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BPSC Prelims 2025 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 150 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

150
Questions
6
Subjects
25
Bihar-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology4027%
  • History3322%
  • Polity and Governance2517%
  • Geography2215%
  • Economy2013%
  • Art and Culture107%
1Science and Technology
In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and fourth word is different. Find the different one.
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Answer: (C) STETHOSCOPE

Explanation

Microscope, Telescope, and Periscope are all optical instruments that aid in vision by magnifying or allowing sight around obstructions. A Microscope helps see tiny objects, a Telescope helps see distant objects, and a Periscope allows viewing from a hidden position, typically using lenses and mirrors. A Stethoscope, however, is an acoustic medical instrument used for listening to internal body sounds, such as heartbeats or breathing, and does not involve optical viewing. Therefore, Stethoscope is the different word among the given options.

2Science and Technology
SPRING is written in a code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be mentioned in that code language?
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Answer: (A) OMEFPA

Explanation

The coding pattern for SPRING to UNUFRC follows an alternating sequence of addition and subtraction to the letter positions in the alphabet. For the first letter, S (+2 positions) becomes U. For the second, P (-2 positions) becomes N. This pattern continues: R (+3) becomes U, I (-3) becomes F, N (+4) becomes R, and G (-4) becomes C. Applying this same pattern of (+2, -2, +3, -3, +4, -4) to the word MOBILE, we get M(+2)=O, O(-2)=M, B(+3)=E, I(-3)=F, L(+4)=P, and E(-4)=A. Thus, MOBILE is coded as OMEFPA.

3Polity and Governance
Mukesh said to his friend, "Rita is the mother of my son’s wife’s daughter". How is Mukesh related to Rita?
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Answer: (D) Father-in-law

Explanation

Let's break down the relationship described by Mukesh. "My son's wife" refers to Mukesh's daughter-in-law. "My son's wife's daughter" therefore means the daughter of Mukesh's daughter-in-law, which makes her Mukesh's granddaughter. The statement "Rita is the mother of my son's wife's daughter" implies that Rita is the mother of Mukesh's granddaughter. Since Mukesh's son's wife is the mother of his granddaughter, Rita must be Mukesh's son's wife, making her Mukesh's daughter-in-law. Consequently, Mukesh is Rita's father-in-law.

4Geography
Ram goes North, turn right, then goes right again and then goes to left. In which direction Ram is now?
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Answer: (A) EAST

Explanation

Ram begins by moving in the North direction. From this Northward path, his first right turn leads him to face towards the East. Subsequently, taking another right turn from the East direction changes his orientation to face South. His final movement involves turning left from the South direction. When one is facing South, a left turn points towards the East. Therefore, Ram's final direction is East.

5Polity and Governance
Writing in Alphabetical order, which name of the following will appear in the last?
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Answer: (B) Mohinder

Explanation

To determine which name appears last in alphabetical order, we compare them letter by letter. All names start with 'M'. Comparing the second letter, 'a' in Mahinder (A) and Mahendra (D) comes before 'o' in Mohinder (B) and Mohender (C). Between Mahinder and Mahendra, 'e' in Mahendra comes before 'i' in Mahinder. Between Mohinder and Mohender, 'e' in Mohender comes before 'i' in Mohinder. Thus, the full alphabetical order is Mahendra, Mahinder, Mohender, Mohinder. Therefore, Mohinder will appear last.

6Polity and Governance
Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder’s rank is 17th from the last, what is Nitin’s rank from the beginning?
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Answer: (D) 16th

Explanation

First, determine Joginder's rank from the beginning of the class. If Joginder is 17th from the last in a class of 39 students, his rank from the beginning is calculated as Total students - Rank from last + 1, which is 39 - 17 + 1 = 23rd. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder. Therefore, Nitin's rank from the beginning is Joginder's rank from the beginning minus 7, which is 23 - 7 = 16th.

7Science and Technology
If + means ×, × means -, ÷ means + and - means ÷, then 175 – 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 equals to:
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Answer: (A) 77

Explanation

Substitute the given symbol meanings into the expression. '+' means '×', '×' means '-', '÷' means '+', and '-' means '÷'. The original expression 175 – 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 transforms into 175 ÷ 25 + 5 × 20 - 3 × 10. Following the order of operations (BODMAS/PEMDAS), first perform divisions and multiplications: 175 ÷ 25 = 7, 5 × 20 = 100, and 3 × 10 = 30. The expression simplifies to 7 + 100 - 30. Finally, perform addition and subtraction: 7 + 100 = 107, and 107 - 30 = 77.

8Economy
Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four year’s time, Rahul will be 31. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?
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Answer: (D) 9, 50

Explanation

First, calculate Rahul's present age. If Rahul will be 31 in four years, his current age is 31 - 4 = 27 years. Since Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema, Seema's present age is 27 / 3 = 9 years. Next, find Laxmi's present age. Four years ago, Rahul's age was 27 - 4 = 23 years. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago, so Laxmi's age four years ago was 2 * 23 = 46 years. Therefore, Laxmi's present age is 46 + 4 = 50 years.

9Science and Technology
Find the missing number from the given alternatives: 28 | 20 | 7 84 | ? | 12 45 | 25 | 9
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Answer: (B) 35

Explanation

The pattern observed across the rows is consistent: the middle number in each row is obtained by dividing the first number by the third number, and then multiplying the result by 5. For the first row, (28 / 7) 5 = 4 5 = 20. For the third row, (45 / 9) 5 = 5 5 = 25. Applying this same pattern to the second row, we calculate (84 / 12) 5. This equals 7 5, which results in 35.

10Science and Technology
RAIN is written in a code as 8$%6$ and MORE is mentioned as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be mentioned in code language?
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Answer: (D) 8@7$%6$

Explanation

By comparing the given codes, we can deduce the individual letter codes. From RAIN = 8%6, we get R=8, A=, I=%, and N=6. From MORE = 7#8@, we get M=7, O=#, R=8, and E=@. The code for R is consistently '8'. To form the code for REMAIN, we combine these individual letter codes in order: R (8), E (@), M (7), A (), I (%), N (6). Thus, REMAIN is coded as 8@7%6.

11Polity and GovernanceBihar-specific
How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 37th National Junior Athletics Championship 2022?
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Answer: (B) 5

Explanation

In the 37th National Junior Athletics Championship (2022), Bihar players won 5 bronze medals.

12GeographyBihar-specific
Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi Mechi Link Project?
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Answer: (C) Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar

Explanation

The Kosi Mechi Link Project is a crucial river interlinking initiative in Bihar aimed at providing extensive irrigation benefits to agricultural lands. This project primarily targets the districts in the northeastern part of the state, which have historically faced challenges in irrigation. The districts specifically identified to receive significant benefits from the Kosi Mechi Link Project are Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, and Katihar, improving agricultural productivity in these regions.

13Art and Culture
Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?
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Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation

As of 2025, the Government of India has accorded Classical Language status to Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, Odia, Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese. In October 2024, five new languages — Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese — were added. Among the options, Telugu (A), Marathi (B), and Bengali (C) all hold Classical Language status, making D ('More than one of the above') the correct answer.

14GeographyBihar-specific
Which organisation recognized the Nagi bird sanctuary Site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?
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Answer: (C) Bird Life International

Explanation

The Nagi bird sanctuary Site, situated in Bihar, has been officially recognized as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA). This designation is made by BirdLife International, a global partnership of conservation organizations focused on the protection of birds, their habitats, and biodiversity worldwide. IBAs are internationally recognized sites critical for the conservation of global bird populations and overall biodiversity.

15Polity and GovernanceBihar-specific
Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organised?
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Answer: (B) Madhubani

Explanation

National Panchayati Raj Day is observed every year on April 24, commemorating the date the 73rd Constitutional Amendment came into force in 1993. For 2025, the national-level event was organised in Madhubani, Bihar. Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended the ceremony held in Madhubani, where awards were presented to best-performing gram panchayats across the country. Madhubani is also known for its traditional Mithila painting tradition, giving the venue added cultural significance for the occasion.

16Science and Technology
What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?
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Answer: (A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface

Explanation

The Lunar Trailblazer mission is a small, high-science-yield mission developed by NASA. Its primary scientific objective is to determine the form, abundance, and distribution of water on the Moon. The mission uses two instruments to detect and map water ice in permanently shadowed regions and observe how lunar water changes over the course of a lunar day.

17History
Afrikaners indicate the people:
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Answer: (C) The white minority group in South Africa

Explanation

Afrikaners are an ethnic group in Southern Africa, primarily residing in South Africa, who are descended from Dutch, German, and French Huguenot settlers. They are a white minority group in South Africa and speak Afrikaans, a Germanic language derived from Dutch, which developed in the country.

18Art and Culture
What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India?
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Answer: (B) Rajon ki Baoli

Explanation

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently undertook a significant conservation project on Rajon ki Baoli in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India. This 16th-century stepwell, located in the Mehrauli Archaeological Park in Delhi, is known for its architectural grandeur and historical importance, and the conservation efforts aimed to preserve its heritage.

19Polity and Governance
What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day in New York City?
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Answer: (B) Eric Adams

Explanation

New York City Mayor Eric Adams officially proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day. This declaration recognizes the profound contributions of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, a revered leader, social reformer, and principal architect of the Indian Constitution, to human rights, equality, and social justice.

20Art and Culture
What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?
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Answer: (C) United By Music

Explanation

"United By Music" was officially established as the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest by the European Broadcasting Union (EBU) in 2023. This slogan emphasizes the core message of the contest, which is to bring people and cultures together through the power of music, regardless of annual host city variations.

21Science and Technology
What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO?
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Answer: (A) It carried the NVS-02 satellite

Explanation

The GSLV-F15 mission is designated by ISRO to launch the NVS-02 satellite. NVS-02 is the second satellite in the second-generation NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) series, designed to provide advanced positioning, navigation, and timing services over India and its surrounding regions. This mission is part of ISRO's ongoing efforts to enhance India's independent satellite navigation capabilities.

22Polity and Governance
What is true of the 18th G20 Summit?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The 18th G20 Summit took place in New Delhi, India, on September 9-10, 2023, under the theme "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" (One Earth, One Family, One Future). Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, was the host city for the 19th G20 Summit in 2024, and its proposed theme was "Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet." Discussions on the taxation of billionaires were initiated by Brazil during its 2024 presidency, not during the 18th summit. Therefore, none of the given statements are true for the 18th G20 Summit.

23Geography
The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:
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Answer: (C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035

Explanation

The UN climate conference COP29, held in Baku, Azerbaijan, in 2024, reached a significant agreement on a new global climate finance goal. The outcome specifically calls on developed countries to collectively provide at least 300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035. This funding is crucial for developing countries to implement climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies, addressing the disproportionate impacts they face.

24Art and Culture
Awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, Han Kang’s novel ‘The Vegetarian’ won which other prestigious award?
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Answer: (C) International Booker Prize

Explanation

Han Kang, the acclaimed South Korean author who received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, gained significant international recognition for her novel ‘The Vegetarian’. This novel won the prestigious International Booker Prize in 2016, an award given to the best single work of fiction translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland. This achievement played a crucial role in introducing her work to a global audience.

25Geography
Which glacier of Nepal among the following has been declared ‘dead’ in May 2025?
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Answer: (B) Yala Glacier

Explanation

The Yala Glacier, situated in Nepal’s Langtang region, is one of the most intensively studied glaciers in the Himalayas. Scientific research has consistently highlighted its rapid melting, retreat, and significant mass loss over recent decades due to climate change. Although a precise official declaration of "dead" may vary, the Yala Glacier is widely considered to be functionally "dead" or in a terminal state, having largely lost its ability to accumulate new ice and sustain its mass.

26Economy
According to the UNDP Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?
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Answer: (A) 72 years

Explanation

According to the UNDP Human Development Report 2025, India's life expectancy increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to 72 years in 2023. This represents a significant improvement of over 13 years across three decades, reflecting gains in healthcare access, nutrition, and public health infrastructure. India's HDI rank also improved during this period, though the country remains in the medium human development category globally.

27Science and Technology
In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?
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Answer: (B) Paris

Explanation

The AI Action Summit, an international conference focused on driving global cooperation and concrete actions in artificial intelligence, is scheduled to be held in Paris in February 2025. This summit is organized by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) to bring together stakeholders from governments, industry, academia, and civil society to discuss key AI issues and foster responsible innovation. Paris is a significant hub for international policy discussions, making it a fitting venue for such a global initiative.

28Art and Culture
At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?
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Answer: (B) Poor Things

Explanation

Emma Stone won the Academy Award for Best Actress in a Leading Role at the 96th Academy Awards ceremony in 2024 for her critically acclaimed performance in the film Poor Things. In the film, she portrays Bella Baxter, a young woman brought back to life by an eccentric scientist, delivering a unique and compelling performance that garnered widespread praise. This marked her second Oscar win in this category.

29Art and Culture
Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?
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Answer: (C) Kutch Express

Explanation

At the 70th National Film Awards, which recognized films released in 2022 and were announced in 2024, the Gujarati film Kutch Express won the award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values. The film depicts themes tied to the Kutch region of Gujarat. Hellaro had won the same award at the 66th National Film Awards, while Chhello Show (Last Film Show) was India's official entry to the Oscars that year but won in a different category.

30Polity and Governance
Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?
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Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation

The Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024 recognized multiple individuals and an organization for their outstanding contributions. Among the recipients announced in August 2024 were Phuntsho Karma from Bhutan, honored for Holistic Education; the Rural Doctors Movement from Indonesia, recognized for Community Health; and Miyazaki Hayao from Japan, awarded for Animation and Artistic Vision. As all three listed options are indeed recipients of the 2024 award, "More than one of the above" is the correct choice.

31Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?
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Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation

Akashteer is indeed the Indian Army's new automated Air Defence Control and Reporting System, making it the core of their Air Defence (AAD) system. It is designed to seamlessly integrate various air defence sensors and weapon systems, thereby enhancing India’s larger C4ISR capabilities (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance). This integration facilitates a shift from a purely passive air defence approach to a more proactive and unified response against aerial threats. Since statements A, B, and C are all accurate descriptions of Akashteer's features and strategic importance, "More than one of the above" is the correct answer.

32Science and Technology
Which of the following defence platforms are part of India’s growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?
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Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation

The F-35 Lightning II is an American stealth fighter jet and is not part of India's indigenous defence ecosystem. The Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun is an indigenously developed third-generation tank by India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Similarly, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) is a 155mm, 52-calibre howitzer developed by DRDO as part of the "Make in India" initiative. Therefore, both MBT Arjun and ATAGS are indigenous defence platforms, making "More than one of the above" the correct answer.

33History
Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?
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Answer: (B) January 27

Explanation

Holocaust Memorial Day is observed annually on January 27th. This date was chosen by the United Nations General Assembly to commemorate the liberation of the Auschwitz-Birkenau concentration and extermination camp by Soviet troops in 1945. It serves as a day to remember the victims of the Holocaust and other genocides, and to promote education about these atrocities.

34Art and Culture
What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?
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Answer: (B) Heart Lamp

Explanation

According to the premise that the 2025 International Booker Prize has been awarded, the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the prestigious award is titled "Heart Lamp". This prize recognizes the best single work of fiction translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.

35Polity and Governance
According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is not one of them?
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Answer: (A) Jhelum

Explanation

The Indus Waters Treaty, signed between India and Pakistan in 1960, allocates the three eastern rivers for India's exclusive use. These eastern rivers are the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. The Jhelum River, along with the Indus and Chenab, are classified as western rivers, primarily allocated to Pakistan, with India having limited non-consumptive use rights. Therefore, Jhelum is not one of the eastern rivers allocated to India.

36Economy
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP? 1) CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment. 2) Female illiteracy is included to reflect deprivation in education and knowledge. 3) It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capability poverty. 4) It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation

The Capability Poverty Measure (CPM), developed by the UNDP in its 1996 Human Development Report, focuses on three basic deprivations. These are measured by: the proportion of children under five who are underweight (child malnutrition), which reflects a lack of health and nourishment; the proportion of women aged 15 and above who are illiterate, reflecting deprivation in education and knowledge; and the proportion of births unattended by trained health personnel, reflecting lack of access to health services. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 (male illiteracy) and statement 4 (lack of access to clean drinking water) are incorrect components of the original CPM.

37Economy
Which of the following is not among the top ten principal commodities of India’s export during April-September 2024-25?
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Answer: (C) Basmati Rice

Explanation

India's principal export commodities generally include a range of petroleum products, engineering goods, gems and jewellery, drugs and pharmaceuticals, and iron and steel. While Basmati Rice is an important agricultural export product, it typically does not feature in the top ten principal commodities by overall value in India's total export basket, unlike industrial and refined products. Petroleum products and iron and steel consistently rank among India's major exports.

38Geography
According to India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):
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Answer: (C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation

According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, which is the latest report available as of early 2024 and from which trends are expected to continue, the total forest and tree cover of the country is approximately 24.62% of the geographical area, not 15%. The top states with the largest forest cover include Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh. However, the maximum tree cover has indeed been found in the State of Maharashtra, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

39Economy
Which of the following countries had greater share than India in the global services export in 2023?
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Answer: (B) Ireland

Explanation

In global services trade for 2023, countries like the USA, UK, Germany, China, and Ireland typically hold a larger share than India. India is a significant services exporter, especially in IT services, but its overall share is still surpassed by several advanced economies. Ireland, in particular, consistently ranks among the top global services exporters, often ahead of India, due to its role as a hub for multinational corporations in sectors like technology and financial services.

40Science and Technology
Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT about the U-WIN portal of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The U-WIN portal provides QR-based certificates, ABHA integration, and is available in 12 languages. Since all statements are correct, D is the correct answer.

41Polity and Governance
Which organization jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?
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Answer: (B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)

Explanation

The National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint was developed as a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) and the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA). NIUA is a leading national resource centre for urban development and research, making it a key partner in conceptualizing and designing digital solutions for urban governance and service delivery. This blueprint aims to create a shared digital infrastructure for Indian cities.

42Economy
Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31st October 2024?
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Answer: (A) Rajasthan

Explanation

As of the latest information regarding the Bharatmala Pariyojana's progress, Rajasthan consistently ranks among the states with the highest constructed road length. The project focuses on improving national highway efficiency, economic corridors, and connectivity for border and international trade routes. Rajasthan's vast geographical expanse and its strategic location contribute to its substantial share in the road construction under this scheme.

43Economy
Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?
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Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD

Explanation

Prior to the launch of the Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), the manual process for farmers to claim benefits under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes involved submitting claims to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). RBI handled claims for Commercial Banks, while NABARD managed claims for Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks. The KRP has been introduced to digitize and streamline this process.

44Economy
India’s foreign exchange reserves:
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Answer: (A) Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024

Explanation

India's foreign exchange reserves have demonstrated a consistent growth trend. As of the end of December 2024, projections indicate that the reserves are expected to increase to approximately USD 640 billion. This accumulation is primarily driven by factors such as strong capital inflows, a favorable balance of payments, and active management by the central bank to maintain financial stability and manage currency volatility.

45Economy
As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?
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Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation

According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) data for 2019-21, both Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh recorded less than 6% of their population as multidimensionally poor. Himachal Pradesh had one of the lowest multidimensional poverty rates in the country, and Jammu and Kashmir also featured among the regions with low poverty levels. Uttar Pradesh, in contrast, had a significantly higher percentage of its population living in multidimensional poverty during the same period.

46Economy
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Scheme/Initiative): a. Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme b. Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) c. The Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative d. National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) List-II (Description): 1. Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24 2. Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries 3. Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy 4. Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021
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Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a market-based mechanism designed to improve energy efficiency in energy-intensive industries, thus aiming to reduce emissions. The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) was a significant announcement made in the Union Budget for 2023-24, focusing on mangrove plantations. The Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative was launched by India at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021, promoting sustainable lifestyles. Lastly, the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy to tackle air pollution.

47Economy
According to Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:
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Answer: (A) There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22

Explanation

According to the latest available Annual Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) reports, particularly for 2022-23, there has been a notable increase in the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for rural females compared to urban females. For females aged 15 years and above, the LFPR in rural areas increased from 36.6% in 2021-22 to 41.5% in 2022-23, which is a significant jump of 4.9 percentage points. In contrast, for urban females, the LFPR increased from 24.0% to 25.4% during the same period, an increase of 1.4 percentage points. This indicates a much greater increase in the LFPR of rural females.

48Science and Technology
Which of the following was NOT the outcome of Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?
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Answer: (C) Atal Innovation Mission

Explanation

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) was launched by NITI Aayog in 2016 to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship across India. This initiative predates the Science, Technology and Innovation Policy (STIP) 2020 and was therefore not an outcome of it. In contrast, the "One nation, one subscription" model for scientific access and the establishment of Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF) were indeed key recommendations and envisioned outcomes of the STIP 2020.

49Economy
Share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from ____ in 2020-21 to ____ in 2022-23.
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Answer: (B) 27.3%, 30.1%

Explanation

The share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India's Gross Value Added (GVA) has shown an increasing trend in recent years. Specifically, the MSME sector's contribution to the country's GVA increased from 27.3% in the financial year 2020-21 to a provisional figure of 30.1% in 2022-23. This highlights the growing importance and contribution of the MSME sector to the Indian economy.

50Economy
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry? 1. The Indian cement industry is the largest in the world. 2. The Indian cement industry is the second largest in the world. 3. The Indian cement industry is the third largest in the world.
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Answer: (B) 2

Explanation

The Indian cement industry holds the position of being the second largest producer of cement globally, trailing only behind China. This significant capacity highlights India's crucial role in the global construction materials market and its substantial contribution to infrastructure development. Therefore, the statement that the Indian cement industry is the second largest in the world is correct.

51Polity and GovernanceBihar-specific
What is the primary objective of Bihar’s Mission Daksh?
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Answer: (C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.

Explanation

Bihar’s Mission Daksh was launched with the primary objective of enhancing the learning outcomes of academically lagging students in government schools. The program aims to identify students in grades 3 to 8 who are struggling to achieve grade-level competencies in subjects like Hindi and Mathematics. Through personalized mentoring and special classes conducted by teachers, Mission Daksh seeks to provide targeted support to these students.

52EconomyBihar-specific
Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?
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Answer: (C) International market expansion schemes

Explanation

The Bihar Startup Policy 2022 is built around the YUVA framework, which encompasses key areas to foster a robust startup ecosystem. YUVA stands for 'Young Innovators Entrepreneurship Development', 'Upliftment of Startup Ecosystem', 'Vibrant Ecosystem in Higher Education Institutions', and 'Accelerators, Mentors Angel Network'. International market expansion schemes, while a potential future goal for successful startups, are not listed as one of the foundational components under the YUVA framework itself.

53EconomyBihar-specific
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar’s economic performance in 2023-24?
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Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation

According to economic data for Bihar, both statements A and B are correct. Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices has shown robust growth, with figures like 12.8% being plausible for recent years' estimates. Similarly, the tertiary sector consistently contributes a significant majority to Bihar's GSVA, with figures around 58-60% at constant prices being typical. However, the Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) as a percentage of GSDP in Bihar is considerably higher than 4.6%, typically ranging from 25-30% in recent years, making statement C incorrect. Since A and B are correct, the answer is D (More than one of the above).

54EconomyBihar-specific
Consider the following statements: 1) The proportion of the young population (0-19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041. 2) Bihar’s demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041. 3) The elderly population (60+ years) in Bihar is expected to rise more sharply than in India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

Demographic projections for Bihar indicate a decline in the proportion of the young population (0-19 years) by 2041 as fertility rates continue to fall, albeit slowly, making statement 1 correct. Bihar is currently experiencing a demographic transition, and its demographic dividend, characterized by a large working-age population, is expected to peak around 2041, which is later than many other Indian states, making statement 2 correct. Statement 3 is not necessarily correct as the sharpness of the rise in the elderly population is complex and might not be steeper than the national average given Bihar's lagging demographic transition.

55EconomyBihar-specific
According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements best describe the nature of employment among women in Bihar?
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Answer: (B) The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.

Explanation

According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data for Bihar and India generally, a significant proportion of women, particularly in rural areas, are engaged in self-employment. This often includes working as unpaid helpers in household enterprises, such as agriculture or small businesses, which are not considered formal regular wage jobs. Therefore, statement B accurately describes the predominant nature of employment among women in Bihar as per PLFS reports.

56Polity and Governance
The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:
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Answer: (D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the people

Explanation

Article 98(3) of the Indian Constitution grants the power to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of the secretarial staff of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) to the President. This power is to be exercised after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People, until Parliament makes a specific law in this regard. This provision ensures the smooth functioning and staffing of the parliamentary secretariat.

57Polity and Governance
Attorney General of India:
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Answer: (B) He gives advice to the President on legal matters

Explanation

Article 76(2) of the Indian Constitution clearly outlines the primary duty of the Attorney General of India. It states that the Attorney General is responsible for giving advice to the Government of India on such legal matters, and for performing such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the President. Additionally, he discharges functions conferred on him by the Constitution or any other law.

58Polity and Governance
Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to concurrent list? 1) Protection of wildlife 2) Income on Agriculture 3) Tax on Electricity consumption or sale 4) Price control Out of these:
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Answer: (A) 1 and 4 are correct

Explanation

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists subjects under the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. "Protection of wildlife" (specifically, protection of wild animals and birds) is listed under Entry 17B in the Concurrent List, having been moved from the State List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. "Price control" is also explicitly mentioned under Entry 34 of the Concurrent List. Income on Agriculture and Tax on Electricity consumption or sale, however, fall under the State List.

59Polity and Governance
Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles? 1) Organization of Village Panchayats 2) Common Civil Code 3) Promotion of cottage Industry in rural areas 4) Right to work
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Answer: (C) 2 and 4

Explanation

Gandhian Principles in the Directive Principles of State Policy reflect Mahatma Gandhi's vision for rural upliftment, decentralized administration, and social equity. The organization of Village Panchayats (Article 40) and the promotion of cottage industries in rural areas (Article 43) are direct embodiments of Gandhian philosophy. In contrast, the Uniform Civil Code (Article 44) is considered a Liberal-Intellectual principle, and the Right to Work (Article 41) is generally categorized as a Socialist principle, neither of which directly aligns with Gandhian ideals.

60Polity and Governance
Which pair is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Administration of scheduled areas - 6th schedule

Explanation

The 5th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes across most states. The 6th Schedule, however, is specific to the administration of tribal areas in only four particular states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Therefore, the general statement "Administration of scheduled areas" is not solely and correctly matched with the 6th Schedule; the 5th Schedule is more broadly applicable to scheduled areas.

61Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Central Government: 1) Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary. 2) Every Minister is allocated Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Out of these:
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Answer: (B) Only 2 is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Ministries and Departments are formed by the President under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Cabinet Secretary assists, but does not form them. Statement 2 is correct as Article 75 of the Constitution mandates that the President appoints other Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister, and this includes the allocation of specific ministries. Therefore, only statement 2 is true.

62Polity and Governance
What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?
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Answer: (A) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.

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Article 210 of the Indian Constitution specifies that business in a State Legislature shall be transacted in the official language(s) of the State, or in Hindi, or in English. Option A accurately reflects this constitutional provision. The Advocate General has the right to speak in the legislature but not to vote (Article 177). Discussion on the conduct of High Court judges is prohibited (Article 211). The validity of proceedings cannot be questioned on grounds of procedural irregularity (Article 212).

63Polity and Governance
The constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights but reasonableness must keep in mind that: 1. The restrictions must be necessary for the protection of the rights of others. 2. The restrictions must be proportionate to the end sought. 3. The restrictions must be reasonable in the light of the circumstances. 4. The restrictions must be in the public interest.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

When imposing reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights, the judiciary has evolved principles to test their validity. Statement 1, that restrictions must be necessary for the protection of the rights of others, is a key consideration. Statement 2, which states that restrictions must be proportionate to the end sought, encapsulates the doctrine of proportionality, a fundamental test used by courts to ensure that the impact of the restriction is not excessive in relation to the legitimate aim.

64Polity and Governance
Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the finance commission?
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Answer: (C) Parliament by act

Explanation

Article 280 (2) of the Indian Constitution explicitly grants Parliament the power to determine by law the qualifications requisite for appointment as members of the Finance Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected. This ensures that the criteria for appointing members of such a crucial body are established through legislative process.

65Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: 1) The summoning of the House means convocation 2) Prorogation ends a session 3) Dissolution terminates a House 4) Prorogation of a session can be effected by the leader of the House alone Out of these which is not true?
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Answer: (D) Only 4

Explanation

Statement 4 is not true. Prorogation, which ends a session of Parliament or a State Legislature, is formally done by the President (for Parliament) or the Governor (for State Legislature) on the advice of the Council of Ministers, not by the leader of the House alone. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct definitions related to parliamentary procedures: summoning is convocation, prorogation ends a session, and dissolution terminates the House.

66Polity and Governance
Who is empowered to review the financial position of the Panchayats?
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Answer: (D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor

Explanation

Article 243I of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Governor of a state shall constitute a Finance Commission every five years. The primary function of this Finance Commission is to review the financial position of the Panchayats. It also makes recommendations to the Governor regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees leviable by the state between the state and the Panchayats, the determination of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees which may be assigned to the Panchayats, and grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State.

67Economy
The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in: 1) Enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries 2) Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

The Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (Self-Reliant India Campaign) was launched with the vision of making India a self-reliant nation. Its objectives include boosting domestic manufacturing capabilities, promoting exports across various industries, and reducing India's reliance on imports. The scheme also includes various measures and incentives, such as production-linked incentive (PLI) schemes, designed to attract foreign investments and encourage domestic production, thereby fostering economic growth and job creation. Both statements accurately reflect the goals of the scheme.

68Polity and Governance
What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
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Answer: (D) To enable people to participate in development administration

Explanation

The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is to promote democratic decentralization and facilitate local self-governance. It aims to empower people at the grassroots level by enabling their direct participation in the planning, implementation, and monitoring of local development programs and administrative functions. This system ensures that decisions affecting local communities are made locally, thereby fostering greater accountability and responsiveness to the needs of the people. While other options like increasing agricultural production or employment can be indirect outcomes, direct public participation in development administration is the core objective.

69Polity and Governance
What is true about Censure Motion?
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Answer: (B) It is different from the No-confidence motion

Explanation

A Censure Motion is fundamentally different from a No-confidence Motion. A Censure Motion expresses strong disapproval of the policy or action of the government or a minister or a group of ministers for specific reasons, which must be stated. If passed, it does not necessarily lead to the resignation of the Council of Ministers. A No-confidence Motion, on the other hand, expresses a lack of confidence in the entire Council of Ministers and, if passed, compels the government to resign.

70Polity and Governance
Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both High Court and Supreme Court?
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Answer: (C) Protection of fundamental rights

Explanation

Both the High Courts and the Supreme Court have concurrent jurisdiction regarding the protection of fundamental rights. Under Article 32 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari) for the enforcement of fundamental rights. Similarly, under Article 226, High Courts are also empowered to issue these writs, and even other directions or orders, not just for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also for any other legal right.

71History
Which Indian leader for the first time used the ‘safety-valve theory’ to attack the Moderates in the Congress?
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Answer: (B) Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation

Lala Lajpat Rai was one of the prominent leaders to critically analyze the origins of the Indian National Congress through the 'safety-valve theory'. He presented this idea in his book "Young India" (1916), arguing that the Congress was founded by A.O. Hume with the British intent to provide a safe outlet for the rising political discontent among Indians, thereby preventing a potential rebellion. This theory was used to attack the moderate approach of the early Congress leaders, suggesting their movement was subservient to British interests.

72History
At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown on the occasion of his state entry into Delhi?
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Answer: (C) Lord Hardinge

Explanation

Lord Hardinge II was the Viceroy of India from 1910 to 1916. On December 23, 1912, during a ceremonial procession in Delhi marking the transfer of the capital from Calcutta, a bomb was thrown at him. This assassination attempt, known as the Delhi Conspiracy Case, was carried out by Indian revolutionaries led by Rash Behari Bose and Sachin Sanyal. Although injured, Lord Hardinge survived the attack.

73History
Who got an opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1911?
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Answer: (C) Har Dayal

Explanation

Lala Har Dayal, a prominent Indian nationalist and revolutionary, was offered and accepted a position as Professor of Indian Philosophy and Sanskrit at the University of California, Berkeley, in 1911. He lectured there for a short period, gaining a reputation for his intellectual prowess. However, his deep involvement in revolutionary activities and anti-British sentiments eventually led to his resignation and further political work abroad, including the founding of the Ghadar Party.

74History
Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the last decades of the 19th Century?
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Answer: (D) Theodore Beck

Explanation

Theodore Beck served as the Principal of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, Aligarh, from 1883 until his death in 1899. He was instrumental in shaping the political direction of the Aligarh movement. Beck actively encouraged Muslim communalism by advising Sir Syed Ahmed Khan and other Muslim leaders to refrain from joining the Indian National Congress and instead focus on establishing a separate political identity for Muslims, often aligning them with British interests against the emerging nationalist movement.

75History
'The Young India’, a Nationalist paper, was started by
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Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

'Young India' was a weekly journal published by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919 to 1931. He used this publication as a crucial platform to spread his unique ideology of non-violent resistance, Swaraj (self-rule), and various social and political reforms. Through its pages, Gandhi articulated his views on important national issues and educated the public about the principles and strategies of the Indian independence movement.

76History
Which Commission accentuated the discontent in all the political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member in it?
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Answer: (C) Simon Commission

Explanation

The Simon Commission, appointed in 1927 by the British government to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919 and propose constitutional reforms, caused widespread resentment in India. The commission consisted solely of seven British members, with no Indian representation. This exclusion of Indians from a body meant to determine India's future deeply offended all political groups and parties, leading to a complete boycott of the commission upon its arrival in India.

77History
Who assumed the command of the Indian National Army and gave famous battle cry, ‘Chalo Delhi’?
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Answer: (D) Subhash Chandra Bose

Explanation

Subhash Chandra Bose assumed the leadership of the Indian National Army (INA) in 1943 in Singapore, reorganizing and revitalizing it. Under his dynamic command, the INA became a powerful symbol of armed resistance against British rule. He famously gave the inspiring battle cry, "Chalo Delhi" (On to Delhi), motivating the soldiers to march towards India to liberate it from British control.

78History
“We shall either free India or die in the attempt …” who said it?
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Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

The powerful declaration, "We shall either free India or die in the attempt; we shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery," was famously uttered by Mahatma Gandhi. This stirring call to action was made during his speech at the Gowalia Tank maidan in Bombay (now Mumbai) on August 8, 1942, marking the launch of the Quit India Movement. It urged Indians to make the ultimate sacrifice for the nation's independence, embodying the 'Do or Die' spirit.

79History
Who raised the cry “Divide and Quit”?
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Answer: (B) M.A. Jinnah

Explanation

The slogan "Divide and Quit" was a political cry primarily associated with Muhammad Ali Jinnah and the All-India Muslim League. It emerged as a counter-demand to Mahatma Gandhi's "Quit India" movement. While the Indian National Congress demanded that the British 'Quit India' unconditionally, Jinnah and the Muslim League insisted on a prior division of India into separate Hindu and Muslim states ("Divide") before the British departed ("Quit"), reflecting their demand for Pakistan.

80History
Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions - India and Pakistan?
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Answer: (C) Indian Independence Act, 1947

Explanation

The Indian Independence Act, 1947, was the crucial legislation that formally provided for the partition of British India into two independent dominions: India and Pakistan. This Act was passed by the British Parliament on July 18, 1947, and it stipulated the end of British rule in India, the creation of two separate self-governing dominions, and the transfer of power to their respective constituent assemblies from August 15, 1947.

81HistoryBihar-specific
Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 in order to strengthen the activities of Home Rule League?
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Answer: (B) Annie Besant

Explanation

Annie Besant, a prominent leader of the Home Rule League, actively worked to establish and strengthen its branches across India. She visited Bihar in 1918 to further the activities of the Home Rule League in the region, presiding over a conference in Patna. Her efforts were crucial in popularizing the demand for self-rule.

82HistoryBihar-specific
Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in agreement between:
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Answer: (A) Indian Government and Gandhiji

Explanation

The Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in 1917 following Mahatma Gandhi's successful Satyagraha in the district. The committee was formed as a direct result of the agreement reached between the Indian Government (then under British rule) and Mahatma Gandhi, who represented the grievances of the indigo cultivators. Gandhi himself was a member of this investigative committee.

83HistoryBihar-specific
Who was the prominent leader of Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?
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Answer: (B) Sahajanand Saraswati

Explanation

Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the undisputed leader of the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar. He founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (BPKS) in 1929 to mobilize peasants against zamindari oppression and exploitation. His organizational skills and advocacy led to the widespread growth of the peasant movement, eventually culminating in the formation of the All India Kisan Sabha.

84HistoryBihar-specific
Who was murdered while hoisting the national flag under the area of Bikram Police Station?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

During the Quit India Movement in 1942, many individuals were martyred while attempting to hoist the national flag. At Bikram Police Station in Patna district, a young student named Mahendra Singh was killed by police firing while endeavoring to hoist the national flag. Since Mahendra Singh is not listed among the given options, "None of the above" is the correct choice.

85HistoryBihar-specific
Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
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Answer: (C) Shri Krishna Singh

Explanation

Shri Krishna Singh (also known as Shri Krishna Sinha) became the first Premier (Chief Minister) of Bihar in July 1937 after the provincial elections held under the Government of India Act 1935. He continued to hold this position until his ministry resigned in October 1939 in protest against India's involvement in World War II. Therefore, in March 1939, Shri Krishna Singh was the Chief Minister of Bihar.

86History
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Places in Ancient India): a. Karnasuvarna b. Pragjyotish c. Girnar d. Pratishthan List-II (Present State): 1. Maharashtra 2. Gujarat 3. West Bengal 4. Assam Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Karnasuvarna was the capital of the Gauda kingdom, located in present-day West Bengal. Pragjyotish was an ancient kingdom in the region of modern Assam. Girnar is a historical site in Gujarat, famous for its rock edicts. Pratishthan, also known as Paithan, was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty, situated in present-day Maharashtra.

87History
Which one of the following is not related to the Rigvedic period?
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Answer: (B) Gargi

Explanation

Ghosha, Apala, and Vishvavara were all women sages or Rishikas mentioned in the Rigveda, known for composing hymns. Gargi Vachaknavi, however, was a prominent philosopher and debater during the later Vedic or Upanishadic period, known for her dialogues with Yajnavalkya described in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, not the Rigvedic period.

88History
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Event/Place): a. Chola Gangam Lake b. Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra c. Assembly at Prayag d. Sudarshan Lake List-II (Connected Person): 1. Chandragupta Maurya 2. Harshavardhan 3. Rajendra I 4. Ashoka Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

The Chola Gangam Lake was a massive artificial lake created by the Chola emperor Rajendra I. Dharma Mahamatras were special officers appointed by Emperor Ashoka to spread Dhamma and ensure public welfare. The Assembly at Prayag, a grand religious congregation, was famously organized by Emperor Harshavardhan every five years. The Sudarshan Lake was initially built by Pushyagupta, a governor under Chandragupta Maurya.

89History
Who among the following rulers, ruled for the maximum period?
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Answer: (C) Bahlol Lodi

Explanation

Among the given rulers, Bahlol Lodi ruled for the maximum period. Alauddin Khilji ruled from 1296-1316 (20 years). Muhammad bin Tughluq ruled from 1325-1351 (26 years). Bahlol Lodi ruled from 1451-1489 (38 years). Balban ruled from 1266-1287 (21 years).

90History
Consider the following dynasties of Ancient India: 1) Shunga 2) Maurya 3) Kushana 4) Kanva Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?
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Answer: (A) 2-1-4-3

Explanation

The chronological order of these ancient Indian dynasties is as follows: The Maurya Dynasty (c. 322-185 BCE) was succeeded by the Shunga Dynasty (c. 185-73 BCE). The Shungas were then followed by the Kanva Dynasty (c. 73-28 BCE). The Kushana Dynasty emerged later, ruling from approximately the 1st century CE to the 3rd century CE.

91Art and Culture
Which one of the following is not written by Tulsidas?
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Answer: (C) Sahitya Lahari

Explanation

Sahitya Lahari is a renowned literary work attributed to the famous Bhakti poet Surdas, known for his devotion to Lord Krishna. In contrast, Geetavali, Vinay Patrika, and Kavitavali are well-known compositions by Goswami Tulsidas, a prominent saint and poet who wrote in Awadhi and Brajbhasha, famous for his devotion to Lord Rama, most notably through his epic Ramcharitmanas.

92History
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Building): a. Kabuli Bagh Mosque b. Adhai Din Ka Jhopra c. Allahabad Fort d. Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum List-II (Builder): 1. Qutb ud-Din Aibak 2. Nur Jahan 3. Akbar 4. Babur Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (A) 4 1 3 2

Explanation

The Kabuli Bagh Mosque was built by Babur in Panipat. The Adhai Din Ka Jhopra, an early Indo-Islamic monument, was constructed by Qutb ud-Din Aibak in Ajmer. The strategically important Allahabad Fort was built by the Mughal emperor Akbar. The exquisite Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum, often considered a precursor to the Taj Mahal, was commissioned by Nur Jahan for her father Mirza Ghiyas Beg.

93History
Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Person Associated with
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Answer: (A) James Augustus - Calcutta Chronicle Hicky

Explanation

James Augustus Hicky is famously associated with starting "Hicky's Bengal Gazette" in 1780, which was the first newspaper published in India. The "Calcutta Chronicle" was a different newspaper that began publication later, founded by Francis Gladwin. The other pairs are correctly matched: Dayananda Saraswati authored "Satyarth Prakash", Ramaswamy Naicker was a leading figure of the Justice Party, and Jyotirao Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj.

94History
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Mughal Emperor): a. Babur b. Akbar c. Shah Jahan d. Jahangir List-II (Son): 1. Salim 2. Khusrau 3. Kamran 4. Murad Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2

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Babar was the father of Kamran, Humayun, Askari, and Hindal. Akbar was the father of Salim (who later became Emperor Jahangir), Murad, and Daniyal. Shah Jahan's sons included Dara Shikoh, Aurangzeb, Murad Baksh, and Shah Shuja. Jahangir was the father of Khusrau, Khurram (who later became Emperor Shah Jahan), Parviz, and Shahryar.

95HistoryBihar-specific
Which Buddhist council was not held in Bihar?
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Answer: (D) Fourth

Explanation

The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajagriha, the Second at Vaishali, and the Third at Pataliputra. All three of these locations are situated in the modern-day state of Bihar, India. However, the Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kundalvan, Kashmir, during the reign of Kanishka, placing it outside the geographical boundaries of Bihar.

96History
Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct? 1) He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Tripuri session of 1938 A.D. 2) He escaped from home internment in January 1941 A.D. 3) On October 21st 1943 A.D. he constituted the Provincial Government of India in Singapore.
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3

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Subhas Chandra Bose was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Haripura session in 1938, and subsequently re-elected at the Tripuri session in 1939. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect as it wrongly states the Tripuri session occurred in 1938. Statement 2 is correct; he famously escaped from house arrest in Calcutta in January 1941, beginning his 'Great Escape' disguised as Ziauddin. Statement 3 is also correct; on October 21, 1943, he proclaimed the establishment of the Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind) in Singapore, with himself as the head of state, prime minister, and minister for war and foreign affairs. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are accurate.

97HistoryBihar-specific
Who among the following was not an Acharya in The Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya?
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Answer: (B) Kautilya

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Kautilya, also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta, was an ancient Indian statesman and philosopher who served as an advisor to Chandragupta Maurya in the 4th-3rd century BCE. His famous work, Arthashastra, is a treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy. Nalanda University, on the other hand, flourished primarily from the 5th to the 12th centuries CE, centuries after Kautilya's time. Therefore, Kautilya could not have been an Acharya (teacher) at Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya. Nagarjuna, Sheelbhadra (Silabhadra), and Shantirakshit (Shantarakshita) were all prominent Buddhist scholars and Acharyas associated with Nalanda during its period of prominence.

98History
Consider the following events of Modern Indian History - 1) Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar 2) Treaty of Salbai 3) Battle of Wandiwash 4) Death of Tipu Sultan Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
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Answer: (B) 3-1-2-4

Explanation

To determine the correct chronological order, we must recall the approximate years of each event. The Battle of Wandiwash occurred in 1760, which was a decisive battle in the Third Carnatic War, establishing British supremacy over the French in India. The death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar, a prominent Bengali figure, took place in 1775, amidst controversies involving Governor-General Warren Hastings. The Treaty of Salbai, which concluded the First Anglo-Maratha War, was signed in 1782. Finally, Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore, died in 1799 during the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War. Arranging these events by year gives the sequence: 3 (1760), 1 (1775), 2 (1782), 4 (1799).

99HistoryBihar-specific
Among the following Newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to get published?
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Answer: (B) Patna Harkara

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The history of early journalism in Bihar indicates that 'Patna Harkara' was among the very first newspapers to be published in the region, with some historical accounts placing its publication as early as 1826. This makes it older than the other options. 'Akhbar-E-Bihar' started in 1856, generally considered the first Urdu newspaper from Bihar. 'Bihar Bandhu' was launched in 1872 (initially from Calcutta, then Patna in 1874) and is regarded as the first Hindi newspaper of Bihar. 'Bihar Herald', founded in 1875 by Guru Prasad Sen, holds the distinction of being the first English newspaper published from Bihar. Therefore, 'Patna Harkara' predates the others in overall publication history.

100HistoryBihar-specific
Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Event/Organisation): a. Champaran Satyagraha b. Azad Dasta c. Individual Satyagraha in Bihar 1940 d. Kisan Sabha Bihar List-II (Related Person): 1. Jayaprakash Narayan 2. Shyam Narayan Singh 3. Sahajanand Saraswati 4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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Answer: (D) 4 1 2 3

Explanation

The Champaran Satyagraha (a), initiated by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917, saw prominent local leaders like Dr. Rajendra Prasad (4) play a crucial role in assisting the farmers. Azad Dasta (b) was a guerrilla organization formed during the Quit India Movement in 1942, with Jayaprakash Narayan (1) emerging as its most significant leader after his escape from jail. The Individual Satyagraha in Bihar in 1940 (c) saw leaders like Shyam Narayan Singh (2) actively participating and leading the movement in various parts of the province. The Kisan Sabha Bihar (d), particularly the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha, was founded and extensively led by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati (3) from the late 1920s, advocating for peasant rights. Thus, the correct matching sequence is a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3.

101History
Maginot Line exists between which countries?
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Answer: (B) France | Germany

Explanation

The Maginot Line was an extensive line of concrete fortifications, obstacles, and weapon installations built by France in the 1930s. Its primary purpose was to deter a German invasion and force any attacking army to go around the fortifications, thereby allowing France time to mobilize its army. Therefore, it exists between France and Germany.

102Geography
Strait of Hormuz connects -
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Answer: (A) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically vital waterway that connects the Persian Gulf on one side to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea on the other. It is a narrow passage through which a significant portion of the world's oil supply passes, making it a critical choke point for international maritime trade.

103Geography
Where is “Ground Zero”?
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Answer: (B) New York

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"Ground Zero" is a term commonly associated with the site of the former World Trade Center towers in New York City, following the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks. This location in Lower Manhattan became the epicenter of the recovery and rebuilding efforts, and now hosts the National September 11 Memorial Museum.

104Geography
Which of the following Isthmuses has been known as the ‘Devil’s Neck’?
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Answer: (B) Kra Isthmuses

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The Kra Isthmus, located in southern Thailand, has historically been known as the ‘Devil’s Neck’. This narrow strip of land connects the Malay Peninsula with the mainland of Asia. Its strategic location and the challenging terrain for ancient travelers and traders contributed to its nickname.

105Geography
Ladang refers to -
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Answer: (A) Shifting Agriculture

Explanation

Ladang is a local term used primarily in Southeast Asian countries like Indonesia and Malaysia to refer to a specific type of agriculture. It is a form of shifting cultivation, also known as slash-and-burn agriculture, where small plots of land are cleared, cultivated for a few seasons, and then left fallow to regenerate before being used again.

106Geography
Which is the largest river Island in the world?
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Answer: (B) Majuli Island

Explanation

Majuli Island, located in the Brahmaputra River in Assam, India, is officially recognized as the largest river island in the world. It holds significant cultural and ecological importance, being a hub of Assamese neo-Vaishnavite culture. Its unique geographical formation attracts tourists and researchers alike.

107Geography
The second largest river basin of India is -
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Answer: (C) Godavari river basin

Explanation

The Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna basin is the largest river basin in India. Following this, the Godavari river basin is the second largest in the country, covering a vast area in peninsular India. It is a vital river system for irrigation and water supply in the states it traverses.

108Geography
Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?
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Answer: (D) Devprayag

Explanation

Devprayag is the sacred confluence point where the Alaknanda River meets the Bhagirathi River. This confluence is highly significant in Hindu mythology and is considered the place where the river officially takes the name Ganga. It is one of the five holy confluences known as the Panch Prayag.

109Geography
The two volcanic Islands in the Indian Territory are -
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Answer: (D) Narcondam and Barren

Explanation

The two volcanic islands in Indian territory are Narcondam and Barren Island, both situated in the Andaman Sea. Barren Island is notable for being India's only confirmed active volcano, with recorded eruptions in recent decades. Narcondam is classified as a dormant volcano.

110Art and Culture
The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?
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Answer: (D) Scissors

Explanation

The city of Meerut has a historical and renowned craftsmanship for making scissors, which has earned it a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. This recognition highlights the unique quality and traditional manufacturing process associated with scissors from Meerut, distinguishing them in the market.

111Geography
In India the Temperate Forest Research center is in which city?
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Answer: (A) Shimla

Explanation

The Temperate Forest Research Centre (TFRI) is a prominent institution dedicated to forestry research in temperate regions of India. It is located in Shimla, the capital city of Himachal Pradesh. This center operates under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India. Its mandate includes research on ecological restoration, biodiversity conservation, and sustainable management of temperate forest ecosystems.

112Geography
Kanha National Park is established in -
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Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Kanha National Park is a well-known national park and tiger reserve situated in the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh, India. It is renowned for its significant population of Royal Bengal Tigers, leopards, sloth bears, and various species of deer, including the rare hardground barasingha. The park's picturesque landscapes, comprising sal and bamboo forests, grasslands, and streams, inspired Rudyard Kipling's famous work, The Jungle Book. It was declared a national park in 1955 and a tiger reserve in 1973.

113Geography
'Loktak’ is a ___.
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Answer: (B) Lake

Explanation

Loktak is a large freshwater lake located in Manipur, Northeast India. It is particularly famous for its unique floating circular swamps, locally known as phumdis, which are a heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter. The Keibul Lamjao National Park, the world's only floating national park, is situated on these phumdis and is the last natural refuge of the endangered sangai, or Manipur brow-antlered deer. The lake is a Ramsar site and plays a crucial role in the ecological and economic life of the region.

114GeographyBihar-specific
Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?
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Answer: (A) Valmiki National Park

Explanation

Valmiki National Park is the only national park and tiger reserve in Bihar, India. Located in the West Champaran district, on the border with Nepal, it encompasses both a national park and a wildlife sanctuary. This area was designated as the Valmiki Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1990. It is a significant protected area known for its rich biodiversity, including tigers, leopards, bears, and various species of deer. The reserve plays a crucial role in conservation efforts in the Gangetic Plains.

115Art and CultureBihar-specific
Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?
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Answer: (B) Bull

Explanation

The state animal of Bihar is the Gaur, also known as the Indian Bison. The Gaur is the largest extant bovine native to South and Southeast Asia. While the official name is Gaur or Indian Bison, among the given options, "Bull" is the most appropriate and common general term for a male of this species, which is known for its imposing size and strength. Therefore, option B, Bull, correctly represents the state animal in a simplified context.

116HistoryBihar-specific
In which year, the Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar?
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Answer: (D) 2014

Explanation

Nalanda University, envisioned as an international institution and a revival of the ancient center of learning, was officially re-established under the Nalanda University Act of 2010. The university began its first academic session on September 1, 2014, making 2014 the year of its operational re-establishment in Bihar. It is located near the historic site in Rajgir.

117GeographyBihar-specific
Karmanasa river originates in -
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Answer: (A) Kaimur District

Explanation

The Karmanasa river is a significant river in eastern India, forming a boundary between the states of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. It originates in the northern part of the Kaimur range, specifically within the Kaimur District of Bihar. The river then flows generally northwest before joining the Ganges river near Chausa.

118EconomyBihar-specific
Bihar produces _____% of pyrite of whole India?
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Answer: (D) 100

Explanation

Bihar is the only state in India that produces pyrite, a mineral primarily used in the manufacture of sulphuric acid. The entire known reserves and production of pyrite in the country are concentrated within Bihar, predominantly in the Rohtas district. Therefore, Bihar accounts for 100% of India's pyrite output.

119GeographyBihar-specific
Gold is found in which district of Bihar?
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Answer: (B) Jamui District

Explanation

Significant reserves of gold have been identified in various parts of Bihar. The Jamui district has been found to possess the largest share of these gold reserves, particularly in areas like Sono. Geological surveys confirm the presence of gold-bearing ore in this region, making Jamui a key district for gold in Bihar.

120GeographyBihar-specific
Most of the Bihar comes under which of the following climate type?
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Answer: (A) Subtropical Monsoon

Explanation

Most of Bihar experiences a subtropical monsoon climate. This climate type is characterized by three main seasons: a hot dry summer, a wet monsoon season from June to September, and a cool dry winter. The state's location in the Gangetic plains and its dependence on the seasonal monsoon winds define this climatic pattern.

121Science and Technology
We apply a force of 200 Newtons on a wooden Box and push it on the floor at constant velocity. The marginal friction force will be:
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Answer: (B) 200 Newtons

Explanation

When a body is pushed on a floor at a constant velocity, its acceleration is zero. According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, the net force acting on the body must be zero (Fₙet = ma = m * 0 = 0). Since a force of 200 Newtons is applied, the friction force opposing the motion must be equal in magnitude to this applied force to maintain zero net force and thus constant velocity. Therefore, the friction force is 200 Newtons.

122Science and Technology
A truck starts from rest down a hill with a constant acceleration. It achieves 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the weight of the truck is 7 tons then what will be the force acting on it?
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Answer: (D) 14000 Newtons

Explanation

First, calculate the acceleration using the kinematic equation s = ut + (1/2)at². Given s = 400 m, u = 0 m/s (starts from rest), and t = 20 s, we get 400 = 0 + (1/2)a(20)², which simplifies to 400 = 200a, so a = 2 m/s². Next, convert the mass of the truck from 7 tons to kilograms: 7 tons = 7 1000 kg = 7000 kg. Finally, use Newton's Second Law, F = ma, to find the force: F = (7000 kg) (2 m/s²) = 14000 Newtons.

123Science and Technology
Energy consumed in a home is 250 units then the total energy in Joule will be:
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Answer: (C) 9 imes 10⁸

Explanation

One "unit" of energy consumed in a home typically refers to 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh). To convert kilowatt-hours to Joules, we use the conversion factor: 1 kWh = 3.6 x 10⁶ Joules. Therefore, 250 units of energy is equal to 250 kWh. Multiplying this by the conversion factor, we get 250 x 3.6 x 10⁶ Joules = 900 x 10⁶ Joules. This can be written as 9 x 10⁸ Joules.

124Science and Technology
In which medium, the speed of sound is maximum?
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Answer: (A) Steel

Explanation

The speed of sound depends on the density and elasticity (stiffness) of the medium. Sound travels fastest in solids, then liquids, and slowest in gases. This is because particles in solids are more closely packed and can transmit vibrations more efficiently. Among the given options, steel is a solid, water is a liquid, and air and hydrogen are gases. Therefore, the speed of sound is maximum in steel.

125Science and Technology
The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases.
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Answer: (B) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated

Explanation

When a body falls freely, its gravitational potential energy (which depends on its height) continuously decreases because its height decreases. Simultaneously, its speed increases, which means its kinetic energy increases. According to the principle of conservation of mechanical energy, in the absence of non-conservative forces like air resistance, the total mechanical energy (potential energy + kinetic energy) remains constant. The decrease in potential energy is exactly compensated by an increase in kinetic energy, thus the principle of conservation of energy is not violated.

126Science and Technology
A pair of Oxen exerts a force of 140 newton while ploughing the field. The field ploughed is 15 meter long. The work done in ploughing the length of the field is:
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Answer: (C) 2100 Joule

Explanation

The work done (W) is calculated by the formula W = Force (F) x Displacement (d). In this problem, the force exerted by the oxen is 140 Newton and the distance ploughed is 15 meters. Therefore, W = 140 N x 15 m = 2100 Joule.

127Science and Technology
The focal distance of a plane mirror is
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Answer: (D) Infinity

Explanation

A plane mirror can be considered a special case of a spherical mirror with an infinitely large radius of curvature. The focal length (f) of a mirror is half of its radius of curvature (R), i.e., f = R/2. Since the radius of curvature of a plane mirror is infinite, its focal length is also infinite.

128Science and Technology
Which term in the following does not denote the electric power in electric circuit?
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Answer: (B) IR²

Explanation

Electric power (P) in an electric circuit can be expressed in several ways based on Ohm's Law (V = IR). The common formulas for power are P = VI (voltage x current), P = I²R (current squared x resistance), and P = V²/R (voltage squared / resistance). The term IR² does not represent electric power and is dimensionally incorrect for power.

129Science and Technology
In short circuit, the value of electric current in a time circuit is:
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Answer: (C) Increases very high

Explanation

A short circuit occurs when there is a very low resistance path between two points in an electrical circuit that are meant to be at different voltages. According to Ohm's Law, Current (I) = Voltage (V) / Resistance (R). When the resistance (R) in a circuit becomes very low due to a short circuit, the electric current (I) increases very dramatically, often leading to overheating and potential damage.

130Science and Technology
What is the device to protect equipments from the electric shock?
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Answer: (A) Fuse

Explanation

A fuse is a safety device used in an electric circuit to protect electrical equipment from damage due to overcurrent. If the current flowing through the circuit exceeds a predetermined safe limit, the metallic wire in the fuse melts, thereby breaking the circuit and cutting off the power supply, preventing the equipment from being damaged by excessive current.

131Science and Technology
pH value of 0.1 HCl solution is approximately:
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Answer: (A) 1.0

Explanation

For a strong acid like HCl, the normality (N) is equal to its molarity (M) because it provides one H+ ion per molecule. A 0.1 N HCl solution means its molarity is 0.1 M. The concentration of hydrogen ions [H+] is therefore 0.1 M, which can be written as 10⁻¹ M. The pH is calculated using the formula pH = -log[H+]. Substituting the value, pH = -log(10⁻¹) = 1.0.

132Science and Technology
Which Compound is known as night glowing pigment from below?
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Answer: (A) Europium doped strontium aluminate

Explanation

Night glowing pigments are materials that exhibit phosphorescence, meaning they absorb light energy and then slowly re-emit it as visible light over a period, even after the light source is removed. Europium-doped strontium aluminate is a modern, highly efficient phosphorescent pigment known for its bright and long-lasting glow, making it a popular choice for glow-in-the-dark applications and safety signage.

133Science and Technology
Which Material is used for smart film?
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Answer: (A) Indium tin oxide

Explanation

Smart films, often utilized in smart windows or switchable glass, require transparent conductive materials to function. Indium tin oxide (ITO) is a well-established transparent conductive oxide that is widely used in these applications. It acts as an electrode, allowing for the application of an electric field across the active material within the film, thereby changing its optical properties like transparency or tint on demand.

134Science and Technology
Which metal compound is used for treatment of carcinoma?
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Answer: (A) Platinum

Explanation

Platinum-based compounds are a crucial class of chemotherapeutic agents widely used in the treatment of various types of carcinoma and other cancers. Drugs such as cisplatin, carboplatin, and oxaliplatin are well-known platinum compounds that work by cross-linking DNA within cancer cells, which ultimately inhibits cell division and leads to their death.

135Science and Technology
Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?
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Answer: (B) Levonorgestrel

Explanation

Contraceptive pills function by delivering synthetic hormones to prevent pregnancy. Levonorgestrel is a synthetic progestin hormone that is commonly used in various forms of contraception, including oral contraceptive pills (both combined and progestin-only), emergency contraceptive pills, contraceptive implants, and intrauterine systems (IUS). It primarily works by preventing ovulation and thickening cervical mucus.

136Science and Technology
Why oil is not stored in galvanized iron pot?
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Answer: (D) All of above

Explanation

Oil is not stored in galvanized iron pots because the zinc coating on galvanized iron can react with certain components in oil. This reaction can lead to the formation of toxic compounds, especially if the oil contains acidic impurities. Furthermore, the interaction can reduce the quality of the oil by causing degradation or promoting rancidity. Additionally, the zinc coating itself may corrode over time, contaminating the oil with corrosion products. Therefore, all the listed reasons contribute to why galvanized iron is unsuitable for oil storage.

137Science and Technology
Which compound is used for increase of octane rating?
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Answer: (C) Tetraethyllead

Explanation

Tetraethyllead (TEL) is a chemical compound that was historically widely used as an additive in gasoline to increase its octane rating. The octane rating is a measure of a fuel's resistance to knocking or pre-ignition in internal combustion engines. TEL was an effective anti-knocking agent, though its use has been largely phased out due to environmental and health concerns related to lead emissions.

138Science and Technology
Full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer:
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Answer: (C) Poly (3 - Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate)

Explanation

PHBV is a well-known biodegradable polymer. Its full form is Poly (3-Hydroxybutyrate-co-3-Hydroxyvalerate). This name indicates that it is a copolymer composed of two different monomer units: 3-hydroxybutyrate and 3-hydroxyvalerate. PHBV belongs to the class of polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs), which are naturally occurring polyesters produced by various microorganisms.

139Science and Technology
Hormones are secreted by:
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Answer: (D) Endocrine glands

Explanation

Hormones are chemical messengers that are secreted directly into the bloodstream to regulate various physiological processes. These secretions occur from specialized glands known as endocrine glands. Unlike exocrine glands, which release their secretions through ducts to external surfaces or into body cavities, endocrine glands are ductless and release hormones directly into the circulatory system. Reproductive glands are an example of endocrine glands that secrete hormones.

140Science and Technology
Which one of the following term characterizes the interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human?
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Answer: (D) Endoparasitism

Explanation

The interaction between the herpes simplex virus and a human is best characterized as endoparasitism. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they must live and replicate inside the cells of a host organism, deriving nutrients and resources from the host. In this case, the herpes simplex virus lives inside human cells and often causes harm, such as cold sores or genital lesions, fitting the definition of an endoparasite which lives within the host's body.

141Science and Technology
Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?
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Answer: (C) IgM

Explanation

IgM is the first class of antibody (immunoglobulin) produced and secreted by plasma cells in response to a primary infection. It is found predominantly in the blood and lymph fluid and is particularly effective at activating the complement system and agglutinating antigens. Its early production is crucial for the initial containment of pathogens.

142Science and Technology
The biological membranes are composed of:
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Answer: (A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle

Explanation

Biological membranes are complex structures primarily composed of a lipid bilayer, in which various proteins are embedded or associated. This lipid and protein composition is highly variable, being specific to the particular species, cell type, and organelle, allowing for diverse functions and properties. The fluid mosaic model describes this dynamic arrangement.

143Science and Technology
Which of the following is a non-sense codon?
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Answer: (A) UAA

Explanation

Non-sense codons, also known as stop codons, signal the termination of protein synthesis during translation. The three universal stop codons are UAA, UAG, and UGA. Among the given options, UAA is a non-sense codon. AUG, in contrast, is typically the start codon, coding for methionine.

144Geography
The species which are in danger of extinction are known as?
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Answer: (C) Endangered

Explanation

According to the IUCN Red List classification, species that are in danger of extinction are categorized based on their risk level. 'Endangered' species face a very high risk of extinction in the wild, signifying that their population numbers have declined severely or their habitat has been drastically reduced. 'Vulnerable' species face a high risk, while 'Extinct' species no longer exist.

145Economy
Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
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Answer: (A) Sugarcane

Explanation

Kharif crops are crops that are sown with the onset of the monsoon (usually June-July) and harvested after the monsoon rains (typically September-October). Sugarcane is predominantly a Kharif crop, as its main growth period relies heavily on the monsoon rainfall. Barley, Gram (chickpea), and Wheat are examples of Rabi crops, which are sown in winter and harvested in spring.

146Science and Technology
Xylem in plants is responsible for following function:
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Answer: (A) Transport of water and dissolved minerals

Explanation

Xylem is a complex vascular tissue in plants responsible for the long-distance transport of water and dissolved mineral nutrients from the roots to all aerial parts of the plant. This upward movement, driven by transpiration pull, is essential for photosynthesis, cooling the plant, and maintaining turgor pressure in cells. The primary components of xylem, such as tracheids and vessel elements, form a continuous system for efficient water conduction.

147Science and Technology
Who was first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?
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Answer: (C) A P de Condolle

Explanation

Augustin Pyramus de Candolle, a Swiss botanist, is widely recognized for being among the first to systematically use anatomical features, including the presence and characteristics of vascular tissues, in the classification of plants. In his influential work "Théorie élémentaire de la botanique" (1813) and later in his "Prodromus Systematis Naturalis Regni Vegetabilis," he classified plants into "vascular" and "cellular" groups, thereby highlighting the significance of internal structure for taxonomic purposes. This approach represented a shift towards a more natural system of classification.

148Science and Technology
The part which we eat in Mango is:
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Answer: (B) Mesocarp

Explanation

The mango fruit is classified as a drupe, which is characterized by a fleshy outer part surrounding a single hard shell (pit) containing the seed. The pericarp, or fruit wall, in a mango is differentiated into three distinct layers. The outermost layer is the epicarp, which is the peel. The innermost layer is the endocarp, which forms the hard, stony pit. The fleshy, juicy, and edible part of the mango that is consumed is the middle layer, known as the mesocarp.

149Science and Technology
Ozone day is celebrated on:
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Answer: (A) 16th September

Explanation

Ozone Day, officially known as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, is celebrated annually on 16th September. This date commemorates the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in 1987, a landmark international treaty designed to protect the Earth's ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances responsible for ozone depletion. The day aims to raise awareness about the importance of the ozone layer and the need for continued global cooperation to protect it.

150Science and Technology
In mycorrhizal association, the advantage of plant is:
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Answer: (D) Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection

Explanation

In a mycorrhizal association, which is a symbiotic relationship between a plant and a fungus, the plant derives several significant advantages. The fungal hyphae extend far into the soil, greatly increasing the surface area available for the plant's roots to absorb water and essential mineral nutrients, particularly phosphorus and nitrogen, which might otherwise be inaccessible. Additionally, the fungal partner provides protection to the plant roots against various soil-borne pathogens and diseases, thereby enhancing the plant's overall health and resilience.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2A
  3. 3D
  4. 4A
  5. 5B
  6. 6D
  7. 7A
  8. 8D
  9. 9B
  10. 10D
  11. 11B
  12. 12C
  13. 13D
  14. 14C
  15. 15B
  16. 16A
  17. 17C
  18. 18B
  19. 19B
  20. 20C
  21. 21A
  22. 22D
  23. 23C
  24. 24C
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27B
  28. 28B
  29. 29C
  30. 30D
  31. 31D
  32. 32D
  33. 33B
  34. 34B
  35. 35A
  36. 36A
  37. 37C
  38. 38C
  39. 39B
  40. 40D
  41. 41B
  42. 42A
  43. 43B
  44. 44A
  45. 45D
  46. 46C
  47. 47A
  48. 48C
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51C
  52. 52C
  53. 53D
  54. 54A
  55. 55B
  56. 56D
  57. 57B
  58. 58A
  59. 59C
  60. 60C
  61. 61B
  62. 62A
  63. 63A
  64. 64C
  65. 65D
  66. 66D
  67. 67C
  68. 68D
  69. 69B
  70. 70C
  71. 71B
  72. 72C
  73. 73C
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76C
  77. 77D
  78. 78B
  79. 79B
  80. 80C
  81. 81B
  82. 82A
  83. 83B
  84. 84D
  85. 85C
  86. 86B
  87. 87B
  88. 88A
  89. 89C
  90. 90A
  91. 91C
  92. 92A
  93. 93A
  94. 94B
  95. 95D
  96. 96B
  97. 97B
  98. 98B
  99. 99B
  100. 100D
  101. 101B
  102. 102A
  103. 103B
  104. 104B
  105. 105A
  106. 106B
  107. 107C
  108. 108D
  109. 109D
  110. 110D
  111. 111A
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114A
  115. 115B
  116. 116D
  117. 117A
  118. 118D
  119. 119B
  120. 120A
  121. 121B
  122. 122D
  123. 123C
  124. 124A
  125. 125B
  126. 126C
  127. 127D
  128. 128B
  129. 129C
  130. 130A
  131. 131A
  132. 132A
  133. 133A
  134. 134A
  135. 135B
  136. 136D
  137. 137C
  138. 138C
  139. 139D
  140. 140D
  141. 141C
  142. 142A
  143. 143A
  144. 144C
  145. 145A
  146. 146A
  147. 147C
  148. 148B
  149. 149A
  150. 150D

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