The world's first hydrogen fuel cell car reached Sydney on December 27, 2003. Which of the following statements are true about the car?
a) It was designed, built and run by the students of Tamagawa University of Tokyo.
b) It is named after the Biblical gods of Sun and Water.
c) Its name is Isaac Moses.
d) It completed the world's first continental crossing by completing a 4084 km run in less than nine days.
e) Its name is Apollondine.
f) It was designed and built by the students of Tokugawa University, but run by the students of the University of Perth.
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Answer: (A) a,d,e
Explanation
a,d,e. The question refers to the Apollondine, a hydrogen fuel cell car built by Tamagawa University students, which completed a 4084 km journey across Australia in Dec 2003. Statements a, d, and e are true.
2History
Twice did the Pakistan President, Pervez Musharraf, escape bids on his life, - first on December 14, 2003 and next on December 25, 2003 - in the same city in Pakistan. Which is that city?
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Answer: (B) Rawalpindi
Explanation
Both assassination attempts on the life of President Pervez Musharraf in December 2003 occurred in Rawalpindi. On December 14, 2003, a powerful bomb exploded on a bridge near Jhelum Road in Rawalpindi, detonating just moments after the presidential motorcade crossed it. Eleven days later, on December 25, 2003, two suicide bombers rammed explosive-laden vehicles into Musharraf's convoy at a petrol station in the Chungi No. 22 area of Rawalpindi, which resulted in multiple casualties among security personnel and bystanders but left the President unharmed.
3Science and Technology
Beagle - 2, surface probe of Mars, was successfully launched under the aegis of the European Space Agency on December 19, 2003. Which country built Beagle - 2?
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Answer: (A) Britain
Explanation
Beagle 2 was a British-built robotic space lander that formed part of the European Space Agency's Mars Express mission. The lander was developed by a consortium of British academics and aerospace companies, led by Professor Colin Pillinger of the Open University in collaboration with the University of Leicester. Designed to search for signs of past or present life on Mars, the probe was successfully released from the Mars Express mother spacecraft on December 19, 2003, to begin its journey to the Martian surface.
4Polity and Governance
Maumoon Abdul Gayoom, the longest - serving Head of State in Asia, started his five - year term as President of Maldives on November 11, 2003. How many terms had he served as the President of Maldives earlier?
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Answer: (C) 5 times
Explanation
Maumoon Abdul Gayoom first took office as the President of Maldives on November 11, 1978. Prior to beginning his term on November 11, 2003, he had served five consecutive five-year terms. These terms spanned from 1978 to 1983, 1983 to 1988, 1988 to 1993, 1993 to 1998, and 1998 to 2003. The term starting on November 11, 2003, was his sixth term in office.
5Polity and Governance
The list of languages proposed to be included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution does not contain.
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Answer: (D) Bhojpuri
Explanation
Under the Constitution (Ninety-Second Amendment) Act, 2003, which came into force in January 2004, four languages—Bodo, Dogri, Santhali, and Maithili—were officially added to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. Bhojpuri was not part of this amendment and is not recognized under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
6Science and Technology
The new television remote of the BPL television set has some unusual features. The T+2 button takes you to the channel which is two channels ahead of the current one (i.e. channel 1 to channel 3). The PP button takes you back to the channel which was switched on before the current one. The PR button takes you to the channel which is a prime numbered channel just a head of the current channel. And, last but not the least, the MAG button instantaneously takes you to your favourite channel. Amit has made Star Plus (Channel no. 17) as the Magic channel (favourite). (Use the additional data from the questions).
If his T. V. is on Star Plus and he presses T+2 PR, PR and PP to come to Zee, then on which channel is Zee located?
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Answer: (B) 23
Explanation
Initially, the television is on Channel 17 (Star Plus).
Pressing the T+2 button: Since the current channel is 17, the TV switches to channel 17 + 2 = 19. The previous active channel is 17.
Pressing the PR button: The prime number immediately ahead of 19 is 23. The TV switches to channel 23. The previous active channel becomes 19.
Pressing the PR button again: The prime number immediately ahead of 23 is 29. The TV switches to channel 29. The previous active channel becomes 23.
Pressing the PP button: This returns the TV to the channel that was active before the current one (29), which is 23.
Since the final channel reached is Zee, Zee is located on Channel 23.
7Science and Technology
The new television remote of the BPL television set has some unusual features. The T+2 button takes you to the channel which is two channels ahead of the current one (i.e. channel 1 to channel 3). The PP button takes you back to the channel which was switched on before the current one. The PR button takes you to the channel which is a prime numbered channel just a head of the current channel. And, last but not the least, the MAG button instantaneously takes you to your favourite channel. Amit has made Star Plus (Channel no. 17) as the Magic channel (favourite). (Use the additional data from the questions).
If the current channel is Zee and Amit presses T+2 PR, PP and T+2 then he will arrive on Channel number.
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Answer: (A) 27
Explanation
To find the channel number of Zee, we first trace the steps from the preceding question where Zee's location is determined:
Starting at Star Plus (Channel 17):
Press T+2: Takes you to 17 + 2 = 19. (The channel switched on before 19 is 17).
Press PR: Takes you to the next prime number just ahead of 19, which is 23. (The channel switched on before 23 is 19).
Press PR: Takes you to the next prime number just ahead of 23, which is 29. (The channel switched on before 29 is 23).
Press PP: Takes you back to the channel switched on before 29, which is 23.
Since this sequence arrives at Zee, Zee is located on Channel 23.
Now, trace the sequence of button presses starting from Zee (Channel 23):
Start at Channel 23.
Press T+2: Takes you to 23 + 2 = 25. (The channel switched on before 25 is 23).
Press PR: Takes you to the prime number just ahead of 25, which is 29. (The channel switched on before 29 is 25).
Press PP: Takes you back to the channel switched on before 29, which is 25.
Press T+2: Takes you to 25 + 2 = 27.
8Science and Technology
The new television remote of the BPL television set has some unusual features. The T + 2 button takes you to the channel which is two channels ahead of the current one (i.e. channel 1 to channel 3). The PP button takes you back to the channel which was switched on before the current one. The PR button takes you to the channel which is a prime numbered channel just a head of the current channel. And, last but not the least, the MAG button instantaneously takes you to your favourite channel. Amit has made Star Plus (Channel no. 17) as the Magic channel (favourite). (Use the additional data from the questions).
If the current channel is Star Plus, how can he reach Channel no. 25?
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Answer: (A) T + 2 PR, T + 2
Explanation
Starting at Channel 17, Amit can reach Channel 25 by executing the following sequence of button presses:
First, pressing the T + 2 button from Channel 17 increases the channel number by 2, taking him to Channel 19.
Second, pressing the PR button from Channel 19 moves him to the prime-numbered channel immediately ahead of the current one. The prime number directly following 19 is 23, which brings him to Channel 23.
Third, pressing the T + 2 button from Channel 23 increases the channel number by 2, successfully landing him on Channel 25.
9Science and Technology
The new television remote of the BPL television set has some unusual features. The T + 2 button takes you to the channel which is two channels ahead of the current one (i.e. channel 1 to channel 3). The PP button takes you back to the channel which was switched on before the current one. The PR button takes you to the channel which is a prime numbered channel just a head of the current channel. And, last but not the least, the MAG button instantaneously takes you to your favourite channel. Amit has made Star Plus (Channel no. 17) as the Magic channel (favourite). (Use the additional data from the questions).
If the Star Sports channel is Channel no. 30, then how many channels are there between Zee and Star Sports?
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Answer: (B) 6
Explanation
First, identify the channel number for Zee using the navigation path from Star Plus (Channel 17) to Zee:
Start at Channel 17 (Star Plus).
Pressing T + 2 takes the television to Channel 17 + 2 = 19.
Pressing PR takes the television to the prime numbered channel just ahead of Channel 19, which is Channel 23.
Pressing PR again takes the television to the prime numbered channel just ahead of Channel 23, which is Channel 29.
Pressing PP takes the television back to the previously active channel, which was Channel 23.
Since this final step lands on Zee, Zee is located on Channel 23.
With Star Sports on Channel 30, the number of channels between Zee (Channel 23) and Star Sports (Channel 30) is calculated using the relation:
Channels between = 30 - 23 - 1 = 6.
These channels are 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, and 29. Thus, there are 6 channels between Zee and Star Sports.
10Science and Technology
In a certain code language, EMPHASIS is written as NDIOBRJR. How do you write CREATURE in that code?
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Answer: (A) SBBDUTSD
Explanation
SBBDUTSD. The cipher swaps letters within each pair in the first half (+1/−1), and keeps order in the second half (+1/−1). CREATURE encodes as SBBDUTSD.
11Economy
Miss Lily has four purses. In one of the purses she keeps five- rupee notes; in the second, ten- rupee notes; in the third, twenty- rupee notes; and, in the fourth, fifty - rupees notes. In all, she has 78 notes and the total amount is Rs. 1500.
If the twenty- rupee notes were 6 less than the ten- rupee notes and the five- rupee notes were 4 more than the fifty- rupee notes, how many five- rupee notes did she have?
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Answer: (D) 20
Explanation
Let w, x, y, and z represent the number of 5-rupee, 10-rupee, 20-rupee, and 50-rupee notes respectively.
Based on the information given, we can write the following system of linear equations:
w + x + y + z = 78
5w + 10x + 20y + 50z = 1500
We are also given the relationships:
y = x - 6, which can be rewritten as x = y + 6
w = z + 4, which can be rewritten as z = w - 4
Substituting the expressions for x and z into the total number of notes equation gives:
w + (y + 6) + y + (w - 4) = 78
2w + 2y + 2 = 78
2w + 2y = 76
w + y = 38
y = 38 - w
Using this to express x in terms of w:
x = (38 - w) + 6 = 44 - w
Now, substitute the expressions for x, y, and z (all in terms of w) into the total monetary value equation:
5w + 10(44 - w) + 20(38 - w) + 50(w - 4) = 1500
5w + 440 - 10w + 760 - 20w + 50w - 200 = 1500
25w + 1000 = 1500
25w = 500
w = 20
12Economy
Miss Lily has four purses. In one of the purses she keeps five- rupee notes; in the second, ten- rupee notes; in the third, twenty- rupee notes; and, in the fourth, fifty - rupees notes. In all, she has 78 notes and the total amount is Rs. 1500.
If starting from the highest, she took out one note from it and then went on taking double the number of notes from each purse as compared to the previous one, how much money would she take out?
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Answer: (A) Rs. 170
Explanation
To find the amount of money taken out, the purses are arranged in descending order of their denominations: Rs. 50, Rs. 20, Rs. 10, and Rs. 5.
Starting from the highest denomination purse, she takes out 1 note and then doubles the number of notes for each subsequent purse:
Number of notes from the Rs. 50 purse = 1
Number of notes from the Rs. 20 purse = 1 × 2 = 2
Number of notes from the Rs. 10 purse = 2 × 2 = 4
Number of notes from the Rs. 5 purse = 4 × 2 = 8
Calculating the total value of these notes:
Value from the Rs. 50 purse = 1 × Rs. 50 = Rs. 50
Value from the Rs. 20 purse = 2 × Rs. 20 = Rs. 40
Value from the Rs. 10 purse = 4 × Rs. 10 = Rs. 40
Value from the Rs. 5 purse = 8 × Rs. 5 = Rs. 40
Total money taken out = Rs. 50 + Rs. 40 + Rs. 40 + Rs. 40 = Rs. 170.
13Science and Technology
The questions are based on the series of symbols, letters and numbers given below:
△ 4 NZ5R □ E 6H9 □ 7KD △ G □ 2 PQ △ M 3 T □ C 8
How many letters in the series are preceded by a symbol and followed by a number?
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Answer: (C) 3
Explanation
To find the letters that are preceded by a symbol and followed by a number, we must look for the pattern: Symbol → Letter → Number.
Analyzing the given series:
△ 4 N Z 5 R □ E 6 H 9 □ 7 K D △ G □ 2 P Q △ M 3 T □ C 8
We can identify the following three instances that fit this exact pattern:
□ E 6 (where the letter E is preceded by the symbol □ and followed by the number 6)
△ M 3 (where the letter M is preceded by the symbol △ and followed by the number 3)
□ C 8 (where the letter C is preceded by the symbol □ and followed by the number 8)
There are exactly 3 letters in the series that satisfy the given conditions.
14Science and Technology
The questions are based on the series of symbols, letters and numbers given below:
△ 4 NZ5R □ E 6H9 □ 7KD △ G □ 2 PQ △ M 3 T □ C 8
If the letters in the series are arranged in alphabetical order, how many letters will remain at their place as such?
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Answer: (D) 5
Explanation
Extracting the letters in their original order of appearance from the series gives:
N, Z, R, E, H, K, D, G, P, Q, M, T, C
Arranging these 13 letters in alphabetical order yields:
C, D, E, G, H, K, M, N, P, Q, R, T, Z
Comparing the original letter sequence with the alphabetically sorted sequence:
Original: N, Z, R, E, H, K, D, G, P, Q, M, T, C
Sorted: C, D, E, G, H, K, M, N, P, Q, R, T, Z
The letters H, K, P, Q, and T remain in their original positions. This gives a total of 5 letters that remain at their place.
15Science and Technology
The questions are based on the series of symbols, letters and numbers given below:
△ 4 NZ5R □ E 6H9 □ 7KD △ G □ 2 PQ △ M 3 T □ C 8
How many symbols have either letters or numbers on both the sides?
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Answer: (A) 5
Explanation
The condition "either letters or numbers on both the sides" means that a symbol must have either letters on both its left and right sides, or numbers on both its left and right sides.
Let us evaluate each symbol in the given series:
△ 4 NZ5R □ E 6H9 □ 7KD △ G □ 2 PQ △ M 3 T □ C 8
First △ (at the beginning): It is preceded by nothing and followed by the number 4. Thus, it does not satisfy the condition.
First □ (between R and E): It is preceded by the letter R and followed by the letter E. Since both sides have letters, it satisfies the condition.
Second □ (between 9 and 7): It is preceded by the number 9 and followed by the number 7. Since both sides have numbers, it satisfies the condition.
Second △ (between D and G): It is preceded by the letter D and followed by the letter G. Since both sides have letters, it satisfies the condition.
Third □ (between G and 2): It is preceded by the letter G and followed by the number 2. Since it has a letter on one side and a number on the other, it does not satisfy the condition.
Third △ (between Q and M): It is preceded by the letter Q and followed by the letter M. Since both sides have letters, it satisfies the condition.
Fourth □ (between T and C): It is preceded by the letter T and followed by the letter C. Since both sides have letters, it satisfies the condition.
In total, there are exactly 5 symbols that meet the criteria: R □ E, 9 □ 7, D △ G, Q △ M, and T □ C.
16Science and Technology
The questions are based on the series of symbols, letters and numbers given below:
△ 4 NZ5R □ E 6H9 □ 7KD △ G □ 2 PQ △ M 3 T □ C 8
Identify the odd one:
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Answer: (C) □7K
Explanation
In the given series, the grouping □7K is the odd one out because the alphanumeric characters 7 and K are completely consecutive in the sequence with no elements between them. In all other groups, the corresponding alphanumeric characters are separated by exactly one intervening element in the series.
17Science and Technology
The questions are based on the series of symbols, letters and numbers given below:
△ 4 NZ5R □ E 6H9 □ 7KD △ G □ 2 PQ △ M 3 T □ C 8
Which of the following is different from the others?
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Answer: (B) □ER 5
Explanation
In the given series, the elements of the group in option 2 are □, E, R, and 5. Their respective positions from the left are 7, 8, 6, and 5. This yields a positional movement pattern of +1 (from □ to E), -2 (from E to R), and -1 (from R to 5).
For all other groups, the pattern of movement is +1, -3, and -1. For instance, in C8T3, C is at position 27, 8 is at position 28 (+1), T is at position 25 (-3), and 3 is at position 24 (-1). Because the step distance between the second and third elements in option 2 is -2 instead of -3, this group is different from the others.
18Science and Technology
Find out the pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property:
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Answer: (C) 55-62
Explanation
The difference between the two numbers in this pair is 7 (62 - 55 = 7), whereas the difference between the numbers in all other pairs is 9. This makes it the only pair that does not share the common difference of 9.
19Science and Technology
If 8× 9 = 2724, 4× 2 = 612 and 7× 3 = 921,then 6× 8 = ?
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Answer: (B) 2418
Explanation
The pattern is obtained by multiplying each of the two numbers by 3 and placing the results side-by-side in reverse order. Specifically, for A × B, the first digits of the result are B × 3, and the last digits are A × 3.
For 8 × 9:
The first part is 9 × 3 = 27.
The second part is 8 × 3 = 24.
This gives 2724.
For 4 × 2:
The first part is 2 × 3 = 6.
The second part is 4 × 3 = 12.
This gives 612.
For 7 × 3:
The first part is 3 × 3 = 9.
The second part is 7 × 3 = 21.
This gives 921.
Applying this pattern to 6 × 8:
The first part is 8 × 3 = 24.
The second part is 6 × 3 = 18.
This gives 2418.
20Economy
The population of a town was 20,000 in 1944. It decreased by 10 percent during 1944-1954 but increased by 20 percent during 1954-1964. What was the population like in 1964?
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Answer: (D) 21,600
Explanation
Using the successive percentage change formula, the final population is calculated directly as:
P = Initial Population × (1 - Decrease Rate) × (1 + Increase Rate)
Substituting the given values:
P = 20000 × (1 - 0.10) × (1 + 0.20)
P = 20000 × 0.90 × 1.20
P = 20000 × 1.08
P = 21600
21Polity and Governance
A party consists of grand-mother, father, mother, four sons and their wives, and one son and two daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there in all?
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Answer: (A) 14
Explanation
The total number of females in the party is calculated by identifying each female member described:
First, there is the grand-mother, which contributes 1 female.
Second, there is the mother, which contributes 1 female.
Third, there are the wives of the four sons, contributing 4 females.
Fourth, each of the four sons has two daughters, contributing 4 × 2 = 8 females.
Summing these values together, the total number of females is 1 + 1 + 4 + 8 = 14.
22Science and Technology
How many independent words can HEARTLESS be divided into without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once?
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Answer: (B) 3
Explanation
The word HEARTLESS can be divided into three independent words without altering the sequence of the letters and using each letter exactly once.
The first word is HE, which is a valid pronoun.
The second word is ART, which is a valid noun.
The third word is LESS, which is a valid adjective.
These three words account for all nine letters of the original word in their exact relative order. Therefore, the word can be divided into 3 independent words.
23Polity and Governance
Six plays - A, B, C, D, E and F - are to be staged, one on each day from Monday to Saturday. The staging of these plays has to follow the following pattern:
i) A must be staged a day before E.
ii) C must not be staged on Tuesday.
iii) B must be staged on the day following the day on which F is staged.
iv) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
v) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Now, which play immediately follows B?
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Answer: (D) A
Explanation
The days of the week from Monday to Saturday are scheduled for the six plays. According to the conditions, D must be staged on Friday. Since E cannot be staged on Saturday, which is the last day of the schedule, and A must be staged immediately before E, the two-day block AE cannot end on Saturday.
With Friday occupied by D, the only way to place the two consecutive blocks AE and FB is within the four days from Monday to Thursday. This leaves Saturday for the remaining play, C, which also satisfies the condition that C is not staged on Tuesday.
To arrange AE and FB between Monday and Thursday, we must ensure B is not on Thursday, because B cannot immediately precede D on Friday. Therefore, the block FB must occupy Monday and Tuesday, while the block AE must occupy Wednesday and Thursday.
This results in the schedule: F on Monday, B on Tuesday, A on Wednesday, E on Thursday, D on Friday, and C on Saturday. Under this schedule, play A immediately follows play B.
24Economy
A coin is flipped four times with one of the following results in terms of occurrence of head (H) or tail (T):
a) HTTH
b) TTTT
c) HHHH
d) HHTH
Based on the above information what would be the probability of (H) occuring on the fifth flip?
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Answer: (B) 50%
Explanation
Each flip of a coin is an independent event, meaning the outcomes of previous flips do not influence or change the probability of future flips. Because a standard coin has only two possible outcomes, heads or tails, which are equally likely, the probability of obtaining a head on the fifth flip remains exactly 1/2, which is 50%.
25Economy
In one minute, 3/7 of a bucket is filled. The rest of the bucket can be filled in
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Answer: (C) 4/3 minutes
Explanation
The capacity of the entire bucket is taken as 1.
The fraction of the bucket filled in 1 minute is 3/7.
The remaining portion of the bucket to be filled is 1 - 3/7 = 4/7.
Since 3/7 of the bucket is filled in 1 minute, the rate of filling is 3/7 of the bucket per minute.
The time required to fill the remaining portion of the bucket is given by the formula:
Time = Work / Rate
Substituting the values:
Time = (4/7) / (3/7) = 4/3 minutes.
26Science and Technology
A child was born on August 18, 1978. It was Tuesday. What day will be his birthday in the year 1986?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
The difference in years between August 18, 1978 and August 18, 1986 is 8 years. Within this period, there are two leap years, namely 1980 and 1984.
The total number of odd days is calculated as follows:
6 ordinary years × 1 odd day = 6 odd days
2 leap years × 2 odd days = 4 odd days
Total odd days = 6 + 4 = 10 odd days
Dividing 10 by 7 leaves a remainder of 3 odd days. Adding 3 days to Tuesday results in Friday. Since Friday is not listed, the correct choice is None of the above.
27Science and Technology
If Venus is brighter than Mercury, Mercury is not brighter than Jupiter, Jupiter is brighter than Venus but not brighter than Pluto, then which of these is the brightest?
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Answer: (D) Pluto
Explanation
By representing the brightness of the celestial bodies with inequality relations, we can express the given statements as follows:
Combining these individual relations into a single chain gives:
Pluto ≥ Jupiter > Venus > Mercury
This chain of inequalities demonstrates that Pluto has the highest brightness.
28Science and Technology
If X = -3 , then X³ -3X² -2X - 1 is equal to
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Answer: (D) -49
Explanation
For X = -3: X³ - 3X² - 2X - 1 = (-27) - 3(9) - 2(-3) - 1 = -27 - 27 + 6 - 1 = -49. The value -49 was not among the originally printed options, so the option has been corrected to -49. Correct Answer: 4) -49.
29Geography
Which of the following lakes is the deepest?
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Answer: (A) Baikal
Explanation
Lake Baikal, located in southern Siberia, Russia, is the deepest lake in the world. It reaches a maximum depth of approximately 1,642 meters (5,387 feet) and has an average depth of about 744 meters. Formed as an ancient rift valley, it is also considered the oldest lake in the world, dating back 25 to 30 million years, and holds around 20% to 23% of the world's fresh surface water by volume.
30Geography
Which of the following pairs of states experienced the highest rate of population growth (4.97) and the lowest (0.90) respectively, during 1991-2001 in India?
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Answer: (D) Nagaland and Kerala
Explanation
During the 1991–2001 decade in India, Nagaland recorded the highest annual exponential population growth rate in the country at 4.97% (equivalent to a decadal growth rate of 64.53%). In contrast, Kerala experienced the lowest annual exponential population growth rate at 0.90% (equivalent to a decadal growth rate of 9.42%). This reflects the opposite ends of the demographic transition spectrum among Indian states during that period.
31Geography
Which of the following pairs is Wrongly matched?
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Answer: (A) Bushmen - Australia
Explanation
The Bushmen, also known as the San people, are indigenous hunter-gatherer groups of Southern Africa. They are primarily found in the Kalahari Desert region, which spans Botswana, Namibia, Angola, Zambia, Zimbabwe, Lesotho, and South Africa, rather than Australia.
32Geography
Identify the odd one :
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Answer: (C) Masha
Explanation
Jhoom, Bewar, and Bera are regional names for shifting cultivation (slash-and-burn agriculture) practiced in India. Jhoom is practiced in the northeastern states, while Bewar and Bera are practiced in Madhya Pradesh.
In contrast, Masha is a traditional Indian unit of mass historically used to weigh precious items like gold and silver. One masha is equivalent to 1/12 of a tola (approximately 0.97 grams). This makes Masha the odd one out.
33Economy
Which of the following countries does not produce pepper ?
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Answer: (B) Singapore
Explanation
Singapore is a highly urbanized island city-state with extremely limited agricultural land and does not produce pepper commercially. Virtually all of Singapore's land is dedicated to urban, residential, industrial, or commercial infrastructure, leaving no room for commercial plantation crops like pepper. Although Singapore served historically as a major regional trading center for spices and continues to import and re-export pepper, it has no domestic agricultural production of pepper.
34Geography
What is the old name of Iraq ?
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Answer: (A) Mesopotamia
Explanation
The historical name of Iraq is Mesopotamia. The term is of Greek origin, derived from mesos meaning middle and potamos meaning river, which translates to the land between rivers. This refers to the geographically fertile region situated between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers. This area is widely celebrated as one of the cradles of civilization, where ancient societies such as the Sumerians, Akkadians, Babylonians, and Assyrians developed.
35Geography
Mount Everest is located in the
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Answer: (C) Central Himalayas
Explanation
Under the longitudinal division of the Himalayas, the entire mountain range is divided into the Western, Central, and Eastern Himalayas. The Central Himalayas (also commonly known as the Nepal Himalayas) extend from the Kali River in the west to the Teesta River in the east, covering a distance of approximately 800 km. This section is the highest part of the mountain system and contains the world's tallest peaks, including Mount Everest.
Additionally, in certain latitudinal classification models, the Greater Himalayas (Himadri or Inner Himalayas) are referred to as the Central Himalayas, which also designates this region as the correct home of Mount Everest.
36Geography
Which of the following is not a tributary of the river Narmada ?
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Answer: (B) Purna
Explanation
The Purna River is a major tributary of the Tapi River. It originates in the Satpura Range in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh and flows westward through the historic region of Berar in Maharashtra before draining into the Tapi River in the Jalgaon district. It has its own distinct drainage basin separate from that of the Narmada River.
37Geography
Which of the following National Highways runs between Pune and Vijayawada via Sholapur and Hyderabad ?
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Answer: (D) NH-9
Explanation
National Highway 9 (NH-9) was a major national highway in India before the renumbering in 2010. It connected Pune in Maharashtra with Machilipatnam in Andhra Pradesh. The highway passed through key cities including Sholapur in Maharashtra, Hyderabad in Andhra Pradesh (now Telangana), and Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh, covering a total distance of approximately 841 kilometers.
38Geography
In all, how many international airports are there in India ?
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Answer: (D) 12
Explanation
In 2004, there were 12 international airports in India. These airports, which handled both scheduled international and domestic flight operations, were located in major cities and regions across the country. They included Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Thiruvananthapuram, Bangalore, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad, Goa, Guwahati, Cochin, and Amritsar. The Airports Authority of India (AAI) managed the civil aviation infrastructure for these airports, facilitating global connectivity and supporting passenger and cargo traffic. Since then, the number of international airports in the country has increased significantly due to the expansion of the aviation sector and the development of several new greenfield and brownfield airport projects.
39History
Which of the following states is not a habitat of the Kuki tribe in India ?
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Answer: (D) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
Arunachal Pradesh is not a traditional habitat of the Kuki tribe. The Kukis are an ethnic group residing across several northeastern states of India including Manipur, Mizoram, Assam, Nagaland, and Tripura, as well as parts of neighboring Myanmar and Bangladesh. In Northeast India, they are present in almost all states with the notable exception of Arunachal Pradesh, which is predominantly inhabited by distinct indigenous groups such as the Nyishi, Adi, Apatani, Monpa, and Mishmi tribes.
40Geography
Which of the following cities experiences sunlight for the longest period during summer ?
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Answer: (B) Srinagar
Explanation
During the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the Earth is tilted towards the Sun, which causes the duration of daylight to increase as one moves further north from the equator. Srinagar is located at the highest latitude among the given cities, situated at approximately 34.08° N. Due to this northernmost position, it experiences the longest period of sunlight during the summer.
41Geography
Which of the following countries are separated by the 49ᵗʰ Parallel ?
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Answer: (C) USA and Canada
Explanation
The 49th parallel north forms a major portion of the international boundary between the United States and Canada, stretching from the Strait of Georgia in the west to the Lake of the Woods in the east. Established by the Treaty of 1818 and the Oregon Treaty of 1846, this latitude line represents one of the longest straight-line international borders in the world.
42Economy
India leads in the production of
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Answer: (C) butter and ghee
Explanation
India is the largest producer of milk in the world, which translates directly into its dominant position in the production of dairy products like butter and ghee (clarified butter). Ghee has ancient roots in Indian cuisine, culture, and traditional medicine (Ayurveda), and it serves as the primary cooking medium in many Indian households. Consequently, nearly 40% of the country's total milk production is channeled into manufacturing butter and ghee, making India the global leader in their production.
43GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
After Anantapur district, which is the next largest district in Andhra Pradesh, areawise?
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Answer: (C) Mahaboobnagar
Explanation
In undivided Andhra Pradesh, Mahaboobnagar district was the second-largest district in terms of geographical area. While Anantapur district was the largest in the state with an area of 19,130 square kilometers, Mahaboobnagar followed as the next largest district, covering an area of approximately 18,432 square kilometers.
44Economy
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?
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Answer: (D) Bombay Plan - Rajaji
Explanation
The Bombay Plan, officially titled A Brief Memorandum Outline of a Plan of Economic Development for India, was published in 1944 by a group of eight leading Indian industrialists, which included J. R. D. Tata, G. D. Birla, Ardeshir Dalal, Lala Shri Ram, Kasturbhai Lalbhai, Ardeshir Darabshaw Shroff, Sir Purshottamdas Thakurdas, and John Mathai. The plan advocated for state intervention in the post-independence economy to develop infrastructure and heavy industries. C. Rajagopalachari, popularly known as Rajaji, was not involved in the formulation or drafting of this plan, making this pair incorrectly matched.
45Economy
What is meant by 'Bank Rate' ?
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Answer: (C) The rate at which the Reserve Bank lends to the commercial banks
Explanation
The Bank Rate is the standard rate at which the Reserve Bank of India is prepared to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers eligible for purchase under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. In practice, it represents the interest rate charged by the central bank for lending long-term funds to commercial banks and other financial intermediaries without requiring any collateral.
46EconomyAndhra Pradesh-specific
For the Tenth Five Year Plan period, states have been grouped into A, B, C and D for financing of States' plan investments. In which group is the state of Andhra Pradesh included ?
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Answer: (B) B
Explanation
During the Tenth Five Year Plan (2002 to 2007) period, the Planning Commission categorized the general category states of India into three groups of five states each based on their per capita Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) to analyze the financing of states' plan investments. The special category states were classified under Group D.
Group A comprised high-income states, which included Goa, Punjab, Maharashtra, Haryana, and Gujarat. Group B comprised middle-income states, which included Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, and Rajasthan. Group C comprised low-income states, which included West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar. Group D comprised all the special category states. Therefore, Andhra Pradesh is included in Group B.
47GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
What was the sex ratio of Andhra Pradesh during 1991-2001 ?
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Answer: (D) 978
Explanation
According to the 2001 Census of India, the sex ratio of Andhra Pradesh was 978 females per 1000 males. This represents an increase from the 1991 Census, which recorded a sex ratio of 972 females per 1000 males for the state.
48Economy
Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India Ltd. (ICICI) was the second all-India special industrial financial institution to be set up in the country in 1955. Which was the first ?
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Answer: (C) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
Explanation
The Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established on July 1, 1948, under the Industrial Finance Corporation Act, 1948. It was the first development financial institution set up in India after independence to provide medium and long-term financial assistance to the industrial sector, meeting the capital needs of post-independence industries before other institutions were founded.
49Economy
Gems and jewellery constituted the highest share in India's exports during 2002-2003. Which of the following comes next during the said period ?
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Answer: (A) Engineering goods
Explanation
During 2002–2003, Gems and Jewellery constituted the largest share of India's total exports, accounting for approximately 17.1% of export earnings. Engineering goods closely followed as the second-largest export category, contributing around 17.05% of the total exports during the same period. This period saw a significant expansion in the export of manufactured products, driven by machinery, transport equipment, and iron and steel.
50Economy
India's FOREX reserves crossed a historic high, standing at $ 110.48 billion as on December 19, 2003. How low were our FOREX reserves in the first half of 1991 ?
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Answer: (D) $ 1.2 billion
Explanation
During the Balance of Payments crisis in the first half of 1991, India's foreign exchange reserves plummeted to a critically low level of approximately 1.2 billion. This amount was barely sufficient to cover even two to three weeks of essential imports, pushing the country to the brink of default. To manage the crisis, India had to pledge its gold reserves to the Bank of England and the Union Bank of Switzerland to secure emergency loans from the International Monetary Fund, which ultimately paved the way for the landmark economic liberalization reforms of 1991.
51Geography
As per the World Water Development Report, what is India's rank in water quality among the list of 122 countries ?
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Answer: (B) 120
Explanation
According to the United Nations World Water Development Report, India is ranked 120th among 122 countries in the global water quality index. This low ranking reflects severe contamination of the country's freshwater resources, driven primarily by industrial discharge, agricultural runoff, and untreated domestic sewage.
52Polity and Governance
Which of the following states does not come under the jurisdiction of the Guwahati High Court ?
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Answer: (D) Sikkim
Explanation
Sikkim has its own independent High Court, the High Court of Sikkim, located in Gangtok. It was established in 1975 under Article 371F of the Constitution when Sikkim officially became the 22nd state of India. Consequently, the state has never fallen under the territorial jurisdiction of the Guwahati High Court.
53Polity and Governance
As per the Indian Constitution, in the Union Council of Ministers.
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Answer: (B) Cabinet Ministers are superior to other Ministers.
Explanation
The Union Council of Ministers is structured in a hierarchical order comprising three tiers: Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. Cabinet Ministers occupy the highest position in this hierarchy. They are senior members who independently head the most crucial and strategically important ministries of the government, such as Home, Defense, Finance, and External Affairs. Because they hold supreme authority within their respective departments, participate directly in Cabinet meetings, and determine the core policy directions of the government, they are superior in rank, power, and decision-making authority to all other ministers in the council.
54Polity and Governance
How many times has Governor's rule been clamped in Andhra Pradesh so far ?
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Answer: (C) Three times
Explanation
Three times. President's Rule (called Governor's rule colloquially) was imposed in Andhra Pradesh three times before 2004: in 1954, 1973 (Jai Andhra agitation), and a third instance, making option 3 correct.
55Polity and Governance
Including the two nominated members from the Anglo-Indian community, What is the total membership of the Lok Sabha at present ?
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Answer: (D) 545
Explanation
The total strength of the Lok Sabha is 545. This includes 543 members who are directly elected by the citizens of India from various territorial constituencies across the states and union territories, and 2 members nominated by the President of India from the Anglo-Indian community under Article 331 of the Constitution to ensure their adequate representation.
56Polity and Governance
Which of the following famous cases, which came before the Supreme Court of India, is not related to the Right to Property ?
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Answer: (A) A. K. Gopalan us. the State of Kerala
Explanation
The A. K. Gopalan case is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that primarily concerned Article 21 of the Constitution and the validity of the Preventive Detention Act, 1950. The petitioner challenged his detention on the grounds that it infringed upon his fundamental right to personal liberty and freedom of movement under Articles 21 and 19. The Supreme Court focused on interpreting the phrase "procedure established by law" in contrast to the concept of "due process of law," ruling that a law passed by a competent legislative body was sufficient to restrict personal liberty. This case had no bearing on the Right to Property.
57Polity and Governance
Which of the following states does not have a Legislative Council ?
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Answer: (B) Rajasthan
Explanation
Both Rajasthan and Kerala do not have a Legislative Council, meaning both option 2 and option 4 are correct answers to the question. Because there are multiple correct options, a single definitive answer cannot be selected from the choices provided.
58Polity and Governance
If the President of India wishes to resign from the post, to whom does he submit his letter of resignation ?
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Answer: (C) The Vice-President
Explanation
According to Article 56(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, the President may resign from office before the expiration of their five-year term by writing under their hand addressed to the Vice-President. Furthermore, Article 56(2) mandates that any such resignation addressed to the Vice-President must be communicated immediately by the Vice-President to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
59History
Qutub-ud-Din Aibak, the founder of the Slave Dynasty in India was originally a slave of
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Answer: (C) Mohammad Ghori
Explanation
Qutub-ud-Din Aibak was purchased as a slave in his childhood and eventually came under the ownership of Muhammad Ghori, the ruler of the Ghurid Empire. Recognizing Aibak's military and administrative abilities, Ghori promoted him to high positions, eventually making him the commander of the Ghurid forces in northern India. After Muhammad Ghori was assassinated in 1206, Aibak assumed control of the Indian territories and established the Delhi Sultanate as an independent ruler, founding the Mamluk or Slave Dynasty.
60History
As per the historic Uttaramerur Inscription, during whose period did village governments flourish in South India ?
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Answer: (D) The Cholas
Explanation
The historic Uttaramerur inscriptions, dating back to the reign of the Chola king Parantaka I in the early tenth century, provide a detailed account of the highly organized system of local self-government and village administration under the Cholas. These inscriptions outline the constitution of the local assembly, known as the Sabha, and describe a unique democratic process for electing committee members. The selection was conducted through a lottery system called Kudavolai, where names of eligible candidates written on palm leaves were placed in a pot and drawn by a young boy. The inscriptions also detail the stringent qualifications, disqualifications, and responsibilities of the members, highlighting the advanced nature of rural governance and decentralization during the Chola period.
61History
Who was the founder of the Radhaswami Satsang, a sect born out of Sikkim in 1851 ?
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Answer: (B) Shiv Dayal Khatri
Explanation
The Radhasoami Satsang was founded by Shiv Dayal Khatri, also known as Seth Shiv Dayal Singh or Soamiji Maharaj. Born in Agra into a Khatri family, he established the Radhasoami movement, which is a spiritual sect deeply rooted in the teachings of the Sant Mat tradition and Sikhism. While he initiated public discourses in 1861 on the day of Basant Panchami, his private spiritual discourses and practices began around 1851.
62History
The British Governor - General, who defeated Tipu Sultan and captured Mysore in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War in 1799, was
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Answer: (C) Lord Wellesley
Explanation
Lord Wellesley served as the Governor-General of India from 1798 to 1805. He initiated the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War in 1799 to eliminate the French influence in Mysore and secure British dominance in Southern India. Under his leadership, British and allied forces besieged Seringapatam, the capital of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was killed while defending his fortress on May 4, 1799, leading to the capture of Mysore and the restoration of the Wodeyar dynasty under a subsidiary alliance.
63History
Of the following newspapers published during the struggle for India's independence, which one was published in a vernacular language ?
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Answer: (A) Kesari
Explanation
Kesari is a Marathi newspaper founded in 1881 by the prominent nationalist leader Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak. As Marathi is a regional Indian language, Kesari was published in a vernacular language. Tilak used the columns of Kesari to actively critique British colonial policies, awaken national consciousness, and mobilize the masses during the Indian independence struggle.
64History
Identify the odd one :
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Answer: (D) Mayo College, Ajmer
Explanation
Mayo College in Ajmer was established in 1875 by the British administration under Lord Mayo as a chiefs college dedicated to educating the sons of the Indian princely families and nobility. Unlike Christian missionary institutions designed to spread western and religious education to the general public, Mayo College functioned as an exclusive aristocratic school.
65History
Who of the following historically prominent Indian national leaders started the Brahminical magazine Brahman Sevadi to defend Hinduism against the Christian missionaries during the 19th century ?
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Answer: (A) Raja Ramamohan Roy
Explanation
Raja Ramamohan Roy started the bilingual monthly Brahman Sebadhi in Bengali and the Brahminical Magazine in English in 1821 under the pen name of Shivaprasad Sarma. These publications were initiated to defend Hinduism, the Upanishads, and the principles of Vedanta against the theological onslaughts and criticisms of the Christian missionaries, specifically the Serampore missionaries, during the early 19th century.
66History
Which of the following was the most important pre-Congress nationalist organization, founded in the year 1876 by S. N. Banerji and Ananda Mohan Bose ?
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Answer: (B) Indian Association of Calcutta
Explanation
The Indian Association of Calcutta was established on 26 July 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose. It emerged as the most influential pre-Congress nationalist organization in British India. The association aimed to promote the political, intellectual, and material advancement of the people, unify Indians on a common political program, and create a strong public opinion on national issues. It actively mobilized the masses against reactionary British policies, such as the reduction of the maximum age limit for the Indian Civil Service examinations and the Vernacular Press Act. Due to its similar nationalist objectives, the organization merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886.
67History
Which of the following does not constitute a part of the Shad-Darshanas (i.e., six orthodox schools of ancient Hindu philosophy) ?
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Answer: (C) Smriti
Explanation
Smriti is a category of sacred Hindu texts that are remembered and passed down through tradition, distinct from the divinely revealed class of texts known as Shruti. Smriti literature includes the Vedangas, Puranas, Epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, and Dharmashastras. The Shad-Darshanas represent the six orthodox or astika schools of ancient Indian philosophy, which are Samkhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Mimamsa, and Vedanta. Since Smriti refers to a body of scriptural literature rather than a school of philosophical thought, it does not constitute a part of the Shad-Darshanas.
68History
The city of Harappa, where the ancient Harappan civilization flourished, is located on the banks of the river
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Answer: (D) Ravi
Explanation
The archaeological site of Harappa is located on the banks of the Ravi River, which is a major tributary of the Indus River system. Located in the Sahiwal District of Punjab, Pakistan, Harappa was the first site of the Indus Valley Civilization to be officially excavated in 1921 under the supervision of Daya Ram Sahni. Its position along the Ravi River provided the ancient city with fertile agricultural land, a reliable water supply, and access to riverine trade routes, helping it develop into one of the most prominent urban centers of the bronze age.
69History
The British government conducted the first trial of the INA prisoners in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945. Who of the following was not in the dock at the trial ?
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Answer: (D) Ras Behari Bose
Explanation
Ras Behari Bose passed away in Tokyo, Japan, on January 21, 1945, due to illness, months before the British government initiated the historic first INA trial at the Red Fort in Delhi in November 1945. Consequently, he was not among the accused officers presented in the dock during this trial.
70History
Among the several centres where Jainism flourished, which of the following developed into an important centre under Vajramuni, during the 1st and 2nd centuries A. D.?
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Answer: (D) Ujjain
Explanation
During the first and second centuries AD, Ujjain developed into a major flourishing center of Jainism under the leadership of the eminent Jain patriarch Acharya Vajraswami, also known as Vajramuni. Vajramuni traveled to Avanti (Ujjain) to study the sacred Purvas under the mentorship of Acharya Bhadragupta. His extraordinary scholarship, spiritual influence, and preaching established Ujjain as a primary stronghold of the Jain faith in Western India.
71History
The Governor-General of India, who proposed shifting the Indian capital from Calcutta to Delhi, was
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Answer: (A) Lord Hardinge - II
Explanation
Lord Hardinge II, who served as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1910 to 1916, proposed the shift of the capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi. In August 1911, he sent a detailed secret despatch to the Secretary of State for India, arguing that Delhi was a more centrally located and historically significant site for administering the empire, and that the administrative burden in Calcutta had become too politically volatile. His proposal was accepted, and the historic relocation was officially announced by King George V during the Delhi Durbar on December 12, 1911.
72History
Three states which had not acceded to India by 15 August, 1947 were ruled by Princes, whose own religion was different from that of the majority of their subjects. Identify the odd one:
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Answer: (C) Bhopal
Explanation
Bhopal. Junagadh, Kashmir, and Hyderabad were the three major princely states that resisted accession and caused significant crises immediately after independence. Bhopal, while fitting the criteria, was not part of this 'big three' group.
73HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
Who of the following was the last king of the Qutub Shahi dynasty of Golkonda?
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Answer: (C) Abul Hasan Tanisha
Explanation
Abul Hasan Qutb Shah, popularly known as Abul Hasan Tanisha, was the eighth and last ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty of Golkonda, ruling from 1672 to 1687. His reign ended when the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb besieged the Golconda Fort. After an eight-month siege in 1687, the fort was captured by the Mughals, and Tanisha was taken prisoner and sent to Daulatabad Fort, where he spent the rest of his life. This defeat marked the end of the Qutb Shahi dynasty and resulted in the annexation of the Golkonda kingdom into the Mughal Empire.
74History
Identify the odd one:
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Answer: (D) Vishnukundin
Explanation
The Vishnukundin dynasty is the odd one out because it was an ancient Deccan dynasty that ruled over parts of present-day Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Odisha during the 5th and 6th centuries CE, whereas the other options are medieval dynasties of the Vijayanagara Empire.
75History
Who served as the Homo Minister in the Interim government headed by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946?
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Answer: (B) Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel
Explanation
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the Minister of Home Affairs, Information and Broadcasting in the Interim Government of India, which was formed on September 2, 1946, to oversee the transition of the nation from British rule to independence. Headed by Jawaharlal Nehru as the Vice President of the Executive Council, this provisional administration entrusted Patel with the critical responsibility of maintaining internal stability and security during a period of immense political transition and communal tension.
76HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
Under whose leadership were branches of the Home Rule Movement started in Andhra Pradesh?
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Answer: (D) Gadicherla Harisarvotham Rao
Explanation
Gadicherla Harisarvotham Rao was a prominent freedom fighter and social reformer, often referred to as the Andhra Tilak. During the Home Rule Movement launched by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant, Rao was appointed as the Secretary of the Andhra branch of the Home Rule League. Under his leadership, numerous branches of the Home Rule League were established across the Andhra region. He actively mobilized public support and propagated the ideas of self-rule by writing nationalist pamphlets, such as Swaparipalana Paramoddesam, and translating patriotic literature into Telugu to inspire the masses.
77HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
In which of the following sessions of the Indian National Congress did a Telugu man, Anandacharlu, preside, in 1891?
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Answer: (A) Nagpur Session
Explanation
Panapakkam Anandacharlu, a prominent Telugu advocate and freedom fighter from Chittoor, presided over the seventh session of the Indian National Congress held in Nagpur in 1891. With this, he became the first leader from South India to preside over a Congress session. He was also one of the seventy-two founding delegates who attended the first-ever session of the Indian National Congress in Bombay in 1885 and played a pioneering role in the early nationalist movement through the Madras Mahajana Sabha.
78HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
The first Nizam of Hyderabad, who accepted Lord Wellesley's plan of Subsidiary Alliance in 1798, was
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Answer: (B) Nizam Ali Khan
Explanation
Nizam Ali Khan, also known as Asaf Jah II, was the ruler of Hyderabad from 1762 to 1803. In 1798, he became the first Indian ruler to accept Lord Wellesley's Subsidiary Alliance system. Under the terms of this treaty, the Nizam dismissed his French troops, disbanded his domestic military forces, and agreed to maintain a permanent British subsidiary force within his territory. To pay for the maintenance of these British troops, he later ceded the territories of Rayalaseema (known as the Ceded Districts) to the British East India Company in 1800, effectively placing Hyderabad under British paramountcy and surrendering his external sovereignty.
79Geography
Which of the following seas is reported recently to be dying because of drying?
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Answer: (C) Dead Sea
Explanation
The Dead Sea is rapidly shrinking and drying up primarily due to the diversion of water from its main tributary, the Jordan River, for agricultural, industrial, and domestic use by riparian nations. The natural evaporation rate in this extremely hot, arid environment is highly accelerated, and intensive commercial mineral extraction at the southern end further exacerbates the decline. Consequently, the water level has been dropping by more than one meter per year, causing a severe drop in the water table, the formation of thousands of sinkholes, and the gradual collapse of its unique ecosystem.
80Geography
On the report of the UN Environment Programme, the Government of India has launched a study to determine the extent of responsibility of countries for the occurrence of the "Asian Brown Cloud - (ABC)". Where is the ABC formed?
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Answer: (A) Over South Asia
Explanation
The Asian Brown Cloud is a massive layer of air pollution containing aerosols, soot, dust, and other acidic substances that accumulates over South Asia and the northern Indian Ocean. This atmospheric brown cloud is primarily created by biomass burning, fossil fuel combustion, and industrial emissions during the dry winter season between January and April. The United Nations Environment Programme released a major report on this phenomenon in 2002, detailing its significant impacts on regional climate, agriculture, and public health in South Asian countries.
81GeographyAndhra Pradesh-specific
The Kambalakonda Reserve Forest in A. P. has been declared by the Union Government a Wildlife Sanctuary. Where is it located?
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Answer: (A) In Visakhapatnam District
Explanation
The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. Spanning an area of approximately 70 square kilometers, it was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 2002 to preserve the dry evergreen forest habitat. The sanctuary is home to a diverse range of flora and fauna, including the Indian leopard, barking deer, jackals, and several avian species. It is named after the local hillock Kambalakonda and is situated on the outskirts of the city of Visakhapatnam.
82Geography
Which of the following is the mysterious place in the Western Atlantic, where a large number of planes and ships have vanished without trace since 1945?
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Answer: (B) Bermuda Triangle
Explanation
The Bermuda Triangle, also known as the Devil's Triangle, is a region in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean. The triangular area is traditionally bounded by Miami, Bermuda, and Puerto Rico. It gained global notoriety due to the supposedly mysterious and unexplained disappearances of several ships and aircraft, notably beginning with the high-profile loss of Flight 19, a squadron of five US Navy torpedo bombers, in December 1945.
83Geography
The mountain range lying between the Pamir plateau and the Indus river is
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Answer: (D) Karakoram
Explanation
The Karakoram Range is a major mountain range spanning the borders of Pakistan, India, and China, with the northwest extremity extending to Afghanistan and Tajikistan. It is situated in the regions of Gilgit-Baltistan, Ladakh, and Xinjiang, geographically lying between the Pamir Plateau to the north and the Indus River to the south. This range is home to some of the highest peaks in the world, including K2, and possesses extensive glaciation, including the Baltoro and Siachen glaciers.
84Geography
Match the following:
| Grasslands | Continents |
|------------|------------|
| A. Steppes | i. North America |
| B. Prairies | ii. South America |
| C. Pampas | iii. Europe and Asia |
| D. Savanna | iv. Africa |
| | v. Australia |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) iii i ii iv
Explanation
iii i ii iv. Steppes=Eurasia(iii), Prairies=N.America(i), Pampas=S.America(ii), Savanna=Africa(iv). No printed option matches; option 3 is closest but swaps B and C.
85Geography
Which of the following countries has common borders with the largest number of countries?
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Answer: (A) Russia
Explanation
Russia shares land borders with 14 sovereign countries, which are Norway, Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Belarus, Ukraine, Georgia, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Mongolia, China, and North Korea. This extensive geographic span connects Russia to more neighboring nations than any other country in the world, sharing the top spot globally with China.
86Science and Technology
Which of the following planets has the Indian name 'Yama'?
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Answer: (B) Pluto
Explanation
In Indian astronomical nomenclature, Pluto is named Yama. This name is derived from the Hindu deity Yama, the god of the underworld and justice, which directly parallels Pluto, the ruler of the underworld in Roman mythology.
87Geography
Arrange the following cities in decreasing order of their population :
A. Bangalore
B. Ahmedabad
C. Kanpur
D. Delhi
E. Kolkata
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Answer: (C) EDABC
Explanation
EDABC.
According to the Census of India 2001, the population of these cities in terms of their Urban Agglomeration (UA) in decreasing order is:
Kolkata (E): 13.20 million
Delhi (D): 12.87 million
Bangalore (A): 5.70 million
Ahmedabad (B): 4.52 million
Kanpur (C): 2.71 million
This sequence corresponds to the order EDABC.
88Geography
Which of the following states has the Great Indian Hornbill, which is considered an endangered species, as its 'State bird'?
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Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
Arunachal Pradesh designates the Great Indian Hornbill (Buceros bicornis) as its official state bird. This majestic bird plays a highly significant role in the folklore, cultural identity, and traditional rituals of various indigenous tribes inhabiting the state, most notably the Nyishi community, who traditionally use its upper beak in their ceremonial headgear.
89Science and Technology
What is Pyrodoxin?
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Answer: (C) Vitamin B6
Explanation
Pyridoxine, commonly referred to as vitamin B6, is a water-soluble vitamin crucial for amino acid metabolism, red blood cell production, and neurotransmitter synthesis. It serves as a precursor to pyridoxal phosphate, an essential coenzyme involved in over a hundred enzymatic reactions in the human body, particularly those related to protein metabolism.
90Science and Technology
With what is non-stick kitchenware coated?
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Answer: (D) Teflon
Explanation
Teflon is a synthetic fluoropolymer of tetrafluoroethylene known chemically as polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE). It is widely used to coat non-stick kitchenware because it has an extremely low coefficient of friction, which prevents food from sticking to the surface while cooking. Additionally, PTFE is highly non-reactive due to the strength of the carbon-fluorine bonds and exhibits excellent thermal stability and hydrophobic properties, making it ideal for kitchen applications.
91Science and Technology
Among mosquitoes, which of the following are blood - feeders, found throughout the world ?
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Answer: (D) Culex, Anopheles and Aedes
Explanation
Female mosquitoes of the genera Culex, Anopheles, and Aedes are hematophagous, meaning they feed on blood to obtain the necessary nutrients and proteins required for the development and maturation of their eggs. These three major genera of mosquitoes have a cosmopolitan distribution, being found globally across almost all continents, spanning tropical, subtropical, and temperate regions. They serve as primary vectors for various global pathogens, including malaria (Anopheles), dengue and yellow fever (Aedes), and West Nile virus and lymphatic filariasis (Culex).
92Science and Technology
Which of the following creatures are stone - deaf ?
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Answer: (A) Snakes
Explanation
Snakes do not possess external ears or eardrums (tympanum), which makes them unable to hear ordinary airborne sounds in the way most other animals do. Instead, they rely on somatic hearing to detect ground-borne vibrations. These physical vibrations are transmitted from the ground through their lower jawbone and the quadrate bone directly to the inner ear, allowing them to sense approaching threats or prey.
93Science and Technology
The fingerprints of Siamese twins are
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Answer: (B) not identical
Explanation
Siamese twins, who are conjoined identical twins, share the exact same genetic code but do not have identical fingerprints. While genetics dictates the general layout of the fingerprint patterns, the fine details of the ridges are determined by physical micro-environmental factors in the womb during the first trimester. These factors include the movement of amniotic fluid, contact with the amniotic sac, and the specific position of the fetus, which randomly shape the friction ridges of each individual uniquely.
94Science and Technology
Though their diet is higher in meat and fat and lower in fruit and vegetables, who of the following are known to be free from heart diseases like heart-attacks, unlike others in the world ?
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Answer: (A) Eskimos
Explanation
The Eskimos, also known as the Inuit, residing in the Arctic regions, traditionally subsist on a diet predominantly composed of marine mammals, wild game, and fish, which is exceptionally rich in fats and proteins but virtually devoid of fruits, vegetables, and carbohydrates. Despite this high consumption of animal fats, they historically demonstrated an extraordinarily low incidence of cardiovascular diseases, including coronary heart disease and myocardial infarction. This health paradox is primarily attributed to their extremely high intake of long-chain omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids, specifically eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), which are abundant in marine life. These fatty acids help maintain low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglycerides, reduce blood platelet aggregation, lower blood pressure, and decrease systemic inflammation, thereby providing robust protection against heart attacks.
95Science and Technology
Which of the following is contagious ?
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Answer: (C) Yawning
Explanation
Contagious yawning is a well-documented psychological and physiological phenomenon where the sight, sound, or even the thought of someone yawning triggers an involuntary yawn in the observer. This behavior is considered a form of nonconscious mimicry or echo phenomena, often linked to social bonding, emotional contagion, and empathy. Studies show that contagious yawning activates the mirror neuron system and brain regions associated with social and emotional processing, making it easily transmissible among individuals.
96Science and Technology
If we make a table-fan rotate at a speed of 50rpm and place it under an electric lamp, it would appear to be
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Answer: (B) rotating slowly forwards
Explanation
The rotational speed of the fan is 50 revolutions per minute (rpm). This corresponds to a rotational frequency of:
f = 50 / 60 Hz = 5/6 Hz ≈ 0.833 Hz
In India, the standard AC mains frequency is 50 Hz. An electric lamp operating on this AC supply flickers at twice the mains frequency, which is 100 Hz (100 flashes per second). The time interval between successive flashes of light is:
T = 1 / 100 seconds = 0.01 seconds
During this time interval of 0.01 seconds, the angle rotated by the fan blades is:
θ = 360° × 0.833 Hz × 0.01 seconds = 3°
Since 3° is a very small angular displacement, each flash of light captures the blades in slightly advanced positions. Since the flicker frequency of 100 Hz is well above the human flicker fusion threshold (about 16 Hz), the persistence of vision of the eye integrates these successive snapshots smoothly. Therefore, the fan is perceived as rotating slowly forwards in continuous motion.
97Science and Technology
Where is the Black Box fitted in planes ?
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Answer: (B) In the tail - end
Explanation
The black box, which consists of the Flight Data Recorder and the Cockpit Voice Recorder, is fitted in the tail-end of an aircraft. This placement is strategically chosen because the rear section of the fuselage typically experiences the least amount of structural damage and impact force during a crash. Since the front portion of the plane absorbs the initial and most severe force of an impact, placing these crucial recorders in the tail section maximizes their chances of survival and recovery.
98Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are not true about gold ?
a. It is a soft metal.
b. It has high density; 2 1/2 times that of iron.
c. Ornaments cannot be made of pure gold.
d. Gold is not easily scratched.
e. In 18 carat gold, we find 25 percent copper.
f. One carat represents 100/24 percent.
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Answer: (D) Only c and d
Explanation
Only c and d. Statements 'c' (Ornaments cannot be made of pure gold) and 'd' (Gold is not easily scratched) are not true. Pure gold can be used for some ornaments, and gold is easily scratched.
99Economy
After parboiling, the nutritive value of rice
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Answer: (A) increases
Explanation
Parboiling is a hydrothermal process in which the paddy is soaked, steamed, and dried before milling. During this process, water-soluble nutrients, particularly B-complex vitamins like thiamine, riboflavin, and niacin, as well as minerals present in the outer bran and germ layers, dissolve in water and migrate into the starchy endosperm. Because these nutrients are absorbed into the core of the grain, they are not lost during the subsequent milling and polishing stages. As a result, the nutritive value of parboiled rice is significantly higher than that of regular raw milled rice.
100Science and Technology
Bullet - proof vests are made from a fabric of
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Answer: (C) nylon
Explanation
Bullet-proof vests and flak jackets were historically made from ballistic nylon, a thick, high-tenacity synthetic polyamide fabric developed during World War II to protect military personnel from shrapnel and low-velocity projectiles. Additionally, modern high-performance bullet-resistant materials, such as Kevlar (an aramid), are synthetic polymer derivatives closely related to the nylon family, possessing exceptional tensile strength and durability to absorb and disperse ballistic impact.
101Science and Technology
Why do trees shed their leaves in the winter season ?
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Answer: (C) To conserve water
Explanation
Trees shed their leaves in winter primarily to conserve water. During the winter season, water in the soil is often frozen or difficult for the roots to absorb. At the same time, cold and dry winds would cause rapid water loss through transpiration if leaves remained on the branches. Transpiration is the process where moisture is carried through plants from roots to small pores on the underside of leaves, where it changes to vapor and is released into the atmosphere. By shedding their leaves, deciduous trees eliminate this pathway of water loss, allowing them to retain critical moisture and survive the dry winter months.
102Science and Technology
One of the parameters used to gauge the power of a computer is its
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Answer: (B) Datawidth
Explanation
Data width, which refers to the number of bits a computer's central processing unit (CPU) can process or transmit in a single instruction, is a primary indicator of a computer's processing power. A processor with a wider data path, such as 64-bit compared to 32-bit, can handle larger numbers and larger blocks of data at one time, while also allowing the system to address significantly more memory, thereby directly enhancing the overall computational performance and capability of the system.
103Science and Technology
A man of AB blood group has met with an accident and requires blood transfusion. Who among the following could donate blood to him ?
| Relation | Blood group |
|----------|-------------|
| a. Wife | A |
| b. Son | AB |
| c. Friend | O |
| d. Daughter | B |
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Answer: (D) a b, c and d (Wife, son, friend and daughter)
Explanation
Individuals with the AB blood group are universal recipients. Their red blood cells express both A and B antigens on their surface, which means their blood plasma does not contain any anti-A or anti-B antibodies. Because of this absence of antibodies, their immune system does not trigger an immune response against transfused red blood cells of any ABO blood type. Consequently, a person with the AB blood group can safely receive red blood cells from donors of all ABO blood groups, which includes A, B, AB, and O. This allows the wife with blood group A, the son with blood group AB, the friend with blood group O, and the daughter with blood group B to all successfully donate blood to him.
104Science and Technology
In which of the following atmospheric conditions can seeds be preserved best ?
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Answer: (A) Cool and dry
Explanation
Seed preservation is most effective under cool and dry conditions because these factors minimize seed respiration and prevent deterioration. Low temperatures slow down metabolic activities and enzymatic processes within the seed, thereby preserving its stored energy reserves. Low moisture content prevents seed germination, inhibits the growth of mold, fungi, and bacteria, and reduces insect infestation. According to Harrington's rules of thumb for seed storage, the life of a seed doubles for every 1% decrease in seed moisture content as well as for every 5 °C decrease in storage temperature. Maintaining a cool and dry environment ensures that seeds remain viable and dormant for the longest possible duration.
105Science and Technology
If a colour-blind man is married to a normal- visioned woman whose parents also had normal vision, what proportion of their children is likely to be colour-blind ?
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Answer: (A) Zero percent
Explanation
Color blindness is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder. A color-blind man has only one X chromosome, which carries the recessive color-blind allele (represented as Xᶜ), giving him the genotype XᶜY. A normal-visioned woman whose parents also had normal vision does not carry the gene for color blindness, making her homozygous normal with the genotype XX.
During reproduction, the mother passes on a normal X chromosome to all offspring. The father passes his Y chromosome to his sons and his Xᶜ chromosome to his daughters. Consequently, all sons will have the genotype XY (normal vision) and all daughters will have the genotype XXᶜ (carriers with normal vision). Because the normal vision allele is dominant over the color-blind allele, none of the children will express the color-blind phenotype, resulting in a zero percent likelihood of color-blind children.
106Science and Technology
We denote the time units taken by computers to execute instructions. Which of these time units is the smallest ?
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Answer: (C) Picosecond
Explanation
A picosecond represents one-trillionth of a second, which is mathematically expressed as 10⁻¹² seconds. This is the smallest unit of time among the options.
107Science and Technology
An egg sinks in tap water, but floats in a concentrated solution of salt, because
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Answer: (C) the density of the salt solution exceeds the density of the egg
Explanation
According to Archimedes' principle, an object floats in a liquid if its density is less than the density of the liquid, and sinks if its density is greater. Tap water has a density of approximately 1 g/cm³, which is less than the density of a fresh egg, causing the egg to sink. When salt is dissolved in the water, the mass of the liquid increases while the volume remains nearly the same, which significantly increases the density of the solution. Once the density of this concentrated salt solution exceeds the density of the egg, the buoyant force acting on the egg becomes greater than its weight, causing it to float to the surface.
108Science and Technology
Which of the following planets is similar to our Earth in mass, size and density ?
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Answer: (B) Venus
Explanation
Venus is often referred to as Earth's twin or sister planet due to its striking similarities in physical characteristics. Its mass is approximately 81.5% of Earth's mass, its diameter is about 95% of Earth's diameter, measuring roughly 12,104 km compared to Earth's 12,756 km, and its average density is 5.24 g/cm³, which is extremely close to Earth's average density of 5.51 g/cm³. These comparable properties indicate a highly similar internal structure and composition, consisting of a rocky mantle and a metallic core.
109Science and Technology
Who of the following are immune to measles?
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Answer: (D) Infants below six months in age
Explanation
Infants below six months of age are protected against measles through passive immunity acquired from their mothers. During the latter stages of pregnancy, maternal antibodies, specifically anti-measles immunoglobulin G, are transferred across the placenta to the fetus. This passive immunity provides temporary protection to the newborn. These maternal antibodies gradually degrade over the first few months of life, typically falling below protective levels by six to nine months of age.
110Science and Technology
Ammonia is a compound of
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Answer: (A) Nitrogen and hydrogen
Explanation
Ammonia is a colorless gas with a characteristic pungent odor. It has the chemical formula NH₃, which indicates that it is a compound consisting of one nitrogen atom covalently bonded to three hydrogen atoms. It is widely produced industrially through the Haber-Bosch process, in which atmospheric nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas under high pressure and temperature in the presence of a catalyst.
111Science and Technology
Which of the following is/are a source Vita min K ?
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Answer: (C) Green vegetables, tomatoes, carrots
Explanation
Green leafy vegetables such as spinach, cabbage, kale, and broccoli are the primary and richest dietary sources of Vitamin K1 (phylloquinone). Tomatoes and carrots also provide moderate amounts of this essential fat-soluble vitamin, which is crucial for blood clotting and bone health.
112Science and Technology
Which of the following kinds of glass is used in the production of electric bulbs and optical instruments ?
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Answer: (B) Flint glass
Explanation
Flint glass, also known as lead glass, is primarily composed of potassium and lead silicates. It is characterized by a relatively high refractive index and high optical dispersion. These properties make it highly effective for refracting light, which is why it is widely used in the manufacture of high-quality lenses, prisms, and other optical instruments. Its high transparency and ability to withstand moderate thermal and physical stress also make it the preferred material for producing the outer envelopes of electric bulbs.
113Science and Technology
Identify the odd one :
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Answer: (A) Jaundice
Explanation
Jaundice is a clinical state or symptom of underlying liver dysfunction, such as viral hepatitis, rather than a specific bacterial disease.
114History
The earliest Europeans to land on Indian soil were the
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Answer: (C) Portuguese
Explanation
The Portuguese were the earliest Europeans to establish direct sea contact with India. This occurred when the Portuguese explorer Vasco da Gama rounded the Cape of Good Hope and successfully landed at the port of Calicut on May 20, 1498. This historic voyage opened the direct spice trade route between Europe and Asia, leading to the establishment of the Portuguese State of India with its capital eventually located in Goa.
115HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
Arrange the following in chronological order:
a. The Bahamanis of Deccan
b. The Reddis of Kondaveedu
c. The Kakatiyas of Warangal
d. The Rayas of Vijayanagara
e. The Gajapatis of Orissa
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Answer: (D) c, b, d, a, e
Explanation
The chronological order of the establishment of these medieval dynasties is:
The Kakatiyas of Warangal ruled as independent sovereigns starting from 1163 CE until their kingdom fell to the Delhi Sultanate in 1323 CE.
The Reddi Dynasty of Kondaveedu was established by Prolaya Vema Reddi in 1325 CE in the coastal Andhra region following the decline of the Kakatiyas.
The Vijayanagara Empire (Rayas of Vijayanagara) was founded in 1336 CE by the brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I.
The Bahamani Sultanate of the Deccan was established in 1347 CE by Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, who revolted against the Tughlaq rule.
The Gajapati Dynasty of Orissa was founded later in 1434 CE by Kapilendra Deva after the fall of the Eastern Ganga dynasty.
116History
Who of the following were the two sides that fought the Battle of Rakshashi- Thangadi which ended the glory of the Vijayanagar empire in 1565 A. D ?
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Answer: (B) The Adilshahis of Bijapur and Ramaraya
Explanation
The Adilshahis of Bijapur and Ramaraya.
The Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi, also known as the Battle of Talikota, was fought on 23 January 1565. This historical confrontation occurred between the Vijayanagara Empire, led by its prime minister and de facto ruler Rama Raya, and the allied forces of the Deccan Sultanates. The coalition, consisting of Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Golconda, and Bidar, was primarily organized and spearheaded by Ali Adil Shah I of the Adilshahi dynasty of Bijapur to counter the political maneuvers of Rama Raya. The defeat of the Vijayanagara army and the subsequent execution of Rama Raya led to the sacking of the capital city of Hampi and the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire.
117HistoryAndhra Pradesh-specific
Ketana, a famous poet of the Kakatiya times, earned the title Abhinava Dandi by rendering into Telugu the Sanskrit work titled
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Answer: (B) Dasakumaracharitam
Explanation
Ketana, a distinguished 13th-century Telugu poet who flourished during the Kakatiya dynasty, earned the title Abhinava Dandi (meaning New or Modern Dandin) for translating the famous Sanskrit prose work Dasakumaracharitam, originally written by the Sanskrit scholar Dandin, into Telugu. He dedicated this Telugu rendering to the celebrated poet Tikkana.
118History
Where did Goutama, the Buddha die ?
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Answer: (A) Kusinagara
Explanation
Gautama Buddha attained Parinirvana, which marks his death and final release from the cycle of rebirth, at Kusinagara at the age of eighty. This ancient town was the capital of the Malla republic, where his followers cremated his body and distributed his relics.
119Economy
From which of the following sources can the Government of India draw money to meet unforeseen expenditure, additional and excess grants pending authorisation ?
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Answer: (D) Contingency Fund of India
Explanation
Under Article 267(1) of the Constitution of India, the Contingency Fund of India is established as an imprest placed at the disposal of the President of India. This fund enables the executive to make advances to meet urgent, unforeseen expenditures, as well as additional and excess grants, before they are formally authorized by Parliament. The fund is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President and is subsequently replenished from the Consolidated Fund of India once Parliament passes the necessary appropriation bill approving the expenditure.
120Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the members of the State Public Services Commissions is true ?
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Answer: (D) They are appointed by the Governor and can only be removed by the President.
Explanation
Under Article 316 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the state. However, to ensure their independence and security of tenure, Article 317 dictates that they can only be removed from office by the President of India. The President can remove them on the ground of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court conducts an inquiry and upholds the charges, or under other specific conditions such as insolvency, engagement in paid employment outside the duties of office, or infirmity of mind or body.
121History
As per the succession of Prime Ministers India, which order among the following, correct?
a. Indira Gandhi
b. Rajiv Gandhi
c. Charan Singh
d. Morarji Desai
e. Chandrashekhar
f. Gulzari Lal Nanda
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Answer: (A) f, a, d, c, b, e
Explanation
The chronological sequence of the tenures of the Prime Ministers of India starts with Gulzari Lal Nanda, who served as the acting Prime Minister in May 1964 and January 1966. Indira Gandhi succeeded to the office in January 1966 and served until March 1977. Morarji Desai took office in March 1977 and served until July 1979, followed by Charan Singh who served from July 1979 to January 1980. Rajiv Gandhi held the office from October 1984 to December 1989. Finally, Chandrashekhar served as Prime Minister from November 1990 to June 1991. This yields the correct sequence of f, a, d, c, b, e.
122Polity and Governance
Zonal Councils have been established by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, dividing the country into five zones. In which zone is Sikkim included ?
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Answer: (C) Eastern zone
Explanation
Sikkim is included in the Eastern Zonal Council. Under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, five Zonal Councils were established, and the Eastern Zonal Council was designated to comprise the states of Bihar, Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Sikkim. Even after the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act of 2002 included Sikkim under the North Eastern Council to address its specific regional developmental interests, it remains associated with the Eastern Zonal Council.
123Polity and Governance
The Government of India appointed the Official Language Commission in 1955. Who was the Chairman of the Commission ?
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Answer: (A) B. G. Kher
Explanation
The first Official Language Commission was appointed by the President of India on June 7, 1955, under the chairmanship of B. G. Kher (Bala Saheb Gangadhar Kher) in accordance with the provisions of Article 344(1) of the Constitution of India. The commission, also known as the Kher Commission, was constituted to make recommendations regarding the progressive use of the Hindi language for the official purposes of the Union, as well as restrictions on the use of the English language. The commission completed its work and submitted its report on July 31, 1956.
124Economy
The National Rural Employment Programme and the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme were launched during the
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Answer: (B) 6th Plan period
Explanation
The National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) and the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) were both launched during the Sixth Five Year Plan period, which spanned from 1980 to 1985. The NREP was introduced in October 1980 to replace the Food for Work Programme, aiming to generate additional gainful employment for the rural underemployed and unemployed. The RLEGP was launched on August 15, 1983, with the specific objective of guaranteeing employment to at least one member of every rural landless labor household for up to 100 days in a year, while also creating durable rural infrastructure.
125Polity and Governance
As regards Local Self-Government Institutions, the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts relating to them are not applicable in the states of
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Answer: (C) Meghalaya, Delhi, Nagaland
Explanation
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts do not apply to the states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland, as well as the Union Territory of Delhi (with respect to Panchayati Raj). Therefore, the option containing Meghalaya, Delhi, and Nagaland is the most accurate representation of areas where these amendments are not applicable.
126Economy
What is the current investment limit in Small Scale Industry ?
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Answer: (C) Rs. 100 lakhs
Explanation
In 1999, the Government of India reduced the investment limit in plant and machinery for Small Scale Industries from Rs. 3 crores to Rs. 1 crore (Rs. 100 lakhs). This limit of Rs. 100 lakhs remained the standard investment limit for SSIs in the year 2004.
127Economy
100% Foreign Direct Investment is permitted in
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Answer: (B) Special Economic Zones
Explanation
Under India's FDI policy, 100% Foreign Direct Investment is permitted through the automatic route for setting up Special Economic Zones (SEZs) and for units operating within these zones, subject to sectoral regulations. This policy was introduced to boost exports, attract foreign investment, and promote economic growth.
128Economy
Which of the following is levied and collected by the Centre, but assigned to the States ?
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Answer: (D) Taxes on Railway fares
Explanation
Under Article 269 of the Constitution of India, taxes on railway fares and freights are levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the States. In contrast, stamp duties are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States under Article 268, and income tax is distributed between the Union and the States under Article 270.
129Polity and Governance
Which of the following items has been taken out of the list of essential commodities, by a recent judgement of the Supreme Court of India, on the ground that it does not come under the 'food' category ?
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Answer: (B) Tea
Explanation
In the case of S. Samuel v. Union of India (2004), the Supreme Court of India ruled that tea is not a foodstuff because it is not consumed for nourishment or sustenance. Consequently, tea was excluded from the category of food items under the Essential Commodities Act.
130Polity and Governance
On November 5, 2003, Prince Charles of England visited Dharavi, Asia's biggest slum in the heart of Mumbai. He was accompanied by the President of the National Slum Dwellers' Federation, who is also a Magsaysay awardee. Who is he ?
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Answer: (D) Joachim Arputham
Explanation
Joachim Arputham, popularly known as Jockin Arputham, was the President of the National Slum Dwellers Federation and was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2000 for his work in community organization. He accompanied Prince Charles during his visit to Mumbai's Dharavi slum in November 2003.
131Art and Culture
Who, among the following is the Hollywood actress, who has been nominated 13 times for the Oscar, breaking the earlier record of 12 times by Katharine Hepburn and has been awarded the American Film Institute's Lifetime Achievement Award, 2003 ?
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Answer: (A) Meryl Streep
Explanation
Meryl Streep. Meryl Streep received 13 Oscar nominations (breaking Hepburn's record of 12) and was awarded the AFI Lifetime Achievement Award in 2003.
132Art and Culture
The South African novelist, J. M. Coetzee, won the 2003 Nobel Prize for literature. Among the following works, which one is not authored by him ?
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Answer: (D) The Napier Straits
Explanation
The novels Life and Times of Michael K., Waiting for the Barbarians, and Disgrace are all acclaimed works written by the Nobel laureate J. M. Coetzee. The Napier Straits is not authored by him, making option D the correct answer.
133Science and Technology
China launched a manned spacecraft successfully on 15 October, 2003. Which of the following statements are not true about the event ?
a. It is code-named 'Project 920'.
b. China has spent $ 2.2 billion so far on the project.
c. The name of the spacecraft is Shenzhou - 5.
d. China became the 5th manned space-faring nation in the world with this launch.
e. Yang Liwei, the person who manned the craft, is the 431st man of the 241 manned missions into space so far.
f. The name of the two-stage launcher is Chang Zheng - 2F.
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Answer: (B) a,d
Explanation
Statement a is untrue because the Chinese human spaceflight program is code-named Project 921, not Project 920. Statement d is also untrue because China became the 3rd space-faring nation to send a human into space, not the 5th.
134Polity and Governance
Bobby Jindal, an Indian-American who contested the election for the position of Governor of Louisiana in USA, was defeated by 52 per cent to 48 per cent votes. Who defeated him in the straight contest to become the first woman Governor of the State of Louisiana from the Democrats ?
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Answer: (C) Kathleen Babineaux Blanco
Explanation
Kathleen Babineaux Blanco defeated Bobby Jindal in the 2003 Louisiana gubernatorial election with 52 percent of the vote. With this victory, she became the first female Governor of the State of Louisiana, serving from 2004 to 2008.
135Economy
The Eco-ship Rainbow Warrior, belonging the Green peace Group came to Mumbai recently to launch Greenpeace India's campaign, focussing on the ecologically hazardous shipbreaking yard at Alang. Which of the following statements is not true about the Rainbow Warrior ?
a. Its chief is Lesley Simkiss.
b. Its Medical Officer is Moritz Kulotenbrarier.
c. The ship is not the original Rainbow Warrior.
d. It was docked in Mumbai last in December 1999.
e. The original Rainbow Warrior was actually sunk by French agents in 1985.
f. The earlier name of the Rainbow Warrior was Grampo Pleasure.
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Answer: (D) a,b,f
Explanation
Statements a, b, and f are incorrect. The original name of the Rainbow Warrior II was Grampian Fame (not Grampo Pleasure), its captain at the time of the Mumbai visit was Joel Stewart, and the medical officer was not Moritz Kulotenbrarier, making option D (a, b, f) the correct choice.
136Art and CultureAndhra Pradesh-specific
Boyi Bheemanna was presented the Jashuva Foundation's prestigious "Jashuva Sahitya Puraskaram" on December 16, 2003. Who of the following Telugu poets got it earlier ?
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Answer: (C) K. Siva Reddy
Explanation
The Jashuva Sahitya Puraskaram, instituted by the Jashuva Foundation, was awarded to the noted Telugu poet K. Siva Reddy for the year 2002, which was prior to Boyi Bheemanna receiving the award in December 2003.
137Art and Culture
Karan Thapar won the Best Current Affairs Presenter Award of the prestigious Asian Television Awards - 2003 at a grand ceremony in Singapore on December 7, 2003. What are the programme and the episode for which he won this award ?
Karan Thapar won the Best Current Affairs Presenter award at the Asian Television Awards in 2003 for his programme 'Court Martial' on SAB TV, specifically for his interview with Pakistan's Foreign Minister Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri.
138Science and Technology
The name of the world's fastest cruise missile Brah Mos has been coined by taking
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Answer: (B) The Indian river, Brahmaputra and the Russian river, Moskva
Explanation
The name BrahMos is a portmanteau formed from the names of two rivers, the Brahmaputra in India and the Moskva in Russia, representing the joint venture between the two countries.
139Art and Culture
The Bollywood actor, Dev Anand, was chosen for the Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2003 recently. Which of the following is his last film, which flopped miserably?
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Answer: (A) Love in Times Square
Explanation
Love in Times Square was released in 2003, directed by and starring Dev Anand. It was his most recent film release at the time he received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, and it was a major commercial failure at the box office.
140Polity and Governance
Who authored the Preamble of the proposed Constitution of the European Union?
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Answer: (D) Valery Giscard D'Estaing
Explanation
Valery Giscard d'Estaing, the former President of France, served as the President of the Convention on the Future of Europe and is widely credited with drafting the preamble of the proposed European Union Constitution.
141Economy
Which of the following groups of countries decided recently to construct/upgrade the 1360 km Moreh - Bagan - Mae Sot Highway, work on which will begin early in 2004?
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Answer: (B) India, Myanmar, Thailand
Explanation
The Moreh-Bagan-Mae Sot Highway is a trilateral highway project connecting India (Moreh in Manipur), Myanmar (Bagan), and Thailand (Mae Sot). Therefore, the correct group of countries is India, Myanmar, and Thailand.
142History
Whom did Time magazine choose recently as its Person of the Year for 2003?
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Answer: (A) The American Soldier
Explanation
Time magazine named The American Soldier as its Person of the Year for 2003, representing the United States troops serving in the Iraq War. This designation honored the ordinary men and women of the US military.
143Polity and Governance
Who of the following has been described by UNICEF's Report, The State of the World's Children: 2004, as the role model and featured on the cover of the report which was released on December 11, 2003 in New Delhi?
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Answer: (A) Lalitakumari
Explanation
Lalita Kumari, a young girl from India, was featured on the cover of UNICEF's report, "The State of the World's Children: 2004," which focused on girls' education. She was presented as a role model of how education can transform the lives of girls in rural communities.
144History
On December 11, 2003, France's high-flown committee of lexicographers, the Academie Francaise, made the former French President Valery Giscard D'Estaing an 'Immortal'. Which of the following statements are untrue about the Academie Francaise?
a. It was founded in 1635 A.D
b. It was founded by Cardinal Richelieu.
c. It was founded by King Louis XIII.
d. It guards the French language from anglicization.
e. Its latest Frenchified word for 'e-mail' is 'Fe-mail'.
f. Its members' average age is late 70s.
g. Its members are called 'Immortals'.
h. It has made D'Estaing a member in the vacancy of the late Poet-President of French Guiana, Leopold Sedar Senghor.
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Answer: (B) c, e, h
Explanation
Statements c, e, and h are untrue because the Academie Francaise was founded by Cardinal Richelieu (not King Louis XIII), the recommended French term for email is 'courriel' (not 'Fe-mail'), and Leopold Sedar Senghor was the President of Senegal (not French Guiana).
145Science and Technology
Who, among the following, is not a recipient of the Cyber Oscar Award presented on December 10, 2003 in Geneva during the World Summit on the Information Society?
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Answer: (C) Anand Parthasarathy
Explanation
Anand Parthasarathy is a well-known Indian IT journalist and was not a recipient of the World Summit Award (commonly referred to as the Cyber Oscar) in 2003. The other options, Marcia de Toni (Brazil), Ansbert Ngurumo (Tanzania), and the online publication Mwananchi Wiki Hii (Tanzania), were all recognized and presented with the award during the summit in Geneva.
146Art and Culture
Which of the following Bollywood films recently became the world's first feature film to be offered for download from the popular net www.kazam.com at a cost of $ 2.99?
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Answer: (B) Supari
Explanation
In 2003, the Bollywood movie Supari became the first feature film in the world to be legally distributed and offered for download on the peer-to-peer network Kazaa (erroneously spelled as kazam.com in the question) for $2.99 through a partnership with Altnet.
147Science and Technology
After 31 years of glorious service to the nation, the last of the Petya class warships, INS Anjadip, was decommissioned ceremoniously on December 13, 2003 at the Visakhapatnam naval base. Who was its last Commanding Officer?
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Answer: (A) Siddhartha Panda
Explanation
Commander Siddhartha Panda was the last Commanding Officer of the Petya-class warship INS Anjadip when it was decommissioned at the Visakhapatnam naval base on December 13, 2003.
148Art and Culture
Where did the Biswa Iftema or World Muslim congregation, believed to be the largest Muslim gathering after the Haj of Mecca, take place during December 2003, where three million devotees from 70 countries participated?
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Answer: (A) Tongi in Bangladesh
Explanation
The Biswa Ijtema is an annual Islamic congregation held at Tongi, Bangladesh, on the banks of the River Turag. It is widely recognized as the second-largest gathering of Muslims in the world after the Hajj pilgrimage to Mecca.