APPSC Group 1 Prelims 2023 CSAT (Paper II) with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The assignment of 6 tasks to 6 people under the given conditions can be solved using the fundamental counting principle.

First, assign Task 2. Since Task 2 must be assigned to either Person 3 or Person 4, there are 2 possible choices.

After Task 2 is assigned, 5 people and 5 tasks remain.

Next, assign Task 1. Task 1 cannot be assigned to Person 1 or Person 2. Out of the 5 remaining people, 2 are Person 1 and Person 2, leaving exactly 3 eligible people who can be assigned Task 1. Thus, there are 3 choices for Task 1.

Finally, the remaining 4 tasks can be assigned to the remaining 4 people in any order, which can be done in 4! ways.

Calculating 4! yields: 4! = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24

Using the multiplication principle, the total number of ways to complete the assignment is: 2 × 3 × 24 = 144

Explanation

Using the linear arrangement formula, the total number of girls in the row is 40.

When Ankitha is shifted to her left by four places, her new position from the left end is 10. Since shifting left means moving towards the lower position numbers, her original position from the left end was 10 + 4 = 14.

Kanchana is positioned three places to the right of Ankitha's original position, which makes her position from the left end 14 + 3 = 17.

The relation between the positions of a person from both ends is given by: Total = Left + Right - 1

Substituting the values: 40 = 17 + Right - 1 40 = 16 + Right Right = 24

Explanation

The vaccination pattern repeats in cycles. In each complete cycle, the number of people vaccinated is the sum of the people assigned to Groups A, B, C, D, and E.

Number of people in one complete cycle = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15 people

To find the position of the 1000th person, we divide the total number of people by the number of people in one cycle:

1000 ÷ 15 = 66 cycles with a remainder of 10

This means that after 66 complete cycles, 990 people (66 × 15) have been vaccinated. The remaining 10 people, from the 991st to the 1000th person, are distributed in the 67th cycle according to the same pattern:

The first 1 person (the 991st person) goes to Group A. The next 2 people (992nd and 993rd) go to Group B. The next 3 people (994th, 995th, and 996th) go to Group C. The next 4 people (997th, 998th, 999th, and 1000th) go to Group D.

The 1000th person is the final person of the 10 remaining individuals, which places them as the last person allocated to Group D.

Explanation

Let the present age of the daughter be d and the present age of Ramesh be r.

Since Ramesh is four times as old as his daughter now: r = 4d

Five years from now, Ramesh's age will be r + 5 and his daughter's age will be d + 5. According to the problem: r + 5 = 3(d + 5)

Substituting r = 4d into the equation: 4d + 5 = 3(d + 5) 4d + 5 = 3d + 15 d = 10

So, the present age of the daughter is 10 years, and the present age of Ramesh is: r = 4 × 10 = 40 years

Ten years from now: Daughter's age = 10 + 10 = 20 years Ramesh's age = 40 + 10 = 50 years

The ratio of Ramesh's age to his daughter's age ten years from now is: 50 ÷ 20 = 2.5

Explanation

Let N be the total number of matches played in the tournament.

The number of matches played in the first three weeks is 6, and school A won 50% of them: Wins in the first period = 50% of 6 = 3

The number of matches played after the first three weeks is N - 6. Since school A won all of these subsequent matches: Wins in the second period = N - 6

The total wins for school A is the sum of wins from both periods: Total wins = 3 + N - 6 = N - 3

The overall success rate is given as 75%, or 3/4 of the total matches: Success rate = Total wins / N 3/4 = (N - 3) / N 3N = 4(N - 3) 3N = 4N - 12 N = 12

Explanation

Let the daily efficiency of one girl be G and one boy be B.

According to the given ratio of work done by 30 girls to 25 boys in the same time: (30 × G) / (25 × B) = 5/6 (6/5) × (G/B) = 5/6 G/B = 25/36

This gives the ratio of efficiencies. Let G = 25 and B = 36.

The combined efficiency of 9 girls and 10 boys is: Efficiency = 9G + 10B = 9(25) + 10(36) = 225 + 360 = 585

Since they finish the job in 40/13 days, the total work is: Total Work = Efficiency × Time = 585 × 40/13 = 45 × 40 = 1800 units

Let x be the number of girls required to complete the same work in 6 days: x × G × 6 = 1800 x × 25 × 6 = 1800 150x = 1800 x = 12

Explanation

The mathematically correct range for the number of people reading both papers is 0 to 40, since the minimum overlap can be 0 (with 40 reading only The Hindu, 50 reading only The Indian Express, and 85 reading neither) and the maximum overlap is 40 (everyone who reads The Hindu also reads The Indian Express). Since 0 and 40 is not among the choices, none of the options are correct.

Explanation

By the fundamental principles of counting, the total number of ways to travel from city A to city C can be divided into two mutually exclusive cases: traveling through city B, or traveling directly without passing through city B.

First, the number of ways to go from A to C via B is calculated using the multiplication principle: Ways via B = (Ways from A to B) × (Ways from B to C) = 2 × 3 = 6

Second, there are 2 direct ways to travel to C that do not pass through B.

Using the addition principle, the total number of ways to travel from A to C is: Total ways = (Ways via B) + (Direct ways) = 6 + 2 = 8

Explanation

Let the cost of one apple, one banana, and one lemon be represented by a, b, and c respectively.

According to the given information, we can set up two equations: 3a + 7b + c = 285 4a + 5b + c = 245

We need to find the cost of 1 apple, 11 bananas, and 1 lemon, which is represented by: a + 11b + c

We can find this value by expressing the target expression as a linear combination of the two given equations: x(3a + 7b + c) + y(4a + 5b + c) = a + 11b + c

Comparing the coefficients of a, b, and c on both sides gives: 3x + 4y = 1 7x + 5y = 11 x + y = 1

Using the third equation, we have y = 1 - x. Substituting this into the first equation: 3x + 4(1 - x) = 1 3x + 4 - 4x = 1 x = 3

Substituting x = 3 back into y = 1 - x gives y = -2.

We can verify these values in the second equation: 7(3) + 5(-2) = 21 - 10 = 11, which holds true.

Now, applying these multipliers to the original system: a + 11b + c = 3(3a + 7b + c) - 2(4a + 5b + c) a + 11b + c = 3(285) - 2(245) a + 11b + c = 855 - 490 = 365

Explanation

Simple interest (SI) for 2 years is ₹ 1,440. SI for 1 year = 1,440 / 2 = ₹ 720.

The difference between Compound interest (CI) and Simple interest (SI) for 2 years is the interest earned on the first year's interest: Difference = 1,512 - 1,440 = ₹ 72.

The original rate of interest (R₁) is calculated as: R₁ = (72 / 720) × 100 = 10%

The principal sum (P) is calculated from the first year's interest: P = (720 × 100) / 10 = ₹ 7,200.

For the second investment: New SI = ₹ 2,592 Time (T) = Rate (R)

Using the simple interest formula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100 2,592 = (7,200 × R × R) / 100 2,592 = 72 × R² R² = 2,592 / 72 R² = 36 R = 6%

Explanation

As a responsible public servant, maintaining integrity, transparency, and accountability is paramount, especially during critical disaster relief operations. Welcoming a formal enquiry is the most ethical and professional response to allegations of financial misconduct. An independent investigation ensures objective evaluation, helps establish the facts, vindicates an honest officer, and restores public trust in the administration without disrupting the essential delivery of food and relief to the disaster survivors.

Explanation

Verbally complain to the higher officials about the feelers and ask for help.

As a responsible citizen, the most appropriate and pragmatic response to an official dropping indirect hints or feelers for a bribe is to verbally complain to higher officials and seek their guidance.

Since the official has not made a direct, explicit demand for money, a written or formal complaint may lack sufficient concrete evidence to initiate immediate formal disciplinary action and could lead to unnecessary delays or denial of the service. By approaching higher authorities verbally, the citizen acts ethically by refusing to pay a bribe, alerts the administration to the corrupt behavior, and secures necessary administrative assistance to ensure their application is processed fairly and promptly. This approach demonstrates proactive civic responsibility, moral integrity, and respect for institutional grievance mechanisms.

Explanation

In administrative procurement, purchasing items at five times the government-approved rate exceeds the financial powers and delegated authority of a procurement officer, even during a public health emergency. Referring the matter to higher authorities is the correct course of action because senior administrative and political authorities possess the necessary emergency powers to authorize deviations from standard rates, sanction emergency funds, or initiate high-level interventions and alternative procurement channels. This protocol ensures adherence to administrative rules, financial propriety, and legal accountability while addressing the crisis through official channels.

Explanation

Suggesting a capable alternative colleague to handle the project demonstrates professional responsibility, leadership, and problem-solving skills during a crisis. Since the project is time-bound and critical, ensuring work continuity is essential for the organization. By recommending a replacement who has the necessary skills, you help your superior manage the project effectively without compromise, while simultaneously prioritizing your own recovery and health.

Explanation

When faced with an immediate deadline and a difference of opinion with a subordinate, taking direct responsibility to update and correct the report yourself is the most effective and professional course of action. This decision-making approach ensures that the critical task is completed accurately and submitted without any delay. It demonstrates strong leadership, accountability, and the ability to handle high-pressure, time-sensitive situations efficiently while maintaining organizational standards.

Explanation

For any sequence of consecutive odd numbers, which forms an arithmetic progression, the mean of an odd number of terms is exactly equal to the middle term.

For the first five consecutive odd numbers, the middle term is the third term. Given that the mean of these five numbers is 59, the third term is 59.

For the entire sequence of nine consecutive odd numbers, the mean of all nine numbers is the middle term of the entire sequence, which is the fifth term.

Since the common difference between consecutive odd numbers is 2, the fifth term is obtained by adding the common difference twice to the third term:

Fifth term = Third term + 2 × 2 = 59 + 4 = 63

Explanation

Let the initial number of hundred-rupee notes be x and the initial number of twenty-rupee notes be y.

The initial total amount of money Latha had is: Initial Amount = 100x + 20y

After shopping, the number of hundred-rupee notes becomes y and the number of twenty-rupee notes becomes x. The remaining amount of money is: Remaining Amount = 100y + 20x

According to the given condition, the remaining money is one-third of the initial money: 100y + 20x = (100x + 20y) / 3

Multiplying the entire equation by 3 to eliminate the fraction: 300y + 60x = 100x + 20y

Grouping the terms with x on one side and the terms with y on the other side: 300y - 20y = 100x - 60x 280y = 40x

To find the initial ratio of the number of hundred-rupee notes to twenty-rupee notes (x:y), we divide both sides by 40y: x / y = 280 / 40 x / y = 7 / 1

The ratio x:y is 7:1.

Explanation

To find the total number of boys who passed the examination, use the formula for ordering: Total passed = Position from top + Position from bottom - 1

Substituting the given values: Total passed = 11 + 31 - 1 = 41

The total strength of the class includes the boys who passed, the boys who did not take the examination, and the boy who failed: Total strength = Passed boys + Boys who did not take the exam + Failed boys Total strength = 41 + 3 + 1 = 45

Explanation

By the division algorithm, the total number of chocolates N can be represented as:

N = 403k + 124

where k is an integer.

To find the remainder when the same N chocolates are distributed equally among 31 students, we find N modulo 31:

N mod 31 = (403k + 124) mod 31

Since 403 is a multiple of 31 (403 = 31 × 13), the term 403k is perfectly divisible by 31 and leaves a remainder of 0. This simplifies the expression to:

N mod 31 = 124 mod 31

Dividing 124 by 31 gives a quotient of 4 and a remainder of 0 (124 = 31 × 4).

Explanation

The maximum length of the rod must be the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the three given lengths. To simplify the calculation, convert all the lengths into centimeters:

First piece = 7 m = 700 cm Second piece = 3 m 85 cm = 385 cm Third piece = 12 m 95 cm = 1295 cm

Now, find the prime factorization of each number: 700 = 2² × 5² × 7 385 = 5 × 7 × 11 1295 = 5 × 7 × 37

The common prime factors among all three numbers are 5 and 7. Therefore, the HCF is 5 × 7 = 35 cm.

Explanation

The total number of students who actually participated in the games is 100 - 10 = 90. Let A and B represent the sets of students participating in game 1 and game 2, respectively.

Using the principle of inclusion-exclusion: n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A ∩ B)

Substituting the given values: 90 = 60 + 50 - n(A ∩ B) 90 = 110 - n(A ∩ B) n(A ∩ B) = 20

The number of students who participated in both games is 20.

The number of students who participated in only one of the games is given by: n(only one game) = n(A ∪ B) - n(A ∩ B) n(only one game) = 90 - 20 = 70

Explanation

Let the total number of vendors in the rural market be 100.

The number of type X vendors is 70, which leaves 30 vendors of type Y.

The number of type X vendors earning ₹ 50,000 or more is 60% of 70, which is 42.

The total number of vendors earning ₹ 50,000 or more is 48% of 100, which is 48.

The number of type Y vendors earning ₹ 50,000 or more is 48 - 42 = 6.

Therefore, the number of type Y vendors earning less than ₹ 50,000 is 30 - 6 = 24.

The percentage of type Y vendors earning less than ₹ 50,000 is (24 / 30) × 100 = 80%.

Explanation

To find the number of times the digit 5 is printed from 100 to 10,000, we can calculate the occurrence of the digit 5 in the range 0 to 9,999 and then subtract its occurrence in the range 0 to 99.

Any number from 0 to 9,999 can be represented as a 4-digit block from 0000 to 9999 by adding leading zeros. The total number of values in this range is 10,000. Since each number has 4 digits, the total number of digits in this block is 10,000 × 4 = 40,000. Because each of the ten digits from 0 to 9 is symmetric and appears with equal frequency, the occurrence of the digit 5 is: 40,000 ÷ 10 = 4,000 times.

Similarly, we find the occurrence of the digit 5 in the range 0 to 99. Representing these as 2-digit blocks from 00 to 99, there are 100 values. The total number of digits is 100 × 2 = 200. The occurrence of the digit 5 in this range is: 200 ÷ 10 = 20 times.

Subtracting the occurrences in the 0 to 99 range from the 0 to 9,999 range gives the total count for the range 100 to 9,999: 4,000 - 20 = 3,980 times.

Since the number 10,000 does not contain the digit 5, the total count for the range 100 to 10,000 remains 3,980.

Explanation

To determine which method maximizes the profit, we can calculate the profit percentage for each scenario assuming the cost price of the pure item is ₹1 per gram.

In Method I, the profit is directly given as 10%.

In Method II, the businessman uses a weight of 900 grams (1000 grams - 100 grams) but sells it as 1000 grams. Cost price of 900 grams = ₹900 Selling price of this quantity = ₹1000 Profit percentage = ((1000 - 900) / 900) × 100 = 11.11%

In Method III, mixing 10% impurities means adding 100 grams of cost-free impurities to 1000 grams of the item. Cost price of the 1100 grams mixture = ₹1000 Selling price of 1100 grams at cost price = ₹1100 Profit percentage = ((1100 - 1000) / 1000) × 100 = 10%

In Method IV, the businessman increases the price by 5% and uses a weight that is 5% less than 1000 grams, which is 950 grams. Cost price of 950 grams = ₹950 Selling price of this quantity = 1000 × 1.05 = ₹1050 Profit percentage = ((1050 - 950) / 950) × 100 = 10.53%

Comparing the profit percentages, Method II yields the maximum profit of 11.11%.

Explanation

The pattern of the given number series is defined by the following relation where Tₙ represents the n-th term of the series:

(Tₙ - n) × 2n = Tₙ₊₁

Applying this pattern to each successive term:

First term, T₁ = 7: (7 - 1) × 2 = 6 × 2 = 12 (T₂)

Second term, T₂ = 12: (12 - 2) × 4 = 10 × 4 = 40 (T₃)

Third term, T₃ = 40: (40 - 3) × 6 = 37 × 6 = 222 (T₄)

Fourth term, T₄ = 222: (222 - 4) × 8 = 218 × 8 = 1744 (T₅)

Fifth term, T₅ = 1744: (1744 - 5) × 10 = 1739 × 10 = 17390 (T₆)

Sixth term, T₆ = 17390: (17390 - 6) × 12 = 17384 × 12 = 208608 (T₇)

Following this consistent pattern, the fifth term should be 1744 instead of 1742. Therefore, 1742 is the wrong term in the series.

Explanation

The stoppage time per hour is calculated using the standard formula:

Stoppage time per hour = (Speed excluding stoppages - Speed including stoppages) / Speed excluding stoppages

Substituting the given values into the formula:

Stoppage time per hour = (84 - 70) / 84 hours Stoppage time per hour = 14 / 84 hours Stoppage time per hour = 1/6 hours

To convert the stoppage time from hours to minutes, multiply by 60:

Stoppage time = (1/6) × 60 minutes = 10 minutes

Explanation

The large cube is made of 64 smaller cubes, which forms a 4 × 4 × 4 structure. Out of the 6 faces of this large cube, 5 faces are painted yellow, and 1 face (let us assume it is the bottom face) remains unpainted.

To find the number of smaller cubes with exactly two yellow faces, we analyze the different positions:

First, consider the edge cubes (excluding corners). There are three types of edges: The 4 top edges are intersections of two yellow faces (the top face and a side face). Each of these edges has 2 middle cubes, yielding 4 × 2 = 8 cubes. The 4 vertical edges are intersections of two yellow side faces. Each of these edges has 2 middle cubes, yielding 4 × 2 = 8 cubes. The 4 bottom edges are intersections of a yellow side face and the unpainted bottom face. The middle cubes on these edges have only 1 yellow face, yielding 0 cubes.

Second, consider the 8 corner cubes: The 4 top corner cubes are at the intersection of three yellow faces, so they have 3 yellow faces. The 4 bottom corner cubes are at the intersection of two yellow side faces and the unpainted bottom face. Since the bottom face is not yellow, these cubes have exactly 2 yellow faces.

Summing these up, the total number of cubes with exactly two yellow faces is 8 + 8 + 4 = 20.

Explanation

Using the principle of inclusion-exclusion for three sets, the percentage of students who participated in at least one sport is calculated as:

P(S ∪ W ∪ B) = P(S) + P(W) + P(B) - P(S ∩ W) - P(W ∩ B) - P(S ∩ B) + P(S ∩ W ∩ B)

Substituting the given percentages into the formula:

P(S ∪ W ∪ B) = 40% + 35% + 32% - 9% - 11% - 8% + 5% P(S ∪ W ∪ B) = 107% - 28% + 5% P(S ∪ W ∪ B) = 84%

Thus, 84% of the students participated in at least one sport.

The percentage of students who did not participate in any sport is:

100% - 84% = 16%

We are given that 64 students did not participate in any sport. Let T be the total number of students in the school:

16% of T = 64 0.16 × T = 64 T = 64 / 0.16 T = 400

Explanation

The year 2009 is a common (non-leap) year that began on a Thursday. A calendar repeats in the next year that is also a common year starting on the same weekday. Counting Jan 1 weekdays forward — 2010 Fri, 2011 Sat, 2012 Sun (leap), 2013 Tue, 2014 Wed, 2015 Thu — the 2009 calendar repeats in 2015. The originally printed fourth option read 2016; it has been corrected to 2015. Correct Answer: 4) 2015.

Explanation

A normal year has 365 days. Dividing 365 by 7 gives 52 weeks and 1 extra day (365 = 52 × 7 + 1).

Each of the 52 complete weeks contains exactly 1 Saturday and 1 Sunday. This guarantees a minimum of 52 Saturdays and 52 Sundays, giving a base sum of 104.

The remaining 1 extra day can be any day of the week from Monday to Sunday. If this extra day is a Saturday, the year will have 53 Saturdays and 52 Sundays. If this extra day is a Sunday, the year will have 52 Saturdays and 53 Sundays. In either case, the maximum sum of Saturdays and Sundays is 52 + 53 = 105.

Explanation

June has 30 days, which corresponds to 4 full weeks and 2 extra days. For a particular day of the week to occur 5 times in June, it must fall on one of those 2 extra days, meaning June 1 or June 2. Therefore, if June has 5 Mondays, June 1 must be either Sunday or Monday.

To find the starting day of this non-leap year (January 1), we calculate the total number of days from January 1 to June 1. The total days in the preceding months of a non-leap year are: January: 31 days February: 28 days March: 31 days April: 30 days May: 31 days

Sum of these days = 31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 = 151 days. To find the number of odd days, we divide 151 by 7: 151 ÷ 7 = 21 weeks and 4 extra days.

Thus, June 1 is 4 days ahead of January 1. To find January 1, we subtract 4 days from the day of June 1.

If June 1 is Sunday, January 1 is Wednesday. If June 1 is Monday, January 1 is Thursday.

The year must have started with either Wednesday or Thursday, which is represented by option 4.

Explanation

The given equation is: 1/m + 4/n = 1/12

Expressing m in terms of n: 1/m = 1/12 - 4/n 1/m = (n - 48) / 12n m = 12n / (n - 48)

Since m and n are positive integers, both m > 0 and n > 0. For m to be positive, we must have: n - 48 > 0 n > 48

The question states that n is an odd integer less than 60. Therefore, the possible values for n are the odd integers between 48 and 60: n = 49, 51, 53, 55, 57, 59

We test these values to see which ones yield an integer value for m:

For n = 49: m = 12 × 49 / (49 - 48) = 588 (integer)

For n = 51: m = 12 × 51 / (51 - 48) = 204 (integer)

For n = 53: m = 12 × 53 / (53 - 48) = 636 / 5 (not an integer)

For n = 55: m = 12 × 55 / (55 - 48) = 660 / 7 (not an integer)

For n = 57: m = 12 × 57 / (57 - 48) = 76 (integer)

For n = 59: m = 12 × 59 / (59 - 48) = 708 / 11 (not an integer)

There are 3 pairs (m, n) that satisfy the conditions: (588, 49), (204, 51), and (76, 57).

Explanation

Substitute the value of x = -½ into the expressions.

The expression 1/x simplifies to 1/(-½) = -2.

Comparing this with the other expressions: 2^(1/x) = 2⁻² = ¼ = 0.25 1/x² = 1/(-½)² = 4 2ˣ = 2⁻¹/² = 1/√2 ≈ 0.707

Since -2 is the only negative value, it is the smallest.

Explanation

Using the rule of alligation on liquid A:

Concentration of A in container 1 = 5 / (5 + 1) = 5/6 Concentration of A in container 2 = 1 / (1 + 3) = 1/4 Concentration of A in the required mixture = 2 / (2 + 1) = 2/3

The ratio in which the contents of container 1 and container 2 must be mixed is: (2/3 - 1/4) / (5/6 - 2/3) = (5/12) / (1/6) = 5/2

Explanation

The family has six members (A, B, C, D, E, F) spread across three generations. Since there are four male members, there must be exactly two female members in the family.

E is the wife of C, meaning E is female and C is male. F and B are a married couple, which means one of them is male and the other is female. This accounts for both females in the family (E and either F or B). Therefore, all other members (A, D, C, and the remaining member of the F-B couple) must be male.

F and B are the only members of their generation, so they must belong to the middle generation (Generation 2). The other couple, C and E, cannot belong to the third generation because no one in the third generation is married. Thus, C and E must belong to the first generation (Generation 1).

Consequently, the remaining two members, A and D, must belong to the third generation (Generation 3). Since both A and D are male, there is no female in the third generation.

Explanation

When a number N divides three given numbers leaving the same remainder in each case, N must be the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the absolute differences between the three numbers.

The given numbers are 6360, 7420, and 9540.

The differences between these numbers are: 7420 - 6360 = 1060 9540 - 7420 = 2120 9540 - 6360 = 3180

To find N, we calculate the HCF of 1060, 2120, and 3180. 1060 = 1060 × 1 2120 = 1060 × 2 3180 = 1060 × 3

The highest common factor of these differences is 1060, meaning N = 1060.

The sum of the digits of N is 1 + 0 + 6 + 0 = 7.

Explanation

The distance travelled by a cart can be directly calculated using the relationship between the wheel circumferences and the difference in their revolutions:

Distance = (C₁ × C₂ × N) / (C₂ - C₁)

where C₁ is the circumference of the front wheel (30 feet), C₂ is the circumference of the rear wheel (36 feet), and N is the difference in revolutions (5).

Substituting the given values:

Distance = (30 × 36 × 5) / (36 - 30) Distance = 5400 / 6 Distance = 900 feet

Explanation

To minimize the number of rows while keeping each row of the same size and containing only one type of plant, we must maximize the number of plants per row. This maximum number is the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the three plant counts: 372, 558, and 1116.

Finding the prime factorization of each number: 372 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 31 = 2² × 3 × 31 558 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 31 = 2 × 3² × 31 1116 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 31 = 2² × 3² × 31

The HCF of 372, 558, and 1116 is the product of the lowest powers of the common prime factors: HCF = 2¹ × 3¹ × 31¹ = 186

This means each row must contain exactly 186 plants.

The minimum number of rows required for each variety is: Rows for tomato plants = 372 ÷ 186 = 2 Rows for chilli plants = 558 ÷ 186 = 3 Rows for onion plants = 1116 ÷ 186 = 6

Total minimum number of rows = 2 + 3 + 6 = 11

Explanation

The range of integers between 400 and 600 is from 401 to 599. We can divide this range into two parts based on the hundreds digit to find the count.

For the range 401 to 499: These integers do not begin with 5 because their hundreds digit is 4. For these numbers to satisfy the condition, they must end with 5. The integers ending with 5 in this range are 405, 415, 425, 435, 445, 455, 465, 475, 485, and 495. This gives a total of 10 integers.

For the range 500 to 599: All 100 integers in this range begin with 5. To satisfy the condition that they begin with 5 but do not end with 5, we must exclude the integers that end with 5. The integers ending with 5 in this range are 505, 515, 525, 535, 545, 555, 565, 575, 585, and 595. This gives 10 such integers. Subtracting these from the total 100 integers in this range gives 100 - 10 = 90 integers.

Adding the two counts together, the total number of integers that satisfy the given condition is 10 + 90 = 100.

Explanation

The relationship between Cost Price (CP) and Marked Price (MP) in terms of profit percentage (P) and discount percentage (D) is given by:

MP/CP = (100 + P) / (100 - D)

Substituting P = 20 and D = 40:

MP/CP = (100 + 20) / (100 - 40) = 120 / 60 = 2

This yields MP = 2 × CP.

The markup percentage is calculated as:

Markup % = ((MP - CP) / CP) × 100% Markup % = ((2 × CP - CP) / CP) × 100% = 100%

Explanation

The probability of Rishi losing a game against Anand is 75% or 3/4, which means the probability of Anand winning a single game is 3/4. Consequently, the probability of Anand losing a single game is 1 - 3/4 = 1/4.

To find the probability that Anand loses at least one out of the four games, we can use the complement rule: P(Anand loses at least one game) = 1 - P(Anand wins all four games)

Since each game is an independent event, the probability that Anand wins all four games is: (3/4)⁴ = 81/256

Substituting this into the complement formula: P(Anand loses at least one game) = 1 - 81/256 = 175/256

Explanation

Let the number of inlet pipes be x. Since there are 8 pipes in total, the number of outlet pipes is 8 - x. The rate of each inlet pipe is +1/8 of the tank capacity per hour, and the rate of each outlet pipe is -1/6 of the tank capacity per hour. When all pipes are opened together, the full tank is emptied in 6 hours, meaning the net work rate is -1/6 of the tank capacity per hour.

We can set up the rate equation as: x/8 - (8 - x)/6 = -1/6

To solve for x, multiply the entire equation by the least common multiple, 24: 3x - 4(8 - x) = -4 3x - 32 + 4x = -4 7x = 28 x = 4

Explanation

Let the stepping speed of Ajeet be 9 steps per unit time and that of Sujeet be 5 steps per unit time.

The time taken by Ajeet to take 30 steps is: t_A = 30/9 = 10/3 units of time

The time taken by Sujeet to take 20 steps is: t_S = 20/5 = 4 units of time

Let the constant speed of the escalator be e steps per unit time. The total number of steps N when the escalator is turned off remains the same for both: N = Steps taken by person + Steps moved by escalator N = 30 + e × t_A = 30 + (10/3)e N = 20 + e × t_S = 20 + 4e

Equating both expressions for N: 30 + (10/3)e = 20 + 4e 30 - 20 = 4e - (10/3)e 10 = (2/3)e e = 15 steps per unit time

Substituting e = 15 back into the equation for N: N = 20 + 4 × 15 = 80 steps

Explanation

Let the speeds of A, B, C, D, and E be v_A, v_B, v_C, v_D, and v_E respectively.

The time difference between two runners for a given distance d is represented by: 1/v_slower - 1/v_faster = Δt / d

Applying this relation to each consecutive pair of runners: For A and B: 1/v_B - 1/v_A = 15 / 200 = 3/40 For B and C: 1/v_C - 1/v_B = 25 / 500 = 1/20 For C and D: 1/v_D - 1/v_C = 32 / 800 = 4/100 For D and E: 1/v_E - 1/v_D = 35 / 1000 = 7/200

Adding these four equations to eliminate intermediate variables: 1/v_E - 1/v_A = 3/40 + 1/20 + 4/100 + 7/200

Using a common denominator of 200: 1/v_E - 1/v_A = 15/200 + 10/200 + 8/200 + 7/200 = 40/200 = 1/5 s/m

For A to beat E by 800 m in a 2 km (2000 m) race, E only covers 1200 m (2000 m - 800 m) in the same duration that A completes the 2000 m distance: 2000 / v_A = 1200 / v_E v_E = 1200 / 2000 × v_A = 3/5 v_A

Substituting v_E = 3/5 v_A into the relation: 1/(3/5 v_A) - 1/v_A = 1/5 5/(3 v_A) - 1/v_A = 1/5 2/(3 v_A) = 1/5 v_A = 10/3 = 3.33 m/s

Explanation

The total floor area required for 5 persons is 5 × 16 = 80 m². Since the base of a conical tent is circular, this represents the base area of the cone.

The total volume of air required for 5 persons is 5 × 100 = 500 m³.

The volume of a cone is given by the formula: V = ⅓ × Base Area × h

Substituting the values into this formula: 500 = ⅓ × 80 × h h = (500 × 3) / 80 h = 150 / 8 h = 18.75 m

Explanation

Volume of a cube with side length s is given by: Volume = s³

For the initial cube, the side length is 5, so the total number of unit cubes is 5³ = 125.

When another layer of 1 × 1 × 1 cubes is added to form a new cube, the side length of the newly formed cube increases to 6.

Therefore, the number of 1 × 1 × 1 cubes in the newly formed cube of side length 6 is: 6³ = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216

Explanation

Let x, y, and z be the number of one-rupee, two-rupee, and five-rupee coins respectively.

Based on the total number of coins: x + y + z = 300

Based on the total value of the coins: x + 2y + 5z = 960

If the number of one-rupee and two-rupee coins are interchanged, the value decreases by ₹ 40: (x + 2y + 5z) - (2x + y + 5z) = 40 y - x = 40 y = x + 40

Substituting y = x + 40 into the total coins equation: x + (x + 40) + z = 300 2x + z = 260 z = 260 - 2x

Substituting y = x + 40 into the total value equation: x + 2(x + 40) + 5z = 960 3x + 5z = 880

Substituting the expression for z into this equation: 3x + 5(260 - 2x) = 880 3x + 1300 - 10x = 880 7x = 420 x = 60

Substituting x = 60 to find the number of five-rupee coins z: z = 260 - 2(60) z = 140

Explanation

Let us analyze the logical relations between the statements.

From statement I, if P is true, then Q is true. From statement II, if Q is true, then R is true. By combining these two, if P is true, then both Q and R must be true.

Statement III states that if S is true, then either Q is false or R is false. By contraposition, if both Q and R are true, then S must be false.

Since we established that when P is true, both Q and R are true, S must be false. Therefore, if P is true, then S is false.

Explanation

The probability of an event occurring at least once can be calculated using the complementary probability formula: P(at least one white bulb) = 1 - P(no white bulbs).

The total number of bulbs is 2 brown + 3 green + 4 white = 9 bulbs. The total number of non-white bulbs (brown and green) is 2 + 3 = 5 bulbs.

The total number of ways to choose 3 bulbs out of 9 is given by the combination formula nCr: 9C3 = (9 × 8 × 7) / (3 × 2 × 1) = 84

The number of ways to choose 3 bulbs such that none of them are white (meaning all 3 are chosen from the 5 non-white bulbs) is: 5C3 = (5 × 4 × 3) / (3 × 2 × 1) = 10

The probability of choosing no white bulbs is: P(no white bulbs) = 5C3 / 9C3 = 10 / 84 = 5 / 42

Using the complementary probability, the probability of lighting at least one white bulb is: P(at least one white bulb) = 1 - 5 / 42 = 37 / 42

Explanation

Let the total number of students in the college be 100.

From the given data, 25% of the students play football, which means the remaining 75% of the students do not play football.

The statement that a student who does not play football plays cricket means that all of the 75% of students who do not play football definitely play cricket. This does not restrict the 25% of students who play football from also playing cricket.

The statement that every cricket player wears a cap means that all cricket players wear caps. Since the 75% of students who do not play football play cricket, they must all wear caps. The remaining 25% of students (who play football) may or may not play cricket, and consequently, they may or may not wear caps.

Analyzing the conclusions:

For Conclusion I: Since at least 75% of the students wear caps, the percentage of students who do not wear caps can be anywhere from 0% to 25%. It is not certain that exactly 25% of the students do not wear caps. Therefore, this conclusion cannot be made.

For Conclusion II: There is no rule preventing a football player from playing cricket. It is possible for some students to play both football and cricket. Therefore, we cannot conclude that no cricketer plays football, meaning this conclusion also cannot be made.

Explanation

The total number of students is 400. The ratio of students who like Arts to Science is 3 : 5.

The difference in the number of students between the two groups can be directly calculated using the formula: Difference = Total Students × (Difference in ratio parts) / (Total ratio parts)

Substituting the given values: Difference = 400 × (5 - 3) / (3 + 5) Difference = 400 × 2 / 8 Difference = 100

Explanation

The letters of the English alphabet are assigned the first 26 consecutive prime numbers: A = 2, B = 3, C = 5, D = 7, E = 11, F = 13, G = 17, H = 19, I = 23, J = 29, K = 31, L = 37, M = 41, N = 43, O = 47, P = 53, Q = 59, R = 61, S = 67, T = 71, U = 73, V = 79, W = 83, X = 89, Y = 97, Z = 101.

For PQR, the sum of the prime values is: P + Q + R = 53 + 59 + 61 = 173 The value of the word is calculated as 3 × (P + Q + R) = 3 × 173 = 519.

For UVW, the sum of the prime values is: U + V + W = 73 + 79 + 83 = 235 The value of the word is calculated as 3 × (U + V + W) = 3 × 235 = 705.

Applying the same logic for JKL, the sum of the prime values is: J + K + L = 29 + 31 + 37 = 97 The value of the word is calculated as 3 × (J + K + L) = 3 × 97 = 291.

Explanation

When two items are sold at the same selling price, one at a profit of x% and the other at a loss of x%, the transaction always results in an overall net loss.

The formula to calculate this net loss percentage is: Net Loss Percentage = (x / 10)² %

Substituting the given value of x = 10: Net Loss Percentage = (10 / 10)² % = 1² % = 1%

Thus, the transaction results in a loss of 1%.

Explanation

The final direction can be determined by calculating the net angle of rotation. Let clockwise rotations be positive and anti-clockwise rotations be negative.

Kranthi starts facing West.

First turn (clockwise) = +45° Second turn (clockwise) = +180° Third turn (anti-clockwise) = -270°

Net change in direction = +45° + 180° - 270° = 225° - 270° = -45°

A net rotation of -45° indicates a turn of 45° in the anti-clockwise direction. Turning 45° anti-clockwise from West points directly to the South-West.

Explanation

First, determine the rate of time lost by the watch: The watch loses 90 seconds in 1 hour. Time lost in 24 hours (1 day) = 90 seconds × 24 = 2160 seconds = 36 minutes. Time lost in 48 hours (2 days) = 90 seconds × 48 = 4320 seconds = 72 minutes.

Next, account for the watch owner's adjustments: At the end of every 48 hours (2 days), the owner adjusts the watch by the amount of time lost in 1 day, which is 36 minutes. Therefore, the net loss of time at the end of every 2 days is: Net loss in 2 days = 72 minutes (actual loss) - 36 minutes (adjustment) = 36 minutes.

This results in an average net loss per day of: Average net loss per day = 36 minutes ÷ 2 days = 18 minutes/day.

A standard 12-hour analog watch shows the correct time when its cumulative loss is a multiple of 12 hours (720 minutes).

Using the average daily loss rate, the number of days required to accumulate a 12-hour loss is: Total days = 720 minutes ÷ 18 minutes/day = 40 days.

Explanation

Statement I is correct because an Anti-Satellite Weapon (ASAT) is a missile-based military system designed to intercept and destroy satellites moving in orbit.

Statement II is correct because on March 27, 2019, under Mission Shakti, India successfully tested its indigenous ASAT missile by destroying a live target satellite, Microsat-R, in Low Earth Orbit at an altitude of about 300 km.

Statement III is incorrect because the DRDO-developed ASAT missile is designed to target satellites moving at speeds up to 10 km/s at an altitude up to 1200 km, rather than 50 km/s at 2000 km.

Explanation

I and III only.

The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant was first initiated through an agreement signed in 1988 between Indian Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and Soviet President Mikhail Gorbachev. However, the subsequent disintegration of the USSR in December 1991 stalled the project as the co-signatory nation ceased to exist, putting the entire plan on hold for nearly a decade.

After construction eventually commenced in 2002, the commissioning of the plant was delayed again starting in 2011 due to large-scale protests. These protests, led by local fishing communities and civil society groups like the People's Movement Against Nuclear Energy, intensified after the Fukushima Daiichi nuclear disaster in Japan. Safety and environmental concerns raised by these groups delayed the fuel loading and subsequent commissioning of Unit 1 until late 2013. India's economic crisis of 1991 did not directly cause these specific delays in the project's timeline.

Explanation

I and II only. Statement I (ITER's purpose) and II (IPR Gandhinagar as nodal agency) are correct. Statement III is wrong — ADITYA is India's own independent Tokamak, not installed as part of ITER. Statement IV is factually correct but not captured in the available options.

Explanation

Blockchain technology operates as a decentralized, distributed public ledger that records transactions across a network of computers. This design ensures absolute transparency, allowing anyone to inspect the ledger, while cryptographic consensus mechanisms prevent any single entity or user from gaining control over the system. Furthermore, public or permissionless blockchains are built on open-source protocols, meaning that developers can freely access the network to build, test, and deploy applications without needing authorization or permission from any central administrator.

Explanation

In India, the 3D-printed cornea was developed by the L.V. Prasad Eye Institute (LVPEI) in collaboration with research partners like IIT Hyderabad and CCMB. The 3D-printed artificial human liver tissue was developed by the Bengaluru-based biotechnology startup Pandorum Technologies. Pandorum Technologies used bio-printing techniques with custom bio-inks and human cells to engineer functional corneal and liver tissues, providing groundbreaking solutions for organ shortage and drug toxicity testing.

Explanation

In the microgravity environment of space, the human body experiences a dramatic shift in fluid distribution. On Earth, gravity pulls bodily fluids, such as blood and cerebrospinal fluid, downward towards the lower limbs. In microgravity, this downward pull is absent, causing a significant portion of these fluids to redistribute upward from the legs toward the chest, neck, and head.

This headward fluid shift leads to vascular congestion and tissue swelling in the facial region, making the astronaut's face appear abnormally round and bloated. This cartoonish, rounded facial appearance is colloquially referred to as the Charlie Brown effect, named after the round-headed main character of the Peanuts comic strip. Meanwhile, the depletion of fluids in the lower extremities causes the legs to become noticeably thinner, a combined physical change often described as puffy head bird legs syndrome.

Explanation

KHAJANE is Karnataka's major e-governance initiative designed specifically for the complete computerization of the state treasury network and public financial management, enabling real-time monitoring of budgets, expenditures, and state transactions. The e-governance project dedicated to the computerized delivery and maintenance of land records to farmers in Karnataka is BHOOMI.

Explanation

Project Cheetah aims to restore open forest and grassland ecosystems in India. Since cheetahs are at the top of the food chain in these dry open-canopy forests and grasslands, they serve as an umbrella species whose conservation helps protect the entire ecosystem.

This initiative is globally recognized as the first intercontinental translocation project of a large wild carnivore, moving wild cheetahs across continents from Africa to Asia.

The landmark book documenting the history, ecology, and extinction of cheetahs in the country, titled "The End of a Trail: The Cheetah in India", was written by the renowned wildlife conservationist Divyabhanusinh.

Explanation

Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology, Guwahati developed an ultrasound-assisted fermentation method to produce a safe sugar substitute called Xylitol from sugarcane bagasse, which is the fibrous residue left after crushing sugarcane.

By using ultrasound during the fermentation process, the researchers successfully reduced the overall fermentation time to 15 hours, compared to the 48 hours required in conventional chemical or biological processes. Additionally, this eco-friendly and energy-efficient method increased the yield of Xylitol by approximately 20%.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because India's first indigenously developed Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and KPIT Technologies in Pune, not by Veera Vahana Company.

Statement II is incorrect because a hydrogen fuel cell generates electricity by combining hydrogen with oxygen from the ambient air, rather than carbon dioxide. The chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen produces electricity, with water and heat being the only by-products.

Explanation

Statement I is correct because during Mission Shakti on March 27, 2019, India successfully targeted and destroyed an active satellite, Microsat-R, in Low Earth Orbit at an altitude of approximately 283 kilometres.

Statement III is correct because this successful demonstration made India the fourth nation in the world, alongside the United States, Russia, and China, to acquire and test anti-satellite missile technology.

Statement II is incorrect because the test was conducted in Low Earth Orbit, which is located in outer space well above the Kármán line (100 kilometres), and not in the Earth's upper atmosphere.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the National Automated Facial Recognition System (NAFRS) is being conceptualized and implemented by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) under the Ministry of Home Affairs, rather than the National Informatics Centre (NIC) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

Statement II is incorrect because facial recognition technology is highly capable of identifying individuals in real-time from live video feeds, as well as from static photos and recorded videos. The ability to scan and match faces in real-time is a key feature of this technology and is widely utilized in modern surveillance and security applications.

Explanation

The ExoMars program is an astrobiology initiative designed to investigate the Martian environment and search for signs of past life.

The ExoMars rover, named Rosalind Franklin, is designed to be the first mission to combine surface mobility with the capability to investigate the Martian subsurface at depth. It carries a unique drill designed to extract samples down to a depth of 2 meters, where potential organic materials are protected from the harsh cosmic radiation and oxidants present on the planet's surface.

ExoMars was established and developed as a joint space exploration program between the European Space Agency and the Russian State Space Corporation, Roscosmos. Although direct cooperation on the rover mission was suspended in 2022 due to geopolitical conflicts, the overall program architecture, including the Trace Gas Orbiter launched in 2016, was jointly realized and operated by both agencies.

Explanation

Fast Breeder Reactors are designed to breed more fuel than they consume, meaning they produce more fissile material than they undergo fission with. In these reactors, Plutonium-239 serves as the primary fissile fuel that undergoes fission to generate power and release neutrons. The surrounding fertile blanket of Uranium-238 absorbs these neutrons and undergoes transmutation to produce additional Plutonium-239, effectively breeding new fuel. In India's three-stage nuclear power programme, Fast Breeder Reactors belong to the second stage, while the first stage is comprised of Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the International Nitrogen Initiative (INI) was established in 2003 under the joint sponsorship of the Scientific Committee on Problems of the Environment (SCOPE) and the International Geosphere-Biosphere Programme (IGBP), rather than the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Statement II is correct because the core objective of the INI is to optimize the beneficial role of nitrogen in sustainable food production. This is balanced with the goal of minimizing the adverse impacts of reactive nitrogen on human health and the environment resulting from food and energy production.

Explanation

Neither I nor II.

The Nationally Determined Contributions Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC-TIA) is a regional joint program supported by the International Climate Initiative (IKI) of the German Federal Ministry for the Environment, Nature Conservation, Nuclear Safety and Consumer Protection (BMUV). It is not an ASEAN initiative; instead, it aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonizing transport in China, India, and Vietnam.

The India component of the NDC-TIA is implemented by NITI Aayog, on behalf of the Government of India, in partnership with a consortium of seven international organizations led by the Deutsche Gesellschaft für Internationale Zusammenarbeit (GIZ). It is not implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in partnership with the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Explanation

During 2023, the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) held Miniratna (Category-I) status. It was subsequently upgraded to Navratna status in April 2024, making Statement I incorrect for the specified period.

Statement II is correct because IREDA was established in 1987 as a specialized non-banking financial institution with the primary objective of promoting, developing, and extending financial assistance for setting up projects relating to new and renewable sources of energy and energy efficiency or conservation.

Statement III is correct as IREDA is a public limited government company that operates directly under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

Explanation

The Renewables Integration in India 2021 report was jointly launched by NITI Aayog and the International Energy Agency (IEA) on July 22, 2021.

The report is based on the outcomes of workshops held with the state governments of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Gujarat to address the specific energy transition challenges faced by these renewable-rich states. It details how India can transition to a cleaner electricity system and integrate large shares of renewable energy (such as the targets of 175 GW by 2022 and 450 GW by 2030) through power system flexibility, including demand response, time-of-use tariffs, battery storage, and grid improvements.

Explanation

Uranium enrichment is the process of increasing the concentration of the fissile isotope Uranium-235 (U-235) rather than Uranium-238 (U-238). Natural uranium contains only about 0.7% of the fissile U-235 isotope, while the remaining 99.3% is U-238, which is fertile but not fissile.

Weapons-grade uranium requires highly enriched uranium (HEU) that contains 90% or more of the U-235 isotope. Uranium enriched to less than 20% is classified as low-enriched uranium (LEU), which is primarily used in commercial nuclear power reactors (usually enriched to 3% to 5%) and is not suitable for nuclear weapons.

Explanation

Digital Embossing Technology is a clean, eco-friendly printing process that eliminates the need for traditional printing plates, moulds, chemicals, and solvents, resulting in zero emissions of pollutants or waste while reducing overall energy usage.

By applying Artificial Intelligence and spot UV coating onto soft laminated maps, the technology facilitates the high-speed creation of highly durable and tactile Braille maps and atlases for visually challenged individuals.

This innovative technology was introduced, designed, and implemented for the first time in India by the National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO), which functions as an attached office under the Department of Science and Technology.

Explanation

Statement II is correct because ISRO plans to use its heavy-lift launch vehicle, the GSLV Mk III (also known as Launch Vehicle Mark-3 or LVM3), to launch the Shukrayaan-1 spacecraft. This powerful rocket provides the high thrust and payload capacity necessary to send the mission into an interplanetary trajectory towards its destination. Statement I is incorrect because Shukrayaan-1 is India's planned orbiter mission to Venus, not Saturn, designed to study the Venusian atmosphere, surface characteristics, and geological processes.

Explanation

Statement II is correct because semi-passive RFID tags, also known as battery-assisted passive tags, contain an onboard power source like a battery that is dedicated to running the chip's internal circuitry. However, they do not possess an active transmitter to broadcast their own signal. Instead, they utilize the electromagnetic energy received from the reader's radio waves to modulate and reflect the response back to the reader.

Statement IV is correct because RFID systems communicate using radio frequency waves, which can easily pass through various non-metallic materials such as cardboard, plastic, wood, and fabric. Consequently, RFID technology does not require a direct, unobstructed line-of-sight between the scanner and the tag to read the information successfully, as long as the tag remains within the physical and frequency range of the reader.

Explanation

None of the above. Statement I is correct. Statements II (Mont-Mégantic is in Canada), III (IDA is US-based), and IV (India's 1st is in Ladakh) are incorrect. Since only I is correct and no 'I only' option exists, 'None of the above' combinations are correct.

Explanation

The 104-cm Sampurnanand Telescope is located at the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) at Manora Peak near Nainital in Uttarakhand, not in Ladakh. It was commissioned in 1972 and completed 50 years of successful operations in October 2022. This telescope is a major facility for optical observations and has been extensively used for studying comets, star-forming regions, star clusters, planetary and asteroid occultations, and active galactic nuclei.

Explanation

A dirty bomb, or radiological dispersal device (RDD), is a weapon that combines conventional explosives, like dynamite, with radioactive material.

Statement II is incorrect because a dirty bomb cannot create a city-flattening nuclear or atomic explosion. The explosive power of a dirty bomb comes solely from its conventional explosives, which are only capable of localized blast damage. The primary hazard of a dirty bomb is the dispersion of radioactive materials, which results in toxic contamination of the local area rather than less toxic waste.

Statement III is incorrect because manufacturing a dirty bomb is significantly cheaper and much less complex than developing a true nuclear weapon. Nuclear weapons require highly enriched fissile material and sophisticated engineering to initiate a nuclear chain reaction, whereas a dirty bomb can be assembled easily using conventional explosives and radioactive materials salvaged from medical, industrial, or research facilities.

Explanation

Gaganyaan is India's pioneering crewed orbital spacecraft designed to demonstrate human spaceflight capability. Developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), it serves as the foundational spacecraft of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme, aiming to send a crew to a low Earth orbit of 300 to 400 km.

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) plays a key role in the mission by providing critical human-centric systems and technologies. DRDO laboratories supply essential life-support components, including space-grade food, emergency crew survival kits, medical care systems, health monitoring systems, and radiation protection, ensuring the safety and survival of the astronauts in the space environment.

Explanation

The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is a launch vehicle developed by ISRO with specific design and performance characteristics.

Statement I is correct because the SSLV is designed with the capacity to launch small satellites weighing up to 500 kg into a 500 km Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

Statement II is incorrect because the vehicle is configured with three solid propulsion stages (SS1, SS2, and SS3) instead of two, along with a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module as the terminal stage. Its total lift-off mass is approximately 120 tonnes rather than 100 tonnes.

Statement III is correct because the SSLV has a length of 34 meters, which makes it significantly shorter than the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) at 44 meters and the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) at 49 meters.

Statement IV is correct because the SSLV is designed for a low turnaround time and high flexibility, allowing it to be integrated and assembled both vertically and horizontally. This is distinct from the PSLV and GSLV, which require vertical assembly.

Explanation

II, III and IV only. Statement I is incorrect as ISRO is not a full participating agency in the ISS. Statements II, III, and IV are correct regarding the ISS being the only active modular space station, its functional start in 1998, and its governance by intergovernmental treaties.

Explanation

The Government of India has launched multiple scientific initiatives to actively attract, retain, and repatriate top-tier research talent, thereby converting brain drain into brain gain.

The Visiting Advanced Joint Research (VAJRA) Faculty Scheme allows Non-Resident Indian (NRI), Person of Indian Origin (PIO), and foreign scientists to collaborate with Indian institutions, channeling global expertise directly into India's research and development ecosystem.

The Ramanujan Fellowship Programme is designed specifically for brilliant Indian scientists and engineers under the age of forty who are working abroad and wish to return to India. It provides them with long-term financial and infrastructural support to establish their careers in domestic research institutions.

The Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE) Scheme, particularly through its faculty fellowships, provides attractive career opportunities and research grants to young doctoral and post-doctoral scholars of Indian origin to build their academic and scientific careers within India, thereby preventing the outflow of critical talent.

Explanation

The Indian Council of Medical Research developed its Strategic Plan and Vision 2030 document to provide a roadmap for biomedical and clinical research in the country. This strategic plan is structured around key pillars, of which Pillar 1 is to strengthen health research capacity across medical colleges, research institutes, and universities, and Pillar 3 is to leverage traditional medicine through strategic partnerships and evidence-based integration. Furthermore, the entire strategic framework of the Vision 2030 document is designed to be fully aligned with the priorities and objectives outlined in the National Health Policy 2017 alongside the Sustainable Development Goals 2030. Thus, statements I, II, and III are all correct.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT) is headquartered in La Hulpe, Belgium, not Switzerland.

Statement II is incorrect because SWIFT was founded in 1973, not 1991.

Statement III is incorrect because SWIFT is not a payment network or financial settlement system. It does not hold, clear, or transfer funds. Instead, it is a secure financial messaging network that transmits standardized instructions and payment orders between financial institutions.

Statement IV is incorrect because SWIFT is a neutral cooperative and has no unilateral authority to make or impose sanctions. Any decisions regarding economic or financial sanctions are made solely by sovereign governments and regulatory bodies, such as the European Union.

Explanation

Statement I is correct because China's lunar exploration program is named after Chang'e, the ancient Chinese goddess of the Moon.

Statement II is correct because the Chang'e 5 probe, launched in late November 2020, was China's first robotic lunar sample-return mission, which successfully returned approximately 1.73 kilograms of lunar soil and rock samples to Earth.

Statement III is incorrect because Luna 24, the last mission to return lunar samples before Chang'e 5, was launched by the Soviet Union (USSR) in 1976, rather than NASA.

Explanation

The 27th Conference of the Parties (COP27) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was held in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt, in November 2022.

The preceding session, COP26, took place in Glasgow, Scotland, in late 2021.

A breakthrough achievement of COP27 was the consensus to establish a Loss and Damage Fund, designed to provide funding for rescue and rehabilitation in vulnerable developing countries hit hard by climate disasters.

The Paris Agreement temperature goal is to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius, and preferably to 1.5 degrees Celsius, compared to pre-industrial baselines (1850 to 1900), rather than the 2000s.

Explanation

None of the above. Statements I, II, III, and IV are all factually correct regarding the Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC). Since there is no option for 'I, II, III and IV only', and options (1), (2), (3) use 'only' while excluding other correct statements, they are incorrect. Therefore, 'None of the above' is the correct choice.

Explanation

The seventeenth G20 Summit was hosted by Indonesia in Bali on 15–16 November 2022, where world leaders gathered to address key global economic issues.

During India's G20 presidency in 2023, the concept of "Data for Development" was positioned as an integral component of the overall developmental agenda. This initiative focused on harnessing technology, digital public infrastructure, and data-driven decisions to accelerate progress toward achieving the Sustainable Development Goals globally.

Explanation

Kyiv, the capital city of Ukraine, is located on the banks of the Dnieper River in the north-central part of the country. The Dnieper is one of the longest and most significant rivers in Europe, flowing from Russia through Belarus and Ukraine before emptying into the Black Sea. It divides the city of Kyiv into the historic Right Bank on hills to the west and the newer Left Bank developments to the east, serving as a vital transport, economic, and cultural waterway.

Explanation

Neither I nor II.

The GloLitter Partnerships Project is a joint initiative implemented by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, with initial funding from the Government of Norway. It is not an initiative of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

The primary objective of the project is to prevent and reduce marine plastic litter from sea-based sources, specifically focusing on the maritime transport and fisheries sectors. It does not address marine litter from all sources, such as land-based sources.

Explanation

Only I is correct.

Andhra Pradesh Integrated Irrigation and Agriculture Transformation Project (APIIATP) is implemented with financial assistance from the World Bank. The primary objective of this project is to enhance agricultural productivity, water-use efficiency, profitability, and climate resilience for smallholder farmers in selected districts of the state.

Andhra Pradesh Community Managed Natural Farming (APCNF) receives financial assistance and support from the KfW Development Bank (German Development Bank) along with the Government of India, rather than the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA).

Andhra Pradesh Irrigation and Livelihood Improvement Project (APILIP) is supported by the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) rather than KfW.

Explanation

Only I, III and IV are correct. Statement I: 'YSR Matsyakara Bharosa' provides financial relief to marine fishermen families during the fishing ban period. This is correct. Statement II: Andhra Pradesh Fisheries University (Dr. YSR Fisheries University) is established in Bhimavaram, West Godavari District, not East Godavari District. So, this is incorrect. Statement III: The Andhra Pradesh government provides diesel at a subsidized rate to fishermen and exempts them from sales tax on HSD oil. This is correct. Statement IV: The financial benefit to deceased fishermen (while fishing) family was enhanced from ₹ 5 lakhs to ₹ 10 lakhs. This is correct. Thus, statements I, III, and IV are correct.

Explanation

Only I, III and IV are correct. VCICDP is ADB-funded (I correct), node-centric with four nodes including Donakonda (III, IV correct). Statement II is incorrect — the corridor aligns with the NSEW/East Coast corridor, not specifically the Golden Quadrilateral.

Explanation

Kakinada SEZ Port is being converted from a captive port to a commercial port through the Swiss Challenge Approach under the Andhra Pradesh Infrastructure Development Enabling Act to facilitate the transportation of refinery products and Special Economic Zone cargo.

Nakkapalli Port in the Visakhapatnam district was declared as a minor port by the Government of Andhra Pradesh to serve as a captive facility, particularly for exporting alumina.

Vodarevu Port in the Prakasam district is proposed for development under the Public-Private Partnership mode on a Build, Own, Operate, and Transfer (BOOT) basis.

Explanation

The Dudekula community, also known as Noor Basha or Pinjari, is traditionally engaged in the occupation of cotton carding. Recognized as a backward Muslim minority in Andhra Pradesh, they were allocated special financial assistance and developmental funds under the Andhra Pradesh State Dudekula Muslim Cooperative Society Federation Limited in the 2021-22 state budget to support their livelihood, occupational skill development, and the construction of community centers.

Explanation

Only I and IV are correct. Statement I is highly plausible. Statement III is definitively incorrect ('except' is wrong). Statement II is highly unlikely. Given these, option (4) 'Only I and IV are correct' is the most probable choice, implying IV is correct.

Explanation

Government of Andhra Pradesh signed an MOU with Aurobindo Realty | Infrastructure Private Limited for generating 6000 MW of Green Energy.. Statement (2) is incorrect. AP signed an MoU with Aurobindo for 10,000 MW, not 6000 MW, at WEF 2022.

Explanation

The spot-billed pelican (Pelecanus philippensis) experienced mass mortality at the Telineelapuram Important Bird Area (IBA) in Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh in late 2021 and early 2022. This severe die-off was caused by a major nematode (roundworm) infestation, specifically belonging to the genus Contracaecum. The birds contracted the parasite by feeding on infected fish and snails in the local aquaculture ponds and Naupada swamp. While the painted stork (Mycteria leucocephala) shares the same nesting habitat at Telineelapuram, only the spot-billed pelicans succumbed to this parasitic infestation.

Explanation

I, II and V. Statements I (Visakhapatnam – Top Impact Creator, Million Plus City), II (Tirupati – Safaimitra Suraksha Seher first rank), and V (Vijayawada – cleanest capital, as de facto AP capital) are correct; III and IV are incorrect on population-bracket details.

Explanation

Statement II is incorrect because the Andhra Pradesh Official Languages (Amendment) Act, 2022 (Act No. 8 of 2022) did not come into force on 25th April, 2022. While the Act was published in the extraordinary issue of the Andhra Pradesh Gazette on 25th April, 2022, Section 1(2) specified that it would come into force on a date appointed by the government through a separate notification. The Government of Andhra Pradesh subsequently issued G.O.Ms.No. 11 on 16th June, 2022, officially appointing 16th June, 2022 as the date of commencement. Therefore, Urdu language as the second official language in all districts of Andhra Pradesh actually came into force on 16th June, 2022.

Explanation

Sushila Devi won the Arjuna Award in 2022 for Judo, following her medal-winning performances at the Commonwealth Games.

Omprakash Mitharwal received the Arjuna Award in 2022 for Shooting, recognizing his achievements in international shooting events.

Vikas Thakur was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2022 for Weightlifting, outstandingly representing the country in multiple Commonwealth events.

Tarun Dhillon was conferred the Arjuna Award in 2022 for Para Badminton, acknowledging his excellence in para-sports.

Jerlin Anika J. was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2022 for Deaf Badminton, following her exceptional gold-medal achievements at the Deaflympics.

Explanation

The Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East Region (PM-DevINE) was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23 and subsequently approved by the Union Cabinet as a Central Sector Scheme with 100% Central funding. It is implemented by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER).

The scheme is designed to fund infrastructure convergently, in the spirit of PM Gati Shakti, and to support social development projects based on the felt needs of the North Eastern Region. It specifically aims to enable livelihood activities for youth and women and to fill developmental gaps in various sectors. Furthermore, PM-DevINE is explicitly structured to provide additional resources to the region and serves as an additionality rather than a substitute for any existing Central and State schemes.

Explanation

e-RUPI is a contactless, cashless, and seamless one-time payment mechanism that allows beneficiaries to redeem voucher-like prepaid e-vouchers without requiring a card, digital payments app, or internet banking.

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) developed the e-RUPI platform on its Unified Payments Interface (UPI) infrastructure. This development was undertaken in collaboration with the Department of Financial Services (DFS), the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the National Health Authority (NHA) to facilitate targeted, leak-proof delivery of welfare subsidies and services.

The digital voucher system was officially launched on August 2, 2021, meaning the statement specifying its launch in 2020 is incorrect. Thus, only statements I, II, and III are correct.

Explanation

Satkosia Tiger Reserve is situated in the state of Odisha, which makes the first statement correct.

It is positioned in the Eastern Ghats where the Mahanadi River carves a magnificent 22-kilometer-long gorge, making the third statement correct.

The tiger reserve is made up of two adjoining sanctuaries: the Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and the Baisipalli Wildlife Sanctuary. Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Sambalpur district, which is in a different part of western Odisha, making the second statement incorrect.

Explanation

The Crimson Rose butterfly (Pachliopta hector) is classified under the Least Concern category on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species because it occupies a wide geographical range with no major threats to its global population.

In terms of distribution, this large swallowtail butterfly is native to Sri Lanka and Peninsular India, occurring commonly along the Western Ghats, southern states like Kerala and Tamil Nadu, as well as eastern parts of India including Odisha and West Bengal. It is not native to or commonly found in high-altitude Himalayan regions such as Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

Explanation

Statement I is correct because under Section 5 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, the Director or any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Director is authorized to provisionally attach any property that is believed to be the proceeds of crime.

Statement III is correct because the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, along with the rules notified thereunder, came into force with effect from July 1, 2005.

Statement IV is correct because the Act provides for the establishment of an Appellate Tribunal under Chapter VI and designates Special Courts under Chapter VII to conduct the trial of money laundering offences.

Statement II is incorrect because Part C of the Schedule to the Act deals with trans-border or cross-border crimes. Part A of the Schedule lists scheduled offences under various domestic legislations, such as the Indian Penal Code, Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, and Prevention of Corruption Act, which do not have any monetary threshold.

Explanation

Vande Bharat Express is an indigenous, semi-high speed, self-propelled Electric Multiple Unit train operated by Indian Railways. It was manufactured by the Integral Coach Factory, Chennai, under the Make in India initiative.

The train was originally codenamed Train 18, reflecting the 18 months of development time leading up to its debut in late 2018.

While designed for a maximum test speed of 180 kmph, its maximum operational speed is restricted to 160 kmph on optimized routes, meaning it cannot achieve speeds of 250 kmph.

Explanation

Vikram-S is India's first privately built rocket, marking a milestone in the nation's space sector.

The vehicle is a single-stage solid-fuel suborbital launch vehicle constructed using advanced carbon composite structures and 3D-printed components.

The maiden flight of this rocket was executed under the mission named Prarambh, which means beginning in Sanskrit, symbolizing a new era of private sector engagement in Indian space exploration.

The rocket was developed by the Hyderabad-based private aerospace company Skyroot Aerospace, rather than Agnikul Cosmos, and was successfully launched from ISRO's Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota on November 18, 2022.

Explanation

The National War Memorial was inaugurated on February 25, 2019, making statement I incorrect. Statement II is correct because the eternal flame of the Amar Jawan Jyoti, which had burned at India Gate since 1972, was merged with the flame at the National War Memorial in January 2022. Statement III is correct as the memorial honors the personnel of the Indian Armed Forces who laid down their lives in conflicts and peace-keeping operations since India gained independence in 1947. Statement IV is correct as the architecture of the memorial is laid out in four concentric circles, known as the Amar Chakra (Circle of Immortality), the Veerta Chakra (Circle of Bravery), the Tyag Chakra (Circle of Sacrifice), and the Rakshak Chakra (Circle of Protection).

Explanation

Statement I is correct because Rani Velu Nachiyar of Sivaganga, born in 1730, is widely recognized in history as the first Indian queen to wage war against the British East India Company. She actively rebelled to reclaim her kingdom and successfully resisted British colonial power decades before the Revolt of 1857.

Statement II is correct because she forged a crucial strategic alliance with Hyder Ali and his son Tipu Sultan of Mysore in 1780. Fluent in Urdu, she personally convinced them of her cause, resulting in Mysore providing soldiers, ammunition, and military training. This alliance, along with support from Gopala Nayakar of Dindigul, enabled her to attack British positions in 1780, defeat the East India Company, and recapture the Sivaganga kingdom.

Explanation

The I2U2 Group is a multilateral partnership formed by India, Israel, the United Arab Emirates, and the United States of America. The acronym is derived from the first letters of the participating nations, where I2 represents India and Israel, and U2 represents the United States and the United Arab Emirates. Initially conceptualized in October 2021, the grouping focuses on joint investments and initiatives across six key areas: water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security, aiming to promote economic cooperation and strategic partnerships across the Middle East and South Asia.

Explanation

The 2022 Ramon Magsaysay Award was conferred upon four individuals for their transformative leadership and humanitarian efforts across Asia.

Sotheara Chhim is a psychiatrist from Cambodia recognized for healing trauma and providing mental health support to survivors of the Khmer Rouge regime.

Bernadette J. Madrid is a pediatrician from the Philippines honored for her devoted championship of child protection rights and leading medical-social work to help abused children.

Gary Bencheghib is an activist based in Indonesia awarded for his efforts in combating plastic pollution in marine environments.

Tadashi Hattori is an ophthalmologist from Japan recognized for his humanitarian work providing free eye surgeries and treatment in Vietnam.

These correspond to statements I, II, IV, and V.

Explanation

The Agriculture Orientation Index (AOI) is a key indicator used to measure progress toward Sustainable Development Goal 2 (SDG-2), which focuses on ending hunger, achieving food security, improving nutrition, and promoting sustainable agriculture. Specifically, it tracks progress under Target 2.a, which aims to increase investment in rural infrastructure, agricultural research, and technology development.

The index is calculated by dividing the agricultural share of government expenditure by the agricultural sector's share of Gross Domestic Product (GDP). An AOI greater than 1 indicates that the government allocates a higher share of spending to agriculture relative to the sector's economic value-added contribution, whereas an AOI less than 1 indicates a lower relative share of spending.