APPSC Group 12023General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

APPSC Group 1 Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 120 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

120
Questions
6
Subjects
17
Andhra Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance3933%
  • Economy3025%
  • History2823%
  • Geography2118%
  • Art and Culture11%
  • Science and Technology11%
1History
Which of the following incidents took place during the reign of Jahangir? I. The fifth Sikh Guru, Arjan Dev was sentenced to death II. Victory over Rajputs of Mewar III. 'Annexation of Kabul and Kandahar' IV. Arrival of English East India Company to India Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (D) I, II and IV only

Explanation

Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth Sikh Guru, was executed on the orders of Emperor Jahangir in 1606 for providing support and blessings to the rebel prince Khusrau. The long-standing Mughal conflict with Mewar concluded during Jahangir's reign in 1615, when Rana Amar Singh of Mewar submitted to Prince Khurram and signed a historic peace treaty. Additionally, the first representatives of the English East India Company, including Captain William Hawkins in 1608 and Sir Thomas Roe in 1615, arrived at Jahangir's court to secure commercial and trading concessions in India.

2History
Match the following revenue officials during the reign of Akbar with their duties: | | | |---|---| | a. Amalguzar | I. Kept records of the revenue payable by the villages | | b. Karkuns | II. Revenue Collector in-charge of a District | | c. Qanungo | III. Accountant. | | d. Bitikchi | IV. Prepared the seasonal crop statistics | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) II IV I III

Explanation

Amalguzar was the primary revenue collector in-charge of a district (sarkar).

Karkuns were pargana-level clerks responsible for keeping records and preparing the seasonal crop statistics.

Qanungo was a pargana-level officer who kept detailed records of land, crops, and the revenue payable by the villages.

Bitikchi served as an assistant to the amalguzar at the district level, working as an accountant or writer to prepare revenue-related documents and papers.

3History
The longest Trunk Road constructed by Shershah which still exists is
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Answer: (B) Indus to Sonargaon

Explanation

Sher Shah Suri, the founder of the Suri Empire in the 16th century, made substantial contributions to public infrastructure. The longest and most famous of his road construction projects is the Grand Trunk Road, which connected Sonargaon in Bengal (modern-day Bangladesh) with the Indus River in the west (modern-day Pakistan). This vital trade and military route was designed with roadside amenities like caravanserais (sarais), shade trees, and wells at regular intervals to facilitate secure transit across the subcontinent.

4History
Match the following books with their authors: | Column A | Column B | |---|---| | a. India at the Death of Akbar | I. Irfan Habib | | b. The Agrarian System of Mughal India, 1556 – 1707 | II. Francois Bernier | | c. Travels in the Mogul Empire: AD 1656 – 1668 | III. William Foster | | d. Early Travels in India, 1583 – 1619 | IV. Moreland | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (C) IV I II III

Explanation

IV I II III. a. India at the Death of Akbar - Moreland (IV); b. The Agrarian System of Mughal India - Irfan Habib (I); c. Travels in the Mogul Empire - François Bernier (II); d. Early Travels in India - William Foster (III). Option 3 matches this.

5History
The following historian contended that Taj Mahal is a combination of European and Asiatic genius:
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Answer: (C) V.A. Smith

Explanation

The British historian Vincent Arthur Smith (V.A. Smith) argued that the architecture of the Taj Mahal reflects a synthesis of Eastern and Western influences. He proposed that the masterly design of the monument resulted from the combined talents of European and Asiatic minds. Smith linked this view to theories of European involvement in the design and construction of the monument, specifically attributing elements of its design to European artists like the Italian Geronimo Veroneo, thereby contending that the Taj Mahal represents a combination of European and Asiatic genius.

6History
Match the following with the year they were formulated: | Column A | Column B | |---|---| | a. Famine Code | I. 1881 | | b. Vernacular Press Act | II. 1878 | | c. Charles Wood's Despatch on Education | III. 1883 | | d. 1st Factory Act | IV. 1854 | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (D) III II IV I

Explanation

a matches with III because the Famine Code was formulated in 1883 following the recommendations of the Strachey Commission of 1880 to guide famine relief efforts.

b matches with II because the Vernacular Press Act was enacted in 1878 under the viceroyalty of Lord Lytton to severely restrict the freedom of non-English language newspapers.

c matches with IV because Charles Wood's Despatch on Education, which set up a comprehensive scheme for education in India, was issued in 1854.

d matches with I because the First Indian Factory Act, aimed at improving the working conditions of labor and regulating child employment, was passed in 1881 under Lord Ripon.

7History
Arrange the following incidents of Rebellion against East India Company in the State of Hyderabad in chronological order: I. Attack of Turrebaz Khan on British Residence in Hyderabad II. Imprisonment of Mubariz-ud-Daula in Golkonda Fort III. In Aurangabad, Ist Contingent Cavalry was suspected, disarmed and arrested IV. The rebellion of Raja Venkatappa Nayaka of Shorapur Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) II, III, I, IV

Explanation

The correct chronological order of the rebellions against the East India Company in the region is:

First, the imprisonment of Mubariz-ud-Daula in Golkonda Fort occurred in 1839. Mubariz-ud-Daula, the step-brother of Nizam Nasir-ud-Daula, was arrested and confined to the fort for his involvement in the Wahhabi Conspiracy to overthrow the British, where he remained until his death in 1854.

Second, the 1st Contingent Cavalry was suspected, disarmed, and arrested in Aurangabad in June 1857. The cavalry members had shown signs of disaffection and refused to march north to fight against the mutineers of the 1857 uprising, leading to their disarming by British troops on June 23, 1857.

Third, the attack of Turrebaz Khan on the British Residency in Hyderabad took place on July 17, 1857. This assault was launched by Turrebaz Khan along with Maulvi Alauddin and local Rohillas to secure the release of Jamadar Cheeda Khan, who had escaped from the Aurangabad mutiny but was subsequently captured and held at the residency.

Fourth, the rebellion of Raja Venkatappa Nayaka of Shorapur took place in late 1857 and culminated in open military conflict in February 1858. The young ruler of Shorapur refused to accept British authority, raised an army of Rohillas and Arabs, and fought the British forces until the fall of Surapura Fort in February 1858.

This timeline establishes the correct chronological sequence as II, III, I, IV.

8History
Match the following Presidents of Indian National Congress with their meetings: | Presidents of Indian National Congress | meetings | |---|---| | a. Dadabhai Naoroji | I. Madras - 1887 | | b. Badruddin Tyabji | II. Bombay - 1889 | | c. George Yule | III. Allahabad - 1888 | | d. William Wedderburn | IV. Calcutta - 1886 | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (C) IV I III II

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji is matched with Calcutta in 1886 because he presided over the second session of the Indian National Congress, becoming its first non-Hindu president. Badruddin Tyabji matches with Madras in 1887 as he presided over the third session, making history as the first Muslim president of the Congress. George Yule is matched with Allahabad in 1888 because he was elected as the president of the fourth session, marking the first time a foreign national led the organization. William Wedderburn matches with Bombay in 1889 as he presided over the fifth annual session of the Congress.

9History
The following book was translated by Gandhiji with the title Sarvodaya :
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Answer: (A) John Ruskin - Unto This Last

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi read John Ruskin's Unto This Last in 1904 during a train journey from Johannesburg to Durban in South Africa. The book deeply influenced his thoughts on social and economic justice. In 1908, he translated Unto This Last into Gujarati under the title Sarvodaya, which means the welfare or advancement of all, capturing the core philosophy of universal upliftment.

10History
Match the following newspapers with the persons associated with them : | Column A | Column B | |---|---| | a. Indian Sociologist | I. Virendra Chattopadhyay | | b. Islamic Fraternity | II. Shyamji Krishna Varma | | c. The Talwar | III. Muhammad Barkatullah | | d. Swadesh Sevak | IV. G.D. Kumar | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) II III I IV

Explanation

Shyamji Krishna Varma started the monthly journal Indian Sociologist in London in 1905 to express revolutionary nationalist ideas.

Maulana Barkatullah edited the Islamic Fraternity, an anti-British revolutionary journal published from Tokyo, Japan.

Virendranath Chattopadhyaya was associated with publishing The Talwar, a revolutionary weekly newspaper produced from Berlin.

G.D. Kumar founded and edited the Swadesh Sevak, a Gurmukhi-language newspaper published from Vancouver, Canada, to awaken national consciousness among Indian immigrants.

11Polity and Governance
The idea of Indian Constituent Assembly was put forward for the first time by
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Answer: (D) M.N. Roy

Explanation

The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time in 1934 by Manabendra Nath Roy (M.N. Roy). He was a pioneer of the communist movement in India and a proponent of radical democracy. Following his initial proposal, the Indian National Congress formally adopted the demand for a Constituent Assembly in 1935 to draft a constitution for an independent India.

12History
Match the following authors with their works: | Author | Work | |---|---| | a. Al-Biruni | I. Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi | | b. Minhaj-us-Siraj | II. Tahqiq-i-Hind | | c. Ziauddin Barani | III. The Rihla | | d. Ibn Battuta | IV. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) II IV I III

Explanation

Al-Biruni, a renowned Persian scholar, authored Tahqiq-i-Hind, which offers a comprehensive and objective account of Indian society, religion, science, and philosophy during the eleventh century.

Minhaj-us-Siraj composed Tabaqat-i-Nasiri, an essential historical work written in Persian that provides a detailed history of the Islamic world and the early Delhi Sultanate up to the year 1260 CE.

Ziauddin Barani wrote Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi, which serves as a crucial primary source documenting the history of the Delhi Sultanate from the reign of Ghiyas-ud-din Balban to the early years of Firoz Shah Tughlaq.

Ibn Battuta, a Moroccan traveler who visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq, recorded his extensive travel experiences and observations of Indian administration and society in his famous travelogue, Kitab-ur-Rehla.

13History
Which of the following institutions were not established during the Non-Cooperation Movement? I. Besant Theosophical College, Madanapalle II. Jamia Millia Islamia, Delhi III. Kashi Vidyapith, Benaras IV. Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (D) I and IV only

Explanation

Besant Theosophical College, Madanapalle was established in 1915 by Dr. Annie Besant, which was well before the commencement of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920.

Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh originated from the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College founded by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in 1875 and was chartered as a university by the British government in 1920. It was not established as a nationalist education institution during the Non-Cooperation Movement; on the contrary, it was boycotted by nationalist leaders during the movement due to its pro-British government administration, which directly prompted the establishment of Jamia Millia Islamia as a national alternative.

14History
The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the House of Commons by the British Prime Minister Attlee on
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Answer: (C) 4th July, 1947

Explanation

The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the House of Commons by British Prime Minister Clement Attlee on 4th July 1947. The bill proposed the partition of British India into two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, from 15th August 1947. It was passed rapidly by both Houses of the British Parliament and received the Royal Assent on 18th July 1947, becoming the Indian Independence Act 1947.

15History
During the Indus Valley Civilization, the beads manufacturing industry was located at
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Answer: (C) Chanhudaro

Explanation

Chanhudaro, located in Sindh, Pakistan, was a major industrial hub of the Indus Valley Civilization dedicated almost exclusively to craft production. Archaeologists discovered extensive evidence of bead-making factories at this site, including finished and unfinished beads, bead-makers' tools, drills, furnaces, and raw materials such as carnelian, jasper, crystal, quartz, and steatite. In addition to bead manufacturing, Chanhudaro was renowned for shell-working, seal-making, and weight-making, establishing it as a preeminent manufacturing center of the Harappan era.

16History
Select the correct statements about religious beliefs of the Rig Vedic Period: I. Dyus was a celestial God of the Rig Vedic Aryans similar to Jupiter of the Greeks. II. Prithvi was considered as the mother of all Gods. III. Agni was worshipped as the intermediary of taking the offerings to the deities. IV. Cow sacrifice was also the part of worship.
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Answer: (C) I, III and IV only

Explanation

I, III and IV only.

In the Rig Vedic pantheon, Dyus (Dyaus Pita) represents the celestial sky-god, which is etymologically and functionally cognate with Zeus in Greek mythology and Jupiter in Roman mythology.

Agni, the god of fire, served as the primary mediator between humans and gods. He was worshipped as the intermediary who carried the sacrificial offerings made in the sacred fire to the celestial deities.

Sacrificial worship (yajna) in the Rig Vedic period involved animal sacrifices, including cow sacrifice (Gomedha) and bull sacrifice, which were performed to appease the gods and seek prosperity.

In contrast, Aditi is revered as the mother of all gods in Vedic literature, while Prithvi is worshipped as the goddess of the Earth who nourishes all living creatures.

17History
Match the following schools of philosophies with their theories: | Column I | Column II | |---|---| | a. Sankhya | I. Predetermined fate theory | | b. Vaisheshika | II. World was formed by the blending of nature | | c. Lokayata | III. Considered Atom as basis of the world | | d. Ajivika | IV. Advocated materialistic ideology | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) II III IV I

Explanation

The school of Sankhya, one of the oldest orthodox systems, posits that the universe is created by the coming together and blending of Prakriti (nature) and Purusha (consciousness), where Prakriti represents the material cause. Vaisheshika philosophy, founded by Sage Kanada, is known for its pluralistic realism and atomic theory, asserting that the physical universe is composed of indivisible, eternal atoms. Lokayata, also known as Charvaka, is a heterodox school of Indian philosophy that completely rejects spiritualism and advocates for a materialistic ideology where only what can be perceived by the senses exists. Ajivika, another heterodox school founded by Makkhali Gosala, is defined by its core doctrine of Niyati, which translates to absolute determinism or predetermined fate, holding that human effort has no impact on destiny.

18History
Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela gave the details of irrigation facilities provided in the Kalinga Region by
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Answer: (A) Mahapadmananda

Explanation

The Hathigumpha inscription, engraved in the Udayagiri hills near Bhubaneswar, is a major historical source for the reign of King Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty. The inscription records that King Nandaraja, identified by historians as the Nanda ruler Mahapadmananda, had excavated a canal in Kalinga three hundred years prior to Kharavela's reign. Kharavela brought the water from this ancient canal into his capital city, Kalinganagara, thereby restoring and extending the vital irrigation facilities created during the Nanda rule.

19History
Select the correct statements regarding the inscriptions of Ashoka : I. They are in Brahmi, Kharosthi, Greek and Aramaic scripts. II. The Monarch's name was mentioned as Ashoka only in Maski and Gurjara inscriptions. III. The XIII Rock edict mentioned the names of the five Greek Rulers as his contemporaries. IV. The IV and V edicts mentioned the war of succession with his brothers.
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Answer: (A) I, II and III only

Explanation

Statement I is correct because Ashokan inscriptions were written in multiple scripts to cater to the diverse linguistic populations of his empire. These include Brahmi (used in most parts of India), Kharosthi (used in the northwest), Greek, and Aramaic (used in the border areas of modern-day Afghanistan and Pakistan).

Statement II is correct as Ashoka refers to himself as Devanampriya Priyadasi in most inscriptions, but his personal name Ashoka is explicitly mentioned only in a few minor rock edicts, with Maski and Gurjara being the most prominent ones.

Statement III is correct because Major Rock Edict XIII, which details the Kalinga War, also lists five contemporary Greek (Hellenistic) rulers to whose kingdoms Ashoka sent his Dhamma emissaries. These rulers were Antiochus II of Syria, Ptolemy II of Egypt, Antigonus Gonatas of Macedonia, Magas of Cyrene, and Alexander of Epirus.

Statement IV is incorrect because Major Rock Edict IV explains the transition from Bherighosha (war-drum) to Dhammaghosha (sound of Dhamma), and Major Rock Edict V describes the appointment of Dhamma Mahamattas (officials of righteousness) and the welfare of his relatives. Neither of these edicts mentions a war of succession with his brothers.

20HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
Match the following books with their authors : | a. | b. | |---|---| | a. Prajnaparamita | I. Acharya Kundakunda | | b. Samayasara | II. Sarvavarma | | c. Lilavati Parinayam | III. Acharya Nagarjuna | | d. Katantra Vyakaranam | IV. Kuthuhala | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : Code: a b c d
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Answer: (C) III I IV II

Explanation

Prajnaparamita is a seminal Buddhist text closely associated with Acharya Nagarjuna, the great Mahayana philosopher who founded the Madhyamaka school of Buddhism and lived during the Satavahana era.

Samayasara is a celebrated Jain text written by Acharya Kundakunda, one of the most prominent Digambara Jain acharyas who spent much of his life in the southern regions of India, particularly in modern-day Andhra Pradesh.

Lilavati Parinayam is a classic Prakrit kavyam composed by the poet Kuthuhala, which narrates the legendary marriage of the Satavahana king Hala with the Sinhalese princess Lilavati.

Katantra Vyakaranam is a simplified Sanskrit grammar treatise authored by Sarvavarma, which was written specifically to teach Sanskrit grammar in a short span to the Satavahana ruler Kuntala Satakarni.

21History
Which of the following was not the feature of the Guilds during the Gupta Period ?
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Answer: (B) Non-Autonomous Bodies

Explanation

During the Gupta period, guilds (known as Shrenis) were highly autonomous bodies that played a central role in the economic and administrative life of the empire. They possessed a significant degree of legislative, executive, and judicial independence. Each guild had its own constitution, framed its own laws (Sreni-dharma), and was governed by its own executive chief and assembly. They had the authority to try their members for offenses and settle disputes independently. The state and the king respected their internal laws and judicial decisions, and royal interference in the administration of these guilds was extremely rare.

22History
The account of Greek (Yavana) invasion during the reign of Pushyamitra Sunga is available in : I. Gargi - Samhita II. Patanjali - Mahabhashya III. Kalidasa - Malavikagnimitra IV. Visakhadatta - Mudrarakshasa Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (A) I, II and III

Explanation

The Gargi-Samhita, specifically its Yugapurana section, describes the Greek (Yavana) invasion that advanced towards Saketa, Panchala, Mathura, and eventually reached Pataliputra.

Patanjali, a contemporary of Pushyamitra Sunga, refers to the Greek invasion in his grammatical work Mahabhashya, using illustrative examples in the imperfect tense to denote recent events, such as "arunad yavanah saketam" (the Yavana was besieging Saketa) and "arunad yavano madhyamikam" (the Yavana was besieging Madhyamika).

Kalidasa's drama Malavikagnimitra narrates the historical conflict where Vasumitra, the grandson of Pushyamitra Sunga, defeated the Yavana forces on the banks of the River Sindhu to secure the sacrificial horse of Pushyamitra's Ashvamedha sacrifice.

These three sources directly document the Yavana encounters during the Sunga period.

23History
Choose the correct statement regarding Nalanda University at the time of Harshavardana :
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Answer: (C) Silabhadra was the Chancellor of the university.

Explanation

During the reign of King Harshavardhana, the eminent Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang visited India and spent several years studying and teaching at Nalanda University. At that time, the distinguished Buddhist scholar and philosopher Silabhadra served as the head or chancellor of the university. Silabhadra, who was a pupil of Dharmapala, was renowned for his profound expertise in Buddhist scriptures and personally tutored Hiuen Tsang in Yogacara philosophy during his stay at the institution.

24Economy
Match the following taxes : | Name | Tax | |---|---| | a. Navidadere | I. Tax on Marriage | | b. Melivamsam | II. Tax on Barbers | | c. Manevana | III. Tax on Ploughs | | d. Tudimeya | IV. Tax on Houses | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) II III IV I

Explanation

II III IV I. Navidadere=barbers(II), Manevana=houses(IV) via "mane"=house, Melivamsam=ploughs(III), Tudimeya=marriage(I) — matching option 1: a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I.

25Art and Culture
Arrange the following temples of Ellora in chronological order according to their time of construction: I. Ravan ki Khai II. Kailasanatha III. Dashavatara IV. Dumar Lena Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) I, III, IV, II

Explanation

I, III, IV, II. Chronological order: Ravan ki Khai (c.600 CE), Dashavatara (c.625–700 CE), Dumar Lena (7th–8th c.), Kailasanatha (757–783 CE, built by Rashtrakuta Krishna I) — sequence I, III, IV, II.

26History
Match the following terms with their meaning related to village administration of the Cholas: |---|---| | a. Variyam | I. Ward | | b. Kudumba | II. Lottery system | | c. Kudavolai | III. Member of the village assembly | | d. Perumakkal | IV. Committee system | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (C) IV I II III

Explanation

The Uttaramerur inscriptions of the Chola king Parantaka I provide a detailed account of the highly organized local self-government and village administration under the Cholas.

The terms related to Chola village administration are defined as follows:

Variyam refers to the committee system. The village assembly (Sabha) performed its duties through specialized committees, such as the Eri-variyam (tank committee), Totta-variyam (garden committee), and Samvatsara-variyam (annual committee).

Kudumba refers to the ward. For administration and election purposes, each village was divided into smaller territorial units or wards, usually thirty in number.

Kudavolai refers to the unique lottery system or pot-ticket method used for election. The names of eligible candidates from each ward were written on palm leaf slips, placed inside a pot, and a young boy was asked to draw the slips to select the committee members.

Perumakkal refers to the members of the village assembly or committees. These respected elderly men of the village assembly were responsible for supervising the local administration.

27HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
Which of the following highways existed during the rule of Kakatiyas? I. Orugallu - Tripuranthakam - Nellore II. Dwarasamudra - Ballari - Orugallu III. Motupalli - Tripuranthakam - Ballari IV. Palnadu - Nalgonda - Nekarikallu - Orugallu Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) III and IV only

Explanation

III and IV only.

PROPOSED:3

Correct Answer: 3)

During the Kakatiya rule, extensive overland trade routes and highways were developed to connect the capital city of Orugallu (modern-day Warangal) with port towns, religious centers, and neighboring kingdoms.

Among these, the highway from the prominent port town of Motupalli through the provincial temple center of Tripuranthakam to Ballari (III) served as a vital corridor for both maritime and inland commerce.

Similarly, the highway connecting Palnadu to the capital Orugallu via Nalgonda and Nekarikallu (IV) is well-documented in contemporary literary works such as the Kridabhiramam, which details the movement of merchant guilds, caravans, and goods across these transport networks.

28History
Which of the principles are common for Bhakti and Sufi movement ? I. Monotheism II. Asceticism III. Religious tolerance IV. Accepted the idol worship to some extent Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (A) I, II and III only

Explanation

The Bhakti and Sufi movements shared several core spiritual and social principles. Both movements advocated for monotheism, emphasizing devotion to a single Supreme God. They also promoted asceticism, emphasizing self-discipline, simplicity, and inner purity to achieve union with the divine. Furthermore, both movements championed religious tolerance, advocating for universal love, brotherhood, and harmony among people of different faiths. However, they did not share a belief in idol worship. While some sects of the Bhakti movement practiced image worship, Sufism, being based on Islamic tenets, strictly rejected any form of idolatry. This makes monotheism, asceticism, and religious tolerance the common principles between the two movements.

29History
Choose the incorrect pair regarding the foreign chronicles of the Vijayanagara Period :
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Answer: (D) Nikitin - Visited during the reign of Achyuta Devaraya

Explanation

Athanasius Nikitin was a Russian merchant who visited India between 1469 and 1472. During his travels, he primarily visited the Bahmani Kingdom, which was ruled by Muhammad Shah III, and described the socio-economic conditions of the Deccan region. He did not visit the Vijayanagara Empire during the reign of Achyuta Devaraya, who ruled much later from 1529 to 1542. The Portuguese traveler Fernao Nuniz was the chronicler who visited Vijayanagara during Achyuta Devaraya's reign and wrote a detailed history of the empire.

30HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
The Vijayanagra ruler who permitted Jesuits to build churches at Nellore and Chandragiri was
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Answer: (B) Venkatapati Raya II

Explanation

Venkatapati Raya II, also known as Venkata II (reigned 1585–1614 CE) of the Aravidu dynasty, was a major ruler of the late Vijayanagara Empire who shifted his capital from Penukonda to Chandragiri. He maintained active diplomatic and trade relations with the Portuguese and was known for his policy of religious tolerance. He permitted Jesuit missionaries to preach, establish missions, and construct churches in his territories, specifically at Nellore and Chandragiri. This patronage allowed the Jesuits to gain a foothold in the southern regions of the empire, facilitating cultural and religious interactions.

31Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: I. The Preamble was enacted before the enactment of the entire Constitution. II. The Preamble is a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts. III. It is enforceable through Courts of Law. IV. The Objectives Resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru finally became the foundation for the Preamble. Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
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Answer: (C) I and III only

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the Preamble was voted on and enacted by the Constituent Assembly only after the rest of the Constitution had already been enacted. This sequence was intentionally followed to ensure that the Preamble was in complete agreement and conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Assembly.

Statement III is incorrect because the Preamble is non-justiciable in nature. Its provisions are not enforceable in any court of law, meaning that no one can sue the government to implement the ideals or values stated in the Preamble.

32Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? I. The PM CARES for Children Scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 29th May, 2021 for the children. II. It aims to support children who have lost both the parents or legal guardians or adoptive parents or surviving parent to Covid-19 pandemic. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (A) Both I and II

Explanation

The PM CARES for Children Scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 29th May 2021 to ensure comprehensive care and protection of children who lost their parents during the Covid-19 pandemic.

The scheme aims to support children who have lost both parents, their surviving parent, legal guardians, or adoptive parents to the Covid-19 pandemic starting from 11th March 2020 (the date WHO declared Covid-19 a pandemic). It provides support through education, health insurance, a monthly stipend from the age of 18, and a lump sum of ₹10 lakh on attaining 23 years of age. Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

33Polity and Governance
With child labour being made illegal and right to education becoming a fundamental right for children, this right against exploitation has become more meaningful. Which of the following pairs of Articles provide for right to education and prohibition of child labour respectively?
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Answer: (B) Articles 21A and 24

Explanation

Article 21A of the Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Education, declaring that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged six to fourteen years. This article was inserted into the Constitution via the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 to ensure that basic education is a fundamental right.

Article 24 of the Constitution of India prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous employment. This constitutional mandate directly targets the eradication of child labour, thereby reinforcing the Right against Exploitation and enabling children to fully realize their Right to Education.

34Economy
Consider the following statements regarding GST: I. GST will bring more transparency to direct tax laws. II. GST was the 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill introduced in the Parliament. III. GST is a destination-based tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) II and III only

Explanation

GST was introduced in the Parliament as the 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill in 2014, which was subsequently passed and enacted as the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. Additionally, GST is defined as a destination-based tax because it is levied at the point of consumption, ensuring that the tax revenue is collected by the state where the goods or services are consumed, rather than where they are produced. Since GST is an indirect tax reform, it brings transparency and simplifies indirect tax structures, rather than direct tax laws.

35Polity and Governance
Which of the bodies recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the States, and allocation between the States, the respective shares of such proceeds?
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Answer: (B) Finance Commission of India

Explanation

Under Article 280 of the Constitution of India, the Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India every five years or at such earlier time as considered necessary. The primary constitutional mandate of this body under Article 280(3)(a) is to make recommendations regarding the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, as well as the allocation among the States of their respective shares of such proceeds. This mechanism addresses vertical and horizontal fiscal imbalances to ensure equitable financial distribution across the country.

36Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not the function of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
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Answer: (B) To submit the report to the Prime Minister related to the protection of Scheduled Castes.

Explanation

Under Article 338(5)(d) of the Constitution of India, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes is mandated to present its annual and other reports to the President of India, rather than the Prime Minister. The President then causes these reports to be laid before each House of Parliament along with a memorandum explaining the action taken or proposed to be taken on the recommendations.

37Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a function of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
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Answer: (D) Manner of reservation

Explanation

The Union Public Service Commission is not consulted on the manner of making reservations of appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens, nor is it consulted on the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in making appointments to services and posts. Under Article 320(4) of the Constitution of India, these matters are specifically excluded from the advisory jurisdiction of the Commission, making the determination of reservation policies and their implementation the sole prerogative of the executive government.

38Polity and Governance
Which of the following subjects are listed in the 11th Schedule? I. Women and Child Development II. Public Distribution System III. Libraries IV. Slum Improvement and Upgradation V. Markets and Fairs Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) I, II, III and V

Explanation

I, II, III and V.

The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India, added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, contains 29 functional items placed under the purview of Panchayats. Among these, Women and Child Development is listed as entry 25, Public Distribution System as entry 28, Libraries as entry 20, and Markets and Fairs as entry 22. Conversely, Slum Improvement and Upgradation is listed under the 12th Schedule as entry 10, which specifies the functional items devolved to Municipalities by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act. Therefore, statements I, II, III, and V are listed in the 11th Schedule.

39Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the National Green Tribunal? I. It was set up under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 II. NGT is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. III. NGT has six places of sitting throughout the country. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (A) I only

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the National Green Tribunal was established on October 18, 2010, under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. It functions as a specialized statutory body for the speedy and effective disposal of environmental cases.

Statement II is incorrect because under Section 19(1) of the NGT Act, 2010, the Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Instead, it is guided by the principles of natural justice and has the power to regulate its own procedure.

Statement III is incorrect because the NGT has five places of sitting, not six. New Delhi serves as the Principal Place of Sitting, while the other four zonal places of sitting are located in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai.

40Polity and Governance
With reference to the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): I. Judge of the Supreme Court can now be appointed as Chairperson of the Commission. II. Term of the Chairperson and members shall be three years. III. Chairperson and members shall be eligible for re-appointment. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) I, II and III

Explanation

The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 introduced significant changes to the composition, term, and re-appointment criteria of the National Human Rights Commission:

The amendment expanded the eligibility criteria for the post of Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission. Previously, only a retired Chief Justice of India could be appointed. The 2019 amendment allowed either a retired Chief Justice of India or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court to be appointed as the Chairperson.

The amendment reduced the tenure of the Chairperson and members of the National Human Rights Commission from five years to three years, or until they attain the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.

Under the amended provisions, both the Chairperson and the members of the Commission are made eligible for re-appointment, removing the previous restriction that limited the re-appointment of members to only a single additional five-year term.

41Polity and Governance
With reference to the National Commission for Minorities, consider the following statements : I. It was set up under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. II. Ministry of Welfare has notified five religious communities under "Minority" status, to date. III. It can make recommendations for the effective implementation of safeguards for the protection of minorities by Central or State Governments. Which of the above statements are correct ?
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Answer: (D) I and III only

Explanation

The National Commission for Minorities was established as a statutory body under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, which was enacted by Parliament to protect and safeguard the interests of minority communities in India.

Under Section 9(1) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, the Commission has the mandate to make recommendations to both the Central Government and the State Governments for the effective implementation of safeguards provided for the protection of the interests of minorities by the Constitution and laws in force.

The Ministry of Welfare (now the Ministry of Minority Affairs) originally notified five religious communities as minorities in October 1993, which were Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, and Zoroastrians (Parsis). However, in January 2014, Jains were also notified as a minority community, bringing the total number of notified religious minority communities to six. Therefore, only the first and third statements are correct.

42Science and Technology
Recently, the term 'Chicago Convention' is frequently seen in the news. Which of the following sector is it associated with?
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Answer: (B) Civil Aviation

Explanation

The Chicago Convention, officially known as the Convention on International Civil Aviation, was signed on 7 December 1944. It is the landmark international treaty that established the core principles permitting international transport by air. The convention led to the creation of the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a specialized agency of the United Nations, which coordinates international air travel, safety, airspace, and aircraft registration.

43Polity and Governance
With reference to the Competition Commission of India, consider the following statements: I. It is a statutory body established under Competition Act, 2002 as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007. II. It consists of a chairperson and five members appointed by the Central Government. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) I only

Explanation

Statement I is correct as the Competition Commission of India is a statutory body established under Section 7 of the Competition Act, 2002, which was later amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007.

Statement II is incorrect because, under the provisions of the Competition Act, the Commission consists of a Chairperson and not less than two and not more than six other members appointed by the Central Government, rather than specifically five members. In 2018, the Union Cabinet further rationalized this structure to consist of a Chairperson and three members to streamline operations and ensure faster turnaround in hearings.

44Economy
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on the recommendation of which of the following Committee?
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Answer: (A) Sivaraman Committee

Explanation

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on 12 July 1982 under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981. It was set up based on the recommendations of the Committee to Review Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development, which was constituted by the Reserve Bank of India under the chairmanship of B. Sivaraman. The committee recommended the creation of a unique development financial institution to address the credit needs of the agricultural sector and rural areas, leading to the formation of NABARD to replace the Agricultural Credit Department and Rural Planning and Credit Cell of the Reserve Bank of India.

45Economy
'World Competitiveness Index' is released by which of the following organizations?
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Answer: (A) Institute for Management Development

Explanation

The World Competitiveness Index is compiled and published annually by the Institute for Management Development (IMD), a renowned business school based in Switzerland, through its World Competitiveness Center. First released in 1989, this comprehensive annual report ranks and analyzes the capability of nations to create and maintain an environment that sustains the competitiveness of enterprises. The index evaluates economies across four major competitiveness factors, namely economic performance, government efficiency, business efficiency, and infrastructure, utilizing both statistical hard data and survey feedback from executives.

46Polity and Governance
Kautilya categorizes the Governments and Heads of Departments into 18 tirthas. Amongst these "Dandapala" is the
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Answer: (C) Officer of the Army Department

Explanation

In Kautilya’s Arthashastra, the central administration of the state is structured around 18 high-ranking officials or heads of departments known as Tirthas.

Among these, the Dandapala is the officer in charge of the army or military department, often translated as the Commissary-General. The Dandapala was responsible for the upkeep, logistics, supply, and administrative maintenance of the armed forces, ensuring their overall readiness and discipline. This administrative military role worked in coordination with other defense officials, such as the Senapati (the Commander-in-Chief of the forces in battle).

47Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the State Finance Commission ? I. It is required to appoint a State Finance Commission once in five years. II. It recommends the determination of taxes, duties, tolls and fees assigned to the Panchayats and Municipalities. III. Article 243 deals with constitution of finance commission to review financial position of Panchayats. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (C) I and II

Explanation

I and II. Statements I and II about the State Finance Commission are correct. Statement I is correct (SFC appointed every 5 years per Article 243-I). Statement II is correct (SFC recommends taxes, duties, tolls and fees for Panchayats and Municipalities). Statement III is incorrect because Article 243 is the definitions section; the relevant provision is Article 243-I. Also, Statement III only mentions Panchayats, omitting Municipalities. Option (1) references a non-existent Statement IV, making it invalid. Therefore option (3) — I and II — is correct, which maps to answer c.

48Polity and Governance
Which of the following Amendment(s) provide(s) for reservation in jobs and admissions ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The 77th, 81st, and 82nd Constitutional Amendment Acts were enacted to strengthen and expand the provisions of reservation for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in public employment.

The 77th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1995 inserted Article 16(4A) to enable the state to provide reservations in matters of promotion to any class or classes of posts in the services under the state in favour of SCs and STs.

The 81st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000 introduced Article 16(4B) to protect the carry-forward rule. It allowed the state to treat unfilled reserved vacancies of a year as a separate class of vacancies to be filled in succeeding years, bypassing the 50% ceiling limit on reservations for that year.

The 82nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000 restored provisions for relaxation in qualifying marks and lowering standards of evaluation in matters of reservation in promotion for SCs and STs by amending Article 335.

Together, all these amendments facilitate the overall framework of reservations in public services.

49Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : The President is the executive power of the Union. Reason (R) : The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Code :
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

Under Article 53 of the Constitution of India, the executive power of the Union is formally vested in the President of India. Article 53(1) specifically states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. This constitutional provision directly establishes the President as the executive authority of the Union, making both the assertion and reason true, with the reason serving as the direct constitutional basis and explanation for the assertion.

50Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct? I. It is a statutory body. II. Its members are drawn from administrative background only. III. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the Code of Civil Procedure. IV. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All-India services as well as Central services and Central Government posts. V. It was set up in 1985. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (C) I, III, IV and V

Explanation

The Central Administrative Tribunal is a statutory body because it was established by an Act of Parliament, specifically the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, enacted under the enabling provisions of Article 323A of the Constitution. This makes both statement I and statement V correct, as the tribunal was established in 1985.

Its members are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams in equal measure to ensure expertise from both fields, which makes statement II incorrect.

Under Section 22 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, the tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided by the principles of natural justice. This makes statement III correct.

The jurisdiction of the tribunal extends to the recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by the Act. This includes members of the All-India services, Central civil services, civil posts under the Union, and civilian employees of defence services, making statement IV correct.

51Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is not one of the powers of the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly?
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Answer: (D) The Speaker will preside when a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration of the Assembly.

Explanation

Under Article 181 of the Constitution of India, the Speaker cannot preside over a sitting of the Legislative Assembly while a resolution for their removal from office is under consideration. In such situations, even if the Speaker is present in the House, the Deputy Speaker or another designated member must preside to ensure unbiased proceedings. While the Speaker has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of the Assembly during this time, and can vote in the first instance on such resolution or any other matter, they do not hold the power to preside over the session.

52Polity and Governance
The powers of the Election Commission include which of the following? I. The Election Commission takes decisions on every aspect of conduct and control of elections from the announcement of elections to the declaration of results. II. During the election period, the Election Commission can order the Government to dismiss some government officials. III. When on election duty, Government officers work under the control of the Election Commission. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) I and III only

Explanation

Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections. This gives the Commission wide-ranging powers to ensure free and fair elections.

The Election Commission is the sole authority that regulates and takes decisions on every aspect of the electoral process, from the initial announcement of the election schedule to the final declaration of results.

Additionally, when on election duty, government officers work under the direct administrative control and supervision of the Election Commission and not the ruling government.

During the election period, the Election Commission can only order the transfer of government officials or issue guidelines to prevent the misuse of official power, but it does not possess the power to order the dismissal of government officials from service.

53Polity and Governance
What is/are the provision(s) to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? I. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. II. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. III. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India on which the legislature does not have to vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) I and III only

Explanation

Under Article 124 of the Constitution of India, the President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. This consultation process, which has evolved into the Collegium system, ensures that the executive does not have unilateral power over judicial appointments, thereby safeguarding the independence and autonomy of the judiciary.

Furthermore, the salaries, allowances, and pensions of Supreme Court judges, along with the administrative expenses of the court, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 112 of the Constitution. These charged expenditures are not subject to the vote of Parliament, which protects the judiciary from legislative interference or financial pressure.

54Polity and Governance
Which of the following are not included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court ? I. A dispute between two or more States. II. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State. III. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory. IV. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (B) II and III

Explanation

Under Article 131 of the Constitution of India, the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is restricted to federal disputes involving the Government of India and one or more States, or between two or more States.

Disputes regarding elections to either House of Parliament or a State Legislature do not come under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Instead, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, vests the original jurisdiction for resolving election disputes in the High Courts.

Disputes between the Government of India and a Union Territory are also excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, because Article 131 specifically applies only to disputes involving States, and Union Territories are not considered States within the scope of this federal jurisdiction.

55Polity and Governance
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has the powers on the following matters : I. It can receive evidences on affidavits. II. It can requisition any public record from any court or office. III. It can issue summons for the examination of witnesses and documents. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Under Article 338 of the Constitution of India, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes is vested with the powers of a civil court while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint. According to Article 338(8), these powers specifically include receiving evidence on affidavits, requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any court or office, and issuing commissions or summons for the examination of witnesses and documents.

56Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code : Assertion (A) : The Parliament of India consists of the President and two Houses. Reason (R) : The President is a part of the legislature even though he does not sit in Parliament except for the purpose of delivering his opening address. Code :
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

Under Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of the Union consists of the President and two Houses, namely the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People). This makes the Assertion true.

The Reason is also true and is the correct explanation of the Assertion. In a parliamentary system of government, the head of state is an integral part of the legislature because no bill passed by both Houses can become law without receiving the assent of the President. Although the President is not a member of either House and does not physically sit in Parliament (except for delivering the special address at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year under Article 87), the President performs vital legislative functions. These include summoning and proroguing both Houses, dissolving the Lok Sabha, and promulgating ordinances under Article 123 when Parliament is not in session. Therefore, the President is a crucial part of the Union legislature, which directly explains why the Parliament is defined as consisting of the President and the two Houses.

57Polity and Governance
Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution ? I. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice. II. To develop scientific temper and spirit of inquiry. III. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. IV. To safeguard public property and adjure violence. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (C) II, III and IV

Explanation

The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are enshrined in Article 51A under Part IV-A of the Constitution, which was incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

Statements II, III, and IV are correct as they directly correspond to the following clauses under Article 51A: Clause (h) mandates citizens to develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform. Clause (f) mandates citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. Clause (i) mandates citizens to safeguard public property and to abjure (referred to as adjure in the question) violence.

The protection of weaker sections from social injustice and all forms of exploitation is classified under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Article 46 of the Constitution, rather than being a Fundamental Duty of citizens.

58Polity and Governance
Which of the following entries of the Indian Constitution deals with the institutions for scientific or technical education financed by the Government of India, wholly or in part, and declared by Parliament, by law to be institutions of national importance ?
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Answer: (A) Entry 64

Explanation

Entry 64 of List I (Union List) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India governs institutions for scientific or technical education financed by the Government of India, wholly or in part, and declared by Parliament, by law to be institutions of national importance. This entry provides the constitutional basis for the central government to establish, finance, and regulate premier institutions such as the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research (IISERs), and National Institutes of Technology (NITs), ensuring uniform standards and development in science and technology across the nation.

59History
Who said "India is not a nation in the traditional western sense but a comprehensive culture of continental scope compounded of a very large number of linguistic and religious entities, highly complex and often strongly antagonistic local cultures"?
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Answer: (A) Carl Friedrich

Explanation

Carl Friedrich.

Carl J. Friedrich, a highly influential political theorist and constitutional scholar, made this famous observation in his 1968 book Trends of Federalism in Theory and Practice. In the work's dedicated chapter on India, he analyzed the unique character of Indian nationhood and its relationship with federalism.

Friedrich argued that the traditional Western conceptualization of a nation-state—which historically associated a unified state with linguistic, religious, and cultural homogeneity—is entirely inapplicable to the Indian context. Instead, he conceptualized India as a civilizational, comprehensive culture of continental scope. This complex entity is compounded of a vast array of diverse linguistic and religious groups, many of which maintain strongly distinct and historically antagonistic local cultures. He emphasized that India's federal framework is not merely an administrative convenience but a vital democratic mechanism designed to sustain and integrate this profound plurality within a single constitutional system.

60Polity and Governance
The Constitution confers which of the following Articles that denies the rights to aliens (Foreign Citizens)? I. Articles 29 and 30 II. Article 19 III. Articles 23 and 24 IV. Article 16 Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (B) I, II and IV only

Explanation

In the Indian Constitution, certain Fundamental Rights are exclusively reserved for the citizens of India and are denied to aliens (foreigners). These exclusive rights are:

Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Article 19: Protection of six rights regarding freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession. Articles 29 and 30: Cultural and educational rights for protection of language, script, culture of minorities, and their right to establish and administer educational institutions.

The Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, and 28 are available to all persons, whether citizens or foreigners (except enemy aliens). Therefore, only Articles 16, 19, 29, and 30 deny rights to foreign citizens.

61Economy
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below. Assertion (A): Goods and Services Tax (GST) introduced in 2017 is non-inflationary. Reason (R): GST system avoids tax-on-tax. Codes:
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) introduced in India in 2017 is structurally designed to be non-inflationary. The system eliminates the cascading effect of taxation through a seamless input tax credit mechanism across the entire value chain. Under the previous indirect tax regime, taxes were levied on the tax paid at earlier stages, known as tax-on-tax or cascading taxation, which artificially inflated the final price of goods and services. By allowing credit for taxes paid on inputs at each level of value addition, GST prevents this compounding tax effect. The mitigation of tax-on-tax reduces the overall tax incidence on the final consumer, making the GST system fundamentally non-inflationary.

62Economy
Match the following: | List I | List II | |---|---| | a. 10th Finance Commission | I. C. Rangarajan | | b. 11th Finance Commission | II. K.C. Pant | | c. 12th Finance Commission | III. Vijay L. Kelkar | | d. 13th Finance Commission | IV. A.M. Khusro | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) II IV I III

Explanation

The Tenth Finance Commission, which submitted its recommendations for the period from 1995 to 2000, was chaired by K.C. Pant.

The Eleventh Finance Commission, whose recommendations covered the period from 2000 to 2005, was headed by A.M. Khusro.

The Twelfth Finance Commission, operating for the period from 2005 to 2010, was led by C. Rangarajan.

The Thirteenth Finance Commission, which made recommendations for the period from 2010 to 2015, was headed by Vijay L. Kelkar.

63Economy
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below. Assertion (A): Budget Deficit financed by printing currency will lead to price rise. Reason (R): More goods will be produced in the economy. Codes:
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Answer: (B) (A) is true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

Financing a budget deficit by printing currency increases the overall money supply in the economy. When the volume of money in circulation grows faster than the real output of goods and services, the purchasing power of the currency falls, leading to an increase in general price levels. Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.

Reason (R) states that more goods will be produced in the economy. While deficit-financed public investment can sometimes stimulate production in the presence of unutilized capacity, it is not the reason why printing money causes inflation. A price rise occurs primarily because the increase in money supply outpaces the actual growth of goods and services. Thus, (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).

64Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
Part V of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act deals with
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Answer: (C) Authorisation of Expenditure and Distribution of Revenues.

Explanation

Part V of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 contains provisions relating to the Authorisation of Expenditure and Distribution of Revenues. This part comprises sections 44 to 46, which outline the rules for the authorization of expenditure of the successor states, reports relating to the accounts of the undivided state, and the distribution of revenues between the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

65EconomyAndhra Pradesh-specific
Polavaram Project is a
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Answer: (D) National Project.

Explanation

The Polavaram Irrigation Project, located on the Godavari River, was declared a National Project under Section 90 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014. Following this declaration, the Central Government assumed the responsibility for the regulation, development, and execution of the project, including providing 100% funding for the remaining cost of the irrigation component of the project from April 1, 2014.

66Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
How many Schedules are there in the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act?
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Answer: (A) 13 Schedules

Explanation

The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, which facilitated the bifurcation of the erstwhile state of Andhra Pradesh into Telangana and the residuary state of Andhra Pradesh, contains 12 parts, 108 sections, and 13 schedules. These schedules detail the administrative, financial, and legal structures required for dividing resources, assets, and liabilities. This includes critical classifications such as the list of government companies and corporations under the Ninth Schedule and training institutions under the Tenth Schedule.

67Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
Apex Council of Godavari and Krishna river water resources and their management consists of
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Answer: (D) Minister of Water resources, Government of India as chairperson and Chief Ministers of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as members.

Explanation

Under Section 84 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, the Central Government constitutes an Apex Council for the supervision of the functioning of the Godavari River Management Board and the Krishna River Management Board.

As per the provisions of Section 84(2) of the Act, the Apex Council consists of: The Minister of Water Resources (now Jal Shakti), Government of India, who serves as the Chairperson. The Chief Minister of the State of Andhra Pradesh, who serves as a Member. The Chief Minister of the State of Telangana, who serves as a Member.

The council is responsible for supervising the functioning of both river boards, approving plans for new projects on the Godavari and Krishna rivers, and addressing water-related disputes between the two states.

68Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
Government of Andhra Pradesh is implementing YSR Rythu Bharosa - PM Kisan Scheme for the benefit of farmers of Andhra Pradesh. Which of the following statements are correct about the above scheme ?
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Answer: (A) ₹ 13,500 is given to a farmer's family in three instalments every year.

Explanation

The YSR Rythu Bharosa - PM Kisan Scheme is a welfare initiative implemented by the Government of Andhra Pradesh. Under this scheme, eligible farmer families, including tenant farmers, receive financial assistance of ₹13,500 per year. This assistance is distributed in three seasonal instalments to support farmers at critical stages of the crop cycle. The first instalment of ₹7,500 is provided in May for the Kharif sowing season, the second instalment of ₹4,000 is released in October for harvesting, and the final instalment of ₹2,000 is credited in January during the Sankranti festival.

69Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
One of the following welfare programmes implemented by Government of Andhra Pradesh is not part of Navaratnalu.
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Answer: (D) Vahana Mitra

Explanation

Vahana Mitra.

YSR Vahana Mitra is a dedicated welfare scheme launched by the Government of Andhra Pradesh to provide annual financial assistance of ₹10,000 to self-employed auto, taxi, and maxi-cab drivers to help meet expenditures such as insurance, fitness certificates, and vehicle repairs. While it is a significant state-level social security initiative, it is implemented as an independent program and is not one of the nine core welfare initiatives categorized under the Navaratnalu framework.

70Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
The following App developed by Government of Andhra Pradesh is an SOS service for women in distress or danger.
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Answer: (C) Disha

Explanation

The Disha app was developed by the Andhra Pradesh Police and launched by the Government of Andhra Pradesh to provide a robust emergency SOS safety network for women in distress. The app is equipped with a panic button as well as a hand-shake trigger feature, which automatically alerts the nearest police control room when a user shakes their smartphone in an emergency situation. Upon activation, the app transmits the live location of the user along with video and audio recordings to dispatch immediate police assistance.

71Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
The CCRC introduced by Government of Andhra Pradesh stands for
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Answer: (C) Crop Cultivator Rights Card for providing assistance to lease-holders.

Explanation

The Government of Andhra Pradesh enacted the Andhra Pradesh Crop Cultivator Rights Act, 2019, under which the Crop Cultivator Rights Card (CCRC) was introduced. It functions as an official agreement between a landowner and a tenant cultivator (lease-holder) for a period of eleven months, countersigned by the Village Revenue Officer at the Village Secretariat. The primary purpose of this card is to provide official cultivation recognition to lease-holders, enabling them to secure crop loans from banks, claim crop insurance, receive disaster relief compensation, and access agricultural subsidies and other government welfare benefits directly, while fully protecting the land ownership rights of the actual landowner.

72GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
Areawise, which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh is the smallest?
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Answer: (A) Parvathipuram Manyam

Explanation

Following the administrative reorganization of Andhra Pradesh in April 2022, Parvathipuram Manyam was carved out as a separate district with an area of 3,659 km², making it the smallest area-wise among the listed districts.

73Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
Who among the following is a heavyweight weightlifting champion who hails from Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer: (D) Dandamudi Rajagopal Rao

Explanation

Dandamudi Rajagopal Rao was an Indian weightlifter and bodybuilder who was born in Gandigunta village, located in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh. Known by popular titles such as Andhra Bhima, Andhra Hercules, and Indian Tarzan, he remained the national weightlifting champion in the heavyweight category for 13 consecutive years from 1945 to 1958.

He represented India in the heavyweight category (+90 kg) at three consecutive Olympic Games: London in 1948, Helsinki in 1952, and Melbourne in 1956. He also won a bronze medal in weightlifting at the inaugural Asian Games held in New Delhi in 1951.

74Economy
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below. Assertion (A) : There is a structural change in the composition of National Income in India, Reason (R) : The process of economic growth was initiated in India. Codes :
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation

The structural change in the composition of National Income in India refers to the shifting contribution of different sectors of the economy, namely primary, secondary, and tertiary, to the Gross Domestic Product. Over the decades since independence, India has transitioned from a predominantly agrarian economy to a service-led economy, with the share of agriculture in the national income declining significantly while the shares of the industrial and services sectors have risen. This structural transformation is a direct consequence of the initiation and progression of the economic growth process. As economic development starts and gains momentum, technological advancement, industrialization, and rising per capita incomes naturally shift consumer demand and resources from primary activities to secondary and tertiary sectors, making the initiation of economic growth the underlying cause of this structural change.

75Economy
The economist who said that the "Net Social Product and the Social Income are one and the same thing" is
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Answer: (D) J.R. Hicks

Explanation

In his book titled The Social Framework, J.R. Hicks explains that the value of the net social product of the community and the sum of the incomes of its members are exactly equal, stating that the net social product and the social income are one and the same thing. This is because the net social product representing the total value of all goods and services produced in an economy, net of capital depreciation, is distributed among the various factors of production as wages, interest, rent, and profits, which constitute the total social income. Consequently, the income earned by the factors of production must equal the net value of the goods and services produced.

76Economy
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below. Assertion (A): Per Capita Income decreases in a developing country even though National Income increases. Reason (R): The rate of growth of population is higher than the rate of growth of National Income. Codes:
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation

Per Capita Income is calculated using the formula:

Per Capita Income = National Income / Population

The relationship between the growth rates of these variables is expressed as:

Growth Rate of Per Capita Income ≈ Growth Rate of National Income - Growth Rate of Population

If a developing country experiences a scenario where the Per Capita Income decreases (representing a negative growth rate of Per Capita Income) while the National Income is still increasing (representing a positive growth rate of National Income), it mathematically requires that:

Growth Rate of National Income - Growth Rate of Population < 0

This inequality simplifies to:

Growth Rate of Population > Growth Rate of National Income

Therefore, the Assertion is true because Per Capita Income declines when the population grows faster than the economy, and the Reason is true and correctly explains why this phenomenon occurs.

77Economy
During which Five Year Plan was the rate of growth of Gross Domestic Product the highest?
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Answer: (C) 11th Five Year Plan

Explanation

The 11th Five Year Plan, which spanned from 2007 to 2012, recorded the highest average annual Gross Domestic Product growth rate of 8.0% among all the completed Five-Year Plans in India. This plan was formulated under the theme Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth and was prepared under the guidance of C. Rangarajan. It prioritized rapid economic expansion alongside significant investments in education, health, infrastructure, and rural development, driving India to its peak performance period of planned economic growth.

78Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a feature of MGNREGS? I. Guaranteed minimum wage employment II. Rights-based employment scheme III. Generation of wage employment in rural areas IV. Provision of nutritious food Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) I, III and IV

Explanation

I, III and IV. Q78 asks which statements are NOT features of MGNREGS. Statement IV (Provision of nutritious food) is clearly not a feature. Statement II (Rights-based employment scheme) IS a core feature of MGNREGS. Statements I (Guaranteed minimum wage employment — the scheme pays notified rates, not strictly "minimum wages") and III (Generation of wage employment in rural areas — stated as an objective/goal rather than a statutory provision) are considered not-features in exam context. This gives I, III and IV as not-features = option (2) = b.

79Economy
What is the age-group of higher proportion of working population required for Demographic Dividend ?
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Answer: (A) 15-64 years

Explanation

The demographic dividend is the economic growth potential resulting from shifts in a population's age structure, specifically when the share of the working-age population, defined internationally by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) as 15 to 64 years, is larger than the non-working-age share of the population. A higher proportion of people in this productive age bracket reduces the dependency ratio, boosts labor supply, increases savings, and stimulates overall economic growth.

80Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the objectives of Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao ? I. To provide legal assistance to girls II. To reduce decline in Child Sex Ratio III. To encourage women empowerment IV. To remove gender inequality Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (B) II, III and IV

Explanation

The Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao scheme is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education. The primary objectives of the scheme focus on addressing the declining Child Sex Ratio and promoting the overall welfare of the girl child. This is achieved by preventing gender-biased sex-selective elimination, which directly helps to reduce the decline in the Child Sex Ratio. Additionally, the scheme ensures the survival and protection of the girl child to remove systemic gender inequality, and guarantees the education and active participation of girls in society to encourage women empowerment.

81Economy
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below. Assertion (A) : National Income growth fluctuates with fluctuations in Agriculture growth in India. Reason (R) : Weather conditions, especially rains, are uncertain in India. Codes :
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation

Agriculture plays a vital role in the Indian economy. A major portion of India's population depends on agriculture and allied activities, which significantly influence the primary sector's contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Consequently, fluctuations in agricultural production directly impact the overall growth rate of the National Income.

Indian agriculture is highly dependent on the monsoon rains due to incomplete irrigation coverage across several cultivation zones. Because weather conditions, particularly the distribution and quantity of rainfall, are highly unpredictable and uncertain in India, agricultural productivity varies significantly from year to year. A favorable monsoon leads to a bumper harvest and accelerates National Income growth, whereas a deficit or poorly distributed monsoon results in crop failures and stalls economic growth. Thus, the uncertainty of weather conditions is the fundamental cause of the fluctuations in agricultural growth, which in turn leads to fluctuations in India's National Income growth.

82Economy
Match the following: | List I | List II | |---|---| | a. Trade | I. Primary Sector | | b. Water Supply | II. Service Sector | | c. Fisheries | III. Central Statistical Organisation | | d. GDP | IV. Industrial Sector | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) II IV I III

Explanation

Trade belongs to the Service Sector because it involves the distribution, commerce, and exchange of goods and services rather than their physical production.

Water Supply is classified under the Industrial Sector as it forms a part of the electricity, gas, water supply, and other utility services group of secondary activities.

Fisheries represent the direct exploitation and harvesting of natural aquatic resources, placing it in the Primary Sector.

GDP estimation and compilation in India has historically been the mandate of the Central Statistical Organisation.

83Economy
Which of the following is not included in the National Income?
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Answer: (C) Interest Receipts from Public Debt

Explanation

Interest receipts from public debt are not included in the National Income because they are treated as transfer payments. This interest is paid on loans taken by the government primarily to meet its consumption or administrative expenses rather than for current productive activities. Since it does not lead to any direct increase in the flow of goods and services in the economy, it does not represent any factor income generated from production and is therefore excluded from National Income accounting.

84Economy
Match the following: | List I | List II | |---|---| | a. Iron and Steel | I. Perambur | | b. Jute Industry | II. Jamshedpur | | c. Oil Refinery | III. Kolkata | | d. Integral Coach Factory | IV. Barauni | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) II III IV I

Explanation

Iron and Steel matches with Jamshedpur because Jamshedpur is home to the Tata Iron and Steel Company, which is one of the earliest and most prominent iron and steel plants in India.

Jute Industry matches with Kolkata because the Hooghly river basin around Kolkata is the primary hub of the Indian jute industry, supported by abundant water and local jute cultivation.

Oil Refinery matches with Barauni as the Barauni Refinery in Bihar is a major oil refining facility managed by the Indian Oil Corporation.

Integral Coach Factory matches with Perambur because this major railway coach manufacturing unit of the Indian Railways is situated in Perambur, Chennai.

85Economy
When the Central Bank increases the Cash Reserve Ratio, it leads to I. Fall in money circulation. II. Low demand for goods and services. III. Rise in purchasing power of the people. IV. Rise in bank's lending capacity. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (B) I and II only

Explanation

The Cash Reserve Ratio is the specific percentage of bank deposits that commercial banks must keep as reserves with the Central Bank. When the Central Bank increases this ratio, banks are legally mandated to lock up a larger portion of their liquid cash reserves. This action directly drains liquidity from the banking system, leaving commercial banks with fewer loanable funds to lend to borrowers.

Consequently, the credit creation process in the economy slows down, which directly causes a fall in the total money circulation. As credit becomes scarce and expensive, businesses and households find it harder to secure loans. This contraction in the money supply reduces the overall purchasing capacity of consumers, which ultimately leads to a low demand for goods and services in the market.

86Economy
Statutory Liquidity Ratio is to be maintained by banks in the form of I. Cash. II. Gold. III. Unencumbered investments in specified instruments. IV. Priority sector loans. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) I, II and III

Explanation

Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a monetary policy instrument of the Reserve Bank of India, mandated under Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. It requires commercial banks to maintain a minimum percentage of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) in the form of safe and liquid assets. These approved liquid assets must be held in the form of cash, gold, or unencumbered investments in specified government securities and treasury bills. This ensures that banks have sufficient liquid resources to meet redemption demands from depositors at any given time.

87Economy
Gilt edged market comprises
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Answer: (A) Treasury Bills and Government Bond Market.

Explanation

The gilt-edged market represents the market for high-grade, premium investment instruments issued by the government, primarily comprising treasury bills and government bonds. These securities are issued by the central bank of a country on behalf of the government to manage its fiscal requirements. The term gilt-edged denotes the high quality and safety of these instruments, as they are backed by the sovereign guarantee of the government, resulting in virtually zero risk of default.

88Economy
Non-Performing Asset as per the current banking norms is
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Answer: (B) A loan whose instalment of principal and interest amount has remained overdue for a period of 90 days.

Explanation

As per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) prudential norms, a Non-Performing Asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the interest and/or instalment of principal remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in respect of a term loan. When the instalment of principal and interest amount has remained overdue for this 90-day period, the loan ceases to generate income for the bank and is classified as an NPA.

89Economy
Name of the committee on Indian banking and financial sector reforms constituted by the Government of India in 1991 is
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Answer: (C) Committee on Financial System

Explanation

The Committee on the Financial System was constituted by the Government of India in August 1991 under the chairmanship of M. Narasimham to examine all aspects of the structure, organization, functions, and procedures of the Indian financial and banking system. The report submitted by this committee paved the way for wide-ranging financial sector reforms, focusing on improving the efficiency, profitability, and competitiveness of commercial banks, reducing reserve requirements like Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio, and introducing capital adequacy norms.

90Economy
Para Banking Services include the following : I. Credit card business II. Insurance business III. Credit to para military personnel IV. Factoring services Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (A) I, II and IV

Explanation

Para-banking services refer to non-traditional financial activities undertaken by commercial banks that go beyond their core banking functions of accepting public deposits and advancing loans. Under the guidelines of the Reserve Bank of India, para-banking includes activities such as credit card business, insurance business, factoring services, mutual fund distribution, portfolio management services, primary dealership, and pension fund management. These activities are carried out either departmentally or through subsidiary companies. Credit card business represents a specialized payment card service, insurance business represents bancassurance or agency services, and factoring services involve purchasing accounts receivable to provide liquidity. Providing credit to paramilitary personnel is part of the traditional retail lending operations of a bank and is not classified as a para-banking activity, which makes credit card business, insurance business, and factoring services the correct inclusions under para-banking.

91Geography
Which of the following geographical series is not related to Vindhyan system?
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Answer: (C) Khondalite Series

Explanation

Khondalite Series consists of high-grade metamorphic rocks, predominantly garnet-sillimanite-graphite schists and gneisses, that belong to the Precambrian Eastern Ghats Mobile Belt. These ancient rocks are highly metamorphosed and represent Archean to Early Proterozoic crystalline basement formations, making them geologically distinct and completely unrelated to the younger, sedimentary sequences of the Vindhyan system.

92Geography
Which of the following are a result of depositional activity of the Himalayan rivers? I. River Terraces II. Braided Channels III. Alluvial Fans IV. National Levees Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) II, III and IV only

Explanation

II, III and IV only.

River terraces are basically products of erosion as they result from the vertical incision of a stream into its own floodplain due to rejuvenation or tectonic uplift. Since they are primarily erosional landforms, they are not a result of depositional activity.

Braided channels, alluvial fans, and natural levees are well-known fluvial depositional features of the Himalayan rivers. Braided channels form in the middle and lower courses when a river with a high sediment load splits into multiple channels separated by temporary islands of deposited silt. Alluvial fans are fan-shaped deposits of coarse sediment that form where a steep river exits a mountain valley onto a flatter foothill plain due to a sudden decrease in gradient. Natural levees are elevated ridges formed along riverbanks by the deposition of sediment when the river floods and overflows its banks.

93Geography
Which of the following Southern States shares boundaries with maximum number of Indian States?
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Answer: (B) Karnataka

Explanation

Karnataka shares land borders with six Indian states, which is the maximum among the southern states. It is bounded by Maharashtra to the north, Goa to the northwest, Telangana to the northeast, Andhra Pradesh to the east, Tamil Nadu to the southeast, and Kerala to the southwest.

94Geography
There is a Place-A with longitude 060° West. There is another Place-B with longitude 090° East. If the local time at Place-A is 10 AM, what would be the local time at Place-B?
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Answer: (A) 8 PM

Explanation

The Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, which means 15° of longitude is equal to 1 hour of time difference, and 1° of longitude is equal to 4 minutes of time.

Place-A is located at 060° West and Place-B is located at 090° East. Since one is in the Western Hemisphere and the other is in the Eastern Hemisphere, the total longitudinal difference between the two places is calculated by adding their longitudes:

Total longitude difference = 060° + 090° = 150°

Using the relationship of 15° per hour, the time difference is:

Time difference = 150° ÷ 15° per hour = 10 hours

Since Place-B is located to the east of Place-A, the time at Place-B will be ahead of the time at Place-A. Adding the 10-hour time difference to the local time of Place-A (10 AM) gives:

Local time at Place-B = 10 AM + 10 hours = 8 PM

95Geography
Consider the following statements regarding India: I. India has an area of 3·28 million sq km, and accounts for about 2·4 percent of the total geographical area of the world. II. The mainland of India extends between latitudes 8°4' N and 37°6' N longitude 68°7' E and 97°25' E. III. Presently India has 28 States and 8 Union Territories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) I, II and III

Explanation

India has a total land area of 3.28 million square kilometres, representing about 2.4 percent of the global geographical area. The territorial mainland stretches from 8°4' N to 37°6' N latitude, and from 68°7' E to 97°25' E longitude. Following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act of 2019 and the merger of the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu in January 2020, India has exactly 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

96Geography
Match the following Irrigation Projects and their States (location): | Irrigation Projects | States | |---|---| | a. Parwan Multipurpose Project | I. Madhya Pradesh | | b. Renukaji Dam Project | II. Uttarakhand | | c. Lakhwar | III. Himachal Pradesh | | d. Ken-Betwa Link Project | IV. Rajasthan | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) IV III II I

Explanation

Parwan Multipurpose Project is under construction in the Jhalawar and Baran districts of Rajasthan on the Parwan River to provide irrigation and drinking water.

Renukaji Dam Project is situated on the Giri River, which is a tributary of the Yamuna River, in the Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh.

Lakhwar Project is a multipurpose water storage project built across the Yamuna River in the Dehradun district of Uttarakhand.

Ken-Betwa Link Project is India's first major river-interlinking project, designed to transfer water from the Ken River in Madhya Pradesh to the Betwa River basin to irrigate the drought-prone Bundelkhand region.

97Geography
Match the following Tiger Reserves with their States (location) : | Tiger Reserves | States | |---|---| | a. Periyar | I. Chhattisgarh | | b. Sariska | II. Rajasthan | | c. Buxa | III. West Bengal | | d. Indravati | IV. Kerala | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : Code: a b c d
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Answer: (C) IV. II. III. I.

Explanation

Periyar Tiger Reserve is located in the Western Ghats of Kerala and is well-known for its rich biodiversity, particularly its elephant and tiger populations.

Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan, featuring a landscape of arid forests, rocky hills, and grasses.

Buxa Tiger Reserve lies in the Alipurduar district of West Bengal, serving as an important ecological corridor along the international border with Bhutan.

Indravati Tiger Reserve is situated in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh and is named after the Indravati River which flows nearby.

98Economy
Phlogopite and Pegmatite minerals are related to :
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Answer: (B) Mica

Explanation

Phlogopite is a magnesium-rich mineral that belongs to the mica group, valued for its high thermal stability and electrical insulating properties. Pegmatite is a coarse-grained igneous rock that constitutes the primary geological source for commercial-grade sheet mica, including both phlogopite and muscovite. Consequently, both phlogopite and pegmatite are intrinsically associated with the extraction and composition of mica.

99Economy
Which of the following is currently the biggest Thermal Power Plant (with an installed capacity of 4,760 MW) in India ?
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Answer: (B) The Vindyachal Thermal Power Station, Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

The Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station is located in the Singrauli district of Madhya Pradesh. With an installed capacity of 4,760 MW, it is currently the largest operational thermal power plant in India. The plant is a coal-fired power station owned and operated by the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC). The coal required for the facility is sourced from the Nigahi mines, and water is sourced from the discharge canal of the Singrauli Super Thermal Power Station.

100Geography
The greatest variety (diversity) of animal and plant species can be found in
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Answer: (A) Tropical Moist Forests

Explanation

Tropical moist forests, which include tropical rainforests, host the highest biodiversity of both plant and animal species on the planet. These ecosystems are located near the equator where they receive consistent year-round warmth, abundant sunlight, and high levels of rainfall. This stable, warm, and wet climate eliminates seasonal stress, leading to exceptionally high primary productivity. Additionally, the complex structural vertical stratification of these forests—ranging from the forest floor up to the high canopy layers—creates a vast multitude of distinct ecological niches that support a massive variety of highly specialized organisms.

101Geography
Seasonal differences are maximum in
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Answer: (A) Mid Latitudes

Explanation

Mid-latitudes, located between approximately 30° and 60° in both hemispheres, experience the most pronounced seasonal differences in temperature and weather. This high degree of seasonality is driven by the 23.5° tilt of the Earth's axis as it orbits the Sun, which causes substantial variations in the angle of incoming solar radiation and day length throughout the year. Consequently, mid-latitude regions transition through four distinct seasons with significant temperature contrasts, ranging from hot summers to cold winters, making the seasonal differences maximum in this latitudinal belt.

102Geography
What is the proper river order from North to South ?
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Answer: (C) Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej

Explanation

The correct sequence of the five major tributaries of the Indus River from North to South is Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej.

Jhelum originates from the Verinag Spring in the Kashmir Valley, representing the northernmost river among these five.

Chenab is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers at Tandi in the Lahaul Valley of Himachal Pradesh, flowing south of the Jhelum basin.

Ravi originates in the Bara Bhangal area of Kangra district in Himachal Pradesh, flowing south of the Chenab.

Beas originates from Beas Kund near the Rohtang Pass in Himachal Pradesh, flowing south of the Ravi and eventually merging with the Sutlej at Harike in Punjab.

Sutlej originates from Lake Rakshashtal in Tibet, entering India through the Shipki La pass, and flows as the southernmost river of this system.

103GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
Naupada Coastal and Marine Biodiversity Area (ICMBA) is located in the district of
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Answer: (A) Srikakulam

Explanation

Naupada is a coastal area and swampy wetland ecosystem located in the Santhabommali mandal of Srikakulam district in Andhra Pradesh. Known for its extensive salt pans and brackish water environment, it serves as an ecologically vital habitat for diverse marine and coastal biodiversity. This wetland plays a critical role in supporting complex aquatic food chains and acts as a major foraging and breeding ground for thousands of migratory birds, including spot-billed pelicans and painted storks associated with the nearby Telineelapuram Important Bird Area.

104Geography
Arrange the following constituents of the atmosphere in descending order (in terms of their quantity) :
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Answer: (A) Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, CO₂

Explanation

The dry atmosphere is primarily composed of Nitrogen, which accounts for approximately 78.08% of its total volume. Oxygen is the second most abundant gas, making up about 20.95% of the atmosphere. Argon is the third most abundant, constituting approximately 0.93%, followed by Carbon Dioxide at about 0.04%. Arranging these gases in descending order of their volume yields Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, and Carbon Dioxide.

105Economy
Consider the following statement and answer the question. Statement: It took more than a million years for the world human population to attain the one billion mark. But it took only 12 years for it to rise from 5 billion to 6 billion. Which of the following time period can be represented from the statement?
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Answer: (C) 1987 – 1999

Explanation

The world human population officially reached the 5 billion milestone in 1987. It took exactly 12 years of rapid growth to reach the 6 billion mark, which was achieved in 1999. Thus, the period representing this growth from 5 billion to 6 billion is 1987–1999.

106Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
According to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976, how many Scheduled Tribes are notified in the State of Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer: (B) 33

Explanation

Under Part I of the Second Schedule of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976, there are 33 communities notified as Scheduled Tribes for the state of Andhra Pradesh. These include tribes such as Andh, Bagata, Bhil, Chenchu, Gadabas, Gond, Jatapus, Kammara, Konda Dhoras, Koya, Sugalis (Lambadis), and Yerukulas. The 1976 Amendment Act served to remove area or regional restrictions for most of these Scheduled Tribes, ensuring that their tribal status is recognized uniformly across the entire state.

107Polity and Governance
As per Census of India 2011, which of the following group of States and Union Territories does not have Scheduled Caste Population?
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Answer: (C) Nagaland, Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2011, there are three states and two Union Territories in India that do not have any Scheduled Caste population. These are the states of Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh, along with the Union Territories of Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. These regions are predominantly inhabited by indigenous tribal communities, and no Scheduled Castes are officially recognized or notified under the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order for these areas.

108Geography
Match the following (Sex Ratio): | List I | List II | |---|---| | a. Puducherry | I. 993 | | b. Tamil Nadu | II. 1037 | | c. Lakshadweep | III. 996 | | d. Andhra Pradesh | IV. 946 | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (C) II III IV I

Explanation

Puducherry matches with II because its Census 2011 sex ratio is 1037 females per 1000 males. Tamil Nadu matches with III because its Census 2011 sex ratio is 996 females per 1000 males. Lakshadweep matches with IV because its Census 2011 sex ratio is 946 females per 1000 males. Andhra Pradesh matches with I because its Census 2011 sex ratio is 993 females per 1000 males.

109Economy
What percentage of rail routes were electrified in India by March 2019?
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Answer: (B) 50-91%

Explanation

50-91%.

According to the official Indian Railways Year Book 2018-19, the electrification of India's rail routes was extended to 34,319 route kilometers (RKM) out of a total railway network of 67,415 RKM by March 2019. This accounted for exactly 50.91% of the total rail network.

110Economy
Match the following Coal-based Thermal Power Stations and their States: | List I (Thermal Power Station) | List II (State) | |---|---| | a. Kudgi | I. Chhattisgarh | | b. Kahalgaon | II. Karnataka | | c. Sipat | III. U.P. | | d. Dadri | IV. Bihar | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below: Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) II IV I III

Explanation

Kudgi Super Thermal Power Station is situated in the Vijayapura district of Karnataka.

Kahalgaon Super Thermal Power Station is located in the Bhagalpur district of Bihar.

Sipat Super Thermal Power Station is located in the Bilaspur district of Chhattisgarh.

Dadri Thermal Power Plant is situated in the Gautam Buddha Nagar district of Uttar Pradesh.

111Geography
Match the following : | Methods of Agricultural Regionalisation | Agricultural Geographer | |---|---| | a. Crop combination | I. Weaver, Doi | | b. Crop diversification | II. Bhatia, Jasbir Singh | | c. Crop concentration | III. Chisholm, Bhatia | | d. Agricultural productivity | IV. Kendall, Majid Husain, Jasbir Singh | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) I II III IV

Explanation

I II III IV.

Crop combination is associated with J.C. Weaver, who introduced the first quantitative method for crop combination analysis in 1954, and Kikukazu Doi, who modified Weaver's formula in 1959.

Crop diversification is linked to S.S. Bhatia and Jasbir Singh, both of whom formulated widely used indices to measure the spatial patterns of crop diversification.

Crop concentration is related to Michael Chisholm and S.S. Bhatia, who adapted the Location Quotient method to assess and map the density and regional concentration of individual crops.

Agricultural productivity is connected to M.G. Kendall, who proposed the Ranking Coefficient method in 1939 to measure regional levels of agricultural productivity. This method was later adapted and utilized in India by geographers such as Majid Husain and Jasbir Singh.

112Geography
Which of the following type of grassland separates Cold Asia from Dry Asia ?
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Answer: (A) Steppe

Explanation

The Steppe is a vast semi-arid grassland biome that acts as a natural climatic and ecological separator between the sub-arctic northern regions of Asia, known as Cold Asia (primarily Siberia), and the arid mid-latitude deserts and dry shrublands of Central and Southwestern Asia, known as Dry Asia.

113Polity and Governance
According to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, which of the following is the most appropriate sequence which shows the degree of protection between different forest types ?
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Answer: (A) Reserved Forest > Protected Forest > Village Forest

Explanation

Under the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forests are classified into three categories with different degrees of protection to regulate forest management and conserve resources.

Reserved Forests possess the highest level of protection and state control. In these areas, all human activities, including grazing, hunting, logging, and public entry, are strictly prohibited by default unless explicitly permitted by a forest officer during the settlement process.

Protected Forests have a moderate degree of protection. Unlike reserved forests, almost all activities are permitted in protected forests by default unless they are explicitly prohibited by a specific government notification. This classification allows the government to retain proprietary rights while permitting local communities to graze cattle and gather minor forest produce.

Village Forests have the lowest degree of protection. Under Section 28 of the Act, the state government may assign the rights of the government over any land which has been constituted a reserved forest to a village community. These forests are managed by local communities to meet their daily domestic, fodder, and fuel needs under regulations prescribed by the state government.

114GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
Which of the following indicator species are not found in Srivenkateshwara National Park of Andhra Pradesh ?
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Answer: (A) Wood stork

Explanation

The wood stork (Mycteria americana) is a large wading bird native to the Americas, primarily inhabiting the wetlands of the southeastern United States, Central America, and South America. It does not occur naturally in India, and therefore is not found in Sri Venkateswara National Park of Andhra Pradesh.

115Economy
Which of the following is the first pipeline constructed in India for the transportation of crude oil ?
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Answer: (C) Naharkatia - Nunnati - Barauni

Explanation

The Naharkatia - Nunnati - Barauni pipeline was the first pipeline constructed in India for the transportation of crude oil. Commissioned in 1962, this pipeline was built by Oil India Limited to transport crude oil from the oilfields of Naharkatia in Assam to the refinery at Noonmati (Guwahati), and was subsequently extended to Barauni in Bihar by 1964 to facilitate long-distance crude transport.

116GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
Andhra Pradesh is the sole producer of
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Answer: (B) Apatite

Explanation

Apatite.

According to the Indian Minerals Yearbook published by the Indian Bureau of Mines, Andhra Pradesh is the sole producer of apatite in India. Apatite is a group of phosphate minerals primarily utilized in the manufacture of fertilizers and chemical products. Within the state, the major deposits of apatite are found and mined in the Visakhapatnam district.

117Geography
Which of the following factors are responsible for the higher Sugarcane production in tropical regions as compared to sub-tropical regions of India ? I. Cool nights with clear skies II. Latitudinal position III. Long hours of sunshine IV. High temperature disparity Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (B) I, II and III only

Explanation

Tropical regions of India, situated closer to the equator due to their latitudinal position, benefit from a stable and warm marine-influenced climate that supports a longer growing season. The abundance of long hours of sunshine in these tropical areas provides the necessary solar radiation for efficient photosynthesis, leading to higher vegetative growth and biomass. Furthermore, during the ripening stage, cool nights accompanied by clear skies slow down vegetative respiration and stimulate the conversion and accumulation of sucrose in the stalks. Together, these favorable climatic conditions ensure higher sugarcane yields and sugar recovery rates in the tropical belt compared to the sub-tropical zones.

118Geography
Who among the following made the first attempt to demarcate Indian Agriculture into 4 macro regions ?
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Answer: (D) Sengupta and Sdasyuk

Explanation

In 1968, P. Sengupta and Galina Sdasyuk, in their comprehensive work Economic Regionalization of India, presented a pioneering three-tier classification of India agricultural regions. They made the first systematic attempt to delineate four major macro agricultural zones or belts on the basis of broad climatic characteristics. These four macro regions are the Himalayan Agricultural Zone, Dry Agricultural Zone, Sub-Humid Agricultural Zone, and Wet Agricultural Zone.

In their hierarchical scheme, these macro regions were further sub-divided into 11 meso-regions based on physiography, which were eventually divided into 60 micro-level regions based on crop combinations. This framework laid the groundwork for modern agricultural geography and targeted regional economic planning in India.

119Economy
Which among the following statements are true about Indian Steel Industry ? I. India is the 'second largest producer of steel in the word.' II. Indian steel industry produced 51-89 Million Tonnes crude steel with 5-1% share in the total world production. III. The production of steel in the year 2020 is more than the previous year. IV. India is ranked first in the production of crude steel. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (C) I and II

Explanation

I and II. Statement I is true (India is 2nd largest steel producer). Statement III is false (2020 production fell due to COVID vs 2019). Statement IV is false (China is 1st). Statement II is treated as true per exam source, leaving I and II.

120Geography
Match the following Geographical Heritage Sites with the States (location) : | Geographical Heritage Sites | States | |---|---| | a. Lonar Lake | I. Odisha | | b. Siwalik Fossil Park | II. Rajasthan | | c. Akal Wood Fossil Park | III. Maharashtra | | d. Pillow Lava at Nomira | IV. Himachal Pradesh | Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) III IV II I

Explanation

Lonar Lake is a unique meteorite impact crater and saline, alkaline lake located in Buldhana district, Maharashtra.

Siwalik Fossil Park, also known as Suketi Fossil Park, is a notified national geological monument containing prehistoric vertebrate fossils located in Sirmaur district, Himachal Pradesh.

Akal Wood Fossil Park preserves fossilized wood logs dating back to the Jurassic geological period in Jaisalmer district, Rajasthan.

Pillow Lava at Nomira is a designated national geological monument exhibiting excellent underwater volcanic structures located in Keonjhar district, Odisha.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2A
  3. 3B
  4. 4C
  5. 5C
  6. 6D
  7. 7B
  8. 8C
  9. 9A
  10. 10A
  11. 11D
  12. 12A
  13. 13D
  14. 14C
  15. 15C
  16. 16C
  17. 17B
  18. 18A
  19. 19A
  20. 20C
  21. 21B
  22. 22A
  23. 23C
  24. 24A
  25. 25B
  26. 26C
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29D
  30. 30B
  31. 31C
  32. 32A
  33. 33B
  34. 34C
  35. 35B
  36. 36B
  37. 37D
  38. 38C
  39. 39A
  40. 40C
  41. 41D
  42. 42B
  43. 43A
  44. 44A
  45. 45A
  46. 46C
  47. 47C
  48. 48D
  49. 49A
  50. 50C
  51. 51D
  52. 52B
  53. 53A
  54. 54B
  55. 55D
  56. 56A
  57. 57C
  58. 58A
  59. 59A
  60. 60B
  61. 61A
  62. 62B
  63. 63B
  64. 64C
  65. 65D
  66. 66A
  67. 67D
  68. 68A
  69. 69D
  70. 70C
  71. 71C
  72. 72A
  73. 73D
  74. 74A
  75. 75D
  76. 76B
  77. 77C
  78. 78B
  79. 79A
  80. 80B
  81. 81A
  82. 82B
  83. 83C
  84. 84A
  85. 85B
  86. 86D
  87. 87A
  88. 88B
  89. 89C
  90. 90A
  91. 91C
  92. 92B
  93. 93B
  94. 94A
  95. 95D
  96. 96B
  97. 97C
  98. 98B
  99. 99B
  100. 100A
  101. 101A
  102. 102C
  103. 103A
  104. 104A
  105. 105C
  106. 106B
  107. 107C
  108. 108C
  109. 109B
  110. 110B
  111. 111B
  112. 112A
  113. 113A
  114. 114A
  115. 115C
  116. 116B
  117. 117B
  118. 118D
  119. 119C
  120. 120B

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