Vijnanesvara wrote Mitakshara at the court of the Chalukya emperor Vikramaditya VI. It was
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Answer: (A) A commentary on the law book of Yajnavalkya
Explanation
The Mitakshara is a celebrated legal commentary written by Vijnanesvara on the Yajnavalkya Smriti, which is one of the primary ancient Hindu law books. Composed in the late 11th or early 12th century under the patronage of the Western Chalukya King Vikramaditya VI, this text became one of the most influential authorities on Hindu law across most of India, establishing the principles governing coparcenary property rights and the division of ancestral wealth.
2History
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(Traveller) - (Reigning Ruler)
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Answer: (D) I-Tsing (Yijing) - Ashoka
Explanation
I-Tsing (Yijing) was a Chinese Buddhist traveler who visited India during the late 7th century AD (circa 671 to 695 AD), spending several years studying at the famous university of Nalanda. Emperor Ashoka ruled the Mauryan Empire much earlier, during the 3rd century BC (circa 268 to 232 BC). Since their timelines are separated by nearly a thousand years, I-Tsing was not a contemporary of Ashoka, making this pair incorrectly matched.
3Art and Culture
Which of the following pairs of temples and places is not correctly matched?
(Temple) (Place)
The Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Vijayanagara district of Karnataka, and is a designated UNESCO World Heritage Site. Dedicated to Lord Shiva in the form of Virupaksha, it was constructed under the patronage of the rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is not located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, which is home to the Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple.
4History
Identify the Sultan of Delhi who prohibited drinking of alcohol, introduced market control policy and inflicted severe punishment to rapists.
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Answer: (C) Sultan Alauddin Khalji
Explanation
Sultan Alauddin Khalji introduced strict administrative, economic, and social reforms during his reign to centralize power and prevent rebellions. To curb conspiracies among nobles, he issued ordinances that prohibited the consumption and sale of alcohol, wine, and other intoxicants in Delhi. He is highly renowned for his market control policy, which fixed the prices of daily commodities and established designated markets managed by controllers called Shahna-i-Mandi. Additionally, he maintained a highly rigid justice system and inflicted severe corporal punishments for serious crimes, including rape, to ensure absolute law and order in his sultanate.
5History
Point out from the following suffix, who is from the Chishti Sufi Silsilah ?
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Answer: (A) Shaikh Gesudaraz
Explanation
Shaikh Gesudaraz, also known as Hazrat Khwaja Banda Nawaz Gaisu Daraz, was a highly revered Sufi saint belonging to the Chishti Silsilah. He was a prominent disciple and successor of Hazrat Nasiruddin Chirag-e-Dehlvi, who was himself a leading figure of the Chishti order in Delhi. Towards the end of the fourteenth century, Shaikh Gesudaraz migrated to Gulbarga in the Deccan region on the invitation of the Bahmani ruler Taj ud-Din Firuz Shah. His presence in Gulbarga led to the deep-rooted establishment and propagation of the Chishti teachings in southern India. He was also a prolific writer who composed several works on Islamic mysticism in Persian, Arabic, and early Deccani Urdu.
6History
The First Round Table Conference was held at London in 1930 to discuss
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Answer: (A) Future Constitution in India
Explanation
The First Round Table Conference was inaugurated by King George V on November 12, 1930, in London and chaired by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald. The conference was convened to discuss constitutional reforms and deliberate on the recommendations of the Simon Commission, with the ultimate goal of framing a future constitution for India that would outline a federal structure and self-governance.
7History
Muhammad Ghori's forces won the battle fought against Prithviraj Chauhan primarily because of
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Answer: (B) Superior war technology of the Turks
Explanation
The success of Muhammad Ghori's forces in the Second Battle of Tarain in 1192 was primarily due to the superior war technology and military organization of the Turkish army. The Turks utilized highly mobile cavalry equipped with iron stirrups, which gave their riders greater stability and maneuverability during combat. Additionally, they employed superior composite bows that had a longer range and greater penetrating power than the bows used by the Rajput forces. This combination of swift equestrian tactics, advanced horse-breeding, and superior archery technology allowed the Turkish forces to outmaneuver and defeat the traditional elephant-heavy army of Prithviraj Chauhan.
8History
Third Battle of Panipat was fought between
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Answer: (D) Ahmad Shah Abdali and the Marathas
Explanation
The Third Battle of Panipat took place on 14 January 1761 at Panipat, Haryana. It was fought between the invading forces of the King of Afghanistan, Ahmad Shah Abdali, and the Maratha Empire led by Sadashivrao Bhau. Ahmad Shah Abdali was supported by local allies, including the Rohilla Afghans and Shuja-ud-Daula, the Nawab of Awadh. This major conflict resulted in a decisive victory for the Afghan forces and halted the northward expansion of the Maratha Empire.
9History
In January 1565, the Battle of Talikota was fought between
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Answer: (A) The Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccani Sultanates
Explanation
The Battle of Talikota was fought on 23 January 1565 between the Vijayanagara Empire and the combined military alliance of the Deccani Sultanates, which included Ahmadnagar, Bijapur, Golconda, and Bidar. Led by Aliya Rama Raya, the Vijayanagara forces suffered a devastating defeat at the hands of the sultanates. This clash resulted in the capture, systematic looting, and destruction of the imperial capital at Vijayanagara, also known as Hampi. This event shattered the political hegemony of the empire in the southern peninsula and marked the beginning of its terminal decline.
10History
Name the Rana of Mewar who employed Baksariya Muslims in his army :
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Answer: (C) Rana Pratap
Explanation
Rana Pratap (Maharana Pratap) of Mewar recruited a diverse army to fight the Mughal forces of Akbar, which included Afghans, Bhils, and mercenary infantrymen. Among his troops were Baksariya soldiers, who were skilled matchlockmen and infantrymen originally hailing from the Buxar (Bhojpur) region. Along with other Muslim commanders such as Hakim Khan Sur, who led his vanguard at the Battle of Haldighati in 1576, these soldiers formed an integral part of Rana Pratap's resistance against Mughal expansionism.
11History
In medieval Deccan, Deshmukh was a village official, who was responsible to
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Answer: (A) Collect land revenue from the peasants and to deposit it in the State treasury
Explanation
In the medieval Deccan, particularly under the Deccan Sultanates and the Maratha Empire, the Deshmukh was a key hereditary landholding official. The Deshmukh operated at the pargana level, which comprised a cluster of villages, and was responsible for overseeing the cultivation of land and collecting land revenue from the peasants to deposit it into the state treasury. They served as crucial intermediaries between the ruling administration and the rural peasantry, ensuring agricultural productivity, maintaining local order, and receiving a percentage of the collected revenue as their share.
12History
In which year was the Rail network started from Bombay to Thane ?
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Answer: (B) 1853
Explanation
The first passenger train in India ran on 16 April 1853 between Bori Bunder in Bombay and Thane. It covered a distance of 34 kilometres and was operated by the Great Indian Peninsula Railway. The historic train was hauled by three steam locomotives named Sahib, Sindh, and Sultan, carrying 400 passengers.
13History
Chronologically arrange the following Governor-Generals of India. Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(i) Lord Wellesley
(ii) Lord William Bentinck
(iii) Warren Hastings
(iv) Lord Cornwallis
Code :
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Answer: (A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Explanation
The correct chronological order of the Governor-Generals is determined by their respective tenures in office. Warren Hastings served as the Governor-General of Bengal from 1773 to 1785. Lord Cornwallis held the office from 1786 to 1793. Lord Wellesley served from 1798 to 1805, during which he introduced the Subsidiary Alliance system. Finally, Lord William Bentinck served from 1828 to 1835, introducing significant social and administrative reforms. This sequence establishes the chronological order as (iii), (iv), (i), (ii).
14History
Arrange the following rulers of Gupta dynasty in chronological order :
(i) Chandragupta II
(ii) Skandagupta
(iii) Samudragupta
(iv) Kumaragupta I
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Code :
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Answer: (A) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Explanation
The chronological order of the Gupta dynasty rulers begins with Samudragupta, who reigned from approximately 335 CE to 375 CE and consolidated the empire. His son, Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya, succeeded him and ruled from about 380 CE to 415 CE. Kumaragupta I then took the throne, ruling from around 415 CE to 455 CE, a period marked by peace and the founding of Nalanda University. Finally, Skandagupta ascended the throne, ruling from approximately 455 CE to 467 CE, and is well-known for successfully repelling the Huna invasions.
15History
The poet Bana was patronized by which of the following rulers ?
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Answer: (B) Harsha
Explanation
Banabhatta, popularly known as Bana, was the Asthana Kavi (court poet) of King Harshavardhana, who ruled northern India during the 7th century CE. Banabhatta is highly celebrated for writing the Harshacharita, a detailed biography of King Harsha that provides valuable historical insights into the administration, society, and events of Harsha's reign. He also authored Kadambari, which is regarded as one of the earliest novels in the world.
16History
When did Portuguese admiral Vasco da Gama come to Calicut ?
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Answer: (C) 1498
Explanation
Vasco da Gama arrived at Kappad near Calicut on May 20, 1498. This successful voyage established the first direct sea route from Europe to India via the Cape of Good Hope, opening the way for an age of global imperialism and enabling the Portuguese to establish a colonial empire in Asia.
17History
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(Event) (Year)
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Answer: (D) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms - 1929
Explanation
The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms were formulated in 1918 and enacted through the Government of India Act 1919. These constitutional reforms were named after Edwin Montagu, who served as the Secretary of State for India, and Lord Chelmsford, who was the Viceroy of India between 1916 and 1921. The reforms introduced a system of dual government known as dyarchy in the provinces of British India.
18History
When did the French gain control over Pondicherry ?
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Answer: (B) 1697
Explanation
Francois Martin established Pondicherry in 1674 as the primary French trading settlement in India. In 1693, the Dutch captured the settlement during the Nine Years' War. The French regained legal control over Pondicherry through the Treaty of Ryswick, signed in September 1697, which mandated the restoration of the territory to the French East India Company.
19History
Who introduced the silver tanka and the copper jital – the two basic coins of the Sultanate period ?
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Answer: (A) Iltutmish
Explanation
Shams ud-Din Iltutmish, the Mamluk ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, introduced the silver tanka and the copper jital as the two standard coins of his empire. He was the first Delhi Sultan to issue fully Arabic coinage in India. The silver tanka weighed 175 grains and established a systematic monetary system that facilitated trade, revenue collection, and economic integration across the Sultanate, setting the standard for medieval Indian currency.
20History
Who propagated pushtimarga, a religion of grace ?
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Answer: (D) Vallabhacharya
Explanation
Vallabhacharya founded the Pushtimarga (the path of grace), a Vaishnava sub-sect that propagates the philosophy of Shuddhadvaita (pure non-dualism). In this tradition, salvation or liberation is achieved not by individual efforts or spiritual practices, but through the unconditional divine grace (pushti) of Lord Krishna, who is worshipped primarily in the form of Shrinathji.
21History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
| List I (Monument) | List II (Place) |
|---|---|
| a. Char Minar | I. Delhi |
| b. Akbar's Tomb | II. Agra |
| c. Humayun's Tomb | III. Hyderabad |
| d. Taj Mahal | IV. Sikandara |
Codes :
a b c d
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Answer: (C) III IV I II
Explanation
Char Minar is matched with Hyderabad because this iconic mosque with four minarets was constructed there in 1591 by Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah to commemorate the end of a deadly plague.
Akbar's Tomb is matched with Sikandara because the final resting place of the Mughal Emperor Akbar is located in this suburb of Agra, with construction spanning from 1605 to 1613.
Humayun's Tomb is matched with Delhi because this grand garden-tomb, which pioneered Mughal monumental architecture, was commissioned by Empress Bega Begum in Delhi in 1558.
Taj Mahal is matched with Agra because this renowned white marble mausoleum was built along the Yamuna River in Agra by Emperor Shah Jahan starting in 1631 to honor his wife Mumtaz Mahal.
22History
After 1857 revolt, Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last Mughal ruler of India, was exiled to
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Answer: (B) Rangoon
Explanation
Following the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the British convicted the last Mughal Emperor, Bahadur Shah Zafar, of treason and conspiracy. In October 1858, he was exiled to Rangoon in Burma (now Yangon, Myanmar) along with his wife, Queen Zeenat Mahal, and other remaining family members. He remained there under British custody until his death on November 7, 1862.
23History
Which of the following rulers of Mysore sent ambassadors to France to bring in European technology, and went on to build a navy ?
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Answer: (B) Tipu Sultan
Explanation
Tipu Sultan, the ruler of Mysore, was highly interested in modernizing his state's military, economy, and technology. Recognizing the critical importance of naval power and advanced weaponry to counter the growing influence of the British East India Company, he established a board of admiralty and went on to construct a navy. To acquire advanced scientific and military expertise, he actively engaged in diplomacy and sent ambassadors to France, Turkey, and other nations to bring in European technology and artisans. He also founded modern dockyards and shipyards along the western coast to build warships and promote oceanic trade.
24Polity and Governance
Who said that, "Nothing can emancipate the outcast except the destruction of the caste system"?
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Answer: (C) B.R. Ambedkar
Explanation
B.R. Ambedkar firmly believed that the concept of the outcast was an inevitable byproduct of the caste system. He argued that as long as the hierarchical division of castes existed, certain groups would always be marginalized and relegated to the bottom of the social hierarchy. Consequently, he advocated for the complete annihilation of the caste system, stating that true social equality and the emancipation of the oppressed could never be achieved within the framework of Hindu social order without totally destroying the structure of caste.
25History
Who wrote 'Why I am an Atheist', defending total rejection of all religion on grounds of human dignity and rationalist logic?
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Answer: (A) Bhagat Singh
Explanation
Bhagat Singh wrote the seminal essay Why I am an Atheist in 1930 while imprisoned in the Lahore Central Jail. The essay was written in response to a religious fellow prisoner who accused Bhagat Singh of being an atheist out of vanity and ego. In this text, Bhagat Singh defends his atheism using rationalist logic, critical thinking, and the principles of human dignity. He argues that belief in a supreme creator is a product of human helplessness and a coping mechanism for suffering, and asserts that a true revolutionary must test every belief on the anvil of reason and scientific inquiry. It was first published posthumously in September 1931 in the weekly newspaper The People.
26HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
Why was Doddi Komaraiah, a village militant, murdered on 4 July, 1946, in Janagam taluka of Nalgonda?
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Answer: (B) For trying to defend a poor washer-woman's mite of land.
Explanation
The martyrdom of Doddi Komaraiah on 4 July, 1946, in Kadavendi village of Janagam taluka in Nalgonda, marks the beginning of the Telangana Peasant Armed Struggle. This event was directly linked to the resistance organized by the Andhra Mahasabha (Sangham) to defend the land and harvest of Chakali Ailamma, a poor washerwoman from Palakurthy village. The local feudal lord, Visnoor Deshmukh Ramachandra Reddy, had attempted to forcibly seize Ailamma's four acres of land and her crop. Local peasants and militants, including Doddi Komaraiah, stood up to protect her property. During a protest procession organized by the Sangham against the landlord's high-handedness, the landlord's hired goons opened fire on the crowd, fatally shooting Doddi Komaraiah.
27History
In the Indian context, 'Drain of Wealth' means foreign power in India squeezed Indian economy through various means and transferred it to their native country. This 'surplus' capital caused 'industrial revolution' in their country.
Which of the following foreign ruling powers is associated with the above theory of 'Drain of Wealth'?
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Answer: (D) British
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji formulated the Drain of Wealth theory to explain how a significant portion of India's national wealth and resources was systematically transferred to Great Britain without any equivalent economic or material return. Through his pioneering work, particularly in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, he highlighted how India's economic surplus was siphoned off through various channels, such as home charges, interest on public debt, military expenditures, and private remittances by British officials. This unilateral transfer of capital served as a primary source of finance that fueled the Industrial Revolution in Britain, while simultaneously depriving India of the essential capital required for its own industrial and economic development.
28History
Who from the following were associated with Subhash Chandra Bose's Indian National Army and faced the trial in Delhi in 1945?
(a) P.K. Sahgal
(b) G.S. Dhillon
(c) Shah Nawaz Khan
(d) Bhulabhai Desai
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
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Answer: (B) (a), (b) and (c) only
Explanation
Prem Kumar Sahgal, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon, and Shah Nawaz Khan were officers of the Indian National Army who were captured by the British forces and faced the historic joint court-martial trial at the Red Fort in Delhi between November 1945 and May 1946. They were charged with treason and waging war against the King-Emperor. The defense of these three officers was organized by the Congress Defence Committee, which was led by the prominent lawyer Bhulabhai Desai as the chief defense counsel.
29History
Whose book 'Unto this Last' left a deep impact on Mahatma Gandhi and he even translated it into Gujarati?
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Answer: (A) John Ruskin
Explanation
John Ruskin wrote the book Unto This Last, which had a profound impact on Mahatma Gandhi after he read it in 1904 during a train journey in South Africa. The book inspired Gandhi to change his lifestyle and establish the Phoenix Settlement. He later translated the book into Gujarati in 1908 under the title Sarvodaya, which represents the concept of universal uplift or the progress of all.
30History
In the early decades of the twentieth century, caste movements began to proliferate in the Indian society.
Which of the following movements are related to caste-consciousness, leading to caste-movements in particular regions?
(a) Satyashodhak Samaj in Maharashtra
(b) Self-respect agitation in Tamilnadu
(c) Ghadar movement in Punjab
(d) Bijolia movement in Rajasthan
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
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Answer: (A) (a) and (b) only
Explanation
Satyashodhak Samaj, founded by Jyotirao Phule in Maharashtra, was a prominent social reform society aimed at liberating the Shudra and Untouchable castes from exploitation and oppression. It played a pivotal role in awakening caste-consciousness and promoting education and social rights among the marginalized sections.
The Self-respect movement, initiated by E.V. Ramasamy in Tamil Nadu, was a dynamic struggle directed against Brahminical dominance and the caste hierarchy. It sought to instill a sense of pride and equality among the non-Brahmin lower castes, making it a classic example of a region-specific caste-conscious movement in the early twentieth century.
31Polity and Governance
Choose the correct answer relating to the Supreme Court of India :
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Answer: (C) All Civil and Judicial authorities in India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court
Explanation
Under Article 144 of the Constitution of India, all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India are constitutionally mandated to act in aid of the Supreme Court. This provision ensures that the orders, decrees, and directions of the Supreme Court are effectively implemented and respected by every executive and judicial body across the country, thereby upholding the rule of law and the supremacy of the judiciary.
32Polity and Governance
The Objectives specified in the Preamble contain the basic structure of our Constitution. In this regard choose the correct answer :
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Answer: (B) Basic structure means that which cannot be amended in exercise of the power under Article 368 of the Constitution.
Explanation
The basic structure doctrine, established by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case in 1973, holds that there are certain fundamental features of the Constitution that cannot be altered, damaged, or destroyed through amendments. While Article 368 grants Parliament the power to amend the Constitution, this power is not absolute and is subject to the limitation that any amendment must leave the core identity and framework of the Constitution intact. Therefore, the basic structure constitutes those essential principles and values that are entirely beyond the reach of the amending power under Article 368.
33Polity and Governance
Estimates Committee related to which reform to ensure the efficiency of the following ?
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Answer: (B) Financial Control reforms
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is one of the three financial standing committees of the Parliament of India, along with the Public Accounts Committee and the Committee on Public Undertakings. These committees serve as the primary instruments of parliamentary control over public finance. The specific mandate of the Estimates Committee is to scrutinize the budget estimates presented to the Parliament. It reports on what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency, or administrative reforms, consistent with the policy underlying the estimates, may be effected. By suggesting alternative policies to ensure the maximum utility of public resources with the least expenditure, the Estimates Committee directly aids in financial control reforms and ensures the efficient administration of public finances.
34Polity and Governance
Most important components of secularism are mentioned below, except
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Answer: (C) Sentiments of the majority of people towards cow and against its slaughter.
Explanation
Under the constitutional framework of secularism, the state must maintain absolute neutrality and distance itself from religious affairs, ensuring that public policy is not driven by the religious beliefs or dietary preferences of any specific community. Implementing laws or defining secular values based on the religious sentiments of the majority population regarding cow protection and prohibition of its slaughter runs contrary to the principle of a secular state, which demands equal treatment and non-preference for any particular religion's tenets.
35Polity and Governance
Social justice enables the Courts to uphold legislation, except
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Answer: (D) To enact unquestionable laws to protect certain people of the society.
Explanation
In the Indian constitutional framework, the concept of social justice serves as a guiding principle that enables the judiciary to uphold and protect progressive state actions aimed at establishing an egalitarian society. This includes affirming legislation meant for reducing economic inequalities, securing a decent standard of living for workers, and shielding weaker sections of society from exploitation. However, social justice does not permit or enable the enactment of unquestionable laws. Under the Indian Constitution, the power of judicial review is an integral part of the basic structure, meaning no law can be made completely immune to judicial scrutiny or be rendered unquestionable. Any legislative attempt to create absolute or unquestionable laws to protect specific groups would violate the core tenets of constitutional supremacy and the rule of law.
36Polity and Governance
A person whose freedom of movement has been taken away by imprisonment or detention does not thereby lose his freedom of
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Answer: (A) Expression
Explanation
A person who is lawfully imprisoned or detained loses their physical freedom of movement under Article 19(1)(d) of the Constitution of India as a direct consequence of their incarceration. However, they do not automatically lose all of their other fundamental rights. Specifically, they retain the right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a), which can only be restricted under the reasonable grounds specified in Article 19(2).
This principle was established by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case State of Maharashtra v. Prabhakar Pandurang Sangzgiri (1966). In this case, a detenu had written a scientific manuscript while in custody and sought permission to send it outside the prison for publication. The Supreme Court ruled that a prisoner does not lose their fundamental freedom of expression merely by being detained, and in the absence of any valid law or specific restriction prohibiting the publication of books, the detenu has the constitutional right to publish their work.
37Polity and Governance
Regarding the Habeas Corpus, choose the wrong answer.
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Answer: (C) A petition of Habeas Corpus lies against the executive authority, not available against the private individuals.
Explanation
The writ of Habeas Corpus is a vital constitutional remedy for safeguarding individual liberty and can be issued against both public authorities and private individuals. If a person is unlawfully detained or wrongfully confined by any private person, a petition for Habeas Corpus can be filed under Article 32 in the Supreme Court or Article 226 in the High Court to secure their release. Therefore, the assertion that it is not available against private individuals is incorrect.
38Polity and Governance
Regarding the Directive Principle of State Policy, choose the wrong answer.
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Answer: (B) Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights for implementing the Directive Principles.
Explanation
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court established that Parliament has the constitutional power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights, under Article 368, provided such amendments do not damage or destroy its basic structure. Consequently, Parliament is fully authorized to amend Fundamental Rights to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy, making the assertion that Parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights for this purpose incorrect.
39Polity and Governance
Regarding the Governor, all following statements are correct, except
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Answer: (D) Governor shall quit his office immediately after expiry of his term.
Explanation
According to Article 156(3) of the Constitution of India, a Governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter office. However, the proviso to this Article explicitly states that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of their term, continue to hold office until their successor enters upon their office. This is to ensure that there is no constitutional vacuum in the governance of the State. Consequently, the Governor does not quit office immediately upon the expiry of their five-year term.
40Polity and Governance
The orders passed by the Governor of a State (Article 163) of a State fall in four categories. Find out the category which is not subject to Judicial Review.
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Answer: (D) Where the Governor acts without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers and acts in his own discretion
Explanation
Where the Governor acts without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers and acts in his own discretion. Article 163(2) states the Governor's decision to act in discretion is final and its validity cannot be questioned on grounds of acting in discretion. A faint mark on the Telugu side indicates this option.
41Polity and Governance
Regarding the Union Council of Council of Ministers, choose the wrong answer.
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Answer: (D) During the period of National Emergency, the President acquires discretionary powers, and can take independent decisions.
Explanation
During a National Emergency declared under Article 352, the President of India does not acquire discretionary powers to make independent decisions. The President remains bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers as mandated by Article 74. Furthermore, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 explicitly requires that the President can only proclaim a National Emergency after receiving a written recommendation to that effect from the Union Cabinet, which consists of the Prime Minister and other ministers of cabinet rank.
42Polity and Governance
The Preamble may be invoked to determine the ambit of
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Answer: (D) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Explanation
The Preamble serves as the key to open the mind of the makers of the Constitution, outlining its core ideals, values, and objectives. In landmark judicial pronouncements, including the Kesavananda Bharati, Chandra Bhavan Boarding and Lodging, and Dharwad District PWD cases, the Supreme Court established that the Preamble is a vital tool for constitutional interpretation. Because the Preamble encapsulates the ultimate ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, it can be actively invoked by courts to resolve ambiguities and determine the true ambit, sweep, and scope of both the Fundamental Rights (Part III) and the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV).
43Polity and Governance
Regarding the Article 15 of the Constitution of India, find the wrong answer.
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Answer: (D) Article 15 also permits the State to make any special provisions for SC, ST and socially and economically backward classes of citizens.
Explanation
Article 15 clause (4) of the Constitution of India enables the State to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens, or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. The text of the Constitution specifically uses the term socially and educationally backward classes, rather than socially and economically backward classes. Thus, the statement is constitutionally incorrect.
44Polity and Governance
Which of the following are not the federal features of the Indian Constitution ?
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Answer: (D) Office of the Governor
Explanation
The Office of the Governor is a unitary or non-federal feature of the Indian Constitution. The Governor of a state is not elected but is appointed directly by the President of India and holds office during the pleasure of the President. This dual role makes the Governor an agent or representative of the Central Government in the state, allowing the Centre to exercise constitutional supervision and control over the state administration, which runs contrary to the traditional federal principle of absolute state autonomy.
45Polity and Governance
What option does the government exercise and legislators have when they do not like a decision made by the Supreme Court ?
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Answer: (C) Both are options, pass a constitutional amendment that circumvents the decision or pass a law challenging the decision
Explanation
Under the constitutional system of checks and balances, the legislature possesses the authority to address judicial rulings it disagrees with. Parliament can pass a new piece of legislation or amend an existing law to alter the underlying legal basis on which the Supreme Court made its decision, thereby neutralizing the effect of the judgment prospectively or retrospectively. Additionally, Parliament can utilize its constituent power under Article 368 to enact a constitutional amendment that modifies the Constitution itself to bypass or override the judicial interpretation, provided such an amendment does not violate the basic structure of the Constitution. Both legislative enactments and constitutional amendments are valid pathways for the legislature to counter judicial outcomes.
46Polity and Governance
Regarding the disagreement between the two Houses of the State Legislature, which of the following is correct ?
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Answer: (C) The only power of the Council is to interpose some delay in the passage of the bill
Explanation
Under the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Council of a state has highly restricted powers compared to the Legislative Assembly, and there is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve disagreements between the two Houses. When the Legislative Assembly passes a non-money bill and sends it to the Legislative Council, the Council can delay the bill for up to three months in the first instance. If the Assembly passes the bill again and sends it back, the Council can only delay it for one more month. After this total period of four months, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Assembly. This limits the role of the Legislative Council to merely delaying or interposing a temporary pause in the legislative process, without the power to veto or stop the bill permanently.
47Polity and Governance
Choose the correct answer from the following :
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Answer: (A) A member of an All India Service can be dismissed or removed only by the Union government.
Explanation
Under Article 311(1) of the Constitution of India, no member of an All India Service can be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which they were appointed. Since the President of India, acting as the executive head of the Union government, is the appointing authority for All India Services officers, the power of dismissal or removal rests solely with the Union government. Although a state government can place an officer under suspension or initiate disciplinary proceedings while they are serving in the state cadre, it does not have the jurisdiction to impose the major penalties of dismissal or removal from service.
48Polity and Governance
Regarding the powers of the President, which of the following is correct ?
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Answer: (B) Courts are debarred from invalidating any legislation on the ground that the President's previous sanction was not obtained.
Explanation
Courts are debarred from invalidating any legislation on the ground that the President's previous sanction was not obtained.. According to Article 255 of the Indian Constitution, if the President gives assent to a bill, the absence of a prior recommendation or sanction does not invalidate the law. Thus, courts cannot invalidate it solely on that ground.
49Polity and Governance
Match the following :
| | |
|---|---|
| a. Reprieve | I. Reduce the amount of sentence without |
| b. Respite | II. Substitute one form of punishment for other |
| c. Remission | III. Awarding lesser sentence |
| d. Commutation | IV. A stay of execution of sentence |
Codes:
a b c d
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Answer: (A) IV III I II
Explanation
Under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, the pardoning power of the President comprises distinct judicial mechanisms to grant relief to convicts. Reprieve involves a temporary stay of the execution of a sentence, especially a death sentence, to give the convict time to seek a pardon or commutation. Respite denotes awarding a lesser sentence than the one originally awarded due to special circumstances, such as physical disability or pregnancy. Remission refers to reducing the duration of a sentence without altering its character, such as reducing a two-year rigorous imprisonment to one year of rigorous imprisonment. Commutation represents the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form, such as converting a death sentence into life imprisonment.
50Polity and Governance
Regarding the pardoning powers, choose the correct answer.
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Answer: (C) The only authority for pardoning a sentence of death is the President.
Explanation
Under the Indian Constitution, Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death. In contrast, Article 161 empowers the Governor of a State to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of an offence against any state law. However, the power to pardon a death sentence belongs exclusively to the President. While a Governor can suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, the Governor does not possess the authority to grant a full pardon for a death sentence. This makes the President the sole authority for pardoning a death sentence under the constitutional scheme.
51Polity and Governance
A sitting of the Parliament can be terminated by adjournment, prorogation or dissolution. In this regard choose the correct answer.
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Answer: (D) Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting for an indefinite period.
Explanation
Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period. When the House is adjourned sine die, it is adjourned without naming a specific day or time for reassembly. The power of adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House, which is the Speaker in the Lok Sabha and the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha. This power is exercised when the business of a session is completed and the House is prepared to be prorogued by the President.
52Polity and Governance
Which of the following Liberties is sought to be secured to the citizens of India in the Preamble?
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Answer: (A) Thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
Explanation
The Preamble to the Constitution of India explicitly secures to all its citizens liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. These five dimensions of liberty are fundamental to individual development and the democratic character of the nation, and they are primarily protected and enforced through the Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution.
53Economy
Recommendations for the 14th Finance Commission are valid from
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Answer: (A) 1st April 2015 to 31st March 2020
Explanation
The Fourteenth Finance Commission of India was established in 2013 under the chairmanship of former Reserve Bank of India Governor Y. V. Reddy. The commission was constitutionally mandated to give recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States, and among the States themselves. These recommendations were designated to cover a five-year period starting from the commencement of the fiscal year on 1 April 2015 and ending with the conclusion of the fiscal year on 31 March 2020.
54Polity and Governance
Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations are Constitutional ?
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Answer: (B) Inter-State Council
Explanation
The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. This article empowers the President of India to set up such a council if at any time it appears that the public interest would be served by its establishment, for the purpose of investigating, discussing, and coordinating policy and action on subjects of common interest between the Union and the States or among the States. The Inter-State Council was formally established by a Presidential Order on 28 May 1990 on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission.
55Polity and Governance
M.M. Punchhi Committee was appointed to study Centre-State relations. Regarding Punchhi recommendations all the following statements are correct except
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Answer: (D) National Integration Commission shall meet once in two years
Explanation
The Punchhi Commission recommended that the National Integration Council should meet at least once annually, rather than once in two years. It proposed that the Council should function as a permanent consultative body with a continuous role, and advised that a five-member delegation from the Council should visit any communally affected area within two days of an outbreak.
56Polity and Governance
Regarding the composition of the Legislative Council, all following statements are correct, except
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Answer: (D) 1/13th of the total number of Council shall be elected by Legislative Assembly.
Explanation
Under Article 171 of the Constitution of India, one-third of the total number of members of the Legislative Council of a State are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly of the State from amongst persons who are not members of the Assembly. Therefore, the statement indicating that one-thirteenth of the members are elected by the Legislative Assembly is constitutionally incorrect.
57Polity and Governance
The President may appoint a Governor of a State as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory. Such Governor in the administration of Union Territory shall exercise his functions
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Answer: (B) As such administrator independently of his Council of Ministers.
Explanation
Under Article 239(2) of the Constitution of India, the President may appoint the Governor of a State as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory. Where a Governor is so appointed, they must exercise their functions as such administrator independently of their Council of Ministers. This ensures that the administration of the Union Territory remains directly under the control of the Union Government through the President, without being influenced by the Council of Ministers of the adjoining State.
58Polity and Governance
Parliament has the power to enact laws with respect to a matter in the State list in the national interest. In this regard choose the wrong answer.
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Answer: (C) Both Union and State governments have absolute freedom to make laws related to Concurrent list.
Explanation
The statement that both the Union and State governments have absolute freedom to make laws related to the Concurrent List is incorrect. Under Article 254 of the Indian Constitution, the power of both governments to legislate on the Concurrent List is not absolute because it is subject to the principle of federal supremacy. In case of any conflict or repugnancy between a law made by Parliament and a law made by a State Legislature on a Concurrent List subject, the central law made by Parliament prevails, and the state law is rendered void to the extent of the repugnancy. This constitutional limitation prevents both levels of government from having absolute or unchecked freedom when enacting laws on these shared subjects.
59Polity and Governance
Due to the existence of which article, the State cannot interfere and dispossess a person's property except in accordance with the procedure established by law ?
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Answer: (A) Article 300
Explanation
Article 300A. Article 300A protects property rights — no deprivation except by authority of law. Option 1 prints "Article 300" (missing the A); it should be Article 300A.
60Polity and Governance
State Government can pass a law imposing restrictions on goods imported from other States. Such law shall be moved in the Legislature of a State without the previous sanction of the
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Answer: (B) President
Explanation
President.
Under Article 304(b) of the Constitution of India, the legislature of a State is empowered to impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce, or intercourse within or with that State in the public interest. However, the proviso to this Article specifies that no Bill or amendment for this purpose shall be introduced or moved in the State Legislature without the previous sanction of the President. This safeguard is designed to prevent individual states from enacting protectionist measures that could disrupt national trade and commerce.
61Economy
"Sustainable Development is the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising on the ability of future generations to meet their own needs." Who has given this definition ?
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Answer: (A) Brundtland Report (1987) by World Commission
Explanation
The definition of sustainable development as development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs was first introduced in Our Common Future, also known as the Brundtland Report, published in 1987 by the World Commission on Environment and Development. Named after Gro Harlem Brundtland, the former Prime Minister of Norway who chaired the commission, the report established the foundational framework for global environmental and developmental policies by linking economic development directly to environmental conservation.
62Economy
Out of the options given below, what should be the basic goal of "Sustainable Development" ?
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Answer: (D) Economic efficiency, equality
Explanation
Economic efficiency, equality. Question 62 asks for the basic goal of Sustainable Development. The two fundamental economic goals of sustainable development are economic efficiency and equality (social equity). Option 4 (d) states "Economic efficiency, equality" which correctly captures these two basic goals as defined in standard economics frameworks used in Indian competitive exam curricula.
63Economy
Which is the curve that explains the relationship in between economic growth and environmental degradation ?
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Answer: (C) Kuznets Curve
Explanation
The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) explains the relationship between economic growth and environmental degradation, representing it as an inverted U-shaped curve. During the initial stages of economic development, environmental degradation and pollution tend to increase as industrial activity and resource consumption grow. However, as the economy matures and reaches a higher level of per capita income, the trend reverses, leading to technological advancements, a shift toward service-based economies, stronger environmental regulations, and a subsequent improvement in environmental quality.
64Economy
According to 2010 Human Development Index calculated (Compiled and Computed from UNDP Human Development Report) for 169 countries, what is the rank of India?
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Answer: (B) 119
Explanation
In the 2010 Human Development Report, published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) under the title The Real Wealth of Nations: Pathways to Human Development, India was ranked 119th among the 169 countries evaluated. India was placed in the Medium Human Development category with a Human Development Index value of 0.519.
65Economy
What is the approach followed by National Institution For Transforming India Aayog in the economic policy making?
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Answer: (D) Co-operative Federalism
Explanation
The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog, which replaced the Planning Commission on January 1, 2015, is designed around the principle of cooperative federalism. Unlike the centralized planning of the past, NITI Aayog operates on a bottom-up approach that fosters equal partnership between the Central government and the State governments in policy formulation. It recognizes that strong states are the foundation of a strong nation, thereby ensuring that states are active participants in drafting economic strategies and policies tailored to their developmental needs.
66Economy
Though removal of unemployment is mentioned as one of the objectives of economic planning in all Five Year Plans, from which plan onward is serious concern shown for solving the unemployment problem?
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Answer: (C) Fifth Five Year Plan
Explanation
The Fifth Five Year Plan (1974–1979) marked a major shift in India's developmental planning by directly targeting poverty alleviation and employment generation under the slogan of Garibi Hatao (Removal of Poverty). Prior to this plan, the Planning Commission assumed that general economic growth and high investment rates would automatically trickle down to solve the unemployment problem.
Realizing the limitations of the trickle-down theory, the Fifth Plan introduced a direct, targeted approach. It launched the Minimum Needs Programme (MNP) to ensure basic minimum standards of living and initiated various employment-oriented schemes. This targeted strategy represents the onset of serious, structured policy concern aimed specifically at tackling the unemployment and underemployment problems in both rural and urban India.
67Economy
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
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Answer: (A) About 60% of agricultural lands have irrigational facilities.
Explanation
In India, only about 40% to 45% of the total agricultural land is covered under irrigation facilities, while the remaining 55% to 60% of the cropped area is rainfed and relies entirely on the monsoons. Therefore, the statement asserting that about 60% of agricultural lands have irrigational facilities is incorrect.
68Economy
To enhance food security and to make Indian Agriculture more resilient to climate change, which programme was started in 2011-12?
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Answer: (C) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
Explanation
The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) is one of the eight missions outlined under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It was initiated in 2011-12 to address key issues regarding sustainable agriculture and climate resilience. The mission aims to transform Indian agriculture into an ecologically sustainable and climate-resilient production system through various adaptation and mitigation strategies. By focusing on critical dimensions such as water-use efficiency, integrated nutrient management, crop diversification, and soil health management, NMSA works to enhance national food security and sustain agricultural production under changing climatic conditions.
69Economy
Which sector comprises water supply?
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Answer: (C) Tertiary Sector
Explanation
Tertiary Sector. Question 69 asks which sector comprises water supply. Water supply is a utility/service activity classified under the Tertiary Sector (service sector), which includes utilities like water, electricity, transportation, and communications. Option 3 (Tertiary Sector) is correct.
70Economy
What is the main objective of 12th Five Year Plan?
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Answer: (B) Faster sustainable inclusive growth
Explanation
The Twelfth Five-Year Plan of India (2012–2017) was drafted with the core vision of achieving "Faster, Sustainable, and More Inclusive Growth". This objective aimed to combine rapid economic growth with environmental sustainability and social inclusion. It targeted an annual gross domestic product growth rate of 8% alongside a 4% growth rate in agriculture. By integrating sustainability, the plan focused on reducing the emission intensity of the economy, expanding renewable energy capacity, and ensuring ecological balance, while simultaneously promoting poverty reduction, employment generation, and social development.
71Economy
Among the following National Income Concepts, find out the correct one:
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Answer: (B) Gross Domestic Product at Market Price = Gross National Product at Market Price - Net Income from Abroad
Explanation
Gross National Product at Market Price is the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country during a financial year, including net factor income from abroad. The relationship between Gross Domestic Product at Market Price and Gross National Product at Market Price is expressed as:
Gross National Product at Market Price = Gross Domestic Product at Market Price + Net Income from Abroad
By rearranging this formula to solve for Gross Domestic Product at Market Price, we get:
Gross Domestic Product at Market Price = Gross National Product at Market Price - Net Income from Abroad
72Economy
What is the method used to calculate chronic unemployment?
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Answer: (A) Usual status unemployment
Explanation
Usual Status Unemployment is used to calculate chronic unemployment because it utilizes a long reference period of 365 days preceding the date of the survey. Under this approach, an individual is classified as unemployed if they did not engage in any gainful economic activity for a major part of the year (typically 183 days or more) while actively seeking or being available for work. This method effectively captures persistent, long-term, and open unemployment, filtering out temporary, casual, or seasonal fluctuations in employment.
73Economy
According to the NSSO 68th round, what is the rate of unemployment in India based on usual status unemployment method?
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Answer: (B) 5-6%
Explanation
5-6%. NSSO 68th Round (2011-12) unemployment rate under usual status method is cited as 5.6% in standard APPSC/competitive exam reference materials; other options do not correspond to any standard NSSO 68th round metric.
74Economy
In India, in which year was the "Special Economic Zone" policy announced?
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Answer: (B) 2000
Explanation
The Special Economic Zones policy was announced by the Government of India in April 2000. The policy was introduced to overcome the challenges posed by a multiplicity of administrative controls and clearances, a lack of world-class infrastructure, and an unstable fiscal regime. By establishing these zones, the government aimed to attract larger foreign investments, promote exports, and provide an internationally competitive environment for economic growth. This policy framework paved the way for the enactment of the Special Economic Zones Act in 2005, which, along with the SEZ Rules, came into force in February 2006.
75Economy
According to United Nations' Millennium Development Goals Programme (2011-2012), what is the percentage of population below the poverty line in India?
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Answer: (A) 21-9%
Explanation
Under the United Nations' Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) monitoring framework, India's progress in reducing poverty is measured using the Poverty Head Count Ratio (PHCR) based on the Tendulkar Committee methodology. According to the official estimates derived from the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) consumer expenditure survey of 2011–2012, the percentage of the population living below the poverty line in India was estimated at 21.9% (represented as 21-9%). This achievement allowed India to successfully halve its poverty rate from the 1990 baseline of 47.8% well ahead of the 2015 MDG target deadline.
76Economy
At present with which name is Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (1999) implemented ?
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Answer: (A) National Rural Livelihood Mission
Explanation
Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana was launched on 1 April 1999 as a holistic self-employment scheme aimed at organizing the rural poor into Self-Help Groups, providing them with skill development, and assisting them with credit and technology to establish micro-enterprises. In 2011, the Ministry of Rural Development restructured and redesigned this scheme into the National Rural Livelihood Mission to implement a more focused, efficient, and community-driven approach toward alleviating rural poverty and enhancing sustainable livelihood opportunities.
77Polity and Governance
What is the basic goal of "Mission Indradhanush" launched in 2014 by Central Government ?
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Answer: (A) Immunization
Explanation
Mission Indradhanush was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, on 25 December 2014. The primary objective of this national immunization drive is to strengthen and health-system-intensify immunization coverage across India, ensuring full immunization for all children under the age of two years and pregnant women against vaccine-preventable diseases. The initiative targets major life-threatening diseases, including diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis, tuberculosis, measles, meningitis, and hepatitis B.
78Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
In relation to Andhra Pradesh, which of the following applications has received CSI Nihilent Best e-governance Award during the year 2017 - 18 ?
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Answer: (B) D-Krishi
Explanation
D-Krishi.
D-Krishi is an Aadhaar-enabled seed distribution system implemented by the Commissionerate of Agriculture, Government of Andhra Pradesh. It won the prestigious CSI Nihilent e-Governance Award of Excellence for its innovative digital solution to streamline seed distribution. The system utilizes biometric authentication and Aadhaar integration to ensure targeted delivery of seeds and micro-nutrients to eligible farmers, successfully eliminating duplicate benefits, reducing middleman intervention, and bringing transparency to the agricultural subsidy system.
79Economy
Which organization launched Rupay card ?
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Answer: (B) NPCI
Explanation
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched the RuPay card scheme in March 2012. NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, created as an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India and the Indian Banks Association. RuPay was developed as a domestic card payment network to meet the regulatory requirements of having a domestic, open, and multilateral system of payments in India, reducing the dependence on international card networks.
80Economy
Which is the program that has the theme "One Nation - One Scheme"?
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Answer: (D) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched by the Government of India in February 2016 as a flagship crop insurance program formulated specifically in line with the "One Nation - One Scheme" theme. It was designed to integrate and replace older agricultural insurance initiatives, including the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and the Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS). The program aims to streamline the crop insurance sector by offering a uniform, comprehensive insurance coverage model against crop failures, thereby protecting farmer incomes and reducing their premium burdens.
81Economy
During which period did India have continuous current account surplus?
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Answer: (B) 2001-04
Explanation
India recorded a continuous current account surplus for three consecutive fiscal years from 2001-02 to 2003-04, which falls within the 2001-04 period. After running persistent current account deficits for nearly 24 years since 1977-78, this surplus was achieved due to a shrinking merchandise trade deficit combined with strong growth in invisible receipts, particularly private remittances and software services exports.
82Economy
What is the maturity period of treasury bills issued by Government of India?
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Answer: (C) 91, 182 and 364 days
Explanation
Treasury Bills or T-bills are short-term money market instruments issued by the Government of India to manage its short-term liquidity requirements. These instruments are issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the central government. Currently, Treasury Bills are issued in three specific maturity periods, which are 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days. They are zero-coupon securities that are issued at a discount to their face value and redeemed at par upon maturity, with the return to the investor being the difference between the maturity value and the issue price.
83Economy
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Basel III implementation in India?
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Answer: (A) Minimum Tier 1 capital ratio should be 8%
Explanation
Under the Reserve Bank of India guidelines for Basel III implementation, the minimum Tier 1 capital ratio that banks are required to maintain is 7% of their risk-weighted assets. Therefore, the statement claiming that the minimum Tier 1 capital ratio should be 8% is incorrect.
84Economy
Which of the following in general is eligible as a borrower under National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) ?
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Answer: (B) Women self-help groups
Explanation
Under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM), the primary institution eligible for bank credit and interest subvention is the Women Self-Help Group (SHG). The mission aims to alleviate rural poverty by building strong institutions for the poor, particularly women, and facilitating their access to formal financial services. Financial assistance in the form of Revolving Funds and Community Investment Funds is routed directly to these Women SHGs, enabling them to leverage bank loans for both consumption and productive livelihood activities.
85Economy
What is the objective of National Credit Fund for Women, launched by Government of India in the year 1993 ?
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Answer: (A) Empowering women by providing micro finance
Explanation
The National Credit Fund for Women, also known as Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK), was established in 1993 to provide micro-credit or micro-finance services to poor and socio-economically backward women. Its primary objective is to empower women by enabling them to undertake income-generating activities through hassle-free micro-loans.
86Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
According to 2014 Reorganization Act, after the bifurcation of the State how many revenue divisions are there in Andhra Pradesh ?
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Answer: (C) 50
Explanation
Following the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, the residual state of Andhra Pradesh was left with 13 districts. These 13 districts were subdivided into 50 revenue divisions for administrative and revenue collection purposes. Out of these, East Godavari district had the highest number of revenue divisions with 7, while Vizianagaram district had the lowest with 2.
87Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
After bifurcation, according to the suggestions of NITI Aayog who has to take the construction responsibility of Polavararn Project ?
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Answer: (B) State Government
Explanation
State Government.
According to the recommendations of the Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog in September 2016, it was suggested that it would be appropriate for the State Government of Andhra Pradesh to execute and take construction responsibility for the Polavaram Irrigation Project. Since the State Government was keen to complete the project at the earliest, the Central Government agreed to the state's request to execute the project on behalf of the Government of India, while the Central Government continues to provide 100% funding for the remaining cost of the irrigation component from April 1, 2014.
88GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
Recently announced South Coastal Railway zone comprises of
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Answer: (A) Guntakal, Guntur and Vijayawada divisions
Explanation
The South Coastal Railway zone was announced in February 2019 as the 18th railway zone of India, with its headquarters in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. This zone was created by reorganizing parts of the South Central Railway and the East Coast Railway.
The zone primarily comprises three major divisions: the Guntakal, Guntur, and Vijayawada divisions. The Waltair division of the East Coast Railway was bifurcated, with its southern portion merged into the Vijayawada division under the new zone, and the remaining northern portion established as a new division headquartered at Rayagada under the East Coast Railway.
89Polity and GovernanceAndhra Pradesh-specific
What is the name of the project launched with the objective of computerization of Urban, Local bodies ?
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Answer: (B) E-suvidha
Explanation
E-suvidha.
The e-Suvidha project is a comprehensive e-governance initiative undertaken by the Department of Municipal Administration, Government of Andhra Pradesh. It was launched with the primary objective of bringing about uniform computerization across all Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) and municipalities in the state. Under this project, critical municipal functions and civic services—such as property tax assessment, birth and death registration, building plan approvals, and grievance redressal—were fully computerized. This digital transformation enables citizens to easily access government-to-citizen (G2C) services online and through integrated service delivery centers, enhancing the overall transparency, efficiency, and accountability of urban local administration.
90GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
Which district in Andhra Pradesh has the largest area under food crops ?
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Answer: (A) East Godavari
Explanation
East Godavari district has the largest area under food crops, particularly paddy, in Andhra Pradesh. Due to its fertile delta region and extensive irrigation facilities, it historically leads the state in both area under cultivation and production of food grains.
91Geography
Match the following List I with List II (Northern hemisphere) and choose the correct answer.
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| a. Winter solstice | I. December, 22 |
| b. Summer solstice | II. June, 21 |
| c. Vernal equinox | III. March, 21 |
| d. Autumnal equinox | IV. September, 23 |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (B) I II III IV
Explanation
Winter solstice (a) matches with December 22 (I) because this marks the day with the shortest period of daylight and the longest night of the year in the Northern Hemisphere.
Summer solstice (b) matches with June 21 (II) because it is the day when the Northern Hemisphere experiences the maximum tilt towards the Sun, resulting in the longest day of the year.
Vernal equinox (c) matches with March 21 (III) because it marks the beginning of spring in the Northern Hemisphere when the Sun is directly over the equator, causing day and night to be of nearly equal length.
Autumnal equinox (d) matches with September 23 (IV) because it marks the start of autumn when the Sun crosses the celestial equator southward, resulting in equal day and night.
92Geography
The boundary between crust and mantle is ________ discontinuity.
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Answer: (B) Moho
Explanation
The boundary between the Earth's crust and the mantle is known as the Mohorovicic discontinuity, commonly referred to as the Moho. Discovered in 1909 by the Croatian seismologist Andrija Mohorovicic, this boundary is defined by a distinct increase in the velocity of seismic waves as they transition from the less dense rocks of the crust into the denser rocks of the upper mantle.
93Geography
The bottom topography of an Ocean can be shown by
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Answer: (C) Hypsometric curve
Explanation
The bottom topography of an ocean, along with the elevation of the Earth's land surface, is represented by a hypsometric curve, which is also commonly referred to as a hypsographic curve. This cumulative frequency curve plots the proportion of the Earth's total surface area that exists at various heights above and depths below mean sea level. By showing the distribution of these elevations and depths, the curve clearly displays the major physical divisions of the ocean basins, such as continental shelves, slopes, rises, abyssal plains, and deep-sea trenches.
94Geography
Yellowstone National Park which is famous for geysers/hot springs is located in
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Answer: (B) USA
Explanation
Yellowstone National Park, established in 1872 as the first national park in the United States and widely considered the first in the world, is located primarily in the state of Wyoming, with small portions extending into Montana and Idaho. The park is renowned for its diverse wildlife and its abundant geothermal systems, which contain about half of the world's active geysers and hot springs, including the famous Old Faithful geyser and Grand Prismatic Spring.
95Geography
Which one among the following is a Volcanic Mountain ?
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Answer: (D) Mt. Etna
Explanation
Mount Etna is an active stratovolcano located on the east coast of Sicily, Italy. It is one of the world's most active volcanoes and is in an almost constant state of activity. Volcanic mountains are formed when molten rock (magma) deep within the Earth erupts and piles up on the surface, cooling to form a mountain.
96Geography
Which one of the following lakes is not part of the Great Lakes of North America ?
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Answer: (B) Victoria
Explanation
Lake Victoria is located in East Africa, shared by Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya. It is the largest tropical lake in the world and the chief reservoir of the Nile River, making it entirely separate from the Great Lakes system of North America.
97Geography
Consider the following two statements and choose the appropriate answer :
A. Gorges and Canyons represent V-shaped valleys.
B. Gorges are the extended forms of Canyons.
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Answer: (A) Only A is correct
Explanation
Gorges and canyons are typical erosional landforms created by running water during the youthful stage of a river. They represent narrow, deep V-shaped valleys formed primarily through vertical downcutting.
A gorge is a deep valley with very steep, almost vertical walls that is nearly equal in width at the top and the bottom. In contrast, a canyon is characterized by steep, step-like side slopes and is typically wider at the top than at the bottom. Geographically, a canyon is considered a larger variant or an extended form of a gorge, and not vice versa. Therefore, Statement A is correct, while Statement B is incorrect.
98Geography
Arrange the following constituents (in terms of their quantity) in the atmosphere in descending order :
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Answer: (A) Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, CO₂
Explanation
The Earth's atmosphere is composed of a mix of different gases. By volume, dry air consists of approximately 78.08% Nitrogen (N₂), which is the most abundant gas. Oxygen (O₂) is the second most abundant gas, making up about 20.95% of the atmosphere. Argon (Ar) is an inert noble gas that constitutes about 0.93%. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is present in trace amounts, accounting for approximately 0.04% of the atmosphere. Therefore, the correct descending order of these gases by quantity is Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, and Carbon dioxide.
99Geography
Which of the following statement/s rightly explain/s about tropopause?
(i) Seasonal variation occurs in the height of tropopause.
(ii) It is the transition zone between troposphere and stratosphere.
(iii) It lies below the stratosphere
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Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation
The tropopause is the boundary layer that separates the troposphere below from the stratosphere above, serving as the transition zone where the temperature stops decreasing with height and starts to become isothermal or increase. Since it sits directly atop the troposphere and serves as the gateway to the stratosphere, it lies directly below the stratosphere. The altitude of the tropopause is highly dependent on the temperature of the troposphere below it. Warmer temperatures during the summer cause the tropospheric air to expand and push the boundary upward, whereas colder temperatures during the winter cause the tropospheric air to contract, lowering the boundary. This thermal expansion and contraction results in significant seasonal variation in the height of the tropopause.
100Geography
Wind in the northern hemisphere is deflected towards right due to
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Answer: (A) Rotation of the Earth
Explanation
The deflection of winds to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere is caused by the Coriolis force, which is a direct consequence of the rotation of the Earth on its axis. As the Earth rotates from west to east, different latitudes travel at different linear speeds, being fastest at the equator and decreasing to zero at the poles. Air moving across these latitudes maintains its initial momentum, causing its path to appear deflected relative to the rotating surface of the Earth.
101Geography
Doldrums extend on both sides of
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Answer: (D) Equator
Explanation
The doldrums, scientifically known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), are a belt of low pressure characterized by calm, light, and baffling winds. This region is located along the equatorial belt and typically extends from approximately 5° North to 5° South latitudes on both sides of the Equator. The intense solar heating at the equator causes warm air to rise continuously, creating a low-pressure zone with minimal horizontal wind movement, which historically left sailing ships stranded due to the lack of wind.
102Geography
The Suez Canal connects
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Answer: (D) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
Explanation
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway located in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea. Opened in 1869, it cuts through the Isthmus of Suez to provide the shortest maritime route between Europe and the regions bordering the Indian and western Pacific Oceans. By linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea, the canal allows ships to avoid the lengthy and arduous journey around the Cape of Good Hope at the southern tip of Africa, fundamentally transforming global trade and navigation.
103Geography
Which of the following is not a warm ocean current?
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Answer: (B) Humboldt Current
Explanation
The Humboldt Current, also known as the Peru Current, is a cold, low-salinity eastern boundary current that flows northwards along the western coast of South America from the southern tip of Chile to northern Peru. It is driven by the strong westerly winds of the Southern Ocean and the Coriolis effect, bringing deep, nutrient-rich, and cold waters to the ocean surface through the process of coastal upwelling.
104Geography
Which among the following has the highest albedo?
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Answer: (A) Snow
Explanation
Albedo is the measure of the reflectivity of a surface, defined as the ratio of reflected solar radiation to the total incident solar radiation. Fresh snow has the highest reflectivity of any natural surface on Earth, typically reflecting between 80% and 90% of incoming sunlight. This is due to its highly crystalline structure and white appearance, which prevents the absorption of solar energy and causes the vast majority of the light to bounce back into space.
105Geography
Zulu tribes are found in
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Answer: (D) South Africa
Explanation
The Zulu are an Nguni ethnic group native to Southern Africa. They constitute the largest ethnic group in South Africa, with the majority of the Zulu population residing in the province of KwaZulu-Natal. Historically, they established the highly influential Zulu Kingdom in the early 19th century under the leadership of King Shaka, playing a prominent role in the region's socio-political history.
106Geography
Match the following :
| List I (Crops) | List II (States) |
|---|---|
| a. Barley | 1. Karnataka |
| b. Groundnut | 2. Uttar Pradesh|
| c. Ragi | 3. Gujarat|
| d. Rice | 4. West Bengal |
Codes:
a b c d
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Answer: (A) I II III IV
Explanation
The crop and state associations are as follows:
Barley: It is a rabi crop grown mainly in northern India, with Uttar Pradesh being one of the leading producers.
Groundnut: It is a major kharif crop, with Tamil Nadu being among the top producing states in India.
Ragi: Karnataka is the leading producer of Ragi in India, contributing more than half of the national output.
Rice: Andhra Pradesh is a major producer of rice, traditionally known as the Rice Bowl of India.
Matching these gives a-1, b-2, c-3, and d-4, which corresponds to the sequence I, II, III, IV.
107Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Islamic countries is predominantly of Shia sect ?
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Answer: (B) Iran
Explanation
Iran is predominantly of the Shia sect, with approximately 90% to 95% of its population identifying as Shia Muslim. Following the rise of the Safavid dynasty in the early 16th century, Shia Islam was established as the state religion of the territory. Since the 1979 Islamic Revolution, Iran has been officially governed as an Islamic Republic with Twelver Shia Islam serving as the constitutional foundation of its legal, political, and social institutions.
108Geography
Karaganda basin is famous for
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Answer: (C) Coal
Explanation
The Karaganda Basin, located in central Kazakhstan, is one of the largest and most prominent coal basins in Central Asia. It contains vast deposits of high-grade coking and thermal coal. The extraction of coal in this region began in the nineteenth century and expanded significantly during the twentieth century under the Soviet Union to support heavy industrialization and metallurgical plants. Today, it remains a critical hub for energy and metallurgical coal production in Kazakhstan.
109Geography
Danube river flows into
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Answer: (B) Black Sea
Explanation
The Danube River is the second-longest river in Europe, originating in the Black Forest region of Germany. It flows southeastwards for approximately 2,850 kilometers, passing through or bordering ten European countries, before emptying into the Black Sea through the Danube Delta, which is primarily located in Romania and Ukraine.
110Geography
The 'Hottentots' are
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Answer: (C) Nomadic pastoralists of South Africa
Explanation
The Khoekhoe, historically referred to by the term Hottentots, are the indigenous nomadic pastoralist people of South Africa. They have traditionally inhabited the southwestern regions of Africa for thousands of years, practicing nomadic pastoralism by herding livestock such as cattle and sheep, which distinguished them from their hunter-gatherer neighbors, the San.
111Geography
There is a place A with longitude 060° West. There is another place B with longitude 090° East. If, local time at place A is 10 a.m, what would be local time at place B?
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Answer: (A) 8 p.m.
Explanation
The longitudinal difference between place A (060° West) and place B (090° East) is calculated by adding the two longitudes because they are in opposite hemispheres:
60° + 90° = 150°
Since the Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, each 1° of longitude represents a time difference of 4 minutes. Therefore, the total time difference between the two places is:
150 × 4 minutes = 600 minutes
Converting this difference into hours:
600 minutes ÷ 60 minutes/hour = 10 hours
Since place B is located to the East of place A, its time is ahead. Adding 10 hours to the local time at place A (10 a.m.) gives the local time at place B:
10 a.m. + 10 hours = 8 p.m.
112Science and Technology
Identify the pair that is not correctly matched
Satellite Navigation System / Owned by
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Answer: (B) GLONASS / United Kingdom
Explanation
GLONASS (Global Navigation Satellite System) is owned and operated by the Russian Federation, not the United Kingdom. It was originally developed by the Soviet Union beginning in 1976 and is currently managed by the Russian Aerospace Forces, providing real-time position and velocity determination for military and civilian users globally.
113Geography
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Dam/Lake / River
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Answer: (B) Kolleru Lake / Krishna
Explanation
Kolleru Lake is a natural freshwater lake located in Andhra Pradesh, situated between the deltas of the Krishna and Godavari rivers. It is not fed by the Krishna River itself, but rather by seasonal rivers and streams such as Budameru, Tammileru, and Weyyeru, before draining into the Bay of Bengal through the Upputeru canal.
114Geography
El-Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years. Consider the following statements in this regard :
A. The appearance of warm currents off the Coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific.
B. The word El-Nino means 'Christ Child' because the current appears around Christmas in December.
C. El-Nino was one of the reasons for the deficit rainfall in India (2014).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) A, B and C
Explanation
El Nino is a major oceanic-atmospheric phenomenon characterized by the periodic warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and east-central equatorial Pacific. This warming leads to the appearance of a warm ocean current off the coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific, which temporarily replaces the cold Peruvian or Humboldt Current.
The name El Nino is Spanish for the boy child or Christ Child. Peruvian fishermen originally coined this term because the warming of the ocean waters typically became noticeable around Christmas in December.
There is a strong historical correlation between El Nino events and weak Indian summer monsoons. The warming of the equatorial Pacific alters global atmospheric circulation patterns by disrupting the Walker Circulation, which shifts precipitation zones eastward and suppresses monsoon rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. In 2014, the development of El Nino conditions was a primary driver behind the deficient monsoon rainfall in India, leading to a seasonal rainfall deficit of around 12%.
115Geography
Israel has common border with
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Answer: (A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
Explanation
Israel is located in the Middle East along the eastern coastline of the Mediterranean Sea. It shares its land borders with Lebanon in the north, Syria in the northeast, Jordan in the east, and Egypt in the southwest.
116Economy
A country with a crude birth rate of 44 and a crude death rate of 11 would have an annual rate of natural increase of
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Answer: (C) 3.3%
Explanation
The annual rate of natural increase (RNI) is calculated using the formula:
Crude birth rates and crude death rates are measured as the number of births and deaths per 1,000 people per year. Subtracting the crude death rate of 11 from the crude birth rate of 44 gives a natural increase of 33 per 1,000 people. To express this rate as an annual percentage (per 100 people), the value is divided by 10, which yields 3.3%.
117Geography
Which of the following groups of countries is arranged in descending order of area?
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Answer: (C) Russia, Canada, U.S.A., China
Explanation
The correct descending order of the countries by total area is Russia, Canada, United States, and China.
According to standard geographical databases, the total area of each country is as follows:
Russia covers approximately 17.09 million km².
Canada covers approximately 9.98 million km².
The United States covers approximately 9.83 million km².
China covers approximately 9.60 million km².
Since total area includes both land and water surfaces, this places the United States ahead of China, resulting in the descending sequence of Russia, Canada, U.S.A., and China.
118Geography
Which is the mountain between the Black Sea and Caspian Sea?
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Answer: (B) Caucasus
Explanation
The Caucasus Mountains are a major mountain range spanning between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea in the Caucasus region. This system runs from northwest to southeast, acting as a natural geographic barrier and serving as a traditional boundary line dividing the continents of Europe and Asia. The range is home to Mount Elbrus, which is the highest peak in Europe.
119Geography
Sierra Nevada is the name of
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Answer: (D) A mountain in America
Explanation
The Sierra Nevada is a major mountain range located in the Western United States, running primarily north-to-south through the state of California with its eastern slopes extending into the state of Nevada. The Spanish name translates to snowy mountain range. It is home to several famous natural features, including Yosemite Valley, Sequoia National Park, Lake Tahoe, and Mount Whitney, which stands as the highest peak in the contiguous United States.
120Economy
Which of the following is not a coal field?
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Answer: (C) Mosabani
Explanation
Mosabani (also spelled as Musabani) is a well-known copper mining area located in the East Singhbhum district of Jharkhand. Situated within the Singhbhum Copper Belt, it is famous for hosting some of the oldest copper mines in India and has no coal reserves or coal mining operations.