APPSC Group 1 Prelims 2024 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

All four statements regarding the late Harappan cultures are correct. During this post-urban phase, people lived in rural chalcolithic settlements using simpler stone and copper tools without complex casting, and excavations at Bhagwanpura in Haryana confirmed that burnt bricks were not used in this phase.

Explanation

The Later Vedic people (circa 1000 to 600 BCE) were acquainted with four distinct types of pottery. These four types of pottery include Black and Red Ware, Black Slipped Ware, Painted Grey Ware, and Red Ware. Among these, Red Ware was the most widely used and found extensively across western Uttar Pradesh, while Painted Grey Ware (PGW) was the most culturally distinctive and characteristic pottery of the Later Vedic era.

Explanation

The early Jainas discarded the Sanskrit language, which was primarily patronized by the Brahmanas, and adopted Prakrit, the language of the common people, to preach their doctrines. Their religious canonical literature (the Jaina Agamas) was written in Ardhamagadhi, a form of Prakrit.

The Jainas made extensive use of Apabhramsa, which evolved from Prakrit. Rather than avoiding it, they composed some of their earliest important literary works in Apabhramsa and also prepared its first grammar. Therefore, the statement claiming they never used Apabhramsa for their earliest important works is incorrect.

Explanation

Avanti is matched with Ujjain because Ujjain served as the capital of the northern region of this prominent central Indian Mahajanapada.

Koshala is matched with Shravasti because Shravasti was the highly prosperous capital city of the Koshala kingdom during the sixth century BCE.

Vatsa is matched with Kaushambi because Kaushambi, located on the banks of the Yamuna River, was the capital of the Vatsa Mahajanapada.

Anga is matched with Champa because Champa, located near modern-day Bhagalpur in Bihar, was the capital of the Anga Mahajanapada.

Explanation

The rock-cut elephant at Dhauli in Odisha is a prominent example of Mauryan rock-cut art. It was carved out of a solid rock face under the reign of Emperor Ashoka during the 3rd century BCE, representing one of the earliest known rock-cut sculptures in India.

The Didarganj Yakshi, discovered near Patna, is a world-renowned life-size sandstone sculpture traditionally associated with Mauryan folk or court art. It is highly celebrated for its exquisite polish and detailed sculpting.

The Great Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh was originally commissioned by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE to house the relics of Lord Buddha, establishing its origins firmly within the Mauryan period.

The 80-pillared hall at Kumrahar near Patna represents the remains of the massive audience hall or palace built during the Mauryan Empire, exhibiting the high level of architectural and engineering advancement of the Mauryan administration.

Explanation

The Shakas and Kushans, who migrated from Central Asia to the Indian subcontinent, significantly influenced ancient Indian attire, military technology, and culture. As nomadic horse-riding warriors, they introduced tailored, stitched garments and protective gear suitable for equestrian warfare. These introductions included trousers and sturdy boots, which were essential for riding horses on a large scale, as well as turbans, heavy long coats (tunics), and helmets for military protection. This marked a major transition in the subcontinent from purely draped clothing to structured, cut-and-sewn apparel.

Explanation

In the Satavahana administration, the military character of the rule is highlighted by the frequent use of terms like Katakas and Skandhavaras in their inscriptions. Katakas refers to permanent military camps or cantonments, whereas Skandhavaras represents temporary military camps or encampments. These military bases and settlements additionally served as temporary administrative centers when the king or his officers visited, helping to maintain administrative stability and security across the territory.

Explanation

Samudragupta adopted a unique policy of Grahana-Moksha-Anugraha during his South Indian campaign, which involved capturing, liberating, and then reinstating the defeated southern rulers as tributary vassals. He recognized that managing and directly administering territories so far south from his northern capital of Pataliputra was logistically and administratively impractical, so he chose not to permanently annex their kingdoms.

The defeat of the Western Sakas was accomplished much later during the reign of Chandragupta II, who conquered the Western Kshatrapas of Malwa and Gujarat and assumed the title of Sakari, meaning destroyer of the Sakas. Chandragupta I did not conquer or defeat the Sakas during his reign.

Explanation

In the Sangam society, the ancient Tamil grammar work Tolkappiyam outlines a fourfold social division in which the Vellalars constituted the class of landowning rich peasants and agriculturists. They occupied a highly influential position in the fertile agrarian plains, known as the Marudam region. The Vellalars managed agricultural production, held vast tracts of land, and frequently served as local chiefs or administrative officials. In the traditional social hierarchy of the Sangam era, they formed the fourth major caste.

Explanation

Sivaskandavarman is associated with Kanchi coming under the Pallavas as he was one of the prominent early rulers who established Kanchipuram as the core capital city of the expanding Pallava kingdom.

Vishnugopa of Kanchi was defeated by the Gupta emperor Samudragupta during his famous southern campaign, an event detailed in Harisena's Allahabad Pillar inscription.

Narasimhavarman I defeated the Western Chalukya king Pulakesin II in the Battle of Vatapi, leading to the destruction of the Chalukyan capital Vatapi and earning him the title Vatapikonda.

Nandivarman II was defeated by the Chalukya king Vikramaditya II, who captured the capital city of Kanchi but spared its cultural monuments, leaving a commemorative Kannada inscription on the Kailasanatha temple.

Explanation

The famous monolithic rock-cut Kailash temple of Shiva (Cave 16) at Ellora was built under the patronage of the Rashtrakuta king Krishna I, who ruled from 756 to 774 CE. Krishna III was a much later ruler of the dynasty who reigned during the 10th century (from 939 to 967 CE) and is chiefly known for his southern military campaigns and victory against the Cholas at the Battle of Takkolam.

Explanation

The medieval Chola Empire was founded by Vijayalaya Chola in 850 CE when he captured Thanjavur from the Muttaraiyar chieftains and established it as his capital. Parantaka I was a later ruler of the dynasty, reigning from 907 CE to 955 CE, and was the grandson of Vijayalaya, making the assertion that he founded the empire historically incorrect.

Explanation

The Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque, located within the Qutb Minar complex in Delhi, was built by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, the founder of the Mamluk (Slave) dynasty. Commenced around 1192 CE following the conquest of Delhi, the mosque stands as one of the earliest surviving examples of Islamic architecture in India, symbolizing the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate.

Explanation

Abdur Razzaq, a Persian Islamic scholar and Timurid chronicler, visited the Vijayanagara Empire in 1443 CE during the reign of Devaraya II. Sent as an ambassador by Shah Rukh, the ruler of Persia, Abdur Razzaq stayed at the capital and left a detailed account of the kingdom in his travel memoir, Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul-Bahrain. His writings provide a vivid description of the city of Vijayanagara, highlighting its grand architecture, seven concentric rings of fortifications, administrative structure, and flourishing trade.

Explanation

Vallabhacharya matches with Gujarat because his Pushtimarg (path of grace) sect gained widespread popularity and a primary base of followers in the Gujarat region. Tulsidas matches with Uttar Pradesh because he was a major Awadhi poet-saint who composed the epic Ramcharitmanas and lived primarily in Varanasi and Ayodhya. Sri Chaitanya matches with Bengal because he was a prominent saint of Gaudiya Vaishnavism who popularized public kirtan devotion to Krishna in Bengal. Tukaram matches with Maharashtra because he was a prominent 17th-century Varkari poet-saint who composed devotional Abhangas in Marathi.

Explanation

Sher Shah Suri introduced a highly organized land revenue system based on systematic survey and assessment.

Under this system, cultivable land was classified into three distinct categories based on its productivity: good, middling, and bad. The average yield of these three categories was calculated to determine the standard assessment, ensuring a fair taxation system.

To ensure accuracy and eliminate discrepancies, Sher Shah implemented a uniform system of land measurement. He introduced the Sikandari gaz, a standard measuring unit of 32 digits, and used a uniform measuring chain or rope called jarib to survey all agricultural lands.

The state demand was generally fixed at one-third of the average produce of the land, rather than one-fourth, which makes the third statement incorrect.

Explanation

All four of these Mughal structures were built during the reign of Emperor Akbar, who ruled from 1556 to 1605.

The Tomb of Humayun in Delhi was built between 1565 and 1572 under the reign of Akbar, commissioned by Humayun's chief consort Empress Bega Begum.

The Jami Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri was built by Akbar in 1571-1572 as the main congregational mosque of his new capital.

The Tomb of Salim Chishti was constructed by Akbar between 1580 and 1581 in the courtyard of the Jami Masjid at Fatehpur Sikri to honour the Sufi saint Salim Chishti.

The Buland Darwaza was erected by Akbar in 1601 at Fatehpur Sikri to commemorate his successful military campaign in Gujarat.

Explanation

Husain Ali Khan, along with his brother Abdullah Khan, was one of the Saiyid brothers who served as highly influential kingmakers in the late Mughal court.

Murshid Quli Khan was the first independent ruler of Bengal, appointed initially as the Diwan and later becoming the Nazim of the province.

Chin Qilich Khan, also known as Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah I, was the founder and ruler of the independent state of Hyderabad.

Safdar Jung succeeded Saadat Khan Burhan-ul-Mulk to become the second Nawab of Awadh.

Explanation

Rudradeva constructed the famous Thousand Pillar Temple in Hanumakonda in 1163 AD, representing a masterpiece of Kakatiya architecture.

Ganapatideva shifted the Kakatiya capital from Hanumakonda to Orugallu (Warangal) to facilitate better administration and defense of his expanding territories.

Rudramadevi was ruling the Kakatiya kingdom when the famous Venetian traveler Marco Polo visited the port town of Motupalli in coastal Andhra and wrote highly of her administration and wealth.

Prataparudradeva was the reigning Kakatiya monarch during the invasion of Warangal by Malik Kafur, the general of Delhi Sultan Alauddin Khalji, in 1309-1310 AD.

Explanation

The chronological sequence of the Later Mughal emperors follows their successive periods of reign after the death of Aurangzeb in 1707. Bahadur Shah I ruled first from 1707 to 1712. Jahandar Shah succeeded him, reigning from 1712 to 1713. Farrukh Siyar ascended the throne next, ruling from 1713 to 1719. Muhammad Shah followed with a prolonged reign from 1719 to 1748. Shah Alam II ruled much later, from 1759 to 1806.

Explanation

In Shivaji's administrative system of Ashtapradhan (council of eight ministers), the Dabir (also known as Sumant) served as the foreign minister and the master of royal ceremonies. His responsibilities included advising the king on foreign relations, war, peace, and diplomacy, managing interactions with foreign powers, and supervising royal protocol during official court ceremonies and state functions.

Explanation

The chronological order of the establishment of French settlements in India is as follows:

The French East India Company, founded in 1664 under King Louis XIV, set up its first trading factory at Surat in 1668 under the leadership of Francois Caron.

The foundation of Pondicherry was laid in 1673, and it was established as a prominent settlement in 1674 by Francois Martin, who became its first Governor.

The French acquired and established their trading post in Yanam in 1723.

The French settled in Mahe, located on the Malabar Coast, in 1725.

Karaikal was acquired by the French in 1739.

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie, during his tenure as Governor-General from 1848 to 1856, vigorously applied the Doctrine of Lapse to annex states whose rulers died without a natural male heir. Under this policy, the British refused to recognize adopted heirs to the throne. Satara was the first state annexed under this doctrine in 1848. Subsequently, Jhansi and Nagpur were both annexed under the same policy in 1854.

Explanation

Dayaram was an eminent 18th to 19th-century poet of the Gujarati language. Born in 1777 in Chanod, Gujarat, he is celebrated as the last major poet of the medieval school of Gujarati literature. He is renowned for his contributions to the Bhakti movement, particularly his lyrical and devotional songs known as Garbi, dedicated to the worship of Krishna under the Pushtimarg tradition of Hinduism. This makes his matching with the Marathi language incorrect.

Explanation

Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a towering figure of the Bengal Renaissance who made monumental contributions to the upliftment and empowerment of women in India. He championed the cause of female education, actively helping to establish numerous schools for girls, including the Bethune School in Kolkata. He also led a powerful, sustained movement against the prevailing social evils faced by widows, using ancient Hindu texts to argue that widow remarriage was sanctioned by scripture. His relentless advocacy and petitions to the government directly resulted in the enactment of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856. The Bengali weekly newspaper Sambad Kaumudi was actually founded and published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1821 to advocate for social reforms, not by Vidyasagar, making the third statement incorrect.

Explanation

The establishment of the first universities in India, namely the universities of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras, took place in 1857 during the tenure of Lord Canning, following the recommendations of Wood's Despatch of 1854. Lord William Bentinck served as the Governor-General of India from 1828 to 1835, meaning the creation of these universities occurred long after his tenure had ended.

Explanation

The extremist phase of the Indian national movement spanned from 1905 to 1920, a period characterized by militant nationalism, passive resistance, boycott, and a demand for Swaraj. All four listed events occurred within this timeframe under the prominent influence of extremist leaders such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai.

The Swadeshi Movement was launched in 1905 in response to the partition of Bengal and continued until 1911, serving as the starting point of the extremist era. The Surat Split of 1907 occurred when differences between the moderates and the extremists led to a formal division within the Indian National Congress. The Home Rule Movement was initiated in 1916 by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant to demand self-government within the British Empire. The Lucknow Pact of 1916 was a historic agreement that reunited the moderate and extremist factions of the Congress and established a joint platform with the Muslim League.

Explanation

Lord Irwin served as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1926 to 1931. The Simon Commission, appointed to look into constitutional reforms, arrived in India in February 1928. The Indian National Congress passed the historic Purna Swaraj resolution demanding complete independence during its Lahore session in December 1929. Mahatma Gandhi commenced the Dandi March on 12 March 1930 to initiate the Civil Disobedience Movement. All three of these landmark events occurred during Lord Irwin's administration.

Explanation

The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by revolutionaries including Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, and Ram Prasad Bismil. The objective of the organization was to establish a Federal Republic of the United States of India through an armed revolution. Sachindra Nath Sanyal drafted the constitution of the HRA, which was distributed widely in early 1925. Bhagat Singh and Chandra Shekhar Azad became active members of the organization subsequently, leading to the reorganization of the association into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in Delhi in 1928.

Explanation

Balwant Rai Mehta was a prominent leader of the Praja Mandal movement in Gujarat, not Madhya Pradesh. In 1921, he founded the Bhavnagar Praja Mandal in the princely state of Bhavnagar, Gujarat, to spearhead the freedom struggle and demand democratic reforms against princely rule. He was also a key member of the All India States People's Conference (AISPC) and later served as the second Chief Minister of Gujarat.

Explanation

Only III.

All political parties, whether in the ruling coalition or in the opposition, have their own Whips in the Parliament. The Whip is appointed by the party to manage legislative affairs, ensure the presence of party members during important discussions and voting, and maintain internal party discipline on the floor of the House.

Explanation

Under Indian parliamentary procedure, both Public Bills and Private Bills are subject to the same general legislative process. Every bill, whether introduced by a minister or a private member, must pass through the identical stages in both Houses of Parliament to become an Act. These stages consist of the First Reading, Second Reading, Third Reading, passage in the other House, and eventually obtaining the President's assent.

Explanation

Under Article 288(2) of the Indian Constitution, a state legislature may pass a law to impose or authorize a tax on water or electricity stored, generated, consumed, distributed, or sold by an authority established by an existing law or a law made by Parliament for regulating or developing an inter-state river or river-valley. However, the Constitution explicitly stipulates that no such law shall have any effect unless it has been reserved for the consideration of the President and received his assent. This makes the reservation of any State Bill attracting the provisions of Article 288 mandatory for its legal validity and implementation.

Explanation

Statement II is valid because certain public corporations, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), State Bank of India (SBI), Life Insurance Corporation (LIC), and Food Corporation of India (FCI), are audited entirely and exclusively by private professional auditors. For these organizations, the CAG has no audit jurisdiction or involvement, and their annual reports are submitted directly to the Parliament.

Statement IV is valid because Article 148 of the Constitution of India, which establishes the office of the CAG, does not prescribe any specific qualifications, criteria, or eligibility conditions required for a person to be appointed to this post. The determination of administrative and service conditions has been left to the Parliament.

Explanation

Under Article 279A(4)(d) of the Constitution of India, the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is constitutionally mandated to make recommendations to the Union and the States on the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from the Goods and Services Tax.

Explanation

Under Article 324(1) of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission of India is vested with the power of superintendence, direction, and control of the conduct of all elections to Parliament, the State Legislatures, and the offices of both the President and the Vice-President of India.

Explanation

Statement I is valid because the Punchhi Commission on Centre-State relations recommended that the Governor should be given a fixed tenure of five years and that the procedure laid down for the impeachment of the President, mutatis mutandis, should be made applicable for the impeachment of Governors by the State Legislature.

Statement III is also valid because the first Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966 was the first body to recommend the establishment of an Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution. Therefore, the Sarkaria Commission, which recommended it in 1988, was not the first to do so.

Statement II is invalid because under Article 357(2), any law made by Parliament with respect to any matter in the State List during President's Rule does not automatically become inoperative after the rule ends; rather, it remains in force until it is altered, repealed, or re-enacted by the State Legislature. Statement IV is invalid because Article 249 of the Constitution confers the exclusive power to pass a national interest resolution on State List subjects and Goods and Services Tax (GST) to the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha.

Explanation

Article 269 of the Constitution of India deals with taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States. These taxes include the tax on the sale or purchase of goods and the tax on the consignment of goods when such activities take place in the course of inter-State trade or commerce. Under Article 269(2), the net proceeds of these tax categories in any financial year do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India. Instead, they are assigned directly to the States within which the tax is leviable, in accordance with the principles of distribution formulated by Parliament by law.

Explanation

I, II and III. Statements I (CG can confer UT Ladakh HR functions on a State HR Commission per PHRA S.21(7)), II (NHRC has 2 knowledge/experience members per S.3(2)(d)), and III (President removes SHRC Chairperson with SC opinion per PHRA S.23) are correct. Statement IV is wrong: NHRC's time bar is ONE year, not two years (PHRA S.36(2)).

Explanation

Delimitation refers to the process of redrawing the boundaries of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly constituencies to ensure that each constituency represents an approximately equal population base. This direct correlation with population distribution upholds the democratic principle of one man, one vote by ensuring equal weight for every citizen's vote across different constituencies, making Statement I correct.

The Government of India is legally empowered to establish a Delimitation Commission for specific regions rather than the entire country at once. For example, in March 2020, a Delimitation Commission was constituted specifically to carry out delimitation in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the northeastern states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, and Nagaland. This makes Statement II correct.

The administrative and logistical operations of the Delimitation Commission are overseen by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice, which serves as its nodal ministry, making Statement IV correct.

Statement III is incorrect because the Delimitation Commission does not just redraw territorial boundaries; it is also mandated to identify and recommend the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes based on their demographic representation in the respective states.

Explanation

Statement I is valid. India's Act East Policy evolved from the Look East Policy, which was originally launched in 1991 primarily as an economic initiative to foster integration with Southeast Asian nations. Over the years, particularly since its upgrade to the Act East Policy in 2014, the scope has expanded significantly to encompass political, strategic, and cultural dimensions.

Statement II is valid. The Connect Central Asia Policy, launched in 2012, seeks to strengthen political, economic, security, and cultural relationships with the Central Asian countries. This policy has been further strengthened and structured with the institutionalization of the India-Central Asia Summit mechanism, the inaugural session of which was held in January 2022.

Statement III is invalid. While the Marine and Allied Interdisciplinary Training and Research Initiative (MAITRI) is a DRDO initiative aligned with the Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) framework, its goal is to establish long-term collaborations with countries in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) — such as Oman, Maldives, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore, Indonesia, and Myanmar — rather than countries in the East Asian region.

Statement IV is invalid. India's Think West Policy is a strategic outreach focused on deepening relations with the countries of West Asia (the Middle East), particularly the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries, Iran, and Israel. It does not refer to an outreach directed towards Western industrialized nations (such as Western Europe or North America) for education and defence.

Explanation

The Malabar Exercise is directly connected with the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD), also known as the Quad. Initially established in 1992 as a bilateral naval exercise between India and the United States, it was later expanded to include Japan as a permanent member in 2015. In 2020, Australia was invited to participate, bringing all four members of the QSD together for the exercise. This inclusion aligned the naval drill with the strategic maritime security cooperation objectives of the Quad nations in the Indo-Pacific region, emphasizing their shared commitment to a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific.

Explanation

I, II and III. Statement I wrongly says PM-AJAY targets ST (it targets SC); Statement II wrongly includes State Government in PM-SYM contributions (only beneficiary + Centre); Statement III wrongly names C-DAC as key implementing agency for FutureSkills Prime (NASSCOM is). Statement IV is correct.

Explanation

Only IV. Statement I is incorrect as Appropriation Acts lapse, they don't carry an 'automatic repeal clause'. Statements II and III are incorrect. Statement IV is correct.

Explanation

Statement III is valid because the Constitution of India does not prescribe a time limit within which the President must act on a bill, allowing the President to keep a bill pending indefinitely (Pocket Veto). In contrast, the American President possesses a Qualified Veto, which can be overridden by a higher supermajority of two-thirds in both houses of the legislature.

Statement IV is valid because the veto power acts as an essential instrument of checks and balances in a constitutional democracy. It prevents the legislature from passing hasty, ill-considered, or unconstitutional legislation, ensuring a balance of power between the office of the President and the Parliament.

Explanation

The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951 to shield progressive agrarian reforms and land tenure laws from being challenged in courts on the ground that they violated fundamental rights. Although its primary objective was to facilitate land reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system, its scope was subsequently expanded to include a wide array of other subjects, such as reservation laws, industry regulations, and trade measures.

Article 31B, which governs the Ninth Schedule, remains fully operative. The Supreme Court in the I.R. Coelho case (2007) did not strike down or render Article 31B inoperative; it simply clarified that any laws added to the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution. Furthermore, inserting any law into the Ninth Schedule requires a constitutional amendment, which can only be enacted by the Parliament of India through its legislative powers, rather than by an executive action or power of the Central Government alone.

Explanation

Only IV.

Under Article 1 of the Constitution of India, the expression "Territory of India" is wider in scope than the "Union of India".

The "Union of India" includes only the States, which act as federal partners sharing power with the Centre. Union Territories are not part of the "Union of India" because they are directly administered by the Central government rather than being partners in the federal system.

The "Territory of India" is a broader classification that encompasses the territories of the States, the Union Territories, and any other territories that may be acquired by India at any future time. Thus, Union Territories are covered under the "Territory of India" but not under the "Union of India".

This makes statement IV correct, while statement I is incorrect. Statements II and III are also incorrect because the term "Territory of India" is explicitly written in Article 1(3) of the Constitution, and the First Schedule details both States and Union Territories.

Explanation

Article 194 of the Constitution of India provides powers, privileges, and immunities to the State Legislatures and their members, while Article 361A provides immunity to the publication of substantially true reports of the proceedings of Parliament and State Legislatures. These provisions represent constitutionally sanctioned exceptions to the general rule of equality before the law, thereby indicating that equality under the Indian Constitution is not absolute.

In the case of Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1995), the Supreme Court of India upheld the validity of National Awards, such as the Bharat Ratna and Padma awards, and held that they do not violate Article 18. The Court observed that the concept of equality does not prohibit the recognition of merit. It distinguished permissible decorations based on merit and performance from hereditary titles of nobility, which create an artificial, privileged class of citizens and are prohibited.

Explanation

The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, constituted in 1976 to recommend constitutional reforms, explicitly recommended that Parliament should have the authority to impose penalties or punishments for non-compliance or refusal to observe any of the Fundamental Duties. This makes Statement IV correct.

Statement I is incorrect because the Fundamental Duties are applicable exclusively to the citizens of India and do not extend to foreigners.

Statement II is incorrect because the Justice Verma Committee (1999) did not recommend the blanket implementation of these duties regardless of legal provisions; instead, the committee identified and analyzed already existing legal provisions (such as the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, and the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972) that facilitate the enforcement of several Fundamental Duties.

Statement III is incorrect because the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case was decided in 1973, whereas Part IV-A (Article 51A) containing the Fundamental Duties was only introduced into the Constitution of India later through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.

Explanation

The chronological sequence of the additions and changes to the Directive Principles of State Policy through constitutional amendments is determined by their respective enactment years.

The addition of Article 48A, concerning the protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife, was made by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.

The addition of the second aspect to Article 38, which is Article 38(2) addressing the minimization of inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities, was done via the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1978.

The modification of the subject-matter of Article 45 to focus on early childhood care and education for children up to six years of age was enacted through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002.

The inclusion of Article 43B, promoting the professional management and democratic control of co-operative societies, was implemented by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2011.

This aligns the sequence as IV (1976), I (1978), II (2002), and III (2011).

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because in the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973, the Supreme Court declared the first provision of Article 31C as valid. It was only the second provision of Article 31C, which excluded judicial review by declaring that no such law could be questioned in any court, that was struck down as unconstitutional and invalid.

Statement II is incorrect because the Minerva Mills case of 1980 struck down the extension of the first provision of Article 31C, not the second. The Forty-second Amendment Act of 1976 had expanded the scope of the first provision to protect laws implementing any of the Directive Principles. The Supreme Court declared this expansion invalid, thereby restoring Article 31C to its original position where protection was restricted only to laws implementing Article 39(b) and (c).

Statement IV is incorrect because the present interpretation of harmonious construction is a departure from the principle established in the Champakam Dorairajan case of 1951. In the 1951 judgment, the Supreme Court held that Directive Principles were strictly subordinate and subsidiary to Fundamental Rights. The modern position emphasizes that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary parts of a single scheme and must be interpreted in harmony with each other.

Explanation

Under the proviso to Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India, certain constitutional amendments require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolutions to that effect before the Bill is presented to the President for assent. Once the consent of the required minimum number of States (which is half of the total number of States) is obtained, the constitutional requirement for ratification is fully satisfied. There is no constitutional requirement or time limit mandates that all State Legislatures must discuss, vote upon, or take action on the Bill.

Explanation

Under Article 368 of the Constitution, Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights, provided that such amendments do not alter, damage, or destroy its Basic Structure, as established in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

Furthermore, in the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that the limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is itself an essential element of the Basic Structure. Since Parliament's power is constitutional and not constituent, it cannot expand its own amending power so as to acquire the right to destroy the key features of the Constitution.

Explanation

Under Section 135A of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, members of Parliament enjoy freedom from arrest in civil cases during the session of Parliament, and also 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session. This privilege is granted to ensure that members are not prevented from performing their legislative duties. This protection is strictly confined to civil matters and does not extend to criminal cases or cases of preventive detention. In criminal matters, members of Parliament do not enjoy any special immunity from arrest, though the presiding officer of the House must be immediately informed about the arrest, detention, conviction, or release of any member.

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha enjoys equal status with the Lok Sabha in the consideration of reports of constitutional bodies. The report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is laid before both Houses of Parliament under Article 151, and both have equal powers to discuss and deliberate upon its findings.

Furthermore, the Rajya Sabha shares equal powers with the Lok Sabha in the approval of proclamations for all three types of emergencies. A proclamation of a National Emergency under Article 352, President's Rule under Article 356, or a Financial Emergency under Article 360 must be approved by both Houses within the constitutionally specified timeframes to remain in force.

Explanation

Loans from the State Government constitute a valid source of revenue for Panchayats as per the financial provisions enacted by State Legislatures under the constitutional framework of Panchayati Raj.

Under Article 280(3)(bb) of the Constitution of India, the Central Finance Commission recommends grants-in-aid to supplement the resources of the Panchayats, rather than redistributing central tax proceeds assigned to the States.

The devolution of state funds is governed by Article 243-H and Article 243-I, which rely on the recommendations of the State Finance Commission rather than allowing independent devolution under Article 243-I in its absence.

Internal Resource Generation, which involves raising revenues through local taxes, duties, tolls, and fees, is a power granted to all Panchayats under Article 243-H and is not restricted solely to Panchayats in Scheduled Areas.

Explanation

Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).. Assertion (A) is true as Gram Panchayats are often better placed for local resource collection. Reason (R) is true as Gram Panchayats have their own tax domain, explaining A.

Explanation

Only III. Statement I is false. Statement II is false due to the condition. Statement III is true. Statement IV is false. Only III is valid.

Explanation

The Law Commission of India is a non-constitutional and non-statutory executive body established by the Government of India to recommend legal reforms.

Statement I is incorrect because the Law Commission functions as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice, rather than a quasi-judicial body.

Statement II is incorrect because the Commission submits its reports and opinions directly to the Central Government, specifically the Ministry of Law and Justice, rather than communicating its opinion to the President of India.

Statement III is incorrect because the reports submitted by the Law Commission to the Government are subsequently laid before both Houses of Parliament.

Statement IV is incorrect because the Commission is empowered to undertake studies, research, and reviews of existing laws on its own initiative (suo motu), in addition to the references made to it by the Central Government.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the term democratic in the Preamble signifies a democratic polity based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, encompassing political, social, and economic democracy. It is not a blend of British Fabian Socialism and American Populism. Instead, the concept of democratic socialism in India is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards Gandhian socialism.

Statement II is incorrect because the term Republic signifies that the head of the state is elected (directly or indirectly) and does not hold a hereditary position. In India, the elected head of state is the President, not the Prime Minister (who is the head of government).

Statement III is incorrect because the concept of Liberty expressed in the Preamble is not absolute; it is qualified. It must be enjoyed within the limitations and reasonable restrictions set forth in the Constitution itself.

Statement IV is incorrect because the term Fraternity in the original 1950 Constitution assured two things: the dignity of the individual and the unity of the nation. The 42nd Amendment of 1976 added the word integrity to the clause, but fraternity never denoted the dignity of the individual only.

Explanation

Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) is the single largest component of India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Robust growth in PFCE indicates strong domestic consumer demand, which acts as a primary engine of economic expansion. Additionally, the fading of the El Nino weather pattern is crucial for Indian agriculture because it reduces the likelihood of monsoon disruptions and droughts. Favorable weather and improved soil moisture enhance the prospects for Rabi crops, which in turn boosts agricultural production, increases rural incomes, and strengthens overall economic growth.

Explanation

I and IV. Statement I (transfer from MeitY to Dept of Financial Services) and IV (UPI LITE X enables offline payments) are correct. Statement II is wrong (e-RUPI is person | purpose specific). Statement III is wrong (Hello! UPI is NPCI's own initiative, not private startups).

Explanation

I and IV. Statement II is incorrect (100 million international investors should be tourist arrivals). This eliminates options 1, 2, 3. Option 4 (I and IV) remains.

Explanation

I, II, III and V. Interim Budget FY25 green energy proposals include VGF for solar (I), coal gasification 100MT by 2030 (II), CBG blending in CNG/PNG (III), and bio-manufacturing payment security (V). Statement IV (biomass aggregation) is categorised separately. Image shows a tick next to option (1).

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey, the recovery and stabilization of India's external sector in FY24 were driven by a significant narrowing of the merchandise trade deficit. While global headwinds and weak international demand led to a moderation in India's merchandise export growth, this was accompanied by an even sharper decline in merchandise imports. The contraction in imports, driven primarily by falling global commodity prices such as crude oil, coal, and fertilizers, outpaced the deceleration in exports. This reduction in the trade deficit, coupled with robust services exports and steady remittance inflows, significantly improved the current account balance and strengthened India's external sector buffers.

Explanation

A simplified tax system lowers compliance and administrative costs for both businesses and the government, directly reducing the deadweight loss associated with complex taxation. By eliminating arbitrary exemptions, rebates, and multiple tax brackets, a simple tax structure minimizes distortions in resource allocation, ensuring that capital and labor are directed toward their most productive economic uses rather than tax-avoidance strategies. This optimization of resource efficiency leads directly to positive productivity gains. Since these improvements remove structural inefficiencies, they drive overall GDP growth and expand employment opportunities, making the reason a direct explanation of the assertion.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) covers both economic infrastructure projects (such as transport, energy, and water) and social infrastructure projects (such as education, health, and family welfare).

Statement II is incorrect because the NIP includes both greenfield (new) and brownfield (existing) projects with an estimated project cost of more than ₹100 crore each.

Statement III is correct as the central objective of the NIP is to showcase viable, investible infrastructure projects to domestic and global investors, thereby attracting investments into India's infrastructure sector.

Statement IV is incorrect because the India Investment Grid (IIG) continues to serve as the live online portal and platform hosting the NIP project database. Invest India maintains the IIG platform, and there is no cessation of IIG's role in facilitating the NIP.

Explanation

The majority of transactions reported on the electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) platform are intra-mandi, which means they are conducted within the same physical market yard. Inter-mandi and inter-state transactions remain minimal because of challenges such as lack of standardized assaying facilities, trust issues regarding commodity quality, logistical barriers, and varied local regulations. Thus, Assertion (A) is true.

The Model Agricultural Produce and Livestock Marketing (APLM) Act, 2017 was formulated by the Government of India to promote progressive agricultural marketing reforms. Its core focus is to eliminate fragmentation and facilitate a unified competitive market by promoting inter-mandi and inter-state trade, alternative marketing channels, private wholesale markets, and direct marketing, rather than focusing on intra-mandi transactions. Thus, Reason (R) is false.

Explanation

The primary strategic objective of the Asset Monetization Programme is to unlock the value of underutilized or mature public sector assets by leveraging private sector investments. It enables public asset owners to tap into innovative financial structures, such as Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs), Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), and other structured concession agreements. Through these instruments, capital from private sector investors, including institutional and retail investors, is mobilized to fund new infrastructure projects while keeping the ultimate ownership of the assets with the government. This structured transfer is done for a predefined, limited period rather than an indefinite period, ensuring public control over national assets while maximizing their economic efficiency and productivity.

Explanation

Statement II is correct because SEBI introduced a framework mandating that large listed corporates raise at least 25% of their incremental borrowings through the issuance of debt securities to encourage the growth of the domestic corporate bond market.

Statement I is incorrect because SEBI introduced and formulated regulatory frameworks for Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Municipal Bonds, rather than exempting them, to enable structured infrastructure financing.

Statement III is incorrect because SEBI decreased the minimum ticket size of corporate bond investments, reducing it from ₹10 lakh to ₹1 lakh and eventually down to ₹10,000, to enhance retail investor participation rather than increasing it.

Statement IV is incorrect because the Retail Direct Scheme was launched exclusively by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in November 2021 to allow retail investors to buy government securities directly.

Explanation

Assertion (A) is true because India Stack has built a robust, open-API digital infrastructure that facilitates online, paperless, and cashless transactions, making public and private services highly accessible. Through biometric-based digital authentication, the operational cost of conducting electronic Know Your Customer (e-KYC) processes has plummeted drastically from around ₹1,000 to less than ₹6.

Reason (R) is false because India Stack is composed of multiple layers rather than just two. It is built upon four primary layers: the Presence-less (Identity) Layer, the Paperless Layer, the Cashless (Payment) Layer, and the Consent Layer (also commonly structured as Identity, Payments, and Data Governance). The massive reduction in e-KYC costs is primarily driven by the Aadhaar-linked Identity Layer and Paperless Layer, rather than the Payment Layer, which is designed to handle transaction systems like the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

Explanation

During the fiscal year 2023-24, India's retail inflation was characterized by elevated food prices alongside a significant easing of core price pressures. According to the Economic Survey 2023-24, average consumer food inflation rose to 7.5% due to weather disruptions impacting crop yields. Headline retail inflation moderated to an average of 5.4%. Meanwhile, core inflation, which excludes volatile food and energy items, steadily declined to a four-year low of around 3.1% by the end of the fiscal year.

Explanation

Only II. Only Statement II (Bharat Atta initiative containing wheat inflation) is valid. Statement III is wrong (inflation moderated in early 2024); Statement IV is wrong (Bharat Dal was chana dal, not extended to moong dal). Page mark confirms option 4.

Explanation

Delivering excellence in customer service with digital enablement is indeed one of the four key themes conceptualized under the EASE 6.0 reforms. The other three themes of EASE 6.0 include digital and analytics-driven business improvement, tech and data-enabled capability building, and developing people and enhancing HR operations.

The other statements are invalid because EASE reforms are overseen by the EASE Steering Committee of the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) rather than a board of directors of premier financial institutions. Additionally, the EASE Next program is structured around multiple pillars, including the Common Reforms Agenda and bank-specific three-year strategic roadmaps, rather than a single priority. Finally, EASE reforms are exclusively designed for Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and do not apply to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).

Explanation

II and IV. Statement I is incorrect (only greenfield). Statement II is correct (non-individual eligible with 51% stake). Statement III is incorrect (up to 10 lakh is overdraft). Statement IV is correct (CGFSIL guarantee). Thus, II and IV are correct.

Explanation

Statement III is valid because the RBI's Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) has shown continuous and uninterrupted growth in each semi-annual release since its inception, rising steadily from its base value of 100 in March 2018.

Statement IV is valid because Consumer Centricity is one of the five major parameters defined by the RBI to measure digital payment penetration, carrying a weightage of 5% in the index.

The RBI-DPI was launched in January 2021 with March 2018 as its base period (index value = 100) and consists of exactly five broad parameters, which also include Payment Enablers (25%), Payment Infrastructure – Demand-side factors (10%), Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors (15%), and Payment Performance (45%).

Explanation

Tenor Premium is an important component in the calculation of the Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR). The Reserve Bank of India guidelines state that the MCLR comprises four components: marginal cost of funds, negative carry on account of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), operating costs, and tenor premium. The tenor premium is the premium charged for longer-term loans to compensate for the interest rate risk and credit risk associated with a longer holding period. Since the cost of lending varies with the tenure of the loan, the tenor premium is not borrower-specific but is instead uniform for all duties of a particular tenor, making it an essential factor in determining the final lending rate.

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) was launched in March 2020 as a comprehensive social welfare response to the COVID-19 pandemic. A central component of this package is the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), which ensures food security for the poorest households by providing additional free food grains (5 kg of rice or wheat per person per month) to beneficiaries covered under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013. Thus, the package directly includes the coverage of food grain entitlements to mitigate hunger and economic distress.

Explanation

The Urban Infrastructure Development Fund (UIDF) is designed to fund projects that align with the ongoing missions and programs of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Eligible activities eligible for financing under the UIDF include basic public services such as water supply, sewerage, solid waste management, sanitation, and drainage systems, ensuring that urban development in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities is coordinated with national urban planning goals.

Explanation

The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) is specifically designed to address capital inadequacy in the early stages of an enterprise. It provides financial assistance to startups for conducting proof of concept trials, prototype development, product trials, market-entry, and commercialization, helping them reach a stage where they can raise debt or equity from external investors.

The Fund of Funds Scheme (FFS) for Startups, which is managed by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), does not make direct equity investments in startups. Instead, it operates by contributing capital to various Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which then invest directly in high-potential Indian startups.

Explanation

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)..

National Product represents the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced in an economy during a specific period. National Income represents the sum of all factor incomes (wages, rent, interest, and profits) generated during this production process. In macroeconomic accounting, these two terms are synonymous and are used interchangeably because the monetary value of the total product is identically equal to the total factor incomes distributed.

This equivalence is directly explained by the circular flow of economic activity. The production of goods and services occurs through the combination of primary factors of production (labour and capital) along with intermediate inputs (raw materials). As these factors are employed to add value and create products, the value added automatically generates factor payments. Thus, the production of goods and services automatically generates equivalent income, making the reason both true and the correct explanation for the assertion.

Explanation

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) Agreement on Agriculture specifies domestic support reduction commitments in terms of the Total Aggregate Measurement of Support (Total AMS). This Total AMS is a single, consolidated monetary figure that sums up all product-specific and non-product-specific trade-distorting support (Amber Box support) provided to agricultural producers. Under the agreement, members committed to reducing this single aggregated figure over time.

For other domestic support measures under the WTO:

The Peace Clause established under the 2013 Bali Ministerial Decision protects developing countries from legal challenges even if they exceed their 10% de minimis ceiling limit on domestic support for public stockholding programs aimed at food security.

The Green Box covers programs that cause minimal or no trade distortion, which explicitly permits direct income support payments to producers provided they are decoupled from current production decisions.

The Blue Box is essentially an Amber Box support with conditions. Any trade-distorting support that would normally fall under the Amber Box is placed in the Blue Box if the support program also requires farmers to limit their production.

Explanation

Coal washing, or coal beneficiation, is the process of removing impurities such as ash, soil, and rock from raw coal to improve its calorific value and combustion efficiency. This process results in increased power generation efficiency, lower emissions, and reduced plant maintenance and operational costs. Despite these benefits, the usage of washed coal in India remains limited.

The main deterrent to the adoption of washed coal is the additional processing fee added by washeries, which increases the landed cost of the fuel. Under India's Merit Order Despatch (MOD) mechanism, distribution utilities purchase power from generating stations based on their variable cost of generation, prioritizing the cheapest units first. Generating companies fear that utilizing washed coal will inflate their variable generation costs, pushing them down or out of the merit order, and rendering their plants unscheduled. Thus, both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Explanation

I, II and IV. Statement II (NITI Aayog NIF) is clearly correct. Statement I (SDG 10 financial reform for equitable pay) is valid via targets 10.4/10.5. Statement III (Mission LiFE) mischaracterizes it as industrial/government policy reform. Statement IV (SDG 4 global citizenship) is included as correct by the exam.

Explanation

Statement IV is valid because the Planetary Pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI) accounts for ecological and carbon footprints to capture the environmental costs imposed on future generations, addressing intergenerational inequality. Conversely, the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) measures distribution disparities across health, education, and income within the current population, addressing intragenerational inequality.

Statement V is valid because the Human Development Report 2021–22 describes an emerging uncertainty complex that shapes contemporary global challenges. This complex is composed of three interconnected forces: destabilizing planetary changes of the Anthropocene, sweeping social transformations required to mitigate environmental pressures, and intensifying political and social polarization.

Explanation

Statement I is valid because the eSanjeevani telemedicine facility is implemented in all Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs) across Andhra Pradesh. Under this hub-and-spoke model, local wellness centres act as spokes that connect directly with specialist doctors stationed at district and zonal hubs to provide high-quality medical consultations in rural areas.

Statement III is valid because the state government revamped the Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Scheme by expanding its coverage. The annual family income eligibility limit was raised from ₹ 2.5 lakh to ₹ 5 lakh per annum, thereby ensuring that nearly 95% of families in the state are eligible to receive cashless tertiary healthcare.

Statement IV is valid as the Aarogya Aasara Scheme is specifically designed to provide post-operative sustenance allowance to patients following major surgeries. It offers a daily allowance of ₹ 225 up to a maximum of ₹ 5,000 per month during the doctor-prescribed recovery period, compensating for the wage loss of poor families.

Statement II is invalid because the Family Doctor Programme is not designed as a standalone project. It is fundamentally integrated with the existing network of Primary Health Centres (PHCs), wherein medical officers from the PHCs systematically visit villages and local health centres to deliver doorstep primary care.

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh's first riverine project has been proposed between Muktyala and Madipadu on the Krishna River to enhance inland water transport and regional connectivity, as highlighted in the state's budget and infrastructure plans.

Additionally, under the central government's Setu Bandhan Scheme, which is funded through the Central Road and Infrastructure Fund (CRIF), several Rail Over Bridges (ROBs) and Rail Under Bridges (RUBs) are being constructed on state roads across Andhra Pradesh. This initiative aims to replace busy railway level crossings with bridges, thereby enhancing road safety and reducing traffic congestion.

Explanation

I, II, III and V.

The Andhra Pradesh Industrial Development Policy 2023-27 outlines specific benchmarks and timelines. Under the first pillar of economic growth, the policy aims to achieve a minimum contribution of 30% by industry in the State GDP, making Statement I incorrect. The Single Desk Portal is designated to provide end-to-end clearance and facilitation within 21 working days rather than 2 weeks, which makes Statement II incorrect. The policy framework is built around nine pillars of accomplishment instead of ten, making Statement III incorrect. The policy successfully focuses on making the state a Plug-and-Play State for investments by creating standard design factory modules, making Statement IV correct. Finally, the land allotment by the Andhra Pradesh Industrial Infrastructure Corporation is designed to be completed within 21 days from the receipt of the application rather than 2 weeks, making Statement V incorrect.

Explanation

I, II and III. Statements I (1 MPTA H2 / 2 MTPA ammonia target) and II (NREDCAP as Nodal Agency) are correct per the AP 2023 policy. Statement IV (prohibition on third-party RE) is false. "I and II" is not an option; option 3 is the best fit.

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh was conferred the Banana Export Promotion Award, also recognized as the Best State Award, by the ICAR-National Research Centre for Banana (NRCB), Tiruchirappalli, for its remarkable achievements in banana cultivation and export promotion. The state successfully executed public-private partnership models, established dedicated post-harvest infrastructure, and flagged off India's first Fruit Train carrying banana consignments for international export.

For the comprehensive land resurvey under the YSR Jagananna Saswatha Bhu Hakku Bhu Raksha scheme, the Government of Andhra Pradesh partnered with the Survey of India to employ Continuously Operating Reference Stations (CORS) technology. Along with professional-grade drones and GNSS rovers, CORS base stations provide high-precision, real-time geolocational data to map land boundaries accurately and issue tamper-proof digital land titles.

Explanation

Batholiths are massive granitic bodies of intrusive igneous rocks that form deep within the Earth's crust when large chambers of magma cool and solidify.

Dykes represent discordant, vertical or near-vertical sheet-like igneous intrusions that cut across existing rock layers, forming wall-like structures as they cool perpendicular to the surface.

Sills are concordant, near-horizontal sheets of intrusive igneous rock that inject themselves parallel to the bedding planes of the surrounding sedimentary or volcanic layers.

The description given for phacoliths is incorrect because a phacolith is a lens-shaped pluton that specifically occupies the crest of an anticline or the trough of a syncline, whereas a large igneous mound with a dome-shaped upper surface and flat base describes a laccolith. This makes statements I, III, and IV correctly matched.

Explanation

According to standard geological data and Class XI NCERT Geography, silicon and oxygen are the fundamental elements common to all types of feldspar. Other elements such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and aluminium are found in specific varieties, depending on whether it is plagioclase feldspar or alkali/orthoclase feldspar. This makes Statement I correct.

Statement II is incorrect because feldspar alone constitutes about half (50%) of the Earth's crust. When combined with quartz, which accounts for about 12%, these two mineral groups make up nearly two-thirds (around 62%) of the Earth's crust, which is significantly more than one-fourth.

Explanation

Orogeny is a mountain-building process that involves severe folding, faulting, and deformation of the Earth's crust, leading to the formation of mountain ranges. The continent-building process is actually called epeirogeny, which involves the broad, gentle upliftment or subsidence of large parts of the Earth's crust without significant folding or deformation. This makes the statement characterizing orogeny as a continental building process incorrect.

Explanation

Soil-forming factors are categorized into active and passive factors based on their role in the process of pedogenesis. Active factors are those that directly supply energy and moisture to drive the physical, chemical, and biological processes of soil development. Climate and biological activity are the two active factors. Climate, through variables like temperature and precipitation, determines the intensity of weathering and moisture movement within the soil profile. Biological activity, including the work of plants, animals, and micro-organisms, contributes organic matter and drives nutrient cycling. Parent material, topography, and time are classified as passive factors because they serve as the passive conditions, templates, or timelines over which the active factors operate. Therefore, only climate and biological activity are active factors.

Explanation

Cirrus clouds are high, thin, detached, and feather-like in appearance, formed at high altitudes.

Cirrostratus clouds form a thin, white sheet-like layer that covers the sky, giving it a characteristic milky look and often producing halos around the sun or moon.

Cirrocumulus clouds appear as white patches of clouds with distinct ripples or waves, resembling the scales of a mackerel fish.

Cumulus clouds are dense, woolly, cotton-like clouds with a flat, horizontal base and dome-shaped tops, typical of fair weather.

Explanation

The doldrums, located in the equatorial low-pressure belt, are characterized by calm, light, and weak winds with prevailing vertical air currents rather than strong, rapid surface winds. The prevailing trade winds in the Northern Hemisphere blow from the subtropical high-pressure belt toward the equatorial low-pressure belt, and the Coriolis force deflects them to the right, resulting in a prevailing northeast direction rather than northwest.

Explanation

Extra-tropical cyclones are formed along polar fronts where warm tropical air masses meet cold polar air masses. Because they are born out of the interaction of these contrasting air masses, they always feature a well-developed and clear frontal system consisting of warm and cold fronts. This distinguishes them from tropical cyclones, which do not have fronts.

Explanation

The Mediterranean climate is characterized by hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters. During the summer, subtropical high-pressure cells dominate the region, bringing dry and warm conditions, which makes a dry hot summer a core characteristic. During the winter, the mid-latitude westerlies shift equatorward, bringing cyclonic precipitation and mild temperatures. Consequently, a dry winter, having no dry season, and a dry, very severe winter are completely contrary to the defining elements of this climate zone, meaning they are not characteristic features of the Mediterranean climate.

Explanation

A guyot, also known as a tablemount, is an isolated underwater volcanic mountain with a flat top. These structures initially formed as active volcanic islands rising above the sea surface. Over time, weathering, wind, and wave action eroded the exposed summits into flat, level platforms. As the underlying oceanic plate cooled, became denser, and moved away from the active tectonic spreading ridge, the island gradually subsided below sea level. This progressive subsidence preserved the flat-topped profile deep beneath the ocean surface, presenting clear evidence of the stages of tectonic movement and gradual sinking.

Explanation

Terrigenous deposits are sediment types derived from the erosion and weathering of land rocks. Due to their terrestrial origin, these materials are transported by rivers, winds, and glaciers, and are primarily deposited on the continental shelves close to the landmasses. Among these deposits, muds constitute the finest-grained particles, consisting of very fine silt and clay. The distinct colors of these muds, such as blue, red, or green, are a direct result of their chemical and mineralogical composition. Blue mud is characterized by the presence of iron sulfide, red mud contains hydrated iron oxides, and green mud contains glauconite, which is a silicate of iron and potassium.

Explanation

I, II and III.

The Great Rift Valley in East Africa is a massive tectonic trench that features a prominent series of lakes formed within the rift depressions.

Most of these lakes, particularly the largest and deepest ones like Lake Tanganyika and Lake Malawi, as well as other Western Rift lakes such as Lake Albert and Lake Edward, are freshwater lakes. This is in contrast to some smaller lakes in the Eastern Rift which are alkaline or saline.

Lake Malawi (also known as Lake Nyasa) is the southernmost of the major lakes within the East African Rift Valley system.

Lake Victoria is not geologically a part of the Rift Valley. Unlike the narrow, deep tectonic lakes of the rift system, Lake Victoria is a relatively shallow, wide basin situated on a high plateau between the Eastern and Western branches of the Rift Valley.

Explanation

Chile, Ecuador, Peru, and Colombia all possess coastlines along the Pacific Ocean. Chile occupies a long, narrow strip of land between the Andes to the east and the Pacific Ocean to the west. Ecuador is located on the northwestern coast of South America, directly facing the Pacific Ocean. Peru lies further south along the western edge of the continent, with its entire western border defined by the Pacific Ocean. Colombia is the only country in South America with coastlines on both the Pacific Ocean and the Caribbean Sea. Venezuela, located on the northern coast of the continent, borders only the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean, and has no Pacific coastline.

Explanation

The taiga biome, also known as the boreal forest, is characterized by a large annual temperature range rather than a narrow one. Winters in this biome are extremely cold and long, with temperatures frequently dropping well below -50°C, while summers are short and relatively warm, sometimes reaching over 30°C. This results in an extreme seasonal temperature variation.

Explanation

The Himalayas are geologically young and structurally fold mountains because they were formed during the Tertiary period by the collision of the Indian tectonic plate with the Eurasian plate.

Their width decreases from west to east, measuring around 400 km in the region of Kashmir and tapering to about 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh and the North-eastern states.

The fold structure of the Great Himalayas is highly asymmetrical because of the unequal tectonic forces acting during their upheaval, and the geological core of this loftiest range is primarily composed of granite.

The longitudinal valleys known as Duns, such as Dehra Dun and Patli Dun, lie between the Lesser Himalayas and the outermost Shiwalik range, not between the Greater and Lesser Himalayas.

Explanation

Koeppen's climatic classification of India categorizes regions based on temperature and seasonal precipitation. Monsoon with a short dry season (Amw) characterizes the West coast of India, south of Goa, where high rainfall occurs during the southwest monsoon with a brief dry winter. Monsoon with dry summer (As) represents the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu, which receives its rainfall from the retreating northeast monsoon in winter and remains dry during summer. Monsoon with dry winter (Cwg) is found across the Ganga plains and most of North-East India, experiencing dry winters and wet summers. Semi-arid Steppe climate (BShw) covers Northwestern Gujarat and the drier parts of Punjab and Rajasthan, characterized by low and seasonal rainfall.

Explanation

The ranking of these river basins is based on their respective catchment areas within Indian territory. The Indus basin covers approximately 321,289 km² within India. The Godavari basin covers about 312,812 km² inside Indian borders. The Krishna basin has an Indian catchment area of approximately 258,948 km². The Brahmaputra basin has a catchment area of about 194,413 km² in India, since a major portion of its drainage lies outside the country in Tibet and Bangladesh.

Explanation

Peaty soils are formed in areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, which support a rich growth of vegetation. Under these wet and humid conditions, a massive amount of dead organic matter accumulates without complete decomposition, resulting in a soil that contains a very high percentage of organic matter and humus, often ranging between 40% and 50%. These soils are typically heavy, dark or black in color, and highly acidic, commonly occurring in regions like northern Bihar, the southern parts of Uttarakhand, and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha, and Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

Shola forests are stunted tropical montane wet temperate forests found in the valleys of the high-altitude regions of South India, specifically in mountain ranges like the Nilgiris, Anaimalai, and Palani hills. These unique ecosystems are characterized by patches of evergreen forests situated in valleys, separated by rolling grasslands. The high altitude, low temperature, and high moisture levels of these regions support temperate vegetation, with dominant tree species belonging to families such as Myrtaceae, Lauraceae, and Symplocaceae.

Explanation

In Andhra Pradesh, the Dharwar rock system represents some of the oldest metamorphosed sedimentary and volcanic rock formations, dating back to the Precambrian era. These ancient rocks are primarily found in the Chittoor and Nellore regions, where they occur as prominent schist belts and isolated patches overlying the older Archean granite-gneiss basement. The Nellore schist belt is particularly well-known for its rich deposits of mica and other economically valuable minerals associated with these Dharwar-type formations.

Explanation

Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary matches with East Godavari because it is located in the deltaic region of the Godavari river in East Godavari district, boasting one of the largest stretches of mangrove forests in India.

Gundla Brahmeswaram Wildlife Sanctuary matches with Kurnool and Prakasam as it is nestled in the Nallamala Hills spreading across these two districts, harboring rich dry deciduous forests.

Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary matches with Kurnool because this grassland sanctuary is located in the Kurnool district, established primarily to protect the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard.

Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary matches with Kadapa since it is located in the Kadapa district and is renowned as the only habitat in the world for the highly endangered, nocturnal Jerdon's courser bird.

Explanation

Pygmies are matched with the Congo Basin, which is their primary habitat in Central Africa.

Masai are matched with East Africa, where they traditionally live as semi-nomadic pastoralists.

Semangs are matched with Malaysia, being an indigenous Negrito group of the Malay Peninsula.

Punan are matched with Borneo, where they traditionally live as nomadic hunter-gatherers in the interior rainforests.

Explanation

The Dardic (or Dardi) group of languages belongs to the Indo-Aryan branch of the Indo-Iranian subgroup, which is a part of the Indo-European language family. These languages, which include Kashmiri, are natively spoken across the northwestern regions of the Indian subcontinent, including parts of Jammu and Kashmir, northern Pakistan, and eastern Afghanistan, rather than belonging to the Sino-Tibetan language family.

Explanation

Ladang matches with Indonesia because it is the regional name for slash-and-burn agriculture in Southeast Asia, particularly Indonesia.

Milpa matches with Central America because this traditional farming method has been practiced extensively across Mexico and Central America for millennia.

Roca matches with Brazil because it is the localized name for shifting cultivation in South America, specifically Brazil.

Masole matches with the Congo basin because this term designates the traditional slash-and-burn agricultural method in the tropical forest regions of Central Africa.

Explanation

The Atlantic coast region of the United States constitutes a significant area for the iron and steel industry, utilizing coastal transport to import high-grade ores and export finished steel products.

The Ural region in Russia is exceptionally rich in mineral resources, serving as one of the country's preeminent metallurgical hubs with major production centers like Magnitogorsk.

The North-eastern and Central parts of the United Kingdom, including traditional areas in the Midlands and Yorkshire, have historically been the backbone of the British iron and steel industry due to their proximity to local coalfields.

The Ruhr region, however, is a major industrial and steel-producing basin located in Germany, which is in Western Europe rather than Eastern Europe.

Explanation

The Trans-Siberian Railway is the longest railway line in the world, spanning approximately 9,289 kilometres across the vast expanse of Russia. It connects the capital city of Moscow in western Russia with the port city of Vladivostok on the Pacific coast in the Russian Far East. Built between 1891 and 1916, this historic rail network crosses eight different time zones, serving as a vital transport corridor for both passengers and freight across the Eurasian continent.

Explanation

Punjab, Haryana, and Tamil Nadu are characterized by exceptionally high levels of groundwater utilization in India. In Punjab and Haryana, groundwater extraction significantly exceeds the annual replenishable groundwater recharge, leading to over-exploitation primarily due to intensive agricultural practices and the widespread cultivation of water-intensive crops like paddy and wheat. Tamil Nadu also exhibits a very high level of groundwater utilization to meet its vast agricultural, industrial, and domestic demands, resulting in a large number of its assessment units being categorized as over-exploited. In contrast, Odisha has a very low level of groundwater development, utilizing only a small fraction of its total replenishable groundwater resources.

Explanation

The black soil region of the Deccan is highly suitable for wheat cultivation. Along with the Ganga-Satluj plains in the northwest, the black soil region of the Deccan is one of the two major wheat-growing zones in India. Due to its high clay content, black soil has excellent moisture-retention properties, making it highly favorable for raising wheat as a rainfed crop during the dry winter season in states like Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Explanation

Digboi, Moran, and Naharkatiya are major oil fields located in the Brahmaputra Valley of Assam. Digboi, situated in the Tinsukia district of Assam, is the site of India's first commercially active oil well, which began production in 1889. Naharkatiya is located in the Dibrugarh district of Assam, close to the Burhi Dihing river, and started production in the 1950s. Moran, also known as the Moran-Hugrijan oil field, is another major oil-producing field located in Assam, lying southwest of Naharkatiya. Kalol is an oil field located in the Gandhinagar district of Gujarat.

Explanation

The Hugli basin in West Bengal is the primary hub of the jute industry in India, hosting the vast majority of the country's jute mills. The concentration of the industry in this region is driven by several favorable geographic and economic factors. The basin provides an abundant supply of water from the Hugli River, which is critical for the water-intensive retting process used to extract jute fiber. The surrounding areas of West Bengal, Bihar, and Assam offer ideal climate and fertile alluvial soil for high-yield jute cultivation, ensuring a steady supply of raw material. Additionally, the region benefits from inexpensive water transport along the river network, excellent connectivity via railways and roads, a large pool of cheap labor from neighboring states, and proximity to Kolkata, which acts as a major port for export and a financial center for trade.

Explanation

II and III only.

Coffee cultivation in Andhra Pradesh is a non-traditional commercial activity primarily practiced in the elevated, hilly forest tracts of the Eastern Ghats. These plantations are mainly concentrated in the agency areas of the erstwhile Visakhapatnam district (such as Araku Valley, Chintapalli, and Paderu, which are now part of the Alluri Sitharama Raju district) and the erstwhile East Godavari district (particularly in agency regions like Maredumilli). The high altitude, cooler climate, and shade canopy of these regions provide the ideal environment for growing Arabica coffee. The other erstwhile districts, West Godavari and Srikakulam, are largely coastal and plain regions characterized by other agricultural and horticultural crops, and do not feature main coffee plantations in their agency areas.