APPSC Group 11999✓ Every question solved

APPSC Group 1 Prelims 1999 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 150 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

150
Questions
6
Subjects
1
Andhra Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology5436%
  • Polity and Governance3020%
  • Economy2315%
  • History2315%
  • Geography1812%
  • Art and Culture21%
1Science and Technology
Casein is the protein present in
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Answer: (D) milk

Explanation

Casein is a major phosphoprotein found in mammalian milk, making up about 80% of the total protein content in cow's milk. It is essential for delivering amino acids, calcium, and phosphorus to the newborn.

2Geography
Minimate disease caused by the pollution of
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Answer: (A) mercury

Explanation

Minamata disease is a neurological syndrome caused by severe mercury poisoning, specifically from consuming fish and shellfish contaminated with methylmercury discharged in industrial wastewater. It was first discovered in Minamata city, Japan, in 1956.

3Science and Technology
Silica is found in the body of
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Answer: (A) Diatom

Explanation

Diatoms are single-celled photosynthetic algae characterized by a unique siliceous cell wall called a frustule, which is composed of hydrated silicon dioxide (silica). This makes them the primary organisms associated with silica in their body structure among the options provided.

4Geography
Indian Pangolin feeds on
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Answer: (D) ants and termites

Explanation

The Indian pangolin is a specialized insectivorous mammal that feeds almost exclusively on ants and termites. It uses its powerful claws to dig into nests and mounds, and its long, sticky tongue to capture the insects.

5Science and Technology
Fastest running land animal is
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Answer: (A) cheetah

Explanation

The cheetah is the fastest running land animal, capable of reaching speeds up to 120 km/h (75 mph) in short bursts. This far exceeds the maximum speeds of deer, horses, and tigers.

6Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin ?
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Answer: (D) Ascorbic acid

Explanation

Ascorbic acid is the chemical name for Vitamin C, which is a water-soluble vitamin. In contrast, Vitamin A and Vitamin D are fat-soluble vitamins.

7Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a function of liver ?
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Answer: (A) Production of insulin

Explanation

Insulin is a hormone produced and secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas, not the liver. The liver is, however, responsible for the breakdown of red blood cells, the synthesis of glycogen, and the production of bile.

8Science and Technology
Metamorphosis of tadpole into full grown frog may be accelerated by the administration of
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Answer: (C) Thyroxine

Explanation

Thyroxine is the primary hormone responsible for regulating metamorphosis in amphibians. Administering thyroxine to tadpoles stimulates and accelerates their transformation into adult frogs.

9Science and Technology
Pancreas is
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Answer: (C) both exocrine and endocrine

Explanation

The pancreas functions as both an exocrine gland, secreting digestive enzymes into ducts, and an endocrine gland, secreting hormones like insulin and glucagon directly into the bloodstream. For this reason, it is classified as a heterocrine or mixed gland.

10Science and Technology
Human heart is
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Answer: (B) myogenic

Explanation

The human heart is myogenic because its contraction is initiated by specialized cardiac muscle cells (the pacemaker or sinoatrial node) rather than by external nerve impulses. This allows the heart to beat rhythmically even when severed from the nervous system.

11Science and Technology
Source of energy of the sun is
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Answer: (C) nuclear fusion

Explanation

The primary source of energy of the sun is nuclear fusion, which occurs in its core. During this process, hydrogen nuclei fuse together under extremely high temperature and pressure to form helium, releasing a massive amount of energy in the form of light and heat.

12Science and Technology
Optical fibers used in communication are developed based on the phenomenon of
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Answer: (D) total internal reflection of light

Explanation

Optical fibers transmit data as light pulses through a glass or plastic strand based on the principle of total internal reflection. When light hits the boundary between the core and cladding at an angle greater than the critical angle, it is completely reflected back into the core, allowing it to travel long distances with minimal loss.

13Science and Technology
Sky appears blue due to
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Answer: (C) scattering of light in blue region

Explanation

The sky appears blue due to Rayleigh scattering, which occurs when sunlight interacts with molecules in Earth's atmosphere. Since blue light has a shorter wavelength, it is scattered in all directions much more than other colors, making the sky look blue to our eyes.

14Science and Technology
Microwave ovens work on the principle of
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Answer: (A) absorption of microwaves by water

Explanation

Microwave ovens operate using electromagnetic waves at a frequency of 2.45 GHz. This frequency is highly effective because it is readily absorbed by polar molecules, primarily water, which is abundant in most food items. Water molecules behave as electrical dipoles, possessing a partial positive charge on the hydrogen atoms and a partial negative charge on the oxygen atom. When the alternating electric field of the microwaves passes through the food, it forces these dipoles to continuously realign with the rapidly changing field. This rapid rotational movement leads to intense molecular friction and collision, converting the electromagnetic energy into thermal energy. This process, known as dielectric heating, efficiently heats and cooks the food.

15Science and Technology
A child was playing with water, spraying it vigorously on himself on a pleasant Sunday morning. One of the children surrounding him claimed he saw a beautiful rainbow. This kid was found standing on the
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Answer: (D) East side

Explanation

For a rainbow to be visible, the observer must have the sun behind them while looking towards the water droplets. Since it was morning, the sun was in the East, meaning the observer had to face West towards the water spray, placing them on the East side of the child spraying water.

16Economy
The chief raw material for fabrication of paper is
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Answer: (B) bamboo

Explanation

Bamboo is the primary raw material used in the manufacture of paper pulp, particularly in India, where it has historically been the most abundant and widely used source of cellulose fiber for paper production.

17Science and Technology
An example of molecular crystal
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Answer: (B) ice

Explanation

Ice is a classic example of a molecular crystal because its constituent particles are discrete water (H₂O) molecules. These individual molecules are held together in a regular, three-dimensional crystalline lattice by intermolecular hydrogen bonding. Because the forces holding the molecules together in the lattice are intermolecular interactions rather than ionic, metallic, or covalent chemical bonds, it is classified as a molecular solid.

18Science and Technology
Einstein got his Nobel Prize due to his work on
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Answer: (A) photo electric effect

Explanation

Albert Einstein was awarded the 1921 Nobel Prize in Physics for his services to theoretical physics, and especially for his discovery of the law of the photoelectric effect. This work established the quantum nature of light and was pivotal in the development of modern physics.

19Science and Technology
Two trains are moving with velocity of light c in opposite directions. The relative velocity of the trains as observed by the passengers sitting in each train will be
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Answer: (B) c

Explanation

According to the relativistic velocity addition theorem in special relativity, when two objects move in opposite directions at the speed of light c, their relative velocity as observed by each other remains c. Applying the formula v' = (u + v) / (1 + uv/c²) with u = c and v = c yields a relative velocity of c.

20Science and Technology
Which of the following is the strongest force?
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Answer: (D) Nuclear forces

Explanation

Nuclear force (specifically the strong nuclear force) is the strongest of the four fundamental forces of nature. It is approximately 137 times stronger than the electromagnetic force and 10³⁸ times stronger than the gravitational force, which is the weakest of the fundamental forces.

21Polity and Governance
Who has announced that 1999 would be the 'Year of Jawans' for creating a climate of change within the army meet the challenges of the future ?
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Answer: (D) General V.P. Malik

Explanation

The Chief of Army Staff, General V.P. Malik, declared 1999 as the Year of the Jawan during his Army Day address in January 1999, focusing on the welfare, housing, and working conditions of the soldiers to better prepare them for future challenges.

22Polity and Governance
Who is the first Woman Vice-Chancellor of Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences?
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Answer: (A) Dr. S. Kanta

Explanation

Dr. S. Kanta (also spelled Dr. S. Kantha) was the first Vice-Chancellor of Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, serving from 1996 to 1999, which also makes her the university's first woman Vice-Chancellor.

23History
Which is the birth-place of Amartya Sen ?
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Answer: (D) Shanti Nivasam

Explanation

Amartya Sen was born in Santiniketan, West Bengal. The option Shanti Nivasam is a synonym or translation meaning abode of peace, which refers to Santiniketan, making it the correct choice among the given options.

24Economy
For which subject did Amartya Kumar Sen receive the prestigious Nobel Prize ?
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Answer: (D) Economics

Explanation

Amartya Kumar Sen was awarded the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his contributions to welfare economics and social choice theory. His work focused on mechanisms for democratic decision-making and improving the lives of the poor.

25Polity and Governance
The only condition on which India wants to subscribe to the CTBT is
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Answer: (D) total nuclear disarmament

Explanation

India has consistently maintained that it would only subscribe to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) if it were linked to a commitment for total and universal nuclear disarmament in a time-bound manner. India blocked the treaty in 1996 on the grounds that it was discriminatory and did not address the complete elimination of nuclear weapons.

26Polity and Governance
Among the following, who has been appointed as Director-General of the National Human Rights Commission ?
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Answer: (C) D.R.Karthikeyan

Explanation

D.R. Karthikeyan, a distinguished IPS officer who previously headed the Special Investigation Team of the CBI, was appointed as the Director-General (Investigation) of the National Human Rights Commission in 1998. M.N. Venkatachaliah, on the other hand, served as the Chairperson of the Commission during this period.

27Geography
Which one of the following is the least populated state in India ?
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Answer: (A) Sikkim

Explanation

Sikkim is the least populated state in India, with a population of approximately 5.4 lakh according to the 2001 Census and 6.1 lakh according to the 2011 Census, which is significantly lower than the populations of Goa, Arunachal Pradesh, and Meghalaya.

28History
Which one amongst the following was awarded Bharat Ratna in 1997 ?
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Answer: (D) Dr.A.P.J.Abdul Kalam

Explanation

Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor, in the year 1997 for his significant contributions to scientific research and the development of defense technology in India. None of the other individuals listed in the options have been awarded the Bharat Ratna.

29Economy
Who is the present Governor of Reserve Bank of India ?
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Answer: (D) Dr.Bimal Jalan

Explanation

Dr. Bimal Jalan served as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from November 1997 to September 2003, which covers the year 1999.

30Polity and Governance
Who among the following is the Chairman of the National Commission for SC and ST ?
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Answer: (C) H.Hanumanthappa

Explanation

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was established as a high-level constitutional body under Article 338 of the Constitution of India. The second National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was constituted in October 1995 with H. Hanumanthappa appointed as its Chairman. He headed this statutory body until December 1998, when the third commission was constituted.

31Polity and Governance
Sarkaria Commission was set up reviewing the relations between
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Answer: (D) Centre and the States

Explanation

The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the Government of India to examine and review the working of the existing arrangements between the Union (Centre) and the States in all spheres and recommend appropriate changes. Therefore, it was established to review the relations between the Centre and the States.

32Polity and Governance
The present pattern of Panchayat owes its parentage to
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Answer: (B) Balwantrai Mehta Committee

Explanation

The Balwantrai Mehta Committee, appointed in 1957, recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India, which serves as the foundation for the present pattern of local self-government.

33Polity and Governance
Anna Hazare is known for
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Answer: (A) Watershed Development

Explanation

Anna Hazare is widely recognized for his pioneering work in watershed development and water conservation in Ralegan Siddhi, a drought-prone village in Maharashtra, which he transformed into a model self-sufficient village.

34Polity and Governance
When there is no majority party in State Legislative Assembly, the principal consideration governing the choice of the Chief Minister by Governor of the State is the
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Answer: (A) ability of the person who is most likely to command a stable majority

Explanation

In a hung assembly where no single party wins a clear majority, the primary constitutional duty and discretion of the Governor is to appoint a Chief Minister who is most likely to command a stable majority in the House. This ensures that the government can maintain collective responsibility to the State Legislative Assembly as mandated by the Constitution.

35Polity and Governance
Judicial Remedy whereby the State inquires into the legality of detaining a person is better known as
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Answer: (A) Habeas Corpus

Explanation

The writ of Habeas Corpus is a judicial remedy used to inquire into the legality of a person's detention, ensuring that no individual is illegally or arbitrarily deprived of their personal liberty. If the detention is found to be unlawful, the court orders the immediate release of the person.

36Economy
When an advance grant is made by the Parliament, pending the regular passage of the Budget, it is called
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Answer: (A) Vote on - account

Explanation

A Vote on Account is a grant in advance made by the Parliament to cover the essential government expenditure for a part of the financial year, pending the completion of the regular voting and passage of the Budget. This provision is made under Article 116 of the Constitution of India to ensure the government has funds to function until the Appropriation Bill is passed.

37Polity and Governance
The principles concerning the provisions of the grants - in - aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India are recommended by the
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Answer: (A) Finance Commission

Explanation

Under Article 280(3)(b) of the Constitution of India, the Finance Commission is mandated to recommend the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

38Polity and Governance
The State Finance Commission is appointed by
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Answer: (C) State Government

Explanation

The State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor of the respective state under Article 243-I of the Constitution of India. Since the Governor acts as the constitutional head of the State Government and appointments are made on the aid and advice of the state cabinet, "State Government" is the most appropriate option among those provided.

39Polity and Governance
Which State Government is going ahead alone without Central Government's help in the power sector ?
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Answer: (C) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

In the late 1990s, the Jammu and Kashmir government decided to execute the 450 MW Baglihar hydroelectric project on its own through the J | K State Power Development Corporation, without financial assistance or counter-guarantees from the Central Government.

40Economy
NABARD helps rural development by
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Answer: (B) providing refinance facility

Explanation

NABARD acts as an apex refinancing institution that provides credit flow for the promotion and development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, and handicrafts in rural areas. It does not lend directly to individual farmers but rather provides refinancing facilities to cooperative banks, commercial banks, and regional rural banks.

41Economy
Agricultural commodities prices in India are fixed by
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Answer: (A) Central Government

Explanation

The Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for agricultural commodities in India are recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (formerly known as the Agricultural Prices Commission), but the final decision to fix and announce these prices is made by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs of the Central Government. Therefore, the Central Government is the authority that ultimately fixes these prices.

42Economy
Antyodaya Programme was first of all started in
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Answer: (D) Rajasthan

Explanation

The Antyodaya Programme was first launched by the government of Rajasthan in 1977 under the leadership of Bhairon Singh Shekhawat to uplift the poorest of the poor. This state-level initiative later served as the basis for national welfare schemes of similar names.

43Economy
Deficit Finance means
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Answer: (D) spending in excess of revenue

Explanation

Deficit finance refers to the practice where a government's total expenditure exceeds its total revenue. This gap or deficit is typically financed through borrowing from internal or external sources, or by printing new currency.

44Economy
Among the non-foodgrain crops, the largest area is devoted to the cultivation of
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Answer: (B) Oilseeds

Explanation

Among the non-foodgrain crops in India, oilseeds occupy the largest area under cultivation, covering more than 25 million hectares. This is significantly higher than the acreage of other commercial crops like cotton, sugarcane, and jute.

45Economy
The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act was enacted in the year
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Answer: (C) 1969

Explanation

The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 1969 and came into force on June 1, 1970. It was designed to prevent the concentration of economic power, control monopolies, and prohibit monopolistic and restrictive trade practices.

46Science and Technology
Complete the following series of numbers. 2, 6, 21, 88
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Answer: (C) 445

Explanation

The series follows the pattern where the nth term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by (n + 1) and then adding (n + 1). Applying this rule, we get 2 * 2 + 2 = 6, 6 * 3 + 3 = 21, 21 * 4 + 4 = 88, and finally 88 * 5 + 5 = 445.

47Science and Technology
Complete the following series of numbers. 3, 7, 16, 35
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Answer: (B) 74

Explanation

The pattern in the series is that each term is multiplied by 2 and then an increasing integer is added to it: (3 * 2) + 1 = 7, (7 * 2) + 2 = 16, and (16 * 2) + 3 = 35. Following this logic, the next term is (35 * 2) + 4 = 74.

48Science and Technology
Complete the following series of numbers. 2, 4, 12, 48
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Answer: (D) 240

Explanation

The series is formed by multiplying each number by successive integers: 2 multiplied by 2 is 4, 4 multiplied by 3 is 12, 12 multiplied by 4 is 48, and 48 multiplied by 5 is 240. Therefore, the next term in the series is 240, which corresponds to option d.

49Science and Technology
Complete the following series of numbers. 2, 8, 30, 128
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Answer: (C) 650

Explanation

The sequence follows the pattern where each term is obtained by adding 2 to the previous term and then multiplying the result by the next consecutive integer, starting from 2. Applying this rule, the next term is (128 + 2) multiplied by 5, which equals 650.

50Science and Technology
In a family there are 6 children A, B, C, D, E and F. Among them A is younger than C, E older than F who is in turn older than C; F is younger than B and D is the 4th in the birth order. Who is the oldest person ?
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Answer: (B) B

Explanation

Based on the given conditions, we can establish the partial birth order: E and B are both older than F, who is older than C, who is older than A. Since D is 4th in the birth order, the sequence from oldest to youngest is either B > E > F > D > C > A or E > B > F > D > C > A. While either B or E could be the oldest, B is the standard accepted answer.

51Science and Technology
In a family there are 6 children A, B, C, D, E and F. Among them A is younger than C, E older than F who is in turn older than C; F is younger than B and D is the 4th in the birth order. Who is the youngest person ?
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Answer: (A) A

Explanation

By analyzing the age relations, we have A < C < F, with both E and B being older than F. Regardless of whether the birth order is counted from oldest to youngest or youngest to oldest, A is at the youngest end of the sequence, making A the youngest person.

52Science and Technology
In a family there are 6 children A, B, C, D, E and F. Among them A is younger than C, E older than F who is in turn older than C; F is younger than B and D is the 4th in the birth order. Who is older than just three persons ?
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Answer: (C) F

Explanation

Based on the clues, the age order from eldest to youngest is either B, E, F, D, C, A or E, B, F, D, C, A, where D is the fourth in birth order. This means F is in the third position, making F older than exactly three persons: D, C, and A.

53Science and Technology
In a family there are 6 children A, B, C, D, E and F. Among them A is younger than C, E older than F who is in turn older than C; F is younger than B and D is the 4th in the birth order. Who is the second child ?
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Answer: (D) E

Explanation

Based on the given clues, the birth order from eldest to youngest must be {B, E} > F > D > C > A. Since D is 4th, F must be 3rd because B and E are both older than F (meaning they must occupy the 1st and 2nd positions). Among the possibilities for the 2nd child (B or E), only E is present in the given options.

54Economy
The age of A is 4 times that of B, who is older than C by 5 years. If the age of C is 6 years, what is the age of A ?
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Answer: (C) 44

Explanation

The age of C is given as 6 years. Since B is older than C by 5 years, the age of B is 11 years (6 + 5). The age of A is 4 times that of B, which makes A's age 44 years (4 * 11).

55Economy
There are two boxes A and B containing pens. If 10 pens from box B are put in box A, the number of pens in box A becomes 3 times the pens in box B. But if 10 pens from box A are put in box B, the number of pens in both the boxes A and B will be equal. How many pens are there in box A and box B ?
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Answer: (C) 50 and 30

Explanation

Let the number of pens in boxes A and B be x and y respectively. According to the first condition, x + 10 = 3(y - 10), and according to the second condition, x - 10 = y + 10, which gives x - y = 20. Solving these two equations gives x = 50 and y = 30, which corresponds to option C.

56Economy
If 1/3 of a tank is filled in 30 minutes, how much time does it take to fill whole tank ?
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Answer: (D) 1 hour 30 minutes

Explanation

Using the unitary method, if 1/3 of the tank is filled in 30 minutes, the time required to fill the entire tank is calculated by multiplying the time taken for the fraction of the tank by the reciprocal of that fraction.

Time to fill 1 whole tank = 30 minutes × 3 = 90 minutes

Since 60 minutes is equal to 1 hour, 90 minutes is equivalent to 1 hour 30 minutes.

57Science and Technology
In a code language if FRANK is written as UIZMP, then 'CLOSE' should be written as
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Answer: (D) XOLHV

Explanation

The coding pattern uses the opposite letter pairs where the sum of alphabetical positions is 27. Applying this rule to C-L-O-S-E gives X-O-L-H-V, which corresponds to option d.

58Science and Technology
In a code language if TOWN is written as GLDM, then SPARE should be written as
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Answer: (A) HKZIV

Explanation

The coding pattern uses the opposite letters of the alphabet (where the sum of the positions of the letter and its code is 27). Applying this to SPARE, S becomes H, P becomes K, A becomes Z, R becomes I, and E becomes V, which gives HKZIV, represented by both options A and C.

59Science and Technology
In a code language if TASK is written as WEXQ, then LORD should be written as
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Answer: (A) OSWJ

Explanation

The coding pattern follows an increasing forward shift of +3, +4, +5, and +6 for each subsequent letter. Applying this to LORD gives L+3=O, O+4=S, R+5=W, and D+6=J, which results in OSWJ.

60Science and Technology
In a code language if LOCK is written as NQEM, then RASH should be written as
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Answer: (C) TCUJ

Explanation

The coding pattern involves shifting each letter forward by two positions in the English alphabet. Applying this pattern to RASH, we get R+2=T, A+2=C, S+2=U, and H+2=J, resulting in TCUJ.

61History
Tax-free villages granted to the learned Brahmanas in ancient India were known as
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Answer: (A) Agrahara

Explanation

In ancient India, an Agrahara was a tax-free village or land grant given to learned Brahmanas for their sustenance and to promote learning. Other options like Bhukti referred to administrative provinces, making Agrahara the correct term.

62History
Who among the following foreign travellers visited India during the seventh century A. D.?
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Answer: (C) I-tsing

Explanation

I-tsing was a Chinese Buddhist traveler who visited India during the late seventh century A.D., specifically between 671 and 695 A.D. In contrast, Fa-hien visited in the fifth century, Suleman in the ninth century, and Alberuni in the eleventh century.

63History
The primary source of Balban's opinions on sovereignty and government is
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Answer: (A) I-Barni

Explanation

Ziauddin Barani, referred to as I-Barni in the options, provides the most detailed account of Ghiyasuddin Balban's theory of kingship and sovereignty in his historical work Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi. His writings detail Balban's belief in the divine right of kings (Niyabat-i-Khudai) and his advice on governance to his sons.

64History
Which one of the following ruling lines of the Marathas defeated Bajirao II ?
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Answer: (B) Holkar

Explanation

Peshwa Baji Rao II was defeated by Yashwantrao Holkar of the Holkar dynasty at the Battle of Poona in 1802. This defeat forced the Peshwa to flee to Bassein and sign the Treaty of Bassein with the British East India Company.

65History
'Mansab' in the Mansabdari System indicated
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Answer: (B) status and income of the holder

Explanation

The term Mansab refers to a rank or position in the Mughal administrative system. It determined the official status and the salary or income of the holder (represented by the Zat rank), as well as their military responsibilities (represented by the Sawar rank), and applied to both civil and military officers alike.

66History
Who translated the Bhagvadgita into English for the first time ?
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Answer: (B) Charles Wilkins

Explanation

Charles Wilkins was an English Orientalist who translated the Bhagavad Gita into English for the first time in 1785, under the title Bhagvat-geeta, or Dialogues of Kreeshna and Arjoon. His work was published with the support of Warren Hastings, the Governor-General of India at the time.

67History
Bankim Chandra's novel Ananda Math makes a reference to
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Answer: (C) The Sanyasi Rebellion

Explanation

Anandamath, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and published in 1882, is set in the background of the Sanyasi Rebellion of the late 18th century. The novel depicts the struggle of the Sanyasis (monks) against the British East India Company and is set against the backdrop of the devastating Bengal famine of 1770. It is famously known for being the source of India's national song, Vande Mataram.

68History
The author of Nil Darpan is
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Answer: (B) Dina Bandhu Mitra

Explanation

Nil Darpan, a highly influential Bengali play depicting the plight and exploitation of indigo farmers under British rule, was written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859.

69History
Deindustrialisation and the growth of poverty of India under the British rule were refuted in the writings of
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Answer: (C) Vora Anstoy

Explanation

Vera Anstey (misspelled as Vora Anstoy in the options) was a British economic historian whose writings, particularly "The Economic Development of India", challenged the nationalist critique of British rule by arguing against the theories of systematic deindustrialisation and drain of wealth. In contrast, nationalist thinkers like Justice Ranade and Bholanath Chandra wrote extensively to support the deindustrialisation and drain theories.

70History
Who renounced his knighthood as a protest against the Jallianwallah Bagh tragedy?
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Answer: (C) Rabindra Nath Tagore

Explanation

Rabindranath Tagore renounced his British knighthood in May 1919 as a protest against the brutal Jallianwala Bagh massacre. He expressed his pain and protest in a letter to the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford, stating that such massacres left no room for retaining honorary titles.

71Geography
Of the following geographical regions India which is not a plateau region ?
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Answer: (C) Konkan

Explanation

Konkan is a rugged coastal plain region stretching along the western coast of India, whereas Malwa, Dharwad, and Meghalaya are all recognized plateau regions of the country.

72Geography
Weather instrument speed is
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Answer: (D) Anemometer

Explanation

An anemometer is the meteorological instrument used to measure wind speed. Among the options, wind vane measures wind direction, ceilometer measures cloud height, and clinometer measures tilt or angles of slope.

73Geography
Sea of Tranquillity is located in
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Answer: (D) None of the oceans

Explanation

The Sea of Tranquillity (Mare Tranquillitatis) is a lunar mare located on the Moon. Since it is on the Moon and not on Earth, it does not lie within any of the Earth's oceans.

74Geography
The rain forest of Amazon basin called
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Answer: (B) Selvas

Explanation

The tropical rainforests of the Amazon basin are known as Selvas, which are characterized by dense, evergreen trees and high annual rainfall. On the other hand, Campos, Pampas, and Llanos are different types of grasslands found in South America.

75Economy
The largest producer of cocoa in the world is
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Answer: (B) Ivory Coast

Explanation

Ivory Coast has been the world's largest producer of cocoa since 1978, when it overtook other major producers. Located in West Africa, the country possesses the ideal tropical climate, abundant rainfall, and fertile soils required for the cultivation of cocoa trees. By the late 1990s, Ivory Coast accounted for over 30% of the total global cocoa supply, making cocoa production the cornerstone of its national economy and its primary source of export revenue.

76Geography
The Dhaulagiri peak is located in
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Answer: (B) Nepal

Explanation

The Dhaulagiri peak, which is the seventh highest mountain in the world, is located entirely within the borders of Nepal in the north-central part of the country.

77Geography
One of the good examples for inter - state irrigation projects in India is
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Answer: (C) Gandak

Explanation

The Gandak project is a major joint inter-state irrigation and power project between the states of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, with Nepal also benefiting from it under a bilateral agreement. The other options (Idukki, Lower Sileru, and Sabarigiri) are primarily hydroelectric projects located within single states.

78Economy
Which one of the following is the largest single industry in India
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Answer: (B) Textiles

Explanation

The textile industry is the largest single industry in India in terms of employment generation, second only to agriculture, and contributes significantly to the country's industrial production and export earnings.

79Geography
Tank irrigation is extensively practised in South India in which pair of the following states of South India is this irrigation relatively more common ?
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Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

Tank irrigation is most widely practiced in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu due to the rocky terrain and undulating relief of the Deccan Plateau, which makes the construction of canals and wells difficult. These two states together account for the largest share of tank-irrigated area in South India.

80GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
The Krishna river separates in Andhra Pradesh
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Answer: (B) the Krishna region from the Guntur region

Explanation

The Krishna River acts as a natural geographical boundary in Andhra Pradesh, separating the Krishna district on its northern bank from the Guntur district on its southern bank. This makes option b the correct answer.

81Geography
The Semangs are tribal people who live in
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Answer: (D) Malaysia

Explanation

The Semang are an indigenous Negrito ethnic group of the Malay Peninsula, residing primarily in the forested and mountainous regions of northern Malaysia and southern Thailand. Therefore, Malaysia is the correct option.

82Geography
The farmers in Egypt are called
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Answer: (B) Fallahins

Explanation

The term Fallahins (or Fellahin) refers to the traditional agricultural laborers or farmers in Egypt and the Nile Valley. Other options represent different ethnic or nomadic groups, such as the Bedouins of the deserts or the Bushmen of southern Africa.

83Geography
The highest peaks of the Himalayas are found in
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Answer: (C) Himadri

Explanation

The Himadri range, also known as the Great or Inner Himalayas, contains the loftiest peaks of the world with an average altitude of 6,000 metres, including Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga. Himachal (Lesser Himalayas) and Siwalik (Outer Himalayas) have much lower average heights.

84Geography
The St. Lawrence river in North America begins at the eastern end of the lake
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Answer: (C) Ontario

Explanation

The St. Lawrence River begins its outflow at the eastern end of Lake Ontario, near Kingston, Ontario, and flows northeasterly into the Gulf of St. Lawrence. Therefore, Lake Ontario is the source lake from which the river starts.

85History
The territory of Alaska became a United States possession in 1867, when the American Government purchased it from
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Answer: (C) Russia

Explanation

The United States purchased the territory of Alaska from the Russian Empire in 1867. The transaction, known as the Alaska Purchase, was negotiated by US Secretary of State William H. Seward and Russian diplomat Edouard de Stoeckl. The treaty was signed on March 30, 1867, and approved by the US Senate, transferring approximately 586,412 square miles of land to the United States for a purchase price of 7.2 million USD. This acquisition ended Russia's presence in North America and provided the United States with a strategic foothold in the northern Pacific.

86Polity and Governance
Name the only Indian Prime Minister who never faced the Parliament during his tenure.
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Answer: (A) Choudhary Charan Singh

Explanation

Choudhary Charan Singh served as the Prime Minister of India from July 28, 1979, to January 14, 1980. He resigned from his post after the Congress party withdrew its support before the parliament could meet for a vote of confidence, making him the only Prime Minister who never faced the Parliament during his tenure.

87Polity and Governance
Which one of the following rights was considered the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution of India by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
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Answer: (B) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Explanation

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described the Right to Constitutional Remedies, guaranteed under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, as its heart and soul. This is because it provides citizens with the legal recourse to stand before the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their fundamental rights.

88History
"Swaraj will not be a free gift of the British Parliament; it will be a declaration of India's full self-expression." This statement was made by
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Answer: (C) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi made this statement in 1922, emphasizing that Swaraj would be a declaration of India's self-expression and must arise from the strength of its own people, rather than being a gift granted by the British Parliament.

89Polity and Governance
The source for political power in India lies with the
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Answer: (C) People

Explanation

The ultimate source of political power in India lies with the people, as the country is a democratic republic where sovereignty rests with its citizens. This is also reflected in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, which begins with the words We, the People of India.

90Polity and Governance
The joint sitting of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business is presided over by
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Answer: (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation

Under Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, if they are also absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides.

91Science and Technology
At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the directions of its velocity and accelerations are
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Answer: (D) Perpendicular to each other

Explanation

At the highest point of its trajectory, a projectile's vertical velocity component becomes zero, leaving only a horizontal velocity component. Since the acceleration due to gravity acts vertically downwards, the velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other at this point.

92Science and Technology
Which of the following equations represents a simple harmonic motion, where k is a constant and x is displacement of the object from its equilibrium position at time t ?
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Answer: (B) (d²x)/(dt²) +kx = 0

Explanation

Simple harmonic motion is a periodic motion where the restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement from the equilibrium position and acts in the opposite direction to that displacement. This force is represented as:

F = -Kx

By Newton's second law of motion, force is equal to the product of mass and acceleration, where acceleration is the second derivative of displacement with respect to time:

m (d²x/dt²) = -Kx

Dividing both sides by the mass m gives:

d²x/dt² + (K/m)x = 0

Substituting the constant k = K/m, where k is a positive constant representing the square of the angular frequency, yields the standard differential equation for simple harmonic motion:

d²x/dt² + kx = 0

93Science and Technology
A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current i. It is placed with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field B. The magnetic force acting on the loop is given by
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Answer: (D) zero

Explanation

The net magnetic force on any closed current-carrying loop in a uniform magnetic field is zero because the vector sum of the path elements around the closed loop is zero. Therefore, the magnetic force acting on the circular loop is zero.

94Science and Technology
LED is a semiconductor device that overtendenergy into - energy.
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Answer: (B) electrical; light

Explanation

A Light Emitting Diode (LED) is a p-n junction semiconductor diode that emits light when forward-biased. When an electric current passes through the diode in the forward direction, electrons from the conduction band recombine with holes in the valence band at the junction interface. This recombination process releases energy in the form of photons, thereby directly converting electrical energy into light energy.

95Science and Technology
A pipe closed at one end and open at the other end will give
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Answer: (C) all odd harmonics

Explanation

A pipe closed at one end and open at the other has a node at the closed end and an antinode at the open end, which restricts the allowed standing wave patterns to odd multiples of the fundamental frequency. Therefore, it produces only odd harmonics.

96Science and Technology
The mean kinetic energy of a gas atom at absolute temperature T is
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Answer: (D) 3KT/2

Explanation

According to the kinetic theory of gases and the law of equipartition of energy, a single gas atom has three translational degrees of freedom, each contributing 1/2 KT to the average kinetic energy. Therefore, the total mean kinetic energy of a gas atom at absolute temperature T is 3/2 KT.

97Science and Technology
Temperature of liquid helium is about
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Answer: (A) -269C

Explanation

Liquid helium has a boiling point of about 4.2 Kelvin at standard atmospheric pressure, which is approximately -269 degrees Celsius. This is extremely close to absolute zero, making option a the correct answer.

98Science and Technology
A plane mirror is moved towards a stationary observer with a speed of 4mS-1. The speed at which his image will move towards him is
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Answer: (C) 8ms-1

Explanation

The relation between the position of a stationary observer, a plane mirror, and the formed image is represented by the formula:

d = 2x

where d is the distance between the observer and their image, and x is the distance between the observer and the mirror.

Differentiating this relation with respect to time gives the rate of change of the distance between the observer and the image:

dd/dt = 2 dx/dt

In this equation, dx/dt represents the velocity of the mirror with respect to the stationary observer, and dd/dt represents the velocity of the image with respect to the observer.

Substituting the given velocity of the mirror (4 m s⁻¹) into the formula:

dd/dt = 2 × 4 m s⁻¹ = 8 m s⁻¹

99Science and Technology
Atoms are arranged at the corners of a simple cubic lattice. The number of atoms per unit cell is
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Answer: (A) 1

Explanation

In a simple cubic lattice, there are 8 atoms located at the corners of the cube, and each corner atom is shared by 8 adjacent unit cells. Therefore, the total number of atoms per unit cell is 8 multiplied by 1/8, which equals 1.

100Science and Technology
The work function for aluminium surface is 42eV and that for sodium surface is 20eV The two metal surfaces are illuminated by suitable radiations so as to cause photo - emission. We observe that
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Answer: (B) the threshold frequency of A1 > that of Na

Explanation

The work function is directly proportional to the threshold frequency. Since the work function of aluminium (4.2 eV or 42 eV) is greater than that of sodium (2.0 eV or 20 eV), the threshold frequency of aluminium is greater than that of sodium.

101Science and Technology
Among the following elements which one is present in chlorophyll ?
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Answer: (C) Magnesium

Explanation

Magnesium is the central atom in the chlorophyll molecule, which is essential for photosynthesis in plants. It is surrounded by a nitrogen-containing porphyrin ring, similar to how iron is at the center of heme in hemoglobin.

102Science and Technology
Which one among the following halogen acids is the most powerful reducing agent?
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Answer: (A) HI

Explanation

Among the halogen acids, the bond strength of the H-X bond decreases down the group as the size of the halogen atom increases. Hydroiodic acid (HI) has the weakest bond and the lowest bond dissociation energy, making it the most powerful reducing agent as it can easily release hydrogen.

103Economy
A good coal should have high
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Answer: (D) fixed carbon

Explanation

A good quality coal should have a high percentage of fixed carbon because it is the main combustible constituent that determines the heating value of the coal. High moisture, ash, and volatile matter are undesirable as they reduce the calorific value and efficiency of the fuel.

104Science and Technology
Freon is
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Answer: (B) CCl₂F₂

Explanation

Freon is a registered trademark name used for a class of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) that are primarily utilized as refrigerants and aerosol propellants. The most common and widely referred to Freon compound is Freon-12, which is chemically known as dichlorodifluoromethane with the formula CCl₂F₂. It is highly stable, non-flammable, and gaseous at room temperature, making it historically valuable for refrigeration and air conditioning systems.

105Science and Technology
The solid that undergoes sublimation is
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Answer: (C) NH₄Cl

Explanation

Ammonium chloride is a well-known compound that undergoes sublimation, where it decomposes into gaseous ammonia and hydrogen chloride upon heating and reforms as a solid upon cooling. Other options like sodium chloride and lead nitrate do not undergo sublimation.

106Science and Technology
If indium is added in small quantities to germanium, we get
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Answer: (B) p-type semiconductor

Explanation

Indium is a trivalent impurity with three valence electrons, while germanium is a tetravalent semiconductor. When germanium is doped with indium, it creates electron vacancies or holes, resulting in a p-type semiconductor.

107Science and Technology
What generally happens when an atom of an electronegative element becomes an ion?
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Answer: (D) It gains electrons

Explanation

An atom of an electronegative element has a high affinity for electrons and typically gains one or more electrons to form a negatively charged ion (anion) with a stable outer shell. This process allows the atom to achieve a stable electronic configuration similar to that of a noble gas.

108Science and Technology
Artificial rain is produced by seeding clouds with
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Answer: (B) silver iodide

Explanation

Silver iodide is commonly used in cloud seeding because its crystalline structure is very similar to that of natural ice, which helps in the formation of ice crystals and induces rain.

109Science and Technology
Hardening of cement is due to
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Answer: (C) hydration and hydrolysis

Explanation

The hardening of cement is a complex chemical process initiated by the addition of water to cement. This process involves both hydration and hydrolysis of the key active compounds in cement, primarily tricalcium silicate (3CaO·SiO₂), dicalcium silicate (2CaO·SiO₂), and tricalcium aluminate (3CaO·Al₂O₃).

During hydration, water molecules chemically combine with these compounds to form gel-like and crystalline hydrates, notably calcium silicate hydrate gel. Simultaneously, hydrolysis occurs as water chemically decomposes these silicates and aluminates, releasing calcium hydroxide into the solution. These combined chemical reactions lead to the development of an interlocking network of crystals and gel particles that bind the aggregate materials together, resulting in the setting and gradual hardening of the concrete structure over time.

110Science and Technology
The weight of H₂O₂ which will give on decomposition 5.6 litres of O₂ at NTP is
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Answer: (A) 17g

Explanation

The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is represented by the equation 2H2O2 -> 2H2O + O2, which shows that 2 moles of H2O2 (68g) produce 1 mole of O2 (22.4 litres at NTP). Therefore, to produce 5.6 litres of O2, the required mass of H2O2 is (68 / 22.4) * 5.6 = 17 grams.

111Science and Technology
Miller's experiment proved the theory of
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Answer: (D) Chemical Evolution

Explanation

Miller's experiment, conducted by Stanley Miller and Harold Urey in 1953, successfully demonstrated that organic molecules could be synthesized from inorganic precursors under simulated primitive Earth conditions. This provided experimental support for the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis of chemical evolution, which posits that life originated from non-living organic matter.

112Economy
A famous agricultural scientist who has been awarded a Nobel Peace Prize is
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Answer: (C) Norman Borlaug

Explanation

Norman Borlaug was an American agricultural scientist who received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970 for his lifetime of work to feed a hungry world through the Green Revolution. His development of high-yielding, disease-resistant wheat varieties dramatically increased food production and saved millions of lives from starvation.

113Economy
Central Tobacco Research Institute is located at
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Answer: (C) Rajahmundry

Explanation

The Central Tobacco Research Institute is located in Rajahmundry, Andhra Pradesh, where it was established in 1947 under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

114Science and Technology
The branch of Botany which involve isolation and fusion of protoplasts is
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Answer: (C) Tissue culture

Explanation

The isolation and fusion of protoplasts, also known as somatic hybridization, is a key technique in plant tissue culture. This process allows for the creation of hybrid plants with desirable traits by fusing the protoplasts of two different plant cells in an in vitro environment.

115Art and Culture
From which part of saffron plant is saffron obtained ?
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Answer: (C) Stigma

Explanation

Saffron is obtained from the dried, thread-like stigmas of the flower Crocus sativus. These stigmas are carefully harvested by hand and dried to be used as a spice and coloring agent.

116Science and Technology
Organic matter decomposes due to
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Answer: (C) bacteria

Explanation

Decomposition of organic matter is primarily carried out by decomposers such as bacteria and fungi, which break down complex organic compounds into simpler nutrients. Algae are photosynthetic producers and viruses do not decompose organic matter, making bacteria the correct choice.

117Geography
The primary source of energy in a ecosystem is
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Answer: (D) sunlight

Explanation

Sunlight is the primary source of energy for almost all ecosystems on Earth. Green plants and other autotrophs capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy through photosynthesis, which then flows through the food chain.

118Science and Technology
Guard cells are present in
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Answer: (C) stomata

Explanation

Guard cells are specialized epidermal cells found in pairs surrounding each stomatal pore. They regulate the opening and closing of stomata to control the exchange of gases, such as carbon dioxide and oxygen, and to limit water loss through transpiration. Osmotic changes within the guard cells cause them to swell or shrink, which alters their shape and adjusts the size of the stomatal opening.

119Science and Technology
Which of the following is called "Sea lettuce"?
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Answer: (A) Ulva

Explanation

Ulva is a genus of green algae commonly known as sea lettuce because of its ruffled, leafy green appearance which resembles terrestrial lettuce.

120Geography
Mangroves are
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Answer: (B) halophytic trees

Explanation

Mangroves are salt-tolerant trees and shrubs that grow in coastal intertidal zones, making them halophytic trees. Halophytes are specifically adapted to survive and thrive in highly saline soils and water.

121Economy
Who is the Chairman of the 11th Finance Commission ?
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Answer: (C) A.M. Khusro

Explanation

Prof. A.M. Khusro was the Chairman of the 11th Finance Commission of India, which was constituted in 1998 and cover the period of 2000 to 2005. K.C. Pant was the Chairman of the 10th Finance Commission.

122Polity and Governance
The first statesman who received World Statesman Award is
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Answer: (B) Abdul Gayoom

Explanation

Maumoon Abdul Gayoom, the former President of Maldives, was awarded the World Statesman Award by the Appeal of Conscience Foundation in 1998. He was the first South Asian statesman to receive this recognition, whereas K.R. Narayanan has not received this award.

123Economy
In which of the following countries were 4 million chickens slaughtered in an attempt to root out bird flu ?
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Answer: (B) Hong Kong

Explanation

Hong Kong slaughtered its entire poultry population of approximately 1.5 million chickens in late 1997 to stop the spread of the H5N1 strain of bird flu, which had begun jumping to humans. This was a landmark event in public health history aimed at preventing a global pandemic.

124Polity and Governance
Who was the first woman elected as the Director - General of WHO recently ?
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Answer: (A) Gro Harlem Brundtland

Explanation

Gro Harlem Brundtland, the former Prime Minister of Norway, was elected as the Director-General of the World Health Organization (WHO) in May 1998, becoming the first woman to hold this position.

125Polity and Governance
Who is the Director - General of WTO ?
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Answer: (C) Renato Ruggiero

Explanation

Renato Ruggiero served as the first Director-General of the World Trade Organization (WTO) from 1995 to 1999, making him the correct answer for the exam year 1999.

126Polity and Governance
Which one of the High Courts has declared bandh as illegal and "unconstitutional" ?
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Answer: (B) Kerala HC

Explanation

In the landmark case of Bharat Kumar K. Palicha v. State of Kerala (1997), the Kerala High Court declared bandhs illegal and unconstitutional, a decision that was later upheld by the Supreme Court of India.

127Polity and Governance
The name of the Chinese President is
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Answer: (A) Jiang Zemin

Explanation

Jiang Zemin served as the President of the People's Republic of China from 1993 to 2003, which includes the exam year of 1999.

128Economy
Who is the outstanding woman environmentalist
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Answer: (A) Medha Patkar

Explanation

Medha Patkar is a renowned Indian social activist and environmentalist best known for her leading role in the Narmada Bachao Andolan, a movement against the construction of large dams on the Narmada River. The other options are primarily known as politicians rather than environmentalists.

129Polity and Governance
Who is the Chief Executive of Pakistan Cricket Club ?
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Answer: (B) Majid Khan

Explanation

Majid Khan served as the Chief Executive of the Pakistan Cricket Board from 1996 to 1999. He is a former Pakistani cricketer who also captained the national team.

130Polity and Governance
The General Assembly consists of
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Answer: (A) 185 members

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly consisted of 185 member states from December 1994, when Palau joined, until September 1999, when three more nations were admitted. Therefore, for the exam year of 1999, 185 members is the historically correct answer.

131History
The Quit India call was given in
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Answer: (A) 1942

Explanation

The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942, during the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee, demanding an end to British rule in India. Therefore, the year 1942 is the correct answer.

132Economy
India Today is published from
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Answer: (D) Delhi

Explanation

India Today is a leading weekly news magazine in India, established in 1975 and published by Living Media India Limited, which has its headquarters and main publishing operations based in New Delhi.

133Geography
The capital of Somalia is
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Answer: (A) Mogadishu

Explanation

Mogadishu is the capital and largest city of Somalia, located in the coastal Banaadir region on the Indian Ocean. The other options are major cities in South Africa, Turkey, and Tanzania respectively.

134History
Sri Krishna Commission was appointed to enquire into the riots in
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Answer: (B) Bombay

Explanation

The Sri Krishna Commission was appointed by the Government of Maharashtra in January 1993, under Justice B.N. Srikrishna, to investigate the causes of the Bombay riots of December 1992 and January 1993.

135Polity and Governance
Common Civil Code is practised in
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Answer: (D) Goa

Explanation

Goa is the only state in India that has a Uniform Civil Code (referred to as the Goa Civil Code), which applies to all its citizens regardless of their religion. This Portuguese-era civil code remained in force even after Goa was annexed by India in 1961.

136Art and Culture
Original name of Dilip Kumar is
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Answer: (A) Yusuf Khan

Explanation

Dilip Kumar was born as Muhammad Yusuf Khan in Peshawar. He adopted the screen name Dilip Kumar at the beginning of his acting career in the 1940s.

137Science and Technology
India made its first atomic explosion in
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Answer: (C) 1974

Explanation

India conducted its first nuclear test, codenamed Smiling Buddha, on May 18, 1974, at the Pokhran test range in Rajasthan. This successful test made India the sixth nation in the world to conduct a nuclear explosion.

138Polity and Governance
Total strength of Lok Sabha is
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Answer: (B) 542

Explanation

The actual strength of the Lok Sabha is 545 (543 elected and 2 nominated members), but among the given choices, 542 is the closest and most appropriate option.

139History
Who has been selected for the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 1997 ?
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Answer: (B) Jimmy Carter

Explanation

Jimmy Carter, the former President of the United States, was awarded the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 1997 in recognition of his outstanding contribution to the promotion of international peace and development.

140Polity and Governance
In myanmar the pro-democracy leader Ms. Aung San Suu Kyi is the leader of the
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Answer: (C) National League for Democracy

Explanation

Ms. Aung San Suu Kyi is the co-founder and leader of the National League for Democracy (NLD), a major political party in Myanmar founded in 1988. The party has been a central force in the country's pro-democracy movement.

141Economy
Which one of the following is not a member of G - 15 ?
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Answer: (D) Pakistan

Explanation

The Group of 15 (G-15) is an informal forum of developing countries established in 1989. While Chile, Kenya, and Nigeria are members of this group, Pakistan has never been a member of the G-15.

142Polity and Governance
Which one of the following posts has been newly created by the UN General Assembly ?
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Answer: (B) Deputy Secretary - General

Explanation

The post of Deputy Secretary-General was established by the UN General Assembly in December 1997 to help manage Secretariat operations and took effect in 1998. The other positions, such as Secretary-General and President, have existed since the founding of the United Nations in 1945.

143Polity and Governance
In which country dominant role in country ?
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Answer: (C) India

Explanation

India. The question (though poorly printed) refers to the dominant party system in political science. India is the classic textbook example of a country where one party (Congress) played a dominant role for decades.

144Polity and Governance
Who is the President of Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) ?
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Answer: (B) Kushabhai Thakre

Explanation

Kushabhau Thakre (referred to in the options as Kushabhai Thakre) served as the President of the Bharatiya Janata Party from 1998 to 2000, which includes the exam year of 1999.

145History
…………… was the Prime Minister of England, when India became independent.
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Answer: (B) Attlee

Explanation

Clement Attlee was the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom when India gained independence on August 15, 1947. He served in this office from 1945 to 1951 and led the Labour government that oversaw the transfer of power.

146History
Who, among the following, has not attempted the decipherment of the Harappan script?
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Answer: (B) Ram Sharan Sharma

Explanation

Ram Sharan Sharma was a prominent Indian historian and academic who specialized in the socio-economic history of ancient India. His major research areas and publications focused on topics such as the history of the Sudras, Indian feudalism, and material culture in ancient times. He was not an epigraphist and did not undertake any research or make any attempts to decode and decipher the Indus Valley script.

147History
Asoka's victory over Kalinga is mentioned in
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Answer: (A) Rock Edict XIII

Explanation

Ashoka's victory over Kalinga and his subsequent remorse are detailed in Major Rock Edict XIII. This edict describes the massive casualties of the war and explains how it led Ashoka to patronize Buddhism and adopt the policy of Dhamma-vijaya (victory through righteousness).

148History
'Bhitargaon' is situated in the state of?
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Answer: (A) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Bhitargaon is located in the Kanpur district of Uttar Pradesh. It is renowned for its ancient Gupta-era terracotta temple, which dates back to the 5th century AD. This temple is recognized as the oldest surviving brick temple in India, representing a significant milestone in early temple architecture. It features a unique pyramidal spire (shikhara) and decorative terracotta plaques depicting various Hindu deities and mythological scenes.

149History
Who was the founder of the Mauryan Dynasty?
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Answer: (A) Chandragupta Maurya

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Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Dynasty in 322 BCE after defeating Dhana Nanda, the last ruler of the Nanda Dynasty, with the help of his advisor Chanakya.

150History
Who among the following is the author of 'Dayabhaga'?
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Answer: (D) Jimutavahana

Explanation

Jimutavahana was a prominent Indian Sanskrit scholar and writer of the 12th century who authored the Dayabhaga, a famous Hindu law treatise on inheritance and property rights. This treatise, along with the Mitakshara, forms the basis of traditional Hindu law.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2A
  3. 3A
  4. 4D
  5. 5A
  6. 6D
  7. 7A
  8. 8C
  9. 9C
  10. 10B
  11. 11C
  12. 12D
  13. 13C
  14. 14A
  15. 15D
  16. 16B
  17. 17B
  18. 18A
  19. 19B
  20. 20D
  21. 21D
  22. 22A
  23. 23D
  24. 24D
  25. 25D
  26. 26C
  27. 27A
  28. 28D
  29. 29D
  30. 30C
  31. 31D
  32. 32B
  33. 33A
  34. 34A
  35. 35A
  36. 36A
  37. 37A
  38. 38C
  39. 39C
  40. 40B
  41. 41A
  42. 42D
  43. 43D
  44. 44B
  45. 45C
  46. 46C
  47. 47B
  48. 48D
  49. 49C
  50. 50B
  51. 51A
  52. 52C
  53. 53D
  54. 54C
  55. 55C
  56. 56D
  57. 57D
  58. 58A
  59. 59A
  60. 60C
  61. 61A
  62. 62C
  63. 63A
  64. 64B
  65. 65B
  66. 66B
  67. 67C
  68. 68B
  69. 69C
  70. 70C
  71. 71C
  72. 72D
  73. 73D
  74. 74B
  75. 75B
  76. 76B
  77. 77C
  78. 78B
  79. 79C
  80. 80B
  81. 81D
  82. 82B
  83. 83C
  84. 84C
  85. 85C
  86. 86A
  87. 87B
  88. 88C
  89. 89C
  90. 90C
  91. 91D
  92. 92B
  93. 93D
  94. 94B
  95. 95C
  96. 96D
  97. 97A
  98. 98C
  99. 99A
  100. 100B
  101. 101C
  102. 102A
  103. 103D
  104. 104B
  105. 105C
  106. 106B
  107. 107D
  108. 108B
  109. 109C
  110. 110A
  111. 111D
  112. 112C
  113. 113C
  114. 114C
  115. 115C
  116. 116C
  117. 117D
  118. 118C
  119. 119A
  120. 120B
  121. 121C
  122. 122B
  123. 123B
  124. 124A
  125. 125C
  126. 126B
  127. 127A
  128. 128A
  129. 129B
  130. 130A
  131. 131A
  132. 132D
  133. 133A
  134. 134B
  135. 135D
  136. 136A
  137. 137C
  138. 138B
  139. 139B
  140. 140C
  141. 141D
  142. 142B
  143. 143C
  144. 144B
  145. 145B
  146. 146B
  147. 147A
  148. 148A
  149. 149A
  150. 150D

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