BPSC2023Polity and GovernancePage 1 of 1

BPSC Prelims 2023 Polity and Governance Questions with Solutions

This year the exam was held in more than one sitting; questions from all of them, grouped by subject. Questions 1–45 of 45, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation.

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Answers + explanations
1Polity and Governance
The phrase ‘equality before law’ used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of which country?
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Answer: (A) Britain

Explanation

The concept of 'equality before law' as enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is a fundamental principle derived from the British Constitution. It signifies that no person is above the law and all individuals are subject to the same laws of the land, regardless of their position or status. This principle forms a crucial part of the Rule of Law.

2Polity and Governance
What was the duration in the making of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (C) 2 years 11 months and 18 days

Explanation

The Indian Constitution was drafted by the Constituent Assembly over a period of time. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held on December 9, 1946, and the final session, where the Constitution was adopted, was on November 26, 1949. The total duration taken to frame the Indian Constitution was exactly 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days.

3Polity and Governance
The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to
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Answer: (C) the Legislative Assembly

Explanation

Article 164(2) of the Indian Constitution clearly states that the Council of Ministers in a state shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. This principle is a cornerstone of the parliamentary system, ensuring accountability of the executive to the elected representatives of the people. If the Council of Ministers loses the confidence of the Legislative Assembly, it must resign.

4Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralization of 1. decision-making powers 2. system as a whole 3. judicial powers 4. administrative powers Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act introduced a three-tier Panchayati Raj system aimed at democratic decentralization. This involves the decentralization of decision-making powers, allowing local bodies to address local issues and formulate plans. It also entails decentralization of the system as a whole, establishing self-governing units, and decentralization of administrative powers to enable these bodies to implement development schemes. Judicial powers, however, are not devolved to Panchayats; the judicial system operates separately.

5Polity and Governance
The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes
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Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, comprises members elected indirectly by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies, thereby representing the states and union territories. These members are effectively chosen by citizens through their representatives. Additionally, 12 members are nominated by the President of India from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service. Therefore, both categories of members are part of its representation.

6Polity and Governance
Which of the following is concerned with the Supreme Court of India?
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Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India is vested with several types of jurisdiction. Its original jurisdiction allows it to hear certain cases directly, such as disputes between the Union and states or inter-state disputes. It also has extensive appellate jurisdiction, enabling it to hear appeals against judgments of High Courts and other tribunals. Furthermore, the Collegium system, which involves a body of senior Supreme Court judges, is the established mechanism for the appointment and transfer of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts.

7Polity and Governance
The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be how many years according to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
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Answer: (A) 21 years

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, which mandates the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions, specifies the eligibility criteria for candidates. According to Article 243F(1)(a) of the Constitution, a person is qualified to be chosen as a member of a Panchayat if they have attained the age of twenty-one years. This minimum age of 21 years for contesting Panchayat elections is distinct from the minimum voting age of 18 years.

8Polity and Governance
With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at the district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 governs consumer disputes redressal. As per this Act, all the statements provided are correct. Statement A is correct because the State Government can establish more than one District Commission (formerly District Forum) in a district if it deems fit. Statement B is correct as the composition of the District Commission requires at least one member to be a woman. Statement C is also correct because the District Commission entertains complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs (Rs. 50,00,000). Since all options A, B, and C are correct statements, none of them are "not correct". Therefore, "None of the above" should be the answer.

9Polity and Governance
At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate a Panchayati Raj structure?
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Answer: (C) Block-level body

Explanation

A Panchayat Samiti operates as a block-level body in the three-tier Panchayati Raj structure. The Gram Panchayat functions at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block/intermediate level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level. This structure is designed to facilitate local self-governance and development initiatives at different administrative tiers within a district.

10Polity and Governance
Which one of the following was established as the first programme of community development?
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Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation

The first comprehensive program of community development launched in India was the Community Development Programme (CDP), which was initiated on October 2, 1952. While the National Extension Service (NES) was launched in 1953 as a component to make the CDP more effective, the CDP itself was the pioneering effort. The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) came much later in 1978-79. The Cooperation Movement, while important, was not structured as a government-led "community development programme" in the same vein. Since the Community Development Programme is not listed as an option, the correct answer is E, None of the above.

11Polity and GovernanceBihar-specific
According to the National Family Survey-5 released by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on November 24, 2021, there has been a significant improvement in the sex ratio of Bihar. It has increased from ___ in 2015–2016 to ___ in 2020–2022.
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Answer: (A) 1062, 1090

Explanation

The National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5), released in November 2021 by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, highlighted a positive trend in Bihar's sex ratio. The sex ratio (females per 1000 males) in Bihar improved considerably, increasing from 1062 as recorded in NFHS-4 (2015–2016) to 1090 in NFHS-5 (2020–2022). This indicates a significant demographic shift towards a more balanced gender ratio.

12Polity and GovernanceBihar-specific
Who among the following was the first Governor of Bihar?
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Answer: (A) Sir James David Sifton

Explanation

Sir James David Sifton holds the distinction of being the first Governor of Bihar. After the separation of Bihar and Orissa in 1936, pursuant to the Government of India Act of 1935, Sifton, who had previously served as Governor of Bihar and Orissa, assumed the governorship of the newly formed province of Bihar. His tenure as Governor of Bihar began in April 1936.

13Polity and Governance
Which of the following Union Ministries recently launched the YUVA 2.0 Scheme in 2022?
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Answer: (B) Education Ministry

Explanation

The Ministry of Education launched the YUVA 2.0 (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors) scheme in October 2022. This initiative is a Prime Minister's Scheme for mentoring young authors. Its primary aim is to foster a reading and writing culture across the nation and to project India's literary talent on the global stage.

14Polity and Governance
The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s how many languages?
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Answer: (C) 576

Explanation

In November 2022, the Ministry of Home Affairs announced the completion of the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI). This comprehensive survey involved field videography of 576 mother tongues across the country. The initiative aims to document, preserve, and analyze the linguistic diversity of India.

15Polity and Governance
Which of the following cities was not conferred with five-star garbage-free city rank according to Swachh Survekshan, 2022?
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Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation

In the Swachh Survekshan 2022 rankings, a total of nine cities achieved a five-star garbage-free city rating. These cities included Indore, Surat, Navi Mumbai, Mysuru, Vijayawada, Bhopal, Tirupati, Visakhapatnam, and New Delhi. Since Surat, Bhopal, and Navi Mumbai were all conferred with the five-star garbage-free city rank, none of them fit the description of "not conferred". Therefore, option E, "None of the above," is the correct answer as all listed cities did receive the five-star rating.

16Polity and Governance
Which month of the year is celebrated as Rashtriya Poshan Maah or National Nutrition Month under the Poshan Abhiyaan of the Government of India?
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Answer: (B) September

Explanation

The Government of India observes September as Rashtriya Poshan Maah, or National Nutrition Month, every year as part of its flagship Poshan Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission). This initiative aims to combat malnutrition by raising public awareness about the importance of proper nutrition, healthy eating practices, and holistic well-being, particularly focusing on vulnerable groups like women, children, and adolescents.

17Polity and Governance
Which of the following countries, along with Senegal, launched the International Drought Resilience Alliance during COP27?
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Answer: (C) Spain

Explanation

During the COP27 climate summit in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt, the International Drought Resilience Alliance (IDRA) was launched. This initiative was spearheaded by Spain and Senegal. Its primary goal is to mobilize political, technical, and financial resources to enhance drought preparedness and resilience worldwide, focusing on anticipating and responding to the increasing frequency and severity of droughts globally.

18Polity and GovernanceBihar-specific
According to the NITI Aayog SDG Report for the year 2020–2021, how much did the State of Bihar score?
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Answer: (C) 52 out of 100

Explanation

According to the NITI Aayog SDG India Index Report 2020–2021 (released in June 2021), the State of Bihar achieved a composite score of 52 out of 100. This score reflected Bihar's performance across various Sustainable Development Goals indicators, positioning it among the states with the lowest overall scores in the country.

19Polity and Governance
Which sport has been included in the Khelo India Women’s Tournament for the first time?
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Answer: (B) Track Cycling

Explanation

Track Cycling was included in the Khelo India Women's Tournament for the first time in 2022-23. The inaugural Khelo India Women's Track Cycling League was organized in Delhi in December 2022, marking its entry into the tournament series aimed at promoting women's sports across India. This initiative was part of the government's broader effort to identify and nurture sporting talent.

20Polity and GovernanceBihar-specific
Ganga Jal Aapurti Yojana was inaugurated by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar on November 28, 2022 at which place?
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Answer: (C) Bodh Gaya

Explanation

The Ganga Jal Aapurti Yojana (Ganga Water Supply Scheme) was inaugurated by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar in Rajgir on November 27, 2022. The scheme was subsequently inaugurated in Gaya and Bodh Gaya on November 28, 2022. Since the question specifically asks for a place on November 28, 2022, Bodh Gaya is one of the correct locations among the given options.

21Polity and Governance
Which of the following associations/boards declared equal pay for men and women players in October 2022?
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Answer: (B) Board of Control for Cricket in India

Explanation

The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) made a historic announcement in October 2022, declaring an equal pay policy for its centrally contracted male and female cricketers. This decision ensured that both men and women players would receive the same match fees across all three formats of the game (Test, ODI, T20I). The move aimed to promote gender equality and equity in sports.

22Polity and Governance
India’s territorial limit extends towards the sea up to how many nautical miles/km from the coast?
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Answer: (B) 12 nautical miles (about 21.9 km)

Explanation

India's territorial limit extends up to 12 nautical miles (approximately 22.2 kilometers) from the baseline, which is typically the low-water line along the coast. This boundary, known as the territorial sea, is defined under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) and grants the coastal state full sovereignty over its waters, airspace, seabed, and subsoil. The given option B, "12 nautical miles (about 21.9 km)", is the correct international standard and a close approximation.

23Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is false?
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Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation

Let's evaluate each statement. A square is a quadrilateral with four equal sides and four right angles. A rectangle is a quadrilateral with four right angles. Since a square satisfies the definition of a rectangle, "Every square is a rectangle" is true. A rhombus is a quadrilateral with four equal sides. A parallelogram is a quadrilateral with two pairs of parallel sides. Since a rhombus has opposite sides parallel, "Every rhombus is a parallelogram" is true. A square has four equal sides, satisfying the definition of a rhombus. Thus, "Every square is a rhombus" is true. As all statements A, B, and C are true, none of them are false. Therefore, the answer is E) None of the above.

24Polity and Governance
In a family of some persons, B says that R is the daughter of my sister A, who is the only daughter of T. X is the child of T and Z, who is the grandmother of H. K is the mother of M, who is the only sister of H. X is unmarried. If S is the spouse of A, how is K related to S?
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Answer: (A) Sister-in-law

Explanation

Let's break down the relationships: A is the only daughter of T. B is A's sibling, so B must be a son of T. X is also a child of T and Z, and since A is the only daughter, X must be a son. So, T and Z are parents to A (daughter), B (son), and X (son). Z is the grandmother of H. This means H is a child of A, B, or X. Since X is unmarried, H must be a child of either A or B. K is the mother of M, who is the only sister of H. If M were A's daughter, then K would be A, making K the wife of S. As "wife" is not an option, H and M must be the children of B and K. This aligns with Z being H's grandmother (Z is B's mother). S is the spouse of A.

Based on this, A is married to S, and B is married to K. Since A and B are siblings, B is A's brother. For S (A's husband), A's brother (B) is his brother-in-law. K is B's wife, which means K is the wife of S's brother-in-law.

25Polity and Governance
Who is the Head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group?
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Answer: (B) Yevgeny Prigozhin

Explanation

Yevgeny Prigozhin was the founder and prominent leader of the Wagner Group, a Russian state-sponsored mercenary organization. He gained significant international attention, particularly for the group's involvement in conflicts in Ukraine, Syria, and various African countries. His leadership was widely recognized until his death in August 2023.

26Polity and Governance
Which State Government launched the State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC), proposed by the national action for the protection of vultures in India?
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Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

In February 2023, the Tamil Nadu government launched the State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC). This committee was established as a step towards implementing the National Action Plan for Vulture Conservation (NAPVC) in India. The initiative aims to protect and conserve the dwindling vulture populations in the state and across the country.

27Polity and Governance
Which country has recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India?
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Answer: (A) USA

Explanation

The United States of America has consistently recognized Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India. In 2023, the US Senate passed a resolution reaffirming Arunachal Pradesh as Indian territory, condemning China's territorial claims and military aggression along the Line of Actual Control. This stance reinforces India's sovereignty over the northeastern state amidst geopolitical tensions.

28Polity and Governance
The National Education Policy, 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from which grade onwards?
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Answer: (A) Grade 6

Explanation

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 proposes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from Grade 6 onwards. The policy aims to expose students to various vocational skills early in their schooling, with a target of at least 50% of learners in school and higher education having exposure to vocational education by 2025. This move is designed to make education more holistic and prepare students for employment.

29Polity and Governance
The Plain Language Act was passed by which of the following countries recently which requires Government officials to use simple and easily understandable English language in official documents and websites?
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Answer: (C) New Zealand

Explanation

New Zealand recently passed the Plain Language Act in October 2022. This legislation mandates that government officials and agencies use simple, clear, and easily understandable English language in official documents and on websites. The aim of the Act is to make government information more accessible and comprehensible for the public, improving transparency and civic engagement.

30Polity and Governance
The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of
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Answer: (C) Ireland

Explanation

The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution was directly borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland. The framers of the Indian Constitution were inspired by the Irish model of 'Directive Principles of Social Policy' and adopted similar principles to guide the state in formulating policies for the welfare of the people and establishing a social and economic democracy.

31Polity and Governance
Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in
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Answer: (B) 1975

Explanation

Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in 1975. Initially, it joined India as an associate state in 1974 through the 35th Constitutional Amendment Act. However, following a referendum where the people of Sikkim voted overwhelmingly to join India, the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in 1975, making Sikkim the 22nd state of the Indian Union on April 26, 1975. This formally integrated Sikkim into the Indian federal structure.

32Polity and GovernanceBihar-specific
Bihar Government has planned to make Bihar State ‘pollution-free’ by reducing carbon emissions by which year?
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Answer: (C) 2030

Explanation

The Bihar Government has aimed to achieve a significant reduction in carbon emissions and move towards a 'pollution-free' status by the year 2030. This target aligns with broader national and international efforts to combat climate change and reduce environmental degradation. The state government has formulated various policies and initiatives to promote renewable energy, improve energy efficiency, and control industrial and vehicular pollution to achieve this ambitious goal within the stipulated timeframe.

33Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 are correct? 1. It was the first step that bifurcated Central and Provincial finances. 2. Provincial Governments were empowered to administer certain services. 3. It attempted to rectify existing imparity. 4. It focussed on the actual needs of the Provinces.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 marked the first step in financial decentralization in British India, effectively bifurcating Central and Provincial finances by assigning specific departments to provincial administration with fixed grants. Provincial governments were indeed empowered to administer services like jails, police, education, and roads. This measure aimed to rectify existing financial imbalances and encourage economy, focusing on the actual needs and priorities of the Provinces.

34Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the collegium system: 1. The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other seniormost Judges of the Court at that time. 2. The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system. 3. The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system. 4. The collegium system was introduced in the year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the landmark First Judges Case.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court collegium is indeed a five-member body consisting of the Chief Justice of India and the four seniormost judges of the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is incorrect as the collegium system evolved through Supreme Court judgments (Second and Third Judges Cases), not by parliamentary law. Statement 3 is misleading as judges are formally appointed by the President, although the collegium's recommendations are virtually binding. Statement 4 is incorrect; the collegium system was established in 1993 by the Second Judges Case, not by Justice P.N. Bhagwati or the First Judges Case.

35Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India: 1. It added three words to the Preamble—‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’. 2. It added eight Fundamental Duties to the Constitution. 3. It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 47. 4. It granted power to the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, to disqualify members of the State Legislatures. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation

The question asks which statements are INCORRECT. Statement 1 is correct: the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble and changed 'unity of the nation' to 'unity and integrity of the nation' (three words in total). Statement 2 is incorrect: the 42nd Amendment added ten Fundamental Duties under Article 51A, not eight. Statement 3 is incorrect: while Articles 39A and 43A were newly inserted as Directive Principles, Article 47 already existed in the original Constitution and was not added by this amendment. Statement 4 is correct as per the official answer key. Therefore, the incorrect statements are 2 and 3.

36Polity and Governance
The specifications required for a community to be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are 1. indications of primitive traits 2. distinctive culture 3. shyness of contact with the community at large 4. backwardness and geographical isolation
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The criteria for specifying a community as a Scheduled Tribe are well-established and include distinct indicators. These commonly accepted specifications encompass primitive traits, a distinctive culture that sets them apart, shyness of contact with the general community, and backwardness coupled with geographical isolation. All these characteristics collectively help in identifying and categorizing Scheduled Tribe communities for special provisions and protection.

37Polity and Governance
From which country, the Indian Constitution has taken reference for the idea of the Fundamental Rights?
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Answer: (B) United States of America

Explanation

The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution is significantly inspired by the Constitution of the United States of America. The framers of the Indian Constitution drew upon various sources globally, and the Bill of Rights in the US Constitution served as a key reference for enshrining these essential rights for Indian citizens.

38Polity and Governance
Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (C) Article 17

Explanation

Article 17 of the Indian Constitution explicitly abolishes "Untouchability" and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of "Untouchability" is an offence punishable in accordance with law. This article is a crucial part of the Fundamental Rights, promoting equality and social justice.

39Polity and Governance
The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rests with which of the following entities?
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Answer: (A) The President

Explanation

Article 216 of the Indian Constitution states that every High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other Judges as the President may from time to time deem necessary to appoint. This provision vests the authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court with the President of India, based on the workload and requirement.

40Polity and Governance
The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of which specific group of people?
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Answer: (C) Scheduled Tribes

Explanation

The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It provides for special provisions for these areas and communities in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, which are covered by the Sixth Schedule. Its purpose is to protect the cultural identity and economic interests of Scheduled Tribes.

41Polity and Governance
In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?
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Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India gave the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution for the first time in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala case in 1973. In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that while Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, it cannot alter or destroy its 'basic structure'. This doctrine acts as a limitation on the constituent power of Parliament, ensuring the preservation of fundamental constitutional principles. This judgment significantly shaped the constitutional landscape of India, establishing the judiciary as the interpreter and protector of the Constitution's core identity.

42Polity and Governance
Match the following political parties listed in List-I with their years of establishment in List-II: List-I (Political Parties) List-II (Years of Establishment) a. Communist Party of India (Marxist) 1. 1964 b. Communist Party of India 2. 1998 c. Bahujan Samaj Party 3. 1925 d. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) 4. 1984
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Answer: (A) a b c d 1 3 4 2

Explanation

The correct matching of the political parties with their years of establishment is as follows: The Communist Party of India (Marxist) was established in 1964, following a split from the Communist Party of India. The Communist Party of India itself was established in 1925. The Bahujan Samaj Party was founded in 1984 by Kanshi Ram. Lastly, the All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) was founded in 1998 by Mamata Banerjee. Therefore, the sequence a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2 correctly pairs each political party with its respective year of establishment.

43Polity and Governance
Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?
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Answer: (C) Article 120 (1)

Explanation

Article 120 (1) of the Indian Constitution empowers the Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) or the Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to permit any member who cannot adequately express themselves in Hindi or English to address the House in their mother tongue. While the primary languages for transacting business in Parliament are Hindi and English, this proviso ensures inclusivity and allows members from diverse linguistic backgrounds to participate effectively in parliamentary proceedings. This provision reflects the linguistic diversity of India and aims to facilitate wider participation.

44Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme: 1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines. 2. This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to benchmark the location and provides five centimetre level accuracy. 3. CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing. 4. The scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology.
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Answer: (A) 2 and 4

Explanation

The SVAMITVA scheme is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, not the Ministry of Mines, making statement 1 incorrect. The scheme does aim to create a geopositioning infrastructure, including a CORS (Continuously Operating Reference Station) network, to provide high accuracy (e.g., five-centimeter level) for mapping, which makes statement 2 correct. CORS, in this context, stands for Continuously Operating Reference Station, not Cross-Origin Resource Sharing, rendering statement 3 incorrect. Statement 4 accurately describes the scheme's objective: to establish clear property ownership in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas using drone technology, which is correct. Therefore, statements 2 and 4 are correct.

45Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, declaration of a financial emergency? 1. The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the State affairs. 2. Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President. 3. The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. 4. Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

During a financial emergency declared under Article 360, the President has extensive powers over financial matters of both the Union and the States. Statement 1 is correct as the President can direct States to reduce salaries and allowances of state employees. Statement 3 is also correct, allowing the President to issue directions for reducing salaries of Union employees, including Supreme Court and High Court judges. Statement 4 is correct because all Money Bills and other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are required to be reserved for the President's consideration. Conversely, statement 2 is incorrect because such bills are indeed required to be reserved for the President, not "not required". Thus, statements 1, 3, and 4 are the correct consequences.

Answer key

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  1. 1A
  2. 2C
  3. 3C
  4. 4B
  5. 5D
  6. 6D
  7. 7A
  8. 8E
  9. 9C
  10. 10E
  11. 11A
  12. 12A
  13. 13B
  14. 14C
  15. 15E
  16. 16B
  17. 17C
  18. 18C
  19. 19B
  20. 20C
  21. 21B
  22. 22B
  23. 23E
  24. 24A
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27A
  28. 28A
  29. 29C
  30. 30C
  31. 31B
  32. 32C
  33. 33D
  34. 34A
  35. 35B
  36. 36D
  37. 37B
  38. 38C
  39. 39A
  40. 40C
  41. 41B
  42. 42A
  43. 43C
  44. 44A
  45. 45A

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