunged. In this market, it would seem, the business model really matters. OV have worked hard on cultivating fruitful and respectful relationships with suppliers including Sony for cameras, Samsung for displays and Qualcomm for processors. It's well known in supplier circles, for example, that OV will pay for suppliers' dinner and offer free accommodation to technical staff sent from suppliers. The support from high quality global suppliers not only helps OV to implement their product strategy but also secures delivery support for OV during the peak season, when component shortages are common with competitors. This helps OV overcome their smaller supplier penetration compared with the global volumes of the competition. Then let's move on to their manufacturing. Unlike Xiaomi or Apple, OV built up their manufacturing capability from the outset. In fact, OV source every one of their mobile phones from their own factories. There are a number of advantages to this strategy. It ensures product quality, planning and capacity control. Plus, by developing and investing in their own efficient manufacturing, OV are better equipped to respond to increased demand without competing for precious capacity at outsourcers. Next, there's the distribution strategy. OV, for now, appear happy to let the other big players battle it out for the sophisticated city consumers' Renminbi. OV, on the other hand, target the smaller cities, towns and rural areas, so- called 'tier 3 and 4' locations. They back this up with sponsorship deals with pop stars, soccer clubs and TV dramas to appeal to this market. The smartphones themselves are sleek, simple and fast- charging. And most of them are sold via an enviably wide- reaching network of 200,000 reseller retail stores - bigger than that of any of their competitors - supported by warehouses at a local level. And finally, OV are willing to share profits with their distributors, forming a foundation for a long- term cooperation. The rebate that OV provides to distributors is very high for the industry, ranging from 5% to 10%. This is a powerful motivator for distributors and retailers to promote OV devices. However, OV's strategy of building up (I) production capacities poses risks. OV has already doubled their businesses in just one year; but such dramatic growth in the future could challenge their 100% in- house production strategy. This could mean they need to collaborate with outsourcers. Furthermore, should business growth slow down or decline, the cost of investing in production overcapacity might be difficult to absorb. Which of the following has meaning opposite to SHORTAGE, as highlighted in the above passage?

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Answer: (D) profusion

Shortage refers to a state of scarcity, deficit, or lack of an adequate quantity of something. Profusion means an abundance, plentiful supply, or large quantity, serving as the direct antonym.

18English Language

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions following the passage. The Chinese market accounted for a third of worldwide smartphone sales in 2016, with about half a billion units sold. However, the size of this market didn't offer much protection to market leaders. As recently as last year, newcomers were still muscling in and snatching market share from under the noses of more well known, established brands. In the early stages of this market's development, after the launch of the iPhone in 2007, Apple and Samsung dominated. Then in 2015, two Chinese brands, Xiaomi and Huawei, crashed on to the scene and changed the story. By the end of that year, they had pushed Apple into third position and squeezed Samsung out of the top five. Just one year later, OPPO and VIVO (together known as OV), two unfamiliar Chinese brands that had nevertheless been cultivating the market for years, overturned the ranking again. OV took first and third positions in 2016, pushing Apple to fourth place. Samsung's market share shrank to just one third of that of the new market leader OPPO. And what happened to Xiaomi, briefly the market leader? Well, its business model was built around outsourcing most of its value chain and managing only retail, customer experience and brand image. It sold its products exclusively online and offered extremely competitive prices. However, the strategy later proved to be a huge drawback. In 2016, the Chinese mobile market was booming, and every player was seeking to expand production to meet growing demand. This resulted in a shortage of key components and fierce competition among brands to obtain them. The fully outsourced model meant Xiaomi had less bargaining power than its competitors. Because of a shortage of processors and DRAM, Xiaomi suffered a shipment shortage of 8 million units and its market share plunged. In this market, it would seem, the business model really matters. OV have worked hard on cultivating fruitful and respectful relationships with suppliers including Sony for cameras, Samsung for displays and Qualcomm for processors. It's well known in supplier circles, for example, that OV will pay for suppliers' dinner and offer free accommodation to technical staff sent from suppliers. The support from high quality global suppliers not only helps OV to implement their product strategy but also secures delivery support for OV during the peak season, when component shortages are common with competitors. This helps OV overcome their smaller supplier penetration compared with the global volumes of the competition. Then let's move on to their manufacturing. Unlike Xiaomi or Apple, OV built up their manufacturing capability from the outset. In fact, OV source every one of their mobile phones from their own factories. There are a number of advantages to this strategy. It ensures product quality, planning and capacity control. Plus, by developing and investing in their own efficient manufacturing, OV are better equipped to respond to increased demand without competing for precious capacity at outsourcers. Next, there's the distribution strategy. OV, for now, appear happy to let the other big players battle it out for the sophisticated city consumers' Renminbi. OV, on the other hand, target the smaller cities, towns and rural areas, so- called 'tier 3 and 4' locations. They back this up with sponsorship deals with pop stars, soccer clubs and TV dramas to appeal to this market. The smartphones themselves are sleek, simple and fast- charging. And most of them are sold via an enviably wide- reaching network of 200,000 reseller retail stores - bigger than that of any of their competitors - supported by warehouses at a local level. And finally, OV are willing to share profits with their distributors, forming a foundation for a long- term cooperation. The rebate that OV provides to distributors is very high for the industry, ranging from 5% to 10%. This is a powerful motivator for distributors and retailers to promote OV devices. However, OV's strategy of building up (I) production capacities poses risks. OV has already doubled their businesses in just one year; but such dramatic growth in the future could challenge their 100% in- house production strategy. This could mean they need to collaborate with outsourcers. Furthermore, should business growth slow down or decline, the cost of investing in production overcapacity might be difficult to absorb. Which of the following words is similar to "RESPECTFUL", as highlighted in the above passage?

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Answer: (C) deferential

Deferential describes an attitude characterized by showing polite submission, courteous regard, and high esteem toward others, making it directly synonymous with respectful.

19English Language

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions following the passage. The Chinese market accounted for a third of worldwide smartphone sales in 2016, with about half a billion units sold. However, the size of this market didn't offer much protection to market leaders. As recently as last year, newcomers were still muscling in and snatching market share from under the noses of more well known, established brands. In the early stages of this market's development, after the launch of the iPhone in 2007, Apple and Samsung dominated. Then in 2015, two Chinese brands, Xiaomi and Huawei, crashed on to the scene and changed the story. By the end of that year, they had pushed Apple into third position and squeezed Samsung out of the top five. Just one year later, OPPO and VIVO (together known as OV), two unfamiliar Chinese brands that had nevertheless been cultivating the market for years, overturned the ranking again. OV took first and third positions in 2016, pushing Apple to fourth place. Samsung's market share shrank to just one third of that of the new market leader OPPO. And what happened to Xiaomi, briefly the market leader? Well, its business model was built around outsourcing most of its value chain and managing only retail, customer experience and brand image. It sold its products exclusively online and offered extremely competitive prices. However, the strategy later proved to be a huge drawback. In 2016, the Chinese mobile market was booming, and every player was seeking to expand production to meet growing demand. This resulted in a shortage of key components and fierce competition among brands to obtain them. The fully outsourced model meant Xiaomi had less bargaining power than its competitors. Because of a shortage of processors and DRAM, Xiaomi suffered a shipment shortage of 8 million units and its market share plunged. In this market, it would seem, the business model really matters. OV have worked hard on cultivating fruitful and respectful relationships with suppliers including Sony for cameras, Samsung for displays and Qualcomm for processors. It's well known in supplier circles, for example, that OV will pay for suppliers' dinner and offer free accommodation to technical staff sent from suppliers. The support from high quality global suppliers not only helps OV to implement their product strategy but also secures delivery support for OV during the peak season, when component shortages are common with competitors. This helps OV overcome their smaller supplier penetration compared with the global volumes of the competition. Then let's move on to their manufacturing. Unlike Xiaomi or Apple, OV built up their manufacturing capability from the outset. In fact, OV source every one of their mobile phones from their own factories. There are a number of advantages to this strategy. It ensures product quality, planning and capacity control. Plus, by developing and investing in their own efficient manufacturing, OV are better equipped to respond to increased demand without competing for precious capacity at outsourcers. Next, there's the distribution strategy. OV, for now, appear happy to let the other big players battle it out for the sophisticated city consumers' Renminbi. OV, on the other hand, target the smaller cities, towns and rural areas, so- called 'tier 3 and 4' locations. They back this up with sponsorship deals with pop stars, soccer clubs and TV dramas to appeal to this market. The smartphones themselves are sleek, simple and fast- charging. And most of them are sold via an enviably wide- reaching network of 200,000 reseller retail stores - bigger than that of any of their competitors - supported by warehouses at a local level. And finally, OV are willing to share profits with their distributors, forming a foundation for a long- term cooperation. The rebate that OV provides to distributors is very high for the industry, ranging from 5% to 10%. This is a powerful motivator for distributors and retailers to promote OV devices. However, OV's strategy of building up (I) production capacities poses risks. OV has already doubled their businesses in just one year; but such dramatic growth in the future could challenge their 100% in- house production strategy. This could mean they need to collaborate with outsourcers. Furthermore, should business growth slow down or decline, the cost of investing in production overcapacity might be difficult to absorb. Which of the following can fill in the blank (I), to make the statement grammatically and contextually correct. Also, the word must fit in the sentences given below, following the question. (A) Daniel Matuszewski, former head of Circle Trade, an over-the-counter (OTC) trading desk of cryptocurrency firm Circle, has jointly set up a new ______ trading firm called CMS Holdings. (B) Two former executives at crypto finance firm Circle and former DRW executive jointly founded ______ crypto trading firm CMS Holdings.

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Answer: (D) proprietary

The passage discusses OPPO and VIVO owning and running their own factories rather than outsourcing, making proprietary the appropriate adjective to describe their in-house, company-owned production capacities. In financial terminology, a proprietary trading firm refers to a firm that trades financial assets with its own capital rather than on behalf of clients, perfectly completing both supplementary sentences describing CMS Holdings.

20English Language

Directions: In each of the questions given below four words are underlined. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it then select option (e) as your choice. The longer the (A)deployed lasts, the (B)longer the soldiers remain (C)clampdown on trigger fingers, the more the accretion of belligerence (D)continues on either side of the LoC.

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Answer: (B) A-C

In the given sentence, the noun clampdown correctly serves as the subject following the article and preceding the verb lasts. Conversely, the participial adjective deployed properly functions as the subject complement following the linking verb remain to describe the state of the soldiers. Exchanging these two positions makes the comparative structure grammatically coherent and contextually sound.

21English Language

Directions: In each of the questions given below four words are underlined. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it then select option (e) as your choice. The hope is once all the (A) grandstanding is done, saner counsel will (B)prevail and steps taken to guide both Kashmir and the (C)bilateral relations with Pakistan to a space where they can be better (D)managed bilaterally.

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Answer: (E) no replacement required

In the given sentence, the noun grandstanding correctly acts as the subject of the clause following all the. The verb prevail appropriately completes the standard idiom saner counsel will prevail. The adjective bilateral naturally modifies the noun relations, and the past participle managed correctly forms the passive construction can be better managed. Since every highlighted word is placed in its grammatically and contextually correct position, no rearrangement is needed.

22English Language

Directions: In each of the questions given below four words are underlined. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it then select option (e) as your choice. Civil (A) policies groups and (B) critical of Kashmiris, Dalits and Muslims, who have been (C) groups of Mr. Trump, also called out the Modi government for its (D) rights.

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Answer: (B) A-D & B-C

The sentence requires standard collocations and contextually meaningful phrasing. Swapping policies at position A with rights at position D forms the standard compound noun civil rights groups and correctly refers to the Modi government for its policies. Simultaneously, swapping critical at position B with groups at position C forms groups of Kashmiris, Dalits and Muslims and pairs the adjective phrase critical of with Mr. Trump. The fully reconstructed sentence reads: Civil rights groups and groups of Kashmiris, Dalits and Muslims, who have been critical of Mr. Trump, also called out the Modi government for its policies.

23English Language

In each of the questions given below four words are underlined. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it then select option (e) as your choice. Despite what Houston (A) diplomacy for the two leaders, a line may have been (B) crossed in the mixing of partisan (C) national politics with international (D) achieved.

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Answer: (D) A-D

The verb achieved fits the subordinate clause after the subject Houston to form what Houston achieved for the two leaders. Correspondingly, the noun diplomacy appropriately pairs with the adjective international to form international diplomacy, making the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.

24English Language

In each of the questions given below four words are underlined. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it then select option (e) as your choice. Mr. Conte has been (A) reported to have (B) inexperience from his relative political (C) emerged during the recent crisis, confronting Mr. Salvini's sectarian agenda and (D) enabling the coalition to close ranks.

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Answer: (B) B-C

The construction to have requires a past participle verb form, making emerged the correct fit in position B. Following the adjective relative political, an abstract noun is required, making inexperience the grammatically and contextually appropriate fit in position C. Swapping B and C produces the coherent phrase to have emerged from his relative political inexperience during the recent crisis. Positions A and D are already grammatically and contextually correct.

25English Language

In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is underlined. The part underlined may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part underlined is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. "No replacement required" as your answer. The truck driver, a 25- year- old man from Northern Ireland, has arrested on suspicion of murder.

Ahave arrested on suspicionBhas been arrested on suspicionChas arrested over suspicionDhas been arrested at suspicionENo replacement required

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Answer: (B) has been arrested on suspicion

The subject of the sentence, "The truck driver", is singular and represents the receiver of the action rather than the performer, which necessitates the present perfect passive voice form "has been arrested". Additionally, the standard and idiomatic preposition used with arrest in this context is "on suspicion of".

26English Language

In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is underlined. The part underlined may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part underlined is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. "No replacement required" as your answer. People will be able to get loans for them and the government can carried out development works there.

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Answer: (C) government can carry out

Modal auxiliary verbs such as can, could, will, would, shall, should, and may are always followed by the base form of the main verb (bare infinitive). In the given context, "can" must be paired with "carry out" rather than the past participle form "carried out" to maintain correct grammatical syntax for expressing ability or possibility.

27English Language

In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is underlined. The part underlined may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part underlined is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. "No replacement required" as your answer. To resolve the conflict between two judgments and provide an authoritative understanding of Section 24, a five- judge Bench was constituted last week

AResolving the conflict overBResolving the conflict betweenCResolve the conflict betweenDResolution the conflict betweenENo replacement required

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Answer: (E) No replacement required

An infinitive of purpose ("To resolve...") appropriately introduces the goal of the action in the main clause, which describes the constitution of the five-judge Bench. The preposition "between" is standard when referring to two distinct items ("two judgments"), and the base verb form "resolve" pairs in parallel structure with "provide". The original phrase is grammatically sound.

28English Language

In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is underlined. The part underlined may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part underlined is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. "No replacement required" as your answer. Delhi's AQI worsened slightly on Wednesday and stayed in the "poor" category, and the high wind speed is keeping the pollution from increasing further.

A"poor" category, and the higher windB"poor" category, but the high windC"poor" category, and the high windsD"poor" category, and the higher windsENo replacement required

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Answer: (B) "poor" category, but the high wind

The sentence presents two contrasting ideas: the air quality deteriorated into the poor category, yet the high wind speed prevented it from worsening further. An adversative conjunction like 'but' is required to connect clauses showing contrast or limitation, making 'but the high wind' the grammatically and contextually correct choice.

29English Language

In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is underlined. The part underlined may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part underlined is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. "No replacement required" as your answer. Looking at the current forecast of weather parameters in SAFAR model simulations, air quality during Diwali had been likely to be not as bad as last year.

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Answer: (A) Diwali is likely to be

The sentence refers to predictions based on a current forecast, which calls for the present tense to express probability about a future condition. The singular subject "air quality" takes the singular verb form "is", followed by the standard idiom "likely to be".

30English Language

In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is underlined. The part underlined may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part underlined is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. "No replacement required" as your answer. The surface as well as boundary layer winds is forecast to change direction to easterly by Thursday afternoon.

Aboundary layer winds is forecastedBboundary layer winds is forecastingCboundary layer winds has been forecastDboundary layer winds are forecastENo replacement required

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Answer: (D) boundary layer winds are forecast

In the phrase the surface as well as boundary layer winds, the phrase surface as well as boundary layer acts as a compound modifier for the plural head noun winds. A plural subject requires a plural auxiliary verb, so are must be used instead of is. The past participle form of forecast in standard English is forecast.

31English Language

In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is underlined. The part underlined may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part underlined is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. "No replacement required" as your answer. Student activists of ABVP and DUSU held protested over the proposed construction of a 39-storey building at North Campus.

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Answer: (D) protest over the proposed

The sentence requires the past participle adjective proposed to correctly modify the noun construction. The base form protest correctly functions either as a plural present-tense verb agreeing with the plural subject student activists, or as the nominal direct object of the verb held.

32English Language

In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is underlined. The part underlined may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the four given which can replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part underlined is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. "No replacement required" as your answer. The police said they having received a complaint from a group of students alleging that they were assaulted.

Apolice said they have receivedBpolice said they have been receivedCpolice said it has receivedDpolice said they had been receivingENo replacement required

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Answer: (A) police said they have received

The noun police is a plural collective noun in standard English, taking the plural pronoun they and a plural auxiliary verb. The subordinate clause requires a finite verb phrase rather than a non-finite participle to be grammatically complete. The active voice construction correctly conveys that the police were the recipients of the complaint.

33English Language

Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice. I suppose (A) /there are some people (B) /whom would consider it (C) /unthinkable to keep it in operation (D).

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Answer: (C) C

In the relative clause modifying "people", the pronoun acts as the subject performing the action of the verb phrase "would consider". Consequently, the subjective pronoun "who" must replace the objective form "whom" to maintain correct grammatical case.

34English Language

Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice. Let's look at a hypothetical (A)/situation in which Carol (B)/, a recovering cocaine addict (C)/, gets invited for a party (D).

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Answer: (D) D

The verb "invite" idiomatically pairs with the preposition "to" rather than "for" when specifying an event, function, or social gathering. The correct phrasing is "gets invited to a party".

35English Language

Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice. Ayush and his friend (A) / were walking towards (B) / the airport when (C) /they met his common friend (D)./

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Answer: (D) D

The sentence refers to two individuals, Ayush and his friend, acting together as the plural subject they. Therefore, the possessive pronoun qualifying common friend must be the plural their rather than the singular his, making the correct phrasing they met their common friend.

36English Language

Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice. The demand of the people's (A) /forum that the prices of important (B) /commodities to lower down will (C) /soon be reviewed by the government (D)./

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Answer: (C) C

In the given sentence, the clause introduced by the conjunction that modifies the noun demand and requires a finite verb or a subjunctive construction, such as should be lowered or be lowered, rather than the infinitive phrase to lower down. Additionally, the verb lower already implies a downward direction, making down redundant. Replacing to lower down with be lowered corrects the grammatical structure.

37English Language

Read each of the following sentences to find out if there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of this part is your answer. If there is no error in the statement, then mark option (e) as your answer choice. The worried man made (A) / a second thoroughly search (B) /of all his pockets, again (C)/including the grocery bag (D).

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Answer: (B) B

In the phrase "a second thoroughly search", the word "search" functions as a noun and requires an adjective modifier instead of an adverb. Replacing the adverb "thoroughly" with the adjective "thorough" corrects the grammatical structure to "a second thorough search".

38English Language

In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Choose the pair(s) which make(s) a grammatically meaningful sentence. Column (1) (A) Tourists and the Amarnath pilgrims were directed to (B) Census 2021 is unlikely to collect "caste wise" data (C) Muslim and Dalit organisations staged protests Column (2) (D) People sometimes confused caste with gotra (E) against the controversial legislation criminalising triple talaq (F) suggest specific threat to the yatra

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Answer: (D) C-E

Phrase C states an action, Muslim and Dalit organisations staged protests, which logically and syntactically connects with the prepositional phrase in E, against the controversial legislation criminalising triple talaq, completing the object of the protest to form a meaningful sentence.

39English Language

In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Choose the pair(s) which make(s) a grammatically meaningful sentence. Column (1) (A) State Bank of India (SBI), the country's largest lender (B) A spate of reforms undertaken by the government has led to (C) India has failed to capitalise on opportunities Column (2) (D) vast range of public sector for private (E) challenging times in terms of investment (F) reported a net profit of ₹2,312 crore for the April-June quarter

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Answer: (C) A-F

Phrase A establishes the subject, State Bank of India (SBI), along with its appositive description as the country's largest lender. Phrase F provides the appropriate past-tense finite verb and predicate, stating that it reported a net profit of ₹2,312 crore for the April-June quarter. Combining A and F produces a complete, grammatically sound, and contextually coherent sentence.

40English Language

In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Choose the pair(s) which make(s) a grammatically meaningful sentence. Column (1) (A) Equitas Holdings Ltd. (EHL) has sought extension (B) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a (C) The RBI has come out with guidelines on Column (2) (D) approved the composite scheme of arrangement. (E) director can be appointed for three years (F) a monetary penalty on eight banks for violating various norms.

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Answer: (B) B-F

Phrase B introduces the subject and the action of the Reserve Bank of India imposing an action, which connects to phrase F specifying the object, a monetary penalty on eight banks for violating regulatory norms, creating a grammatically and contextually complete sentence.

41English Language

Given sentences are not in their exact position. Rearrange them to make a coherent paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) In the 2014-2016 period, of the 21 large States, only two — Kerala and Chhattisgarh — had an SRB of above 950 girls per 1000 boys. (B) Female foeticide continues to increase at an alarming rate, as per the Sample Registration System data (C) Thus at present, at least 5% of girls are ‘eliminated’ before they are born, despite the promises of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme. (D) As a result the sex ratio at birth (SRB) has been dropping continuously since Census 2011, (E) This has come down from 909 girls per thousand boys in 2013 to 896 girls in 2017, Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

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Answer: (B) B

Sentence B serves as the introductory statement by establishing the core subject of the passage, which is the alarming rise in female foeticide according to the Sample Registration System data. The subsequent sentences logically follow this theme by describing the consequence of this trend on the sex ratio at birth, presenting specific national and state-level statistics, and finally offering a concluding summary.

42English Language

Given sentences are not in their exact position. Rearrange them to make a coherent paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) In the 2014-2016 period, of the 21 large States, only two — Kerala and Chhattisgarh — had an SRB of above 950 girls per 1000 boys. (B) Female foeticide continues to increase at an alarming rate, as per the Sample Registration System data (C) Thus at present, at least 5% of girls are ‘eliminated’ before they are born, despite the promises of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme. (D) As a result the sex ratio at birth (SRB) has been dropping continuously since Census 2011, (E) This has come down from 909 girls per thousand boys in 2013 to 896 girls in 2017, Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

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Answer: (A) A

The paragraph opens with sentence B, which introduces the core topic of rising female foeticide based on Sample Registration System data. Sentence D follows directly, linking foeticide as the cause for the continuous decline in sex ratio at birth (SRB) since Census 2011. Sentence E elaborates on this decline by providing the national SRB figures from 2013 to 2017. Sentence A comes fourth by giving state-level specifics for the 2014-2016 period across large States. Finally, sentence C concludes the passage with an overarching summary statement beginning with the transitional word Thus. Therefore, the logical sequence is B-D-E-A-C, making sentence A the fourth sentence.

43English Language

Given sentences are not in their exact position. Rearrange them to make a coherent paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) In the 2014-2016 period, of the 21 large States, only two — Kerala and Chhattisgarh — had an SRB of above 950 girls per 1000 boys. (B) Female foeticide continues to increase at an alarming rate, as per the Sample Registration System data (C) Thus at present, at least 5% of girls are ‘eliminated’ before they are born, despite the promises of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme. (D) As a result the sex ratio at birth (SRB) has been dropping continuously since Census 2011, (E) This has come down from 909 girls per thousand boys in 2013 to 896 girls in 2017, Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

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Answer: (D) D

The paragraph opens with sentence B, introducing the alarming rise in female foeticide based on Sample Registration System data. Sentence D logically follows as the second sentence, establishing the direct cause-and-effect relationship that sex ratio at birth (SRB) has been declining continuously. Sentence E then provides overall statistical figures quantifying this national decline, sentence A presents state-level data across large states, and sentence C concludes the discussion with the overall percentage of unborn girls eliminated. The complete coherent order is B-D-E-A-C.

44English Language

Given sentences are not in their exact position. Rearrange them to make a coherent paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) In the 2014-2016 period, of the 21 large States, only two — Kerala and Chhattisgarh — had an SRB of above 950 girls per 1000 boys. (B) Female foeticide continues to increase at an alarming rate, as per the Sample Registration System data (C) Thus at present, at least 5% of girls are ‘eliminated’ before they are born, despite the promises of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme. (D) As a result the sex ratio at birth (SRB) has been dropping continuously since Census 2011, (E) This has come down from 909 girls per thousand boys in 2013 to 896 girls in 2017, Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

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Answer: (E) E

The paragraph opens with B, which introduces the core issue of rising female foeticide based on Sample Registration System data. Sentence D follows directly, stating the consequence that sex ratio at birth (SRB) has dropped continuously since Census 2011. Sentence E elaborates on this overall decline with national figures from 2013 to 2017. Sentence A then provides state-level breakdown data for the 2014-2016 period, and sentence C concludes with the broader implication regarding the elimination of unborn girls despite policy schemes. Therefore, the coherent chronological order is B-D-E-A-C, where sentence E forms the third sentence.

45English Language

Given sentences are not in their exact position. Rearrange them to make a coherent paragraph and then answer the questions given below. (A) In the 2014-2016 period, of the 21 large States, only two — Kerala and Chhattisgarh — had an SRB of above 950 girls per 1000 boys. (B) Female foeticide continues to increase at an alarming rate, as per the Sample Registration System data (C) Thus at present, at least 5% of girls are ‘eliminated’ before they are born, despite the promises of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme. (D) As a result the sex ratio at birth (SRB) has been dropping continuously since Census 2011, (E) This has come down from 909 girls per thousand boys in 2013 to 896 girls in 2017, Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after the rearrangement?

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Answer: (C) C

The paragraph begins with sentence B, which introduces the core issue of rising female foeticide using Sample Registration System data. Sentence D connects directly as the result, highlighting the continuous drop in sex ratio at birth (SRB). Sentence E provides specific national figures for this decline from 2013 to 2017. Sentence A then presents supporting state-level data showing that only two large states maintained an SRB above 950. Sentence C begins with the concluding indicator "Thus at present" and synthesizes these findings into a concluding statement regarding the failure of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao initiative. The logical order is B-D-E-A-C, making C the last sentence.

46English Language

In the following questions, there are two statements with a missing word in each. There are three words given below each question which can be used to fill up the blanks with the same word in each sentence to make a meaningful sentence. Choose the correct alternative among the five options given below which can fill the given blank to make a meaningful sentence. If all three words are feasible, choose option (e) i.e., "All (I), (II) and (III)" as your answer. (1) The stark statistics jump out at anyone trying to understand why ______ infrastructure is so important in the world (2) The online networks formed by hate groups may not be as ______ as previously thought but still receive huge funding. (I) strong (II) building (III) resilient

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Answer: (D) Both (I) and (III)

In the first sentence, an adjective is required to qualify the noun infrastructure, where both strong and resilient fit appropriately to denote robust systems. In the second sentence, the comparative structure as [adjective] as requires a word describing durability, firmness, or stability to describe online networks. Both strong and resilient satisfy the syntactic and semantic requirements of both sentences.

47English Language

In the following questions, there are two statements with a missing word in each. There are three words given below each question which can be used to fill up the blanks with the same word in each sentence to make a meaningful sentence. Choose the correct alternative among the five options given below which can fill the given blank to make a meaningful sentence. If all three words are feasible, choose option (e) i.e., "All (I), (II) and (III)" as your answer. (1) The researchers developed a ______ model that allowed them to track online hate and study how people adapted to bans since 2017 (2) According to the state-run news service China Daily, the telecom major Huawei is planning to come up with its ______ service called Map Kit. (I) scholar (II) mapping (III) reduced

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Answer: (B) Only (II)

The word mapping functions as a noun adjunct in both sentences. In the first sentence, a mapping model refers to an analytical framework used to chart, track, and visualize patterns in data over time. In the second sentence, mapping service correctly identifies Huawei's location, navigation, and digital cartography service named Map Kit.

48English Language

In the following questions, there are two statements with a missing word in each. There are three words given below each question which can be used to fill up the blanks with the same word in each sentence to make a meaningful sentence. Choose the correct alternative among the five options given below which can fill the given blank to make a meaningful sentence. If all three words are feasible, choose option (e) i.e., "All (I), (II) and (III)" as your answer. (1) India's proposal for a more active role by the United Nations in the field of applications of space technology to developing countries met with ______. (2) A section of conservationists and Badaga community leaders voiced its ______ to the plan to shift the horse racing track in Udhagamandalam to Nedugula near Kotagiri (I) opposition (II) gathering (III) support

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Answer: (D) Both (I) and (III)

From the given options, 'support' will fit in both the blanks. But, 'gathering' will not fit the first blank as it doesn't impart any meaningful sense to the given sentence. Also, 'opposition' fits in both the blanks to make a contextually meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (d).

49English Language

In the following questions, there are two statements with a missing word in each. There are three words given below each question which can be used to fill up the blanks with the same word in each sentence to make a meaningful sentence. Choose the correct alternative among the five options given below which can fill the given blank to make a meaningful sentence. If all three words are feasible, choose option (e) i.e., "All (I), (II) and (III)" as your answer. (1) In the ______ of our tropical climate, every summer seems the worst ever. (2) Temperature ______, drought and heavy precipitation account for 18 to 43 percent of variations in global crop yields. (I) turbulent (II) unification (III) extremes

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Answer: (C) Only (III)

The plural noun "extremes" denotes conditions or degrees that are far beyond the normal or average. In the first statement, "in the extremes of our tropical climate" accurately conveys the severe fluctuations of the weather. In the second statement, "temperature extremes" correctly acts as a subject parallel to "drought and heavy precipitation," describing severe meteorological factors that directly impact crop yields.

50English Language

In the following questions, there are two statements with a missing word in each. There are three words given below each question which can be used to fill up the blanks with the same word in each sentence to make a meaningful sentence. Choose the correct alternative among the five options given below which can fill the given blank to make a meaningful sentence. If all three words are feasible, choose option (e) i.e., "All (I), (II) and (III)" as your answer. (1) For the many others who want the present government ______, the coming elections are about the exact opposite. (2) A cover of one of the vases was found ______ and lying on the bottom of the stone coffer. (I) remove (II) dislodged (III) constructed

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Answer: (B) Only (II)

The past participle dislodged fits both contexts accurately. In the first sentence, it means removed or ousted from a position of authority, completing the structure want something dislodged. In the second sentence, it means knocked loose or displaced from its original position, describing the state of the vase cover. Neither remove nor constructed fits both sentences grammatically and contextually.

51Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below- Six persons are living on different floors of six storey building. Ground floor is numbered as 1st floor and just above the floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 6th floor. They born in different countries. K was born in Vienna and lives on an odd numbered floor. P lives on the topmost floor. The number of persons live above K is same live below R who was born in Wels. T was born just after the one who was born in Wels. Q lives three floors above the one who was born in Salzburg. M was born in Graz. The one who was born in Innsbruck lives above the one who was born in Klagenfurt. Who among the following lives on the 4th floor?

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Answer: (A) Q

From the given conditions: P lives on the 6th floor. K was born in Vienna and lives on an odd floor. Since the number of persons living above K equals the number living below R (born in Wels), K is on the 5th floor (1 person above) and R is on the 2nd floor (1 person below). T is placed on the 1st floor, immediately below R. Q lives three floors above the one born in Salzburg, which places the person born in Salzburg on the 1st floor (T) and Q on the 4th floor. M was born in Graz, so M occupies the 3rd floor. The one born in Innsbruck lives above the one born in Klagenfurt, which assigns Innsbruck to P on the 6th floor and Klagenfurt to Q on the 4th floor.

The final floor arrangement from top to bottom is: Floor 6: P (Innsbruck) Floor 5: K (Vienna) Floor 4: Q (Klagenfurt) Floor 3: M (Graz) Floor 2: R (Wels) Floor 1: T (Salzburg)

Q lives on the 4th floor.

52Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below- Six persons are living on different floors of six storey building. Ground floor is numbered as 1st floor and just above the floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 6th floor. They born in different countries. K was born in Vienna and lives on an odd numbered floor. P lives on the topmost floor. The number of persons live above K is same live below R who was born in Wels. T was born just after the one who was born in Wels. Q lives three floors above the one who was born in Salzburg. M was born in Graz. The one who was born in Innsbruck lives above the one who was born in Klagenfurt. How many persons live between the one who were born in Vienna and Salzburg?

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Answer: (A) Three

Arranging the six persons from top floor (6) to ground floor (1) based on the given conditions: P lives on floor 6 and was born in Innsbruck. K was born in Vienna and lives on floor 5. Q lives on floor 4 and was born in Klagenfurt. M was born in Graz and lives on floor 3. R was born in Wels and lives on floor 2. T was born in Salzburg and lives on floor 1.

The person born in Vienna lives on floor 5 and the person born in Salzburg lives on floor 1. Between floor 1 and floor 5, there are three persons (on floors 2, 3, and 4).

53Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below- Six persons are living on different floors of six storey building. Ground floor is numbered as 1st floor and just above the floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 6th floor. They born in different countries. K was born in Vienna and lives on an odd numbered floor. P lives on the topmost floor. The number of persons live above K is same live below R who was born in Wels. T was born just after the one who was born in Wels. Q lives three floors above the one who was born in Salzburg. M was born in Graz. The one who was born in Innsbruck lives above the one who was born in Klagenfurt. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that group?

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Answer: (C) T- Salzburg

Arranging the six persons on floors 1 to 6 based on the given conditions gives: Floor 6: P, Innsbruck Floor 5: K, Vienna Floor 4: Q, Klagenfurt Floor 3: M, Graz Floor 2: R, Wels Floor 1: T, Salzburg

In pairs P-Vienna, R-Salzburg, M-Klagenfurt, and K-Innsbruck, the person lives on a floor immediately adjacent to the one born in the specified city (a difference of exactly one floor). In the pair T-Salzburg, T was born in Salzburg, residing on the same floor.

54Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below- Six persons are living on different floors of six storey building. Ground floor is numbered as 1st floor and just above the floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 6th floor. They born in different countries. K was born in Vienna and lives on an odd numbered floor. P lives on the topmost floor. The number of persons live above K is same live below R who was born in Wels. T was born just after the one who was born in Wels. Q lives three floors above the one who was born in Salzburg. M was born in Graz. The one who was born in Innsbruck lives above the one who was born in Klagenfurt. Who among the following lives on the bottom most floor?

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Answer: (A) M

K, born in Vienna, sits on an odd floor. Testing K = 1 forces R onto floor 6 (the number of floors below R equals the number above K), which clashes with P on the topmost 6th floor — so K = 5. With K on 5, only one person lives above K, so only one lives below R, putting R on floor 2. T, born just after the Wels-born person, sits immediately above R on floor 3. P takes floor 6, leaving floors 1 and 4 for Q and M. Q lives three floors above the Salzburg-born person, so Q must be on floor 4. That leaves M on floor 1, the bottommost floor.

55Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below- Six persons are living on different floors of six storey building. Ground floor is numbered as 1st floor and just above the floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 6th floor. They born in different countries. K was born in Vienna and lives on an odd numbered floor. P lives on the topmost floor. The number of persons live above K is same live below R who was born in Wels. T was born just after the one who was born in Wels. Q lives three floors above the one who was born in Salzburg. M was born in Graz. The one who was born in Innsbruck lives above the one who was born in Klagenfurt. K was live on the ___ floor.

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Answer: (E) None of these

Arranging the six persons from top floor (6) to ground floor (1): P lives on the topmost floor (Floor 6). K was born in Vienna and lives on an odd-numbered floor (Floor 5). The number of persons above K (1 person) equals the number of persons below R, who was born in Wels (Floor 2, with 1 person below). T lives on Floor 1, immediately below R. Q lives three floors above Salzburg, placing Q on Floor 4 and T on Floor 1 (Salzburg). M was born in Graz, occupying Floor 3. Innsbruck is above Klagenfurt, placing P in Innsbruck (Floor 6) and Q in Klagenfurt (Floor 4).

The final floor arrangement from top to bottom is: Floor 6: P (Innsbruck) Floor 5: K (Vienna) Floor 4: Q (Klagenfurt) Floor 3: M (Graz) Floor 2: R (Wels) Floor 1: T (Salzburg)

K lives on the 5th floor.

56Reasoning Ability

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: 62 89 Water Drink 45 Juice 22 Daily Step I: 22 62 water drink 45 juice daily 89 Step II: 22 45 water drink juice daily 62 89 Step III: 22 45 daily water drink juice 62 89 Step IV: 22 45 daily drink water juice 62 89 Step V: 22 45 daily drink juice water 62 89 Step V: is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: 64 crown 24 prince 84 gold 55 leader How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?

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Answer: (D) IV

The arrangement follows a pattern where in each step, numbers are sorted first: the smallest available number shifts to the left side in ascending order, and the largest available number shifts to the right side in ascending order. Once all numbers are positioned, the words are arranged alphabetically from left to right between the two sets of numbers. If an element is already in its correct relative position, it is auto-arranged without taking an extra step.

Input: 64 crown 24 prince 84 gold 55 leader Step I: 24 64 crown prince gold 55 leader 84 Step II: 24 55 crown prince gold leader 64 84 Step III: 24 55 crown gold prince leader 64 84 (crown is auto-arranged, gold moves next) Step IV: 24 55 crown gold leader prince 64 84 (leader moves next, prince is auto-arranged)

Step IV is the final step, requiring 4 steps in total.

57Reasoning Ability

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: 62 89 Water Drink 45 Juice 22 Daily Step I: 22 62 water drink 45 juice daily 89 Step II: 22 45 water drink juice daily 62 89 Step III: 22 45 daily water drink juice 62 89 Step IV: 22 45 daily drink water juice 62 89 Step V: 22 45 daily drink juice water 62 89 Step V: is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: 64 crown 24 prince 84 gold 55 leader Which Step number would be the following output? "24 55 crown gold prince leader 64 84"

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Answer: (B) III

In this machine rearrangement pattern: The numbers are arranged first: the smallest number moves to the extreme left while the largest moves to the extreme right in each step. Then, the words are arranged in ascending alphabetical order immediately following the numbers on the left.

Tracing the given input: Input: 64 crown 24 prince 84 gold 55 leader Step I: 24 64 crown prince gold 55 leader 84 Step II: 24 55 crown prince gold leader 64 84

In Step II, the numbers are completely arranged, and the first alphabetical word "crown" is already in its correct position. Step III shifts the next alphabetical word "gold" directly after "crown", yielding: Step III: 24 55 crown gold prince leader 64 84

58Reasoning Ability

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: 62 89 Water Drink 45 Juice 22 Daily Step I: 22 62 water drink 45 juice daily 89 Step II: 22 45 water drink juice daily 62 89 Step III: 22 45 daily water drink juice 62 89 Step IV: 22 45 daily drink water juice 62 89 Step V: 22 45 daily drink juice water 62 89 Step V: is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: 64 crown 24 prince 84 gold 55 leader Which of the following would be the Step I?

A24 64 crown 55 prince gold leader 84B24 55 crown gold prince leader 64 84C24 55 crown prince gold leader 64 84D24 64 crown prince gold 55 leader 84ENone of the above

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Answer: (D) 24 64 crown prince gold 55 leader 84

The rearrangement logic processes numbers first, placing the smallest number at the extreme left and the highest number at the extreme right in each step, while the rest of the elements shift naturally in their original relative sequence.

For the given input: 64 crown 24 prince 84 gold 55 leader

The smallest number is 24 and the largest number is 84. Shifting 24 to the front, 84 to the end, and preserving the order of the remaining elements gives: 24 64 crown prince gold 55 leader 84

59Reasoning Ability

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: 62 89 Water Drink 45 Juice 22 Daily Step I: 22 62 water drink 45 juice daily 89 Step II: 22 45 water drink juice daily 62 89 Step III: 22 45 daily water drink juice 62 89 Step IV: 22 45 daily drink water juice 62 89 Step V: 22 45 daily drink juice water 62 89 Step V: is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of following questions the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: 64 crown 24 prince 84 gold 55 leader What is the sum of the numbers 3ʳᵈ from the left in Step III and 2ⁿᵈ from the right in step I?

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Answer: (C) 109

In Step III, the 3rd element from the left is 64. In Step I, the 2nd element from the right is 55. Adding these gives 64 + 55 = 109.

60Reasoning Ability

In each question below some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: Some Silent are Mute. No Good is Silent. Only a few Mute is Sound. Conclusions: I. All Sound being Silent is a possibility. II. Some Mute is not Good

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Answer: (B) Both I and II follow

The portion of Mute that overlaps with Silent can never be Good because no Good is Silent, which directly validates that some Mute is not Good. For the first conclusion, only a few Mute is Sound allows all Sound to be part of Mute, and since there is no negative restriction between Sound and Silent, all Sound can completely reside within the intersection of Silent and Mute without violating any given condition. Therefore, both conclusions logically follow.

61Reasoning Ability

In each question below some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: Only Purple is Yellow. Some Olive is Purple. Only a few Green is Olive. Conclusions: I. Some Olive being Yellow is a possibility II. Some Purple being Green is a possibility

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Answer: (C) Only II follows

The statement "Only Purple is Yellow" is logically equivalent to "All Yellow are Purple" along with the exclusive condition that Yellow cannot overlap with any category other than Purple. Consequently, No Olive is Yellow is definite, which makes the possibility of Olive being Yellow invalid.

Between Green and Purple, there is no negative restriction given in the statements. The condition "Only a few Green is Olive" only restricts the relationship between Green and Olive, allowing elements of Green to overlap with Purple. Therefore, some Purple being Green is a valid possibility.

62Reasoning Ability

In each question below some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: Only a few Crowd are People. No People is Social. Only a few Crowd is Distance. Conclusions: I. Some Distance is not Social II. All Social is Crowd.

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Answer: (E) None follows

Only a few Crowd are People means some Crowd are People and some Crowd are not People. No People is Social establishes that the sets of People and Social are completely disjoint. Only a few Crowd is Distance means some Crowd is Distance and some Crowd is not Distance.

For Conclusion I, there is no direct negative relation between Distance and Social. It is possible for all Distance to be Social without overlapping with People, so Some Distance is not Social is not a definite conclusion.

For Conclusion II, Social can exist entirely outside of Crowd while maintaining disjointness from People, making All Social is Crowd not necessarily true.

Since neither conclusion follows definitely, neither follows.

63Reasoning Ability

In each question below some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Statements: Only Worm is Virus. All Harm is Worm. few Health is Harm. Conclusions: I. Some Harm being Virus is a possibility II. Some Worm being Health is a possibility

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Answer: (E) None follows

The statement Only Worm is Virus means All Virus is Worm and Virus cannot share any relationship with any other entity. Thus, no Harm can be Virus, making Conclusion I impossible.

From the statements All Harm is Worm and few Health is Harm, it is definitely established that Some Health is Worm (and consequently Some Worm is Health). In standard syllogism logic, an existing certainty cannot be treated as a possibility, rendering Conclusion II invalid.

Since neither conclusion follows, the answer is None follows.

64Reasoning Ability

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer: What does 'ra' mean in the code language? I. 'st qm ra' means 'Look wrong question' and 'qm ms st rt' means 'correct look wrong word' in that code language. II. 'ka tv ne ra' means 'take question and solve' and 'vw wx si ra' means 'either question or answer' in that code language.

AIf the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.BIf the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.CIf the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.DIf the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.EIf the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

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Answer: (C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

In Statement I, comparing 'st qm ra' (Look wrong question) and 'qm ms st rt' (correct look wrong word) reveals the common codes 'st' and 'qm' for 'look' and 'wrong'. The remaining code in the first set is 'ra', which uniquely corresponds to the remaining word 'question'.

In Statement II, comparing 'ka tv ne ra' (take question and solve) and 'vw wx si ra' (either question or answer) reveals only one common code, 'ra', which directly corresponds to the only common word, 'question'.

Thus, the data in either statement alone is sufficient to determine the meaning of 'ra'.

65Reasoning Ability

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer: Point Y is in which direction with respect to point X? I. Point A is east of point B and point X is north of point A. Point Y is north-west of point A. II. Point X is east of point B and north of point A. Point Y is north of point A.

AIf the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.BIf the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.CIf the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.DIf the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.EIf the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

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Answer: (D) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

In Statement I, point X lies due north of point A at coordinates (0, x) with x > 0, and point Y lies in the north-west quadrant from point A at (-y₁, y₂) with y₁, y₂ > 0. Because the relative magnitudes of x and y₂ are unknown, Y could be north-west, west, or south-west of X.

In Statement II, both point X and point Y lie due north of point A along the same vertical line at (0, x) and (0, y) respectively with x, y > 0. Without knowing whether y > x or y < x, point Y could be either north or south of point X.

Since neither statement provides the required distance values to establish a definite relative direction, the data even in both statements combined are not sufficient.

66Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine boxes are placed one above the other in a stack. Not more than four boxes are placed above box G. Three boxes are placed between box G and box K. Box D is placed immediately above box H. The number of boxes is placed below box K is the same as the number of boxes placed above box A. Two boxes are placed between box F and Box A. Box G does not place at the topmost position. Three boxes are placed between box D and box C which is placed above box D. The number of boxes placed between box C and box E is the same as the number of boxes between box C and box F. Box B does not place below box H. How many boxes are placed between box B and box E?

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Answer: (A) Three

Arranging the 9 boxes from top (position 9) to bottom (position 1): Position 9: A Position 8: E Position 7: C Position 6: F Position 5: G Position 4: B Position 3: D Position 2: H Position 1: K

This satisfies all given conditions: G is at position 5 (4 boxes above it, not at the top), K is at position 1 (3 boxes between G and K), A is at position 9 (0 boxes above A, matching 0 boxes below K), F is at position 6 (2 boxes between A and F), C is at position 7 and E is at position 8 (0 boxes between C and E, and 0 between C and F), D is at position 3 and H is at position 2 (D immediately above H, 3 boxes between C and D), and B is at position 4 (above H).

Box E is at position 8 and Box B is at position 4. The boxes between them are at positions 7, 6, and 5 (C, F, and G), totaling three boxes.

67Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine boxes are placed one above the other in a stack. Not more than four boxes are placed above box G. Three boxes are placed between box G and box K. Box D is placed immediately above box H. The number of boxes is placed below box K is the same as the number of boxes placed above box A. Two boxes are placed between box F and Box A. Box G does not place at the topmost position. Three boxes are placed between box D and box C which is placed above box D. The number of boxes placed between box C and box E is the same as the number of boxes between box C and box F. Box B does not place below box H. Which of the following box is placed just above box F?

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Answer: (B) C

The nine boxes arranged from top (9) to bottom (1) are:

9: A 8: E 7: C 6: F 5: G 4: B 3: D 2: H 1: K

This arrangement satisfies all the given conditions: G is at position 5 (not more than four boxes above it). Three boxes (B, D, H) are placed between G and K. D is immediately above H, and three boxes (F, G, B) are between C and D. There are zero boxes below K and zero boxes above A. Two boxes (E, C) are between A and F. There are zero boxes between C and E, matching the zero boxes between C and F. B is at position 4, which is above H at position 2.

Box C at position 7 is placed immediately above box F at position 6.

68Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine boxes are placed one above the other in a stack. Not more than four boxes are placed above box G. Three boxes are placed between box G and box K. Box D is placed immediately above box H. The number of boxes is placed below box K is the same as the number of boxes placed above box A. Two boxes are placed between box F and Box A. Box G does not place at the topmost position. Three boxes are placed between box D and box C which is placed above box D. The number of boxes placed between box C and box E is the same as the number of boxes between box C and box F. Box B does not place below box H. Which of the following statement is true about box D?

AThree boxes are placed between box D and box EBBox D is placed at the topmost positionCBox D is placed third from the bottommost positionDBox F is placed immediate above box DENone is true

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Answer: (C) Box D is placed third from the bottommost position

From the given conditions: G is at position 5 (since at most four boxes are above G and G is not topmost). K is at position 1 (three boxes between G and K). A is at position 9 (number of boxes below K equals number above A). F is at position 6 (two boxes between F and A). C is at position 7, D is at position 3, and H is at position 2 (C is three boxes above D, and D is immediately above H). E is at position 8 (distance between C and E equals distance between C and F). B is at position 4 (remaining position, which is above H).

The final stack from top (9) to bottom (1) is: 9: A 8: E 7: C 6: F 5: G 4: B 3: D 2: H 1: K

Box D is at position 3, which is the third position from the bottom.

69Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine boxes are placed one above the other in a stack. Not more than four boxes are placed above box G. Three boxes are placed between box G and box K. Box D is placed immediately above box H. The number of boxes is placed below box K is the same as the number of boxes placed above box A. Two boxes are placed between box F and Box A. Box G does not place at the topmost position. Three boxes are placed between box D and box C which is placed above box D. The number of boxes placed between box C and box E is the same as the number of boxes between box C and box F. Box B does not place below box H. Which of the following box is placed exactly middle of the stack?

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Answer: (D) G

From the given conditions, the step-by-step arrangement of the nine boxes from top (position 9) to bottom (position 1) is determined as follows:

Position 9: A Position 8: E Position 7: C Position 6: F Position 5: G Position 4: B Position 3: D Position 2: H Position 1: K

In a stack of 9 boxes, the box placed in the exact middle is at position 5, having 4 boxes above it and 4 boxes below it. Box G occupies position 5.

70Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Nine boxes are placed one above the other in a stack. Not more than four boxes are placed above box G. Three boxes are placed between box G and box K. Box D is placed immediately above box H. The number of boxes is placed below box K is the same as the number of boxes placed above box A. Two boxes are placed between box F and Box A. Box G does not place at the topmost position. Three boxes are placed between box D and box C which is placed above box D. The number of boxes placed between box C and box E is the same as the number of boxes between box C and box F. Box B does not place below box H. Which of the following box is placed immediately below box K?

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Answer: (E) None

Arranging the nine boxes from position 9 (top) to position 1 (bottom) based on the given conditions gives the stack:

9: A 8: E 7: C 6: F 5: G 4: B 3: D 2: H 1: K

Box K occupies the bottom-most position (position 1), so no box is placed below it.

71Reasoning Ability

These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions. SQDHL0@PJ#54BU2RM6?IA7TEF How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number and also immediately preceded by a consonant?

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Answer: (B) One

The given sequence contains three symbols: @, #, and ?.

Checking each symbol for the pattern [Consonant] [Symbol] [Number]: The symbol @ is preceded by 0 and followed by P, which does not satisfy the condition. The symbol # is preceded by the consonant J and followed by the number 5 (J # 5), which satisfies the condition. The symbol ? is preceded by the number 6 and followed by the vowel I, which does not satisfy the condition.

Thus, there is only 1 such symbol in the arrangement.

72Reasoning Ability

These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions. SQDHL0@PJ#54BU2RM6?IA7TEF If we remove all the vowels in this series, then which of the following element will be 7ᵗʰ⟩ from right end?

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Answer: (A) R

Excluding the vowels (E, A, I, U) from the given sequence yields the series without vowels: S Q D H L 0 @ P J # 5 4 B 2 R M 6 ? 7 T F

Counting from the right end: 1st: F 2nd: T 3rd: 7 4th: ? 5th: 6 6th: M 7th: R

73Reasoning Ability

These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions. SQDHL0@PJ#54BU2RM6?IA7TEF Which of the following alphabet is 3ʳᵈ⟩ to the right of the one which 7ᵗʰ⟩ from the left end?

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Answer: (B) R

First, identify the 7th alphabet from the left end of the arrangement by counting only the letters: S (1st), Q (2nd), D (3rd), H (4th), L (5th), P (6th, skipping the digit 0 and symbol @), and J (7th).

The 7th alphabet from the left is J.

Next, find the 3rd alphabet to the right of J by continuing to count only the letters: the 1st alphabet is B (skipping the symbol # and digits 5, 4), the 2nd alphabet is U, and the 3rd alphabet is R (skipping the digit 2).

74Reasoning Ability

These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study the arrangement carefully to answer these questions. SQDHL0@PJ#54BU2RM6?IA7TEF How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant?

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Answer: (C) Two

The arrangement is: $ Q D H L O @ P J # 5 4 B U 2 R M 6 ? I A 7 T E F. Checking each consonant for consonants on BOTH immediate sides: D is flanked by Q and H, both consonants, so D qualifies; H is flanked by D and L, both consonants, so H qualifies. Every other consonant fails because at least one neighbour is a vowel, digit or symbol — Q is preceded by $, L is followed by the vowel O, B is followed by U, R is preceded by 2, T is preceded by 7, F is preceded by E. Exactly two consonants qualify.

75Reasoning Ability

Health Education constitutes educational programs directed towards improving the state of health and hygiene among individuals and communities. Weaknesses of the health education in India include high dependability on print media, lack of research and conventional training methods of educators, inability to reach all the remote villages and no avenues of professional growth for health educators. What can be the course of action to increase quality of Health Education in India? (I) More emphasis should be given on interacting with the villagers on occasions of public gathering like - fares, markets etc. (II) Moreover, methods like plays, folk shows should be used to convey the message, rather than print media. (III) Every head of family should go through complete health check-up every month and they should take health policy. (IV) People visiting hospitals and clinics are more conscious about health issues and so efforts must be made to educate them.

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Answer: (D) Only I, II and IV

Effective health education strategies must directly address existing communication barriers and reach diverse target groups practically. Interacting with rural populations at public gatherings such as fairs and weekly markets helps overcome geographical remoteness. Utilizing participatory and traditional mediums like street plays and folk shows circumvents the limitations of print media, particularly among illiterate populations. Additionally, hospital and clinic visitors represent a receptive audience where targeted health and hygiene education can produce immediate behavioral impact. In contrast, mandating monthly full-body check-ups and compulsory insurance policies for every family head is economically and logistically impractical as an educational measure.

76Reasoning Ability

The government announced that a new "double mutant variant" of the novel coronavirus has been detected in the country, along with the three variants from the United Kingdom, South Africa, and Brazil. Dr V K Paul, chairperson of India's Covid-19 task force, said "the most important thing to remember is that viruses will not mutate if they are not allowed to replicate. Testing, quarantine, and containment will limit the spread of the virus". Which of the following can be postulated from the above statement? (I) Government is planning for nationwide lockdown to prevent spread of corona virus. (II) Number of tests will increase in upcoming days. (III) Double mutant virus is a matter of concern for Government of India.

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Answer: (D) Only II and III

The official announcement of the double mutant variant alongside global variants of concern, coupled with guidance from the Covid-19 task force, directly establishes that the new strain is a serious concern for the government. Furthermore, Dr. V. K. Paul explicitly highlights testing, quarantine, and containment as the primary mechanisms to prevent viral replication and mutation, logically implying an immediate ramp-up in testing efforts to track and limit transmission. Measures such as a nationwide lockdown cannot be inferred or postulated as they are neither mentioned nor implied by the localized containment and testing strategy.

77Reasoning Ability

Study the following information and answer the questions. There are eight members in a family in which three married couples. There are three generation and same number of male and female in this family. K is the father of L. O is father of R. L is the brother of M. P is the daughter of N. P is sister of R. Q is son- in- law of N. R has two children. Who among the following is mother of M?

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Answer: (A) R

Generation 1 consists of O (male) married to N (female). Their children in Generation 2 are P (female) and R (female). Q (male) is married to P, making him the son-in-law of N.

Since K (male) is the father of L (male) and L is the brother of M (female), and R has two children, R is married to K in Generation 2, and their two children in Generation 3 are L and M. Therefore, R is the mother of M.

78Reasoning Ability

Study the following information and answer the questions. There are eight members in a family in which three married couples. There are three generation and same number of male and female in this family. K is the father of L. O is father of R. L is the brother of M. P is the daughter of N. P is sister of R. Q is son- in- law of N. R has two children. How N is related to L?

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Answer: (C) Grandmother

From the given information, O (male) and N (female) form the first generation couple. They have two daughters, P and R. P is married to Q (son-in-law of N), and R is married to K (father of L). R and K have two children in the third generation, L (male) and M (female), giving exactly four males (O, Q, K, L) and four females (N, P, R, M) across three married couples. Since N is the mother of R, and R is the mother of L, N is the grandmother of L.

79Reasoning Ability

Study the following information and answer the questions. There are eight members in a family in which three married couples. There are three generation and same number of male and female in this family. K is the father of L. O is father of R. L is the brother of M. P is the daughter of N. P is sister of R. Q is son- in- law of N. R has two children. Who among the following is brother- in- law of P?

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Answer: (D) K

The three generations consist of: Generation 1: O (male) married to N (female). Generation 2: Their daughters P (female) married to Q (male), and R (female) married to K (male). Generation 3: Children of K and R, which are L (male) and M (female).

This satisfies all conditions: 8 members, 3 married couples, 3 generations, and an equal gender count of 4 males (O, Q, K, L) and 4 females (N, P, R, M).

Since K is the husband of P's sister R, K is the brother-in-law of P.

80Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight persons are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing towards the centre of the table and some of them are facing outside the centre of the table. N sits third to right of T. Only one person sits between N and Q. Three persons sit between Q and M. R sits second to the right of M. P sits second to the right of S. P does not sit adjacent to N. Immediate neighbours of M faces the opposite direction. Q sits immediate right of P. Immediate neighbours of T face opposite direction. S sits immediate right of N. S faces T. Q faces the opposite direction as O. Who among the following sits third to the right of O?

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Answer: (B) R

Placing the 8 persons around the circular table: T sits at position 1 facing inside. S sits opposite T at position 5, facing inside towards T. N sits third to the right of T at position 6, facing inside. S is to the immediate right of N at position 5. P sits second to the right of S at position 3, facing outside. Q sits to the immediate right of P at position 4, facing inside. M sits opposite Q at position 8, facing outside. R sits second to the right of M at position 2, facing inside. O occupies the remaining seat at position 7, facing outside (opposite to T).

Since O faces outside, moving clockwise gives the direction to the right of O: the first person to the right is M, the second is T, and the third person to the right of O is R.

81Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight persons are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing towards the centre of the table and some of them are facing outside the centre of the table. N sits third to right of T. Only one person sits between N and Q. Three persons sit between Q and M. R sits second to the right of M. P sits second to the right of S. P does not sit adjacent to N. Immediate neighbours of M faces the opposite direction. Q sits immediate right of P. Immediate neighbours of T face opposite direction. S sits immediate right of N. S faces T. Q faces the opposite direction as O. Who among the following faces R?

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Answer: (C) N

Number the eight circular positions 1 through 8 in clockwise order.

Since S faces T, let T be at position 1 and S at position 5 (facing inside towards the centre). T faces outside, making position 4 (clockwise) the third seat to the right of T, which is occupied by N. N faces outside, so position 5 (S) is to the immediate right of N. S faces inside, placing P second to the right of S at position 7 (facing inside). Q sits to the immediate right of P at position 6 (facing outside), which leaves one seat between N (4) and Q (6). Three persons sit between Q (6) and M, placing M at position 2 (facing inside). R sits second to the right of M at position 8 (facing outside), leaving position 3 for O (facing inside).

The resulting circular arrangement in clockwise order is: 1: T (Outside) 2: M (Inside) 3: O (Inside) 4: N (Outside) 5: S (Inside) 6: Q (Outside) 7: P (Inside) 8: R (Outside)

N sits at position 4, directly opposite R at position 8.

82Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight persons are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing towards the centre of the table and some of them are facing outside the centre of the table. N sits third to right of T. Only one person sits between N and Q. Three persons sit between Q and M. R sits second to the right of M. P sits second to the right of S. P does not sit adjacent to N. Immediate neighbours of M faces the opposite direction. Q sits immediate right of P. Immediate neighbours of T face opposite direction. S sits immediate right of N. S faces T. Q faces the opposite direction as O. How many persons sit between P and M, when counted right of P?

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Answer: (D) Four

Arranging the eight persons clockwise from position 1 to 8: S sits at position 1 facing the centre, looking directly at T at position 5. T faces the centre, placing N at position 2 (third to the right of T). N faces outside, making S (position 1) to its immediate right. S faces inside, placing P at position 7 (second to the right of S). P faces outside, placing Q at position 8 (immediate right of P). M sits diametrically opposite to Q at position 4, facing outside. R sits at position 6 (second to the right of M) and faces inside. O sits at position 3 and faces outside.

Since P sits at position 7 facing outside, counting to the right of P moves clockwise through positions 8 (Q), 1 (S), 2 (N), and 3 (O) before reaching M at position 4, giving a total of four persons.

83Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight persons are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing towards the centre of the table and some of them are facing outside the centre of the table. N sits third to right of T. Only one person sits between N and Q. Three persons sit between Q and M. R sits second to the right of M. P sits second to the right of S. P does not sit adjacent to N. Immediate neighbours of M faces the opposite direction. Q sits immediate right of P. Immediate neighbours of T face opposite direction. S sits immediate right of N. S faces T. Q faces the opposite direction as O. Which of the following statement is true about N?

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Answer: (E) None is true

Arranging the eight persons around the circular table based on the given clues yields the following clockwise positions and directions: T sits at position 1 facing inside. R sits at position 2 facing inside. P sits at position 3 facing outside. Q sits at position 4 facing inside. S sits at position 5 facing inside. N sits at position 6 facing inside. O sits at position 7 facing outside. M sits at position 8 facing outside.

Evaluating each statement regarding N: N faces inside while M faces outside, so they do not face the same direction. N sits opposite to R, not P. O faces outside, which places N to the immediate left of O, not the immediate right. R is seated fourth to the right of N, not second to the right. Every statement presented about N is incorrect.

84Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight persons are sitting around a circular table. Some of them are facing towards the centre of the table and some of them are facing outside the centre of the table. N sits third to right of T. Only one person sits between N and Q. Three persons sit between Q and M. R sits second to the right of M. P sits second to the right of S. P does not sit adjacent to N. Immediate neighbours of M faces the opposite direction. Q sits immediate right of P. Immediate neighbours of T face opposite direction. S sits immediate right of N. S faces T. Q faces the opposite direction as O. Who among the following sits immediate right of the one who sits third to the left of Q?

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Answer: (A) M

Arranging the eight persons around the table in counter-clockwise order: N faces inside. S faces inside, sitting immediate right of N. Q faces inside, sitting one place away from N. P faces outside, sitting second to the right of S with Q to its immediate right. R faces inside. T faces inside, sitting opposite S and third to the left of N. M faces outside, sitting opposite Q with R second to its right. O faces outside, opposite in direction to Q.

Since Q faces inside, the person sitting third to the left of Q (moving clockwise) is O. Since O faces outside, the person sitting to the immediate right of O (moving clockwise) is M.

85Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Five countries fighter planes do air force exercise. Russia plane is 10km north of China plane. Port O is exactly in the middle of the point of Russia plane and China plane. Germany plane is 8km east of China plane. India plane is 8km east of port O. USA plane is 6km north of India plane. What is the shortest distance between USA and Germany plane?

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Answer: (B) 10km

Using the given directions, the horizontal distance between USA and Germany works out to 8 km and the vertical distance to 6 km. By the Pythagorean theorem, the straight-line distance between them is √(8² + 6²) = √100 = 10 km.

86Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Five countries fighter planes do air force exercise. Russia plane is 10km north of China plane. Port O is exactly in the middle of the point of Russia plane and China plane. Germany plane is 8km east of China plane. India plane is 8km east of port O. USA plane is 6km north of India plane. If Germany plane goes 20km in the in the west then, what is the direction of India plane with respect to the Germany plane?

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Answer: (A) North-east

Taking China plane as the origin (0, 0): Port O is at (0, 5) and India plane is at (8, 5). Germany plane is initially at (8, 0). After moving 20 km west, its new position is (8 - 20, 0) = (-12, 0). With respect to this new position (-12, 0), India plane at (8, 5) lies 20 km to the east and 5 km to the north, which represents the north-east direction.

87Reasoning Ability

Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below. Five countries fighter planes do air force exercise. Russia plane is 10km north of China plane. Port O is exactly in the middle of the point of Russia plane and China plane. Germany plane is 8km east of China plane. India plane is 8km east of port O. USA plane is 6km north of India plane. What is the shortest distance between USA plane and port O?

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Answer: (E) None of these

Taking port O as the origin (0, 0): The India plane is 8 km east of port O, located at coordinates (8, 0). The USA plane is 6 km north of the India plane, located at coordinates (8, 6).

Using the Euclidean distance formula: Shortest distance = √(Δx² + Δy²) Shortest distance = √(8² + 6²) = √(64 + 36) = √100 = 10 km.

The straight-line distance between the USA plane and port O is 10 km.

88Reasoning Ability

It is a well- known fact that one can learn and remember things easily if it has got both audio and visual aids instead of just audio. Keeping this thing in mind, many study sessions are taken where students are taught with the help of videos. Cinema has been popular since its inception. People came to realize that students can remember more through videos than just from verbal sessions as they observed kids remembering dialogue of the movie, they watched a week ago but nothing from the lecture they attended in the morning. Which of the following weakens the concept discussed in above statement?

AMany EdTech companies has launched their story-video courses for efficient and active learning for children.BCinema is basically considered as the best among all means of entertainment.CStudy material with video and audio is wastage of time.DCinema has a negative impact on the youth by showing various ways of killing people and adult scenes.EBoth (c) and (d)

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Answer: (C) Study material with video and audio is wastage of time.

The core argument asserts that incorporating both audio and visual elements makes learning and remembering more effective compared to purely verbal instruction. A statement asserting that audio-visual study material is a waste of time directly attacks this fundamental claim, weakening the premise that combining audio and visual aids improves educational outcomes.

89Reasoning Ability

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I, and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the two statements and Give answer: In a row, a certain number of persons are sitting. What is the total number of persons in the row? I. Position of Riya is 21ˢᵗ⟩ from the left end and the position of Shiv is 29ᵗʰ⟩ from the right end. II. Shivani is 23ʳᵈ⟩ from the left end and 14ᵗʰ⟩ from the right end.

AIf the data in Statement I is sufficient to answer the question while the data in Statement II is not required to answer the questionBIf the data in Statement II is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I is not required to answer the questionCIf the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the questionDIf the data neither in Statement I nor in Statement II together are sufficient to answer the questionEIf the data in the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question

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Answer: (B) If the data in Statement II is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I is not required to answer the question

When the position of a single person is given from both ends of a linear row, the total number of persons is calculated using the formula: Total = (Position from Left) + (Position from Right) - 1.

Using Statement II, Shivani's position from the left is 23 and from the right is 14. Substituting these values into the formula gives: Total = 23 + 14 - 1 = 36. Thus, Statement II alone is sufficient to find the total number of persons. Statement I alone is insufficient because it gives the positions of two distinct individuals without providing the number of people between them or their relative positions.

90Reasoning Ability

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I, and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the two statements and Give answer: Among six friends K, L, M, N, O and P who is the heaviest, if all are having different weights? I. L is heavier than O. P is heavier than L and N. O is not the lightest. II. K is heavier than P but not the heaviest.

AIf the data in Statement I is sufficient to answer the question while the data in Statement II is not required to answer the questionBIf the data in Statement II is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I is not required to answer the questionCIf the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the questionDIf the data neither in Statement I nor in Statement II together are sufficient to answer the questionEIf the data in the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question

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Answer: (E) If the data in the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question

From statement I, P is heavier than L, O, and N (P > L > O and P > N). From statement II, K is heavier than P (K > P), which means K is heavier than four friends: P, L, O, and N. Since there are six friends in total (K, L, M, N, O, P) and K is not the heaviest, the only remaining friend who can be heavier than K is M. Thus, M is uniquely determined as the heaviest, and both statements together are necessary to answer the question.

91Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. Eight persons are sitting in a row. Four of them are facing north while the rest are facing south direction. Only three persons sit between P and R. P sits at one of the extreme ends. S sits third to the left of R and faces the same direction as R. More than two persons sit between Q and U. T sits third to the left of W. V sits second to the left of U, both are facing the opposite direction. The persons who sit at the extreme ends faces opposite direction. S does not sit at an extreme end. Neither Q nor U is an immediate neighbor of R. W is facing the opposite direction of P and Q. T is not an immediate neighbor of V and faces south. Who amongst the following is sitting exactly between S and the one who sits second to the right of V?

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Answer: (B) Q

Placing the eight persons in positions 1 to 8 from left to right: P sits at position 1 (facing south). S sits at position 2 (facing north). Q sits at position 3 (facing south). T sits at position 4 (facing south). R sits at position 5 (facing north). V sits at position 6 (facing south). W sits at position 7 (facing north). U sits at position 8 (facing north).

Since V is at position 6 facing south, the person sitting second to the right of V is at position 4, which is T. The person sitting exactly between S (position 2) and T (position 4) is Q at position 3.

92Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. Eight persons are sitting in a row. Four of them are facing north while the rest are facing south direction. Only three persons sit between P and R. P sits at one of the extreme ends. S sits third to the left of R and faces the same direction as R. More than two persons sit between Q and U. T sits third to the left of W. V sits second to the left of U, both are facing the opposite direction. The persons who sit at the extreme ends faces opposite direction. S does not sit at an extreme end. Neither Q nor U is an immediate neighbor of R. W is facing the opposite direction of P and Q. T is not an immediate neighbor of V and faces south. Who amongst the following sits third to the left of T?

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Answer: (B) W

Placing P at the left end (position 1) and R at position 5 (with three persons between them), S sits third to the left of R at position 2, so both R and S face North. Since neither Q nor U can sit adjacent to R, and more than two persons sit between them, Q is at position 3 and U is at position 8 (facing North).

V sits second to the left of U at position 6 (facing South). With T facing South and not adjacent to V, T sits at position 4 and W sits at position 7 (facing North, so that T is third to the left of W). The extreme ends face opposite directions, so P faces South. Since W faces North, Q also faces South. This gives four persons facing North (S, R, W, U) and four facing South (P, Q, T, V).

Since T sits at position 4 facing South, the third person to the left of T is at position 7, where W is seated.

93Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. Eight persons are sitting in a row. Four of them are facing north while the rest are facing south direction. Only three persons sit between P and R. P sits at one of the extreme ends. S sits third to the left of R and faces the same direction as R. More than two persons sit between Q and U. T sits third to the left of W. V sits second to the left of U, both are facing the opposite direction. The persons who sit at the extreme ends faces opposite direction. S does not sit at an extreme end. Neither Q nor U is an immediate neighbor of R. W is facing the opposite direction of P and Q. T is not an immediate neighbor of V and faces south. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way so form a group, who among the following does not belong to that group?

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Answer: (A) P

From left to right (positions 1 to 8), the step-by-step conditions yield the final arrangement: P (facing South) at position 1, S (facing North) at position 2, Q (facing South) at position 3, T (facing South) at position 4, R (facing North) at position 5, V (facing South) at position 6, W (facing North) at position 7, and U (facing North) at position 8.

P sits at an extreme end of the row, whereas Q, R, T, and W all sit at internal positions.

94Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. Eight persons are sitting in a row. Four of them are facing north while the rest are facing south direction. Only three persons sit between P and R. P sits at one of the extreme ends. S sits third to the left of R and faces the same direction as R. More than two persons sit between Q and U. T sits third to the left of W. V sits second to the left of U, both are facing the opposite direction. The persons who sit at the extreme ends faces opposite direction. S does not sit at an extreme end. Neither Q nor U is an immediate neighbor of R. W is facing the opposite direction of P and Q. T is not an immediate neighbor of V and faces south. How many people sit between P and V?

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Answer: (A) Four

Positioning the eight persons from left to right (positions 1 to 8): P is at position 1 (facing south) and R is at position 5 (facing north). S sits third to the left of R at position 2 (facing north). Q sits at position 3 (facing south) and U sits at position 8 (facing north), satisfying the condition of having more than two persons between them. V sits second to the left of U at position 6 (facing south). W is at position 7 (facing north) and T sits third to the left of W at position 4 (facing south).

The complete arrangement from left to right is: P (South) - S (North) - Q (South) - T (South) - R (North) - V (South) - W (North) - U (North)

P is at position 1 and V is at position 6, so four persons (S, Q, T, and R) sit between them.

95Reasoning Ability

Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. Eight persons are sitting in a row. Four of them are facing north while the rest are facing south direction. Only three persons sit between P and R. P sits at one of the extreme ends. S sits third to the left of R and faces the same direction as R. More than two persons sit between Q and U. T sits third to the left of W. V sits second to the left of U, both are facing the opposite direction. The persons who sit at the extreme ends faces opposite direction. S does not sit at an extreme end. Neither Q nor U is an immediate neighbor of R. W is facing the opposite direction of P and Q. T is not an immediate neighbor of V and faces south. Who among the following sits fourth to the right of the one who sits second to the left of U?

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Answer: (D) S

Arranging the eight persons from left to right at positions 1 through 8: Position 1: P (facing South) Position 2: S (facing North) Position 3: Q (facing South) Position 4: T (facing South) Position 5: R (facing North) Position 6: V (facing South) Position 7: W (facing North) Position 8: U (facing North)

U sits at position 8 facing North, so the person sitting second to the left of U is V at position 6. Since V faces South, moving fourth to the right of V corresponds to position 6 − 4 = 2, which is occupied by S.

96Reasoning Ability

In these questions, relationships between different elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer Statements: P1 > P2 = P3< P4≤ P5 > P6 Conclusions: I. P5 > P2 II. P6 > P3

AIf only conclusion I followsBIf only conclusion II followsCIf either conclusion I or conclusion II followsDIf neither conclusion I nor conclusion II followsEIf both conclusions I and II follow

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Answer: (A) If only conclusion I follows

From the given statement, the relationship between P2 and P5 is P2 = P3 < P4 ≤ P5. Since a strict inequality exists in the direct path from P2 to P5, it follows that P2 < P5, which is equivalent to P5 > P2. Therefore, conclusion I is definitively true.

For conclusion II, the chain connecting P3 to P6 is P3 < P4 ≤ P5 > P6. Because the inequality signs face opposite directions (< and >), no definite relationship can be established between P3 and P6, so conclusion II does not follow.

97Reasoning Ability

In these questions, relationships between different elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer Statements: P≥ N > D≥ G< B≤ J Conclusions: I. G< P II. G< J

AIf only conclusion I followsBIf only conclusion II followsCIf either conclusion I or conclusion II followsDIf neither conclusion I nor conclusion II followsEIf both conclusions I and II follow

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Answer: (E) If both conclusions I and II follow

From the given inequality chain P ≥ N > D ≥ G, the presence of the strict inequality (>) between N and D establishes that P > G, which is equivalent to G < P, so Conclusion I holds true.

From the segment G < B ≤ J, the strict inequality (<) directly yields G < J, confirming that Conclusion II also holds true.

98Reasoning Ability

In these questions, relationships between different elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer Statement: Q≤ E N = R≥ S Conclusions: I. E≥ S II. S≤ N

AIf only conclusion I followsBIf only conclusion II followsCIf either conclusion I or conclusion II followsDIf neither conclusion I nor conclusion II followsEIf both conclusions I and II follow

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Answer: (B) If only conclusion II follows

From the statement Q ≤ E N = R ≥ S:

For Conclusion I: Between E and S, the inequality signs are opposite (E N = R ≥ S), which means no definite relationship can be determined between E and S.

For Conclusion II: Between N and S, the direct relation is N = R ≥ S, which simplifies to N ≥ S or S ≤ N. Therefore, only conclusion II is valid.

99Reasoning Ability

In these questions, relationships between different elements are shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer Statement: R = S≥ Y≥ M< W > O Conclusions: I. Y< M II. O > S

AIf only conclusion I followsBIf only conclusion II followsCIf either conclusion I or conclusion II followsDIf neither conclusion I nor conclusion II followsEIf both conclusions I and II follow

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Answer: (D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

From the statement R = S ≥ Y ≥ M < W > O:

For conclusion I: The direct relationship between Y and M is Y ≥ M, which makes the conclusion Y < M definitely false.

For conclusion II: Connecting S and O gives S ≥ Y ≥ M < W > O. The relation involves opposing inequality signs (≥ and <), meaning no definite comparison can be drawn between O and S, so O > S does not follow.

Therefore, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

100Reasoning Ability

If in the number “8634726521, positions of the first and the second digits are interchanged, positions of the third and fourth digits are interchanged and so on till the positions of 9th and 10th digits are interchanged, then which digit will be 6th from the left end?

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Answer: (A) 7

The given number is 8634726521.

When consecutive pairs of digits are swapped, the 5th and 6th digits (7 and 2) interchange their positions.

Original 5th digit = 7 Original 6th digit = 2

After interchanging, the 5th digit becomes 2 and the 6th digit from the left end becomes 7. The fully rearranged number is 6843275612.

101Quantitative Aptitude

Table given below shows five colleges in which there are five departments viz -Arts, commerce, Medical, science and vocational. Also, table tells shows total received application in department and percentage of cancel applications (Male + female) and ratio of male to female in approved application. | Departments | Total Application received | Percentage of cancel applications | Ratio of (male:female) Approved | |---|---|---|---| | Arts | P | 40% | 11:7 | | commerce | 1400 | Q | 29:21 | | Medical | 1600 | 35% | R | | Science | S | 55% | 43:17 | | vocational | 800 | 60% | T | If the difference between approved male applications and approved female applications in Arts department is 200, then find P is how what percent more than applications received in vocational department?

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Answer: (B) 87.5%

Total applications received in Arts department = P Percentage of approved applications = 100% - 40% = 60% Approved applications = 0.60 × P

Approved male to female ratio = 11 : 7 Difference between approved male and approved female applications: [(11 - 7) / (11 + 7)] × 0.60 × P = 200 (4 / 18) × (3 / 5) × P = 200 (2 / 15) × P = 200 P = 1500

Applications received in vocational department = 800

Percentage by which P is more than vocational applications: [(1500 - 800) / 800] × 100% = (700 / 800) × 100% = 87.5%

102Quantitative Aptitude

Table given below shows five colleges in which there are five departments viz -Arts, commerce, Medical, science and vocational. Also, table tells shows total received application in department and percentage of cancel applications (Male + female) and ratio of male to female in approved application. | Departments | Total Application received | Percentage of cancel applications | Ratio of (male:female) Approved | |---|---|---|---| | Arts | P | 40% | 11:7 | | commerce | 1400 | Q | 29:21 | | Medical | 1600 | 35% | R | | Science | S | 55% | 43:17 | | vocational | 800 | 60% | T | If the difference between approved male applications and approved female applications in science department is 234, then find the sum of total applications received in science, commerce and medical department together?

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Answer: (A) 4200

In the science department, cancelled applications are 55%, so approved applications account for 45% of total applications S.

Approved applications = 0.45 × S

Approved male to female ratio = 43 : 17 Difference in parts = 43 - 17 = 26 Total parts = 43 + 17 = 60

Difference between approved male and female applications = (26 / 60) × 0.45 × S 234 = (26 / 60) × (9 / 20) × S 234 = (78 / 400) × S S = (234 × 400) / 78 = 1200

Total applications received in science, commerce, and medical departments together = 1200 + 1400 + 1600 = 4200

103Quantitative Aptitude

Table given below shows five colleges in which there are five departments viz -Arts, commerce, Medical, science and vocational. Also, table tells shows total received application in department and percentage of cancel applications (Male + female) and ratio of male to female in approved application. | Departments | Total Application received | Percentage of cancel applications | Ratio of (male:female) Approved | |---|---|---|---| | Arts | P | 40% | 11:7 | | commerce | 1400 | Q | 29:21 | | Medical | 1600 | 35% | R | | Science | S | 55% | 43:17 | | vocational | 800 | 60% | T | If the difference between approved male applications and approved female applications in Arts department is 100, then find difference between P and cancel application in medical department?

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Answer: (C) 190

In Arts department, total approved applications = (100% − 40%) of P = 60% of P = 0.60 P. The ratio of approved male to female applications is 11 : 7. Difference between approved male and female applications = [(11 − 7) / (11 + 7)] × 0.60 P = 100 (4 / 18) × 0.60 P = 100 (2 / 15) P = 100 P = 750

In Medical department, cancelled applications = 35% of 1600 = 560.

Required difference = P − Cancelled applications in Medical = 750 − 560 = 190.

104Quantitative Aptitude

Table given below shows five colleges in which there are five departments viz -Arts, commerce, Medical, science and vocational. Also, table tells shows total received application in department and percentage of cancel applications (Male + female) and ratio of male to female in approved application. | Departments | Total Application received | Percentage of cancel applications | Ratio of (male:female) Approved | |---|---|---|---| | Arts | P | 40% | 11:7 | | commerce | 1400 | Q | 29:21 | | Medical | 1600 | 35% | R | | Science | S | 55% | 43:17 | | vocational | 800 | 60% | T | If the number of approved male applications in vocational department is 40 more than that of approved female applications, then find the ratio of approved female applications to approved male applications in the same department?

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Answer: (D) 7:9

Total applications received in the vocational department = 800. Percentage of cancelled applications = 60%. Total approved applications = 800 × (100% - 60%) = 800 × 0.40 = 320.

Let M and F be the number of approved male and female applications respectively. M + F = 320 M - F = 40

Adding both equations: 2M = 360 M = 180 F = 320 - 180 = 140

Ratio of approved female applications to approved male applications: F : M = 140 : 180 = 7 : 9

105Quantitative Aptitude

Table given below shows five colleges in which there are five departments viz -Arts, commerce, Medical, science and vocational. Also, table tells shows total received application in department and percentage of cancel applications (Male + female) and ratio of male to female in approved application. | Departments | Total Application received | Percentage of cancel applications | Ratio of (male:female) Approved | |---|---|---|---| | Arts | P | 40% | 11:7 | | commerce | 1400 | Q | 29:21 | | Medical | 1600 | 35% | R | | Science | S | 55% | 43:17 | | vocational | 800 | 60% | T | Find the ratio of canceled application in medical department to vocational department?

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Answer: (E) 7:6

Total canceled applications in the Medical department = 35% of 1600 = 560. Total canceled applications in the Vocational department = 60% of 800 = 480. Required ratio = 560 : 480 = 7 : 6.

106Quantitative Aptitude

Table given below shows five colleges in which there are five departments viz -Arts, commerce, Medical, science and vocational. Also, table tells shows total received application in department and percentage of cancel applications (Male + female) and ratio of male to female in approved application. | Departments | Total Application received | Percentage of cancel applications | Ratio of (male:female) Approved | |---|---|---|---| | Arts | P | 40% | 11:7 | | commerce | 1400 | Q | 29:21 | | Medical | 1600 | 35% | R | | Science | S | 55% | 43:17 | | vocational | 800 | 60% | T | If the difference between approved male applications and approved female applications in commerce department is 112, then find sum of Q and total application received in medical department?

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Answer: (A) 2300

In the Commerce department: Total received applications = 1400 Ratio of approved male to female applications = 29 : 21 Difference in ratio terms = 29 - 21 = 8 units Sum of ratio terms = 29 + 21 = 50 units

Given that 8 units correspond to 112, each unit equals 112 / 8 = 14. Total approved applications = 50 × 14 = 700.

Cancelled applications in Commerce (Q) = Total received - Total approved = 1400 - 700 = 700.

Total applications received in Medical department = 1600. Required sum = Q + Medical applications = 700 + 1600 = 2300.

107Quantitative Aptitude

Pipe A alone can fill a tank in 30 mins and pipe B alone can fill the same tank in 'X' mins. Pipe C alone can empty the tank in 60 mins. If pipes A, B, and C together take 25⁵⁄₇ min to fill the same tank, then find time taken by pipe B alone to fill the ⅗ th of the same tank?

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Answer: (C) 27 min

Combined rate of the three pipes: 1/A + 1/B - 1/C = 1 / (25 5/7) = 7/180

Substitute the known rates: 1/30 + 1/X - 1/60 = 7/180 1/60 + 1/X = 7/180 1/X = 7/180 - 3/180 = 4/180 = 1/45 X = 45 minutes

Time taken by pipe B to fill 3/5th of the tank = 45 × (3/5) = 27 minutes.

108Quantitative Aptitude

A vessel contains 232-liter mixture of zinc and sodium out of which 37.5% is sodium. 48 lit of mixture is taken out and 18-liter sodium & 14-liter zinc are added in remaining mixture. Find the ratio between quantity of sodium to zinc in the final mixture.

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Answer: (E) 29:43

Remaining volume of mixture after removing 48 liters = 232 - 48 = 184 liters. Since 37.5% = 3/8, the ratio of sodium to zinc in the mixture is 3 : 5. Quantity of sodium in remaining mixture = 184 × (3/8) = 69 liters. Quantity of zinc in remaining mixture = 184 × (5/8) = 115 liters. After adding 18 liters of sodium and 14 liters of zinc: Final sodium = 69 + 18 = 87 liters. Final zinc = 115 + 14 = 129 liters. Final ratio of sodium to zinc = 87 : 129 = 29 : 43.

109Quantitative Aptitude

Train A having length 450 m crosses a platform thrice of its length in 36 sec. Train B running at the speed of 54 kmph crosses a standing man in 50 sec. find the time taken by both trains to cross each other when running in same direction.

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Answer: (C) 34²⁄₇ seconds

Length of Train A = 450 m Length of platform = 3 × 450 = 1350 m Speed of Train A = (450 + 1350) / 36 = 1800 / 36 = 50 m/s

Speed of Train B = 54 × (5/18) = 15 m/s Length of Train B = Speed × Time = 15 × 50 = 750 m

When running in the same direction: Relative speed = 50 - 15 = 35 m/s Total distance = 450 + 750 = 1200 m Time taken = 1200 / 35 = 240 / 7 = 34 2/7 seconds

110Quantitative Aptitude

Amit and Bunty started a business with the capital of Rs 3200 & Rs 4400 respectively. After four months Amit increased his investment by 12.5% and Bunty withdrawn his 9¹⁄₁₁% from his investment. If at the end of year, difference of their profit shares is Rs. 1750, then find the profit share of Bunty (in Rs.)?

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Answer: (A) 10850

Ratio of profit share = Ratio of (Investment × Time period)

Amit's total effective investment: Initial investment for 4 months = 3200 × 4 = 12800 Increased investment after 12.5% (1/8) increase = 3200 + 400 = 3600 Investment for next 8 months = 3600 × 8 = 28800 Total for Amit = 12800 + 28800 = 41600

Bunty's total effective investment: Initial investment for 4 months = 4400 × 4 = 17600 Decreased investment after 9(1/11)% (1/11) withdrawal = 4400 - 400 = 4000 Investment for next 8 months = 4000 × 8 = 32000 Total for Bunty = 17600 + 32000 = 49600

Ratio of Amit's profit to Bunty's profit = 41600 : 49600 = 26 : 31

Difference in share = 31 - 26 = 5 units 5 units = ₹1750 1 unit = ₹350

Profit share of Bunty = 31 × 350 = ₹10850

111Quantitative Aptitude

Age of Sonali is 25% more than the age of Mitra. If the ratio of present age of Mitra to Sam is 4:9 and after 12 years, the average of Sam and Sonali will be 40 years, then find the sum of Ages of Sonali four years hence and Sam six years ago?

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Answer: (A) 54 yrs

Let the present age of Mitra be 4x. Age of Sonali = 4x × 1.25 = 5x Age of Sam = 9x

Given that the average age of Sam and Sonali after 12 years is 40 years: Present average age of Sam and Sonali = 40 - 12 = 28 years Present sum of ages = 28 × 2 = 56 years 5x + 9x = 56 14x = 56 x = 4

Present age of Sonali = 5 × 4 = 20 years Present age of Sam = 9 × 4 = 36 years

Sonali's age 4 years hence = 20 + 4 = 24 years Sam's age 6 years ago = 36 - 6 = 30 years Required sum = 24 + 30 = 54 years

112Quantitative Aptitude

If difference between total compound interest in two years and total simple interest in three years on a certain sum at the rate of interest 12% p.a. is Rs 4224, then what will be the compound interest earned when two times of the same sum invested at 10% per annum for two years?

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Answer: (B) Rs 16800

Effective rate of simple interest for 3 years at 12% = 3 × 12% = 36% Effective rate of compound interest for 2 years at 12% = 12 + 12 + (12 × 12)/100 = 25.44%

Difference in rate = 36% - 25.44% = 10.56% Principal (P) = 4224 / 0.1056 = Rs 40,000

New principal = 2 × P = 2 × 40,000 = Rs 80,000 Effective rate of compound interest for 2 years at 10% = 10 + 10 + (10 × 10)/100 = 21%

Compound interest earned = 21% of 80,000 = 0.21 × 80,000 = Rs 16,800

113Quantitative Aptitude

If the breadth of rectangle is increased by 2cm then it will become side of a square. Area of square is 24cm² more than the area of rectangle and the ratio of length and breadth of rectangle is 6:5 . Then, find the ratio of area of rectangle to the area of square.

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Answer: (B) 5:6

Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be 6x and 5x respectively. The side of the square is s = 5x + 2.

According to the given condition: Area of square - Area of rectangle = 24 (5x + 2)² - (6x × 5x) = 24 25x² + 20x + 4 - 30x² = 24 -5x² + 20x - 20 = 0 x² - 4x + 4 = 0 (x - 2)² = 0 x = 2

Thus: Area of rectangle = 30x² = 30(2)² = 120 cm² Area of square = (5(2) + 2)² = 12² = 144 cm²

Ratio of area of rectangle to area of square = 120 : 144 = 5 : 6

114Quantitative Aptitude

X invested Rs. P at 10% per annum, Y invested Rs. (P - 4000) at the rate of 12% per annum. If they both get total compound interest at the end of two years Rs. 6412.8, then find capital invested by Y ?

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Answer: (B) 12000 Rs.

The effective compound interest rate for 2 years at annual rate r is given by 2r + (r²/100)%.

For X at 10% per annum: Effective rate = 10 + 10 + (10 × 10)/100 = 21%

For Y at 12% per annum: Effective rate = 12 + 12 + (12 × 12)/100 = 25.44%

The total compound interest earned after two years is: 0.21 × P + 0.2544 × (P - 4000) = 6412.8 0.4644 × P - 1017.6 = 6412.8 0.4644 × P = 7430.4 P = 7430.4 / 0.4644 = 16000

Capital invested by Y = P - 4000 = 16000 - 4000 = 12000 Rs.

115Quantitative Aptitude

Ratio of present salary of Ankit and Pankaj is 6:5 and ratio of their present salary to previous year salary is 4:3 and 5:4 respectively. If difference between previous year salary of Ankit and Pankaj is Rs.2000, then find present salary of Pankaj?

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Answer: (C) Rs 20000

Let the present salaries of Ankit and Pankaj be 6x and 5x respectively. To avoid fractions, let x = 4k, so: Present salary of Ankit = 24k Present salary of Pankaj = 20k

Previous year salary of Ankit = (3/4) × 24k = 18k Previous year salary of Pankaj = (4/5) × 20k = 16k

Given the difference between their previous year salaries: 18k - 16k = 2000 2k = 2000 k = 1000

Present salary of Pankaj = 20k = 20 × 1000 = Rs. 20000.

116Quantitative Aptitude

A shopkeeper gives 20% discount on each article. He also gives one article free at every 4 articles he sold and earns 8% profit, if M.R.P. of each article is Rs. 270 find cost price of one article when he bought five articles?

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Answer: (C) Rs. 160

Marked Price (MP) of each article = Rs. 270.

A customer receives 5 articles (4 bought + 1 free) while paying for 4 articles at a 20% discount. Total Selling Price (SP) for 5 articles = 4 × 270 × (1 - 0.20) = 4 × 216 = Rs. 864.

Since the overall profit earned is 8%, the relation between selling price and cost price is: Total SP = Total CP × (1 + Profit%) 864 = (5 × CP) × 1.08 5 × CP = 864 / 1.08 = Rs. 800

Cost price of one article = 800 / 5 = Rs. 160.

117Quantitative Aptitude

X men can do a piece of work in 21 days working 8 hours each day. The number of days taken by X men is 70% of number of days taken by (x - 1) men, working 6 hours a day. Find the value of X.

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Answer: (C) 15

Total work W = Men × Days × Hours/day.

For X men working 8 hours a day for 21 days: W = X × 21 × 8 = 168X man-hours.

The number of days taken by (X - 1) men working 6 hours a day is: Days = 21 / 0.70 = 30 days.

Therefore, total work is also: W = (X - 1) × 30 × 6 = 180(X - 1) man-hours.

Equating the two work equations: 168X = 180(X - 1) 12X = 180 X = 15

118Quantitative Aptitude

What will come in the place of question (? mark in the following number series: 12, 7, 8.5, 14.75, ?, 83

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Answer: (C) 32

The given series follows the operation: Term(n) = Term(n-1) × multiplier + addition, where both the multiplier and addition increase by 0.5 at each successive step.

12 × 0.5 + 1 = 7 7 × 1.0 + 1.5 = 8.5 8.5 × 1.5 + 2.0 = 14.75 14.75 × 2.0 + 2.5 = 32 32 × 2.5 + 3.0 = 83

The missing number in the sequence is 32.

119Quantitative Aptitude

What will come in the place of question (? mark in the following number series: 12,78,395,1584,4755,?

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Answer: (A) 9512

The pattern in the series is: 12 × 6 + 6 = 78 78 × 5 + 5 = 395 395 × 4 + 4 = 1584 1584 × 3 + 3 = 4755 4755 × 2 + 2 = 9512

120Quantitative Aptitude

What will come in the place of question (? mark in the following number series: 26,53,214,1287,10300,?

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Answer: (E) 103005

The pattern in the series is: 26 × 2 + 1 = 53 53 × 4 + 2 = 214 214 × 6 + 3 = 1287 1287 × 8 + 4 = 10300

Following the same logic of multiplying by consecutive even numbers (2, 4, 6, 8, 10) and adding consecutive integers (1, 2, 3, 4, 5): 10300 × 10 + 5 = 103000 + 5 = 103005

121Quantitative Aptitude

What will come in the place of question (? mark in the following number series: 4187,2857,2129,1787,1663,?

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Answer: (D) 1637

Find the difference between consecutive terms: 4187 - 2857 = 1330 = 11³ - 1 2857 - 2129 = 728 = 9³ - 1 2129 - 1787 = 342 = 7³ - 1 1787 - 1663 = 124 = 5³ - 1

Following this pattern, the next difference is 3³ - 1 = 27 - 1 = 26. Missing term = 1663 - 26 = 1637.

122Quantitative Aptitude

What will come in the place of question (? mark in the following number series: 27,27,54,18,72,?

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Answer: (E) 14.4

The given series follows an alternating pattern of division and multiplication by consecutive natural numbers:

27 ÷ 1 = 27 27 × 2 = 54 54 ÷ 3 = 18 18 × 4 = 72 72 ÷ 5 = 14.4

123Quantitative Aptitude

Average of four numbers is 64. If 3 is added to first number, multiplied to second, subtracted from the third and divided to last one then all the values are same. Find the difference between 2ⁿᵈ highest and the smallest number?

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Answer: (B) 35

Let the four numbers be a, b, c, and d. Sum of the four numbers = 64 × 4 = 256.

Let the equal resulting value be k: a + 3 = 3b = c - 3 = d / 3 = k

Expressing each number in terms of k: a = k - 3 b = k / 3 c = k + 3 d = 3k

Sum of the numbers: (k - 3) + (k / 3) + (k + 3) + 3k = 256 16k / 3 = 256 k = (256 × 3) / 16 = 48

The numbers are: a = 48 - 3 = 45 b = 48 / 3 = 16 c = 48 + 3 = 51 d = 3 × 48 = 144

Arranging in ascending order: 16, 45, 51, 144. Second highest number = 51 Smallest number = 16

Required difference = 51 - 16 = 35

124Quantitative Aptitude

3 years ago, ratio of age of A and B is 3:1. If the present age of B is 37½% of the present age of A then what is the difference between their present ages (in years)?

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Answer: (B) 30

Convert the percentage into a fraction: 37½% = 37.5/100 = ⅜. Let the present ages of A and B be 8x and 3x years respectively.

According to the given condition, 3 years ago: (8x - 3) / (3x - 3) = 3 / 1 8x - 3 = 9x - 9 x = 6

Difference between their present ages = 8x - 3x = 5x = 5 × 6 = 30 years.

125Quantitative Aptitude

Ratio of volume of conical tent to total surface area of hemispherical bowl is 8:1 . Radius of bowl and tent is equal and slant height of tent is 75cm . If radius of conical tent is equal to side of a cube, then find curved surface area of cube.

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Answer: (B) 1764cm²

Let the common radius of the conical tent and hemispherical bowl be r, and the height of the cone be h.

Volume of the cone = (1/3)πr²h Total surface area of the hemispherical bowl = 3πr²

Given the ratio: [(1/3)πr²h] / [3πr²] = 8 / 1 h / 9 = 8 h = 72 cm

Using the slant height l = 75 cm: r = √(l² - h²) = √(75² - 72²) = √(5625 - 5184) = √441 = 21 cm

Since the side of the cube a = r = 21 cm: Curved (lateral) surface area of the cube = 4a² = 4 × 21² = 4 × 441 = 1764 cm²

126Quantitative Aptitude

'A' purchased two beds at same price. He further sold one bed to 'B' at 60% profit and other bed to 'C' at 20% profit. 'C' further sold the bed to 'D' at 20% less than the average of cost price of bed for 'B' & 'C'. If D incurred 25% loss by selling the bed to 'E' at Rs.2100, then find the difference between the cost price of a bed for 'A' and 'D'.

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Answer: (D) Rs.300

Let the cost price of each bed for A be 100 units.

Cost price for B = 160 units Cost price for C = 120 units

Average cost price for B and C = (160 + 120) / 2 = 140 units Cost price for D = 140 × (1 - 0.20) = 112 units

Selling price for D (with 25% loss) = 112 × 0.75 = 84 units

Given, 84 units = Rs. 2100 1 unit = 2100 / 84 = Rs. 25

Difference between the cost price of a bed for A and D = 112 units - 100 units = 12 units Required difference = 12 × 25 = Rs. 300

127Quantitative Aptitude

Speed of boat in downstream is twice the speed of boat in upstream, if boat cover 96 km in downstream and 72 km upstream in total 20 hours. Find still water speed of boat?

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Answer: (D) 9 km/hr

Let the upstream speed be U and downstream speed be D = 2U.

Using the relation Time = Distance / Speed: Total time = (Downstream distance / D) + (Upstream distance / U) 20 = 96 / (2U) + 72 / U 20 = 48 / U + 72 / U 20 = 120 / U U = 6 km/hr

Thus, D = 2 × 6 = 12 km/hr.

Still water speed of boat = (D + U) / 2 = (12 + 6) / 2 = 9 km/hr.

128Quantitative Aptitude

In a bag, there are some red and total 9 black and yellow balls. Probability of selecting two red balls from that bag is 1 / 7 which is 250% of the probability of selecting two black balls. Find number of yellow balls in that bag if the number of black balls is even.

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Answer: (B) 5

Let the number of red balls be R, black balls be B, and yellow balls be Y. Given B + Y = 9, total balls N = R + 9.

The probability of selecting two red balls is: P(2 Red) = [R(R - 1)] / [N(N - 1)] = 1/7

Substituting N = R + 9: (R + 9)(R + 8) = 7R(R - 1) R² + 17R + 72 = 7R² - 7R 6R² - 24R - 72 = 0 R² - 4R - 12 = 0 (R - 6)(R + 2) = 0

Since R > 0, R = 6. Total balls N = 6 + 9 = 15.

Given that P(2 Red) = 250% of P(2 Black): P(2 Black) = (1/7) / 2.5 = 2/35 [B(B - 1)] / (15 × 14) = 2/35 B(B - 1) = 210 × 2 / 35 = 12 B² - B - 12 = 0 (B - 4)(B + 3) = 0 B = 4 (which is an even number)

Number of yellow balls Y = 9 - B = 9 - 4 = 5.

129Quantitative Aptitude

In a university election of two candidates, 80% of the students cast their votes out of which 120 votes are invalid. The winner gets 37.5% of the total students votes and won by only 30 votes. Then find the number of students who don't cast their votes?

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Answer: (A) 360

Let the total number of students be T. Votes cast = 0.80T, so valid votes = 0.80T - 120. The winner received 37.5% of the total student votes = 0.375T. Since the winner won by 30 votes, the loser received 0.375T - 30 votes. Total valid votes = Winner votes + Loser votes 0.80T - 120 = 0.375T + (0.375T - 30) 0.80T - 120 = 0.75T - 30 0.05T = 90 T = 1800

The number of students who did not cast their votes is 20% of T = 0.20 × 1800 = 360.

130Quantitative Aptitude

Rahul is going from Gurgaon to Agra from his car at the speed of 80 kmph. After 120 km, he reduces his speed by 12.5% and completes the whole journey in 5.5 hours. Find total time taken by him to cover the same distance, if he had reduced the speed after 2 hours.

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Answer: (C) 5³⁄₇ hours

Initial speed = 80 km/h. Time taken to cover the first 120 km = 120 / 80 = 1.5 hours.

Reduced speed = 80 × (1 − 0.125) = 70 km/h. Remaining time = 5.5 − 1.5 = 4 hours. Remaining distance = 70 × 4 = 280 km. Total distance = 120 + 280 = 400 km.

If speed is reduced after 2 hours: Distance covered in the first 2 hours = 80 × 2 = 160 km. Remaining distance = 400 − 160 = 240 km. Time taken for the remaining distance = 240 / 70 = 24/7 = 3 3/7 hours.

Total time taken = 2 + 3 3/7 = 5 3/7 hours.

131Quantitative Aptitude

Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions. A, B, C and D started a business in partnership. A invested Rs. 5000 for whole period whereas the average of initial investment for all four is Rs. 5975. Investment made by D is 25% more than B and ratio of investment made by B to that of C is 10:9 . Time period for which B invested his amount is 2 / 3ʳᵈ of that of A. Sum of time period for which C & D invested is equal to total time period for which A & B invested and profit share of C is 18 / 79ᵗʰ of total profit at the end of the year. Find ratio of period of investment of C to that of D?

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Answer: (A) 1:1

Total investment of all four partners = 4 × ₹5975 = ₹23,900. Investment of B + C + D = 23,900 - 5,000 = ₹18,900.

Given B : C = 10 : 9 and D = 1.25 × B = 12.5, the ratio of investments is B : C : D = 20 : 18 : 25. Sum of ratio parts = 20 + 18 + 25 = 63 parts = ₹18,900, so 1 part = ₹300. Therefore, B = ₹6,000, C = ₹5,400, and D = ₹7,500.

Time period for A (whole year) = 12 months. Time period for B = (2/3) × 12 = 8 months. Total time for C and D = 12 + 8 = 20 months. Let the time for C be T_C months, so time for D = (20 - T_C) months.

Profit is proportional to Investment × Time: Profit of A = 5000 × 12 = 60,000 Profit of B = 6000 × 8 = 48,000 Profit of C = 5400 × T_C Profit of D = 7500 × (20 - T_C) = 150,000 - 7500 × T_C Total Profit = 258,000 - 2100 × T_C

Given that Profit of C / Total Profit = 18 / 79: (5400 × T_C) / (258,000 - 2100 × T_C) = 18 / 79 (3 × T_C) / (2580 - 21 × T_C) = 1 / 79 237 × T_C = 2580 - 21 × T_C 258 × T_C = 2580 T_C = 10 months

Time for D = 20 - 10 = 10 months. Ratio of period of investment of C to D = 10 : 10 = 1 : 1.

132Quantitative Aptitude

Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions. A, B, C and D started a business in partnership. A invested Rs. 5000 for whole period whereas the average of initial investment for all four is Rs. 5975. Investment made by D is 25% more than B and ratio of investment made by B to that of C is 10:9 . Time period for which B invested his amount is 2 / 3ʳᵈ of that of A. Sum of time period for which C & D invested is equal to total time period for which A & B invested and profit share of C is 18 / 79ᵗʰ of total profit at the end of the year. Difference between investment of D & C is what percent of difference between investment of B & D?

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Answer: (D) 140%

Let the initial investment of B be 10x. Since the ratio of investments of B to C is 10:9, the investment of C is 9x. Investment of D is 25% more than B, so investment of D = 10x × 1.25 = 12.5x.

Difference between investment of D and C = 12.5x - 9x = 3.5x Difference between investment of B and D = 12.5x - 10x = 2.5x

Required percentage = (3.5x / 2.5x) × 100 = (7 / 5) × 100 = 140%

133Quantitative Aptitude

Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions. A, B, C and D started a business in partnership. A invested Rs. 5000 for whole period whereas the average of initial investment for all four is Rs. 5975. Investment made by D is 25% more than B and ratio of investment made by B to that of C is 10:9 . Time period for which B invested his amount is 2 / 3ʳᵈ of that of A. Sum of time period for which C & D invested is equal to total time period for which A & B invested and profit share of C is 18 / 79ᵗʰ of total profit at the end of the year. If at the end of business term, total profit is Rs. 15,800, then find the difference between profit share of A & D.

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Answer: (C) Rs. 1000

Total initial investment of all four = 4 × 5975 = ₹23,900. Since A invested ₹5000, the sum of investments of B, C, and D = 23900 - 5000 = ₹18,900.

Let the investment of B be x. Investment of C = 0.9x and investment of D = 1.25x. x + 0.9x + 1.25x = 18900 3.15x = 18900 x = 6000

Thus, investments are: A = ₹5000, B = ₹6000, C = ₹5400, D = ₹7500.

Time periods: A invested for 12 months. B invested for (2/3) × 12 = 8 months. Sum of time periods of C and D = 12 + 8 = 20 months.

Let time period for C be t months, so for D it is (20 - t) months. Profit ratio is given by Investment × Time: A = 5000 × 12 = 60000 B = 6000 × 8 = 48000 C = 5400 × t D = 7500 × (20 - t)

Total profit units = 60000 + 48000 + 5400t + 150000 - 7500t = 258000 - 2100t. Profit share of C = 5400t / (258000 - 2100t) = 18 / 79 18t / (860 - 7t) = 18 / 79 t = 10 months.

Thus, D invested for 20 - 10 = 10 months. Profit ratio A : B : C : D = 60000 : 48000 : 54000 : 75000 = 20 : 16 : 18 : 25. Total ratio units = 20 + 16 + 18 + 25 = 79.

Difference between profit share of A and D = (25 - 20) / 79 × 15800 = 5 × 200 = ₹1000.

134Quantitative Aptitude

Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions. A, B, C and D started a business in partnership. A invested Rs. 5000 for whole period whereas the average of initial investment for all four is Rs. 5975. Investment made by D is 25% more than B and ratio of investment made by B to that of C is 10:9 . Time period for which B invested his amount is 2 / 3ʳᵈ of that of A. Sum of time period for which C & D invested is equal to total time period for which A & B invested and profit share of C is 18 / 79ᵗʰ of total profit at the end of the year. Profit share of B is what percent of profit share of A?

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Answer: (A) 80%

Total investment of all four partners = 5975 × 4 = Rs. 23900. Investment of B + C + D = 23900 - 5000 = Rs. 18900.

Let investment of B = 10x, then investment of C = 9x and investment of D = 1.25 × 10x = 12.5x. 10x + 9x + 12.5x = 31.5x = 18900, which gives x = 600. Investment of B = Rs. 6000.

Given total time period = 12 months for A: Time period of B = (2/3) × 12 = 8 months.

Ratio of profit share is given by Investment × Time: Profit ratio of B to A = (6000 × 8) / (5000 × 12) = 48000 / 60000 = 4/5.

Required percentage = (4/5) × 100% = 80%.

135Quantitative Aptitude

Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions. A, B, C and D started a business in partnership. A invested Rs. 5000 for whole period whereas the average of initial investment for all four is Rs. 5975. Investment made by D is 25% more than B and ratio of investment made by B to that of C is 10:9 . Time period for which B invested his amount is 2 / 3ʳᵈ of that of A. Sum of time period for which C & D invested is equal to total time period for which A & B invested and profit share of C is 18 / 79ᵗʰ of total profit at the end of the year. Investment of C & D together is approximately what percent of total investment of all the four?

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Answer: (E) 54%

Total investment of all four partners = 4 × 5975 = Rs. 23,900. Investment of (B + C + D) = 23,900 − 5,000 = Rs. 18,900.

Let the investments of B, C, and D be 10x, 9x, and 1.25 × 10x = 12.5x respectively. Sum of their investments = 10x + 9x + 12.5x = 31.5x = 18,900. x = 18,900 / 31.5 = 600.

Thus, investment of C = 9 × 600 = Rs. 5,400, and investment of D = 12.5 × 600 = Rs. 7,500. Combined investment of C and D = 5,400 + 7,500 = Rs. 12,900.

Required percentage = (12,900 / 23,900) × 100 = 53.97% ≈ 54%.

136Quantitative Aptitude

What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions: (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) ?² + 190.98 - 19.01 × 6.97 = 316.99 × 1.99

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Answer: (C) 24

Approximating the decimal values to their nearest integers: 190.98 ≈ 191 19.01 ≈ 19 6.97 ≈ 7 316.99 ≈ 317 1.99 ≈ 2

Substitute these values into the given equation: ?² + 191 - (19 × 7) = 317 × 2 ?² + 191 - 133 = 634 ?² + 58 = 634 ?² = 634 - 58 = 576 ? = √576 = 24

137Quantitative Aptitude

What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions: (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 768.06 ÷ 11.97 × √(256.05) - 58.05 = ?

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Answer: (C) 966

Approximating each term in the given expression to its nearest integer value: 768.06 ≈ 768 11.97 ≈ 12 √256.05 ≈ √256 = 16 58.05 ≈ 58

Applying the standard order of operations (BODMAS), perform division first, then multiplication, and finally subtraction: ? ≈ (768 ÷ 12) × 16 - 58 ? ≈ 64 × 16 - 58 ? ≈ 1024 - 58 ? = 966

138Quantitative Aptitude

What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions: (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 34.02% of 550.09 ÷ ? = 297.07 ÷ √(728.95)

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Answer: (E) 17

Approximate the numerical values in the expression to their nearest convenient values: 34.02% ≈ 34% 550.09 ≈ 550 297.07 ≈ 297 √728.95 ≈ √729 = 27

Substitute these into the given equation: (34% of 550) ÷ ? = 297 ÷ 27 (0.34 × 550) ÷ ? = 11 187 ÷ ? = 11 ? = 187 ÷ 11 = 17

139Quantitative Aptitude

What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions: (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) (? ÷ 9.97) × 12.08 = 20.12% of 1319.97

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Answer: (A) 220

Approximating each term to the nearest integer: 9.97 ≈ 10 12.08 ≈ 12 20.12% ≈ 20% 1319.97 ≈ 1320

Substitute these values into the given equation: (? ÷ 10) × 12 = 20% of 1320 (? ÷ 10) × 12 = 0.20 × 1320 (? ÷ 10) × 12 = 264 ? ÷ 10 = 264 ÷ 12 ? ÷ 10 = 22 ? = 22 × 10 = 220

140Quantitative Aptitude

What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions: (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) ? % of 179.99 = √((24.02)² + (17.98)² + 60.01%) of 659.98

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Answer: (D) 20

Approximate the given values to the nearest whole numbers: ?% of 180 = √((24)² + (18)² + 60% of 660)

Evaluate the terms inside the square root: 24² = 576 18² = 324 60% of 660 = 0.60 × 660 = 396

Sum of terms = 576 + 324 + 396 = 1296 √1296 = 36

Now, solve for ?: (? / 100) × 180 = 36 ? = (36 × 100) / 180 = 20

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