IBPS Clerk Prelims 2024 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

Since B is the third last person, B is at the 6th position. A purchases three persons before B, placing A at the 3rd position. One person purchases between A and E. Placing E at the 1st position means zero persons purchase before E, which implies zero persons purchase after G, so G is at the 8th position.

F purchases before D with two persons between them, and C purchases after F with one person between them. Since neither F nor D is first, F must be at the 2nd position, C at the 4th position, and D at the 5th position.

This leaves the 7th position for H. Therefore, the order of purchase from 1st to 8th is E, F, A, C, D, B, H, G, placing H as the second last person to purchase a product.

Explanation

Numbered from 1 to 8 from first to last:

Since B is the third last person, B is at position 6. A purchases three persons before B, placing A at position 3. There is one person between A and E, placing E at position 1. Since no person purchases before E, no person purchases after G, placing G at position 8. F purchases before D with two persons between them, and C purchases one person after F, which places F, C, and D at positions 2, 4, and 5 respectively. The remaining person H occupies position 7.

The final sequence from 1 to 8 is E, F, A, C, D, B, H, G. A is at position 3 and H is at position 7, so 3 persons (C, D, and B) purchase between A and H.

Explanation

Based on the given conditions, the purchasing order from 1st to 8th position is E, F, A, C, D, B, H, and G. B is at the 6th position (third from last), making A 3rd, E 1st, G 8th, F 2nd, C 4th, D 5th, and H 7th.

In every other given pair, exactly two persons purchase products between them: E (1st) and C (4th), D (5th) and G (8th), A (3rd) and B (6th), and F (2nd) and D (5th). However, between C (4th) and G (8th), there are three persons (D, B, and H), so C and G does not follow the same pattern.

Explanation

The 8 purchase positions from 1 to 8 are determined step-by-step:

Since B is the third last person, B is at position 6. A purchases three persons before B, placing A at position 3. One person purchases between A and E, placing E at position 1. Since zero persons purchase before E, zero persons purchase after G, placing G at position 8.

F purchases before D with two persons between them, and C purchases after F with one person between them. Placing F at position 2 puts C at position 4 and D at position 5. The remaining person H occupies position 7.

The complete purchasing sequence from 1 to 8 is E, F, A, C, D, B, H, G.

There are 3 persons purchasing after D (B, H, and G). The number of persons purchasing between F (position 2) and B (position 6) is also 3 (A, C, and D). Therefore, the missing person is B.

Explanation

There are eight persons purchasing products sequentially in positions 1 to 8. Since B is stated to be the third last person to purchase, B purchases at position 6 (with positions 7 and 8 being second last and last, respectively). The number of persons who purchase the product before B corresponds to positions 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. Therefore, exactly five people purchase the product before B.

Explanation

Combining the given inequalities to test the conclusions:

To test Conclusion I (V > W): From the statements, U = W and U ≤ V. Substituting W for U yields W ≤ V (or V ≥ W). Since V can be equal to W, the strict relation V > W is not necessarily true.

To test Conclusion II (W < X): From the statements, X ≥ Y > U = W. Combining X ≥ Y > U gives X > U. Substituting U = W yields X > W, which is equivalent to W < X.

Therefore, only conclusion II is true.

Explanation

In the given statement chain G ≥ H = I > E ≥ F, combining the terms gives G ≥ I > E ≥ F. The strict inequality > between I and E ensures that G is strictly greater than F. Consequently, conclusion I (G > F) is true, while conclusion II (F = G) is false.

Explanation

From the given chain A ≤ B < C, the presence of the strict inequality (<) between B and C guarantees that A < C. Therefore, Conclusion I is true.

From the relations F ≤ C and C = D, substituting D for C gives F ≤ D, which is equivalent to D ≥ F. Therefore, Conclusion II is also true.

Explanation

From the given chain L > A = N > C ≥ Q:

Evaluating Conclusion I: L > A and A = N directly implies L > N, which is the same as N < L. This conclusion is true.

Evaluating Conclusion II: A = N and N > C ≥ Q gives the relation A > Q. Since the relationship between A and Q is strictly greater than, the relation A ≥ Q does not hold true.

Explanation

Combining the given statements, the path between J and L is J ≥ K < L. Since opposite inequality symbols (≥ and <) appear between J and L, no definite relation can be established between them, making Conclusion I false.

For Conclusion II, connecting O and M via L gives O ≤ L = M, which yields O ≤ M. This means O could be equal to M or less than M, so the strict inequality O < M is not definitely true.

Therefore, neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Explanation

The 4th, 6th, 7th, and 9th letters from the left end of the word PROMOTION are M, T, I, and N, respectively. Using these four letters, the only meaningful English word that can be formed is MINT. The third letter from the left end of MINT is N.

Explanation

Based on the given conditions, the birth months of the eight persons in chronological order are:

January (31 days) – Q April (30 days) – V May (31 days) – R August (31 days) – U September (30 days) – P October (31 days) – S November (30 days) – W December (31 days) – T

Q, R, U, and T were all born in months with 31 days, whereas W was born in November, which has 30 days. Therefore, W does not belong to the group.

Explanation

The chronological sequence of the given months is January, April, May, August, September, October, November, and December.

V was born three months after Q, placing Q in January and V in April.

Since 1 person was born before V, exactly 1 person must be born after W, placing W in November.

P was born in a month with an even number of days (30 days), which leaves September since April and November are occupied.

U was born one month before P, so U was born in August.

Two persons were born between R and S with S born after R, which places R in May and S in October, leaving T in December.

The final arrangement from January to December is: January: Q April: V May: R August: U September: P October: S November: W December: T

Between Q (January) and S (October), four persons were born: V, R, U, and P.

Explanation

Arranging the months chronologically and applying the clues gives the precise birth order of the eight persons:

January: Q April: V May: R August: U September: P October: S November: W December: T

Since V is born three months after Q, Q is born in January (1st month) and V in April (2nd month). Since one person is born before V, one person must be born after W, placing W in November (7th month). P is born in a month with an even number of days (September), and U is born one month before P, placing U in August and P in September. Two persons are born between R and S, so R is born in May and S in October. T occupies the remaining month, December.

Three persons were born before U (Q, V, and R). Exactly three persons were born after P (S, W, and T). Thus, the number of persons born before U is the same as the number of persons born after P.

Explanation

Based on the given conditions, the order of births across the months is determined as follows:

Q was born in January (1st month of the year). V was born three months after Q, placing V in April (4th month). Since one person was born before V, exactly one person was born after W, placing W in November (11th month). P was born in a 30-day month, September (9th month), and U was born one month before P, in August (8th month). Two persons (U and P) were born between R and S, placing R in May (5th month) and S in October (10th month). T was born in December (12th month).

R was born in May and W was born in November. The difference between May (5th month) and November (11th month) is 11 - 5 = 6 months.

Explanation

Arranging the birth months chronologically gives January, April, May, August, September, October, November, and December.

Q was born in January, so V was born 3 months after Q in April (2nd position). Since one person was born before V, one person was born after W, which places W in November (7th position).

P was born in a 30-day month (even number of days) and U was born one calendar month before P. This uniquely places U in August (4th position) and P in September (5th position).

Two persons (U and P) were born between R and S, placing R in May (3rd position) and S in October (6th position). The remaining person T was born in December (8th position).

The final chronological order of birth is: January - Q April - V May - R August - U September - P October - S November - W December - T

Since P is in the 5th position and W is in the 7th position, P was born two persons before W.

Explanation

Applying the rules to each digit of 671923: Digits greater than 5: 6 becomes 3, 7 becomes 4, and 9 becomes 6. Digits less than 6: 1 becomes 3, 2 becomes 4, and 3 becomes 5. The transformed number consists of the digits 3, 4, 3, 6, 4, 5. The digits 3 and 4 each appear twice.

Explanation

We look for the pattern Consonant → Digit → Symbol in the given sequence.

Scanning the arrangement from left to right yields three such combinations: W 2 % (Consonant W, Digit 2, Symbol %), F 7 # (Consonant F, Digit 7, Symbol #), and H 9 (Consonant H, Digit 9, Symbol ).

Therefore, there are 3 such digits (2, 7, and 9) that satisfy the given condition.

Explanation

In the given alphanumeric-symbol series, each set of elements follows the positional pattern: 1st element (X), element 3 positions to the right of X (X+3), and element 1 position to the right of X (X+1).

In P8?, starting from P, the element 3 positions to its right is J and the element 1 position to its right is ?, which should yield PJ?. Instead, 8 is located 3 positions to the left of P. Because it moves to the left rather than to the right for the second element, P8? breaks the established rule and is the odd one out.

Explanation

After removing all symbols (%, #, &, @, *, ?), the modified alphanumeric series is: W 2 F 7 M 3 K 5 T 1 H 9 L 8 D 4 P 6 J

Counting letters from the left end (W, F, M, K), the 4th letter from the left end is K. Counting digits from the right end (6, 4, 8), the 3rd digit from the right end is 8.

The elements positioned strictly between K and 8 are 5, T, 1, H, 9, and L.

Since there are 6 elements between K and 8, the total count is more than five.

Explanation

To find the required count, we search for the pattern: Symbol → Letter → Number in the given series.

Scanning the arrangement W 2 % F 7 # M 3 K & 5 T @ 1 H 9 * L 8 D 4 P ? 6 J, we find three such instances:

% F 7 (Symbol %, Letter F, Number 7) M 3 (Symbol #, Letter M, Number 3) L 8 (Symbol , Letter L, Number 8)

Thus, there are 3 letters (F, M, and L) that are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number.

Explanation

In the sequence W 2 % F 7 # M 3 K & 5 T @ 1 H 9 * L 8 D 4 P ? 6 J, we look for the pattern Letter-Symbol-Number: K & 5 (Letter K, Symbol &, Number 5) T @ 1 (Letter T, Symbol @, Number 1) P ? 6 (Letter P, Symbol ?, Number 6) There are 3 such symbols in total.

Explanation

From the given statements, D is shorter than four people (A, B, C, F) and taller than E, placing D in the 5th position and E in the 6th position from the left.

Since as many persons are between C and F as between F and D, F must be equidistant from C and D. With D at position 5, F must be at position 3 and C at position 1, placing one person between C and F, and one person between F and D.

Filling the remaining positions 2 and 4 with A and B respectively satisfies A > B > D while ensuring A is not the tallest.

The complete order from tallest to shortest is C > A > F > B > D > E. Therefore, C is the tallest, meaning 5 persons are shorter than C, which is more than four.

Explanation

From the given relations: F + B = 76 F - B = 12

Adding these two equations gives 2F = 88, which yields F = 44 cm.

Substituting F = 44 cm into F - B = 12 gives: B = 44 - 12 = 32 cm.

Using the given sum of F and D: F + D = 65 44 + D = 65, which yields D = 21 cm.

Therefore, the sum of the heights of B and D is: B + D = 32 + 21 = 53 cm.

Explanation

Arranging the six persons from tallest to shortest in positions 1 to 6:

Since D is taller than E, E occupies position 6, leaving D at position 5 as four persons (A, B, C, F) are taller than D. Given that C > F > D and the number of persons between C and F equals the number between F and D, placing C at position 1 and D at position 5 locates F at position 3 (with one person between C and F, and one between F and D). Since A is not the tallest and A > B > D, A must take position 2 and B takes position 4.

The complete descending order of height is C > A > F > B > D > E. Since A is at position 2 and F is at position 3, there are no persons between A and F.

Explanation

Numbering positions from 1 onwards from the left end, R sits 2nd from the left end, placing R at position 2. Since R sits 2nd to the left of J, J is at position 4. Q sits 4th to the right of R, placing Q at position 6. With one person between Q and A, A is at position 8. K sits 3rd to the right of A, placing K at position 11. Four persons sit between A and S, placing S at position 13. S sits 6th to the left of U, placing U at position 19. T sits exactly between S and U at position 16, and M sits 2nd to the right of U at position 21.

Since K is at position 11, there are 10 persons sitting to the left of K (positions 1 to 10). Given that as many persons sit to the left of K as to the right of K, there are also 10 persons sitting to the right of K (positions 12 to 21). Therefore, the total number of persons sitting in the row is 10 + 1 + 10 = 21.

Explanation

Numbering the positions in the row from left to right starting at 1:

Since R sits 2nd from an end and Q sits 4th to the right of R, R must be 2nd from the left end (position 2). Position of J is 4, and position of Q is 6.

One person sits between Q and A, placing A at position 8.

K sits 3rd to the right of A, placing K at position 11.

Four persons sit between A and S, placing S at position 13.

S sits 6th to the left of U, so U is at position 19.

T sits exactly between S and U, placing T at position 16.

Comparing their positions, K (position 11) is 5 positions to the left of T (position 16), which means K is 5th to the left of T.

Explanation

By analyzing the positions from the left end of the row:

Since R sits 2nd from the left end (position 2), J sits at position 4 (2nd to the right of R). Q sits 4th to the right of R, placing Q at position 6. One person sits between Q and A, placing A at position 8. K sits 3rd to the right of A, placing K at position 11. Since an equal number of persons sit to the left and right of K, K is at the exact middle position, making the total length of the row 21 positions.

Four persons sit between A and S. If S were placed at position 3, U (6th to the right of S) would be at position 9, making A and U immediate neighbours, which violates the given condition. Therefore, S must be placed at position 13.

J is at position 4 and S is at position 13. The number of persons sitting between J and S is 13 - 4 - 1 = 8 (occupying positions 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12).

Explanation

By placing positions from left to right starting at seat 1:

R sits 2nd from the left end at position 2. J sits at position 4 (R is 2nd to the left of J). Q sits at position 6 (4th to the right of R). A sits at position 8 (one person between Q and A). K sits at position 11 (3rd to the right of A). Since equal numbers of persons sit to the left and right of K, K (position 11) is at the center of 21 seats. S sits at position 13 (four persons between A and S). U sits at position 19 (S is 6th to the left of U). T sits at position 16 (midway between S at 13 and U at 19). M sits at position 21 (2nd to the right of U).

Evaluating the given statements: Statement I is incorrect because Q (position 6) is 6th from the left end. Statement II is correct because positions 14 and 15 lie between S (13) and T (16), so exactly two persons sit between them. Statement III is correct because K (11) and Q (6) are not adjacent.

Explanation

In the given number 479851326, the digits can be separated into even and odd categories:

Even digits: 4, 8, 2, 6 Sum of even digits = 4 + 8 + 2 + 6 = 20

Odd digits: 7, 9, 5, 1, 3 Sum of odd digits = 7 + 9 + 5 + 1 + 3 = 25

Resultant difference = 25 − 20 = 5

Explanation

To determine the position of C relative to A, fix the positions around the circular table numbered 1 to 8 in a clockwise direction, with all persons facing the center (where moving clockwise is to the left and anti-clockwise is to the right):

Place C at position 1. Since E sits 2nd to the right of C, E is at position 7. Two persons sit between E (position 7) and A, placing A at position 4. B and D sit opposite each other, which leaves positions 2 and 6 for them. G sits 2nd to the left of H, placing H at position 3 and G at position 5. Since D is not an immediate neighbour of H (position 3), D must be at position 6, and B is at position 2. Position 8 is filled by F, who is not adjacent to G (position 5).

The complete clockwise arrangement of persons is C (1), B (2), H (3), A (4), G (5), D (6), E (7), and F (8).

Counting clockwise (to the left) from A at position 4 to C at position 1 gives: 1st to the left: Position 5 (G) 2nd to the left: Position 6 (D) 3rd to the left: Position 7 (E) 4th to the left: Position 8 (F) 5th to the left: Position 1 (C)

Therefore, C is 5th to the left of A.

Explanation

Arranging the eight persons around the circular table facing inside in clockwise order:

Placing C at position 1, E sits 2nd to the right of C at position 7. Two persons sit between E and A, placing A at position 4. Since G sits 2nd to the left of H, H is at position 3 and G is at position 5. With B opposite D, and D not being an immediate neighbour of H, D sits at position 6 and B sits at position 2. F occupies position 8, satisfying that F is not adjacent to G.

The clockwise arrangement of persons around the table is C, B, H, A, G, D, E, F.

Counting from the left of H in the clockwise direction towards D, the persons sitting between H and D are A and G. Thus, exactly two persons sit between D and H.

Explanation

Assuming eight positions from 1 to 8 arranged in a clockwise circle facing the center (where clockwise represents left and counter-clockwise represents right):

Placing C at position 1 puts E at position 7 (2nd to the right of C).

Two persons sit between E and A, which places A at position 4.

Since B sits opposite to D, they must occupy positions directly across from each other. With positions 1, 4, and 7 occupied, the only available opposite pair for B and D is positions 2 and 6.

G sits 2nd to the left (clockwise) of H, which fixes H at position 3, G at position 5, and the remaining person F at position 8.

Since D and H are not immediate neighbours, D cannot sit at position 2 next to H. Thus, D sits at position 6 and B sits at position 2.

The complete clockwise seating order is C at 1, B at 2, H at 3, A at 4, G at 5, D at 6, E at 7, and F at 8.

Since D occupies position 6 and E occupies position 7, E and D sit adjacent to each other as immediate neighbours.

Explanation

Arranging the eight persons around the circular table facing the centre in a clockwise order (positions 1 to 8):

Placing C at position 1, E sits 2nd to the right (counter-clockwise) at position 7. With two persons between E and A, A sits at position 4.

B sits opposite to D, leaving positions 2 and 6 as the only available opposite pair.

G sits 2nd to the left (clockwise) of H, placing H at position 3 and G at position 5. The remaining position 8 is occupied by F, which satisfies the condition that F is not adjacent to G.

Since D and H are not immediate neighbours, D sits at position 6 and B sits at position 2.

The complete clockwise seating order is C, B, H, A, G, D, E, F. Facing inside the centre, the person sitting immediately to the right of G is A.

Explanation

Placing C at position 1 facing inside, E sits 2nd to the right of C at position 3. Two persons sit between E and A, which places A at position 6.

The only vacant opposite positions available for B and D are positions 4 and 8. Since G sits 2nd to the left of H, placing H at position 7 puts G at position 5, which leaves position 2 for F. This satisfies the condition that F is not adjacent to G.

Since D and H are not immediate neighbours, D cannot sit at position 8 next to H at position 7. Thus, D sits at position 4 and B sits at position 8.

The complete clockwise seating arrangement is C, F, E, D, G, A, H, B. Hence, the immediate neighbours of B are C and H.

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that Laxmi took up the cultivation of a variety of crops, including cereals, pulses, and oilseeds. Therefore, the assertion that she engaged in the farming of only cereals and focused on a single crop directly contradicts the information provided in the text.

Explanation

As mentioned in the passage, Laxmi joined Sangam in her twenties, which was an initiative formed with the primary objective of raising awareness about indigenous goods and sustainable farming practices. The community functioned as a movement specifically dedicated to preserving the rich agricultural heritage of the region.

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the passage states that Sangam aimed to promote indigenous goods and sustainable farming practices, rather than modern farming technologies.

Statement II is correct as the text directly mentions that Laxmi taught the importance of storing agricultural products to protect the community from the uncertainties of weather and market fluctuations.

Statement III is correct because Laxmi's efforts resulted in a significant increase in crop yields and motivated the villagers to adopt organic farming methods to improve soil health and produce chemical-free food.

Explanation

According to the passage, Laxmi explicitly taught the villagers the importance of storing agricultural products as one of her key lessons. She emphasized this practice specifically to safeguard the community against the uncertainties of weather patterns and market fluctuations, ensuring that the stored produce served as a vital resource to maintain food security and financial stability during lean periods and poor harvests.

Explanation

Laxmi actively preserved her region's agricultural heritage by joining the Sangam initiative, which focused on promoting indigenous goods and sustainable farming practices. She cultivated traditional crops like cereals, pulses, and oilseeds using techniques passed down through generations. Furthermore, she organized workshops to educate villagers on the benefits of farming indigenous products, using organic methods, and adopting traditional agricultural practices to ensure food security, soil health, and long-term sustainability.

Explanation

According to the passage, Laxmi organized workshops and events to educate the villagers on the art of cultivating indigenous products like cereals, pulses, and oilseeds. In these sessions, she highlighted the benefits of traditional, sustainable agricultural practices and proper crop storage to ensure food security, improve soil health, and transform her village into a self-reliant community.

Explanation

In the given context of the passage, events refers to organized gatherings or public assemblies arranged by Laxmi to educate and train the villagers. Among the choices, meets functions as a synonym for scheduled gatherings, conferences, or assemblies organized for a specific purpose. Other terms like occurrences or incidents refer to unplanned happenings or occurrences in time, while celebrations denotes festive occasions, which do not fit the educational and instructional context described. Thus, meets correctly conveys the meaning of organized gatherings intended for teaching and community interaction.

Explanation

According to the passage, Laxmi advocated for the use of organic farming methods specifically because they improved soil health and produced healthier, chemical-free food for the villagers. This directly aligns with the benefit of enhancing soil quality and providing nutritious, chemical-free produce to support long-term sustainability for the community.

Explanation

In the context of the passage, "stored" refers to keeping agricultural produce in reserve to safeguard the community during lean periods and market fluctuations. The word "stocked" means accumulating and keeping a supply or inventory of goods for future use, which directly aligns with the idea of maintaining a reserve of harvested produce.

Explanation

The sentence contains a grammatical error in verb form. In the infinitive phrase "to seen", the past participle "seen" is incorrectly used after the marker "to". Standard English grammar requires the base form of the verb after "to" (the to-infinitive structure). Therefore, "to seen" must be corrected to "to see".

Explanation

The verb "know" is a stative verb expressing a state rather than an action, and it is not used in the continuous tense in this context. To express a general factual statement in the passive voice, the correct phrasing requires the present simple passive form "is known" rather than "is knowing". The correct expression is "India is known for its beautiful culture..."

Explanation

The sentence is grammatically incorrect because it lacks a finite main verb, making it an incomplete sentence fragment. The present participle "varying" cannot serve as the principal verb of a independent clause without an auxiliary verb. To correct the sentence structure, the participle "varying" should be replaced with the finite verb "varies" (or "is varying"), ensuring that the subject "The availability" agrees with a proper main verb.

Explanation

In the sentence "Protecting endanger species is crucial for maintaining biodiversity and ecological balance", the base verb form "endanger" is incorrectly used where a descriptive adjective is required. The correct usage is the past participle adjective "endangered", which properly modifies the noun "species" to indicate that they are at risk of extinction. The correct phrasing should be "endangered species".

Explanation

The preposition "through" is used to describe movement inside or across a three-dimensional space filled with objects, such as dense vegetation, trees, or tall grass. Since tall grass creates a surrounding environment that the snakes move within and navigate across, "through" appropriately conveys movement from one side of the grass to another while surrounded by it.

Explanation

The verb "venturing" means undertaking a journey into a new, unknown, or risky place. In the context of entering unknown territory for the first time with excitement and nervousness, "venturing" is the accurate term that collocates with "into".

Explanation

The phrasal verb "go after" means to pursue, chase, or attempt to achieve a goal or ambition. In the given sentence, "going after his dreams" correctly expresses the idea of persistently pursuing one's aspirations despite facing obstacles along the way.

Explanation

The noun "edition" refers to a particular version or print run of a publication, such as a book or comic book. In the context of collecting rare print materials, "first edition" is a standard collocated phrase describing the initial release of a published work, which typically carries significant historical and monetary value, making it the appropriate fit for a collector displaying it in a protective case.

Explanation

Sentence C introduces the central subject of the paragraph by presenting a recent survey that explored the link between trust and prosperity. It acts as an independent topic statement without referring back to any preceding context or pronouns, making it the ideal opening sentence. The rest of the logical sequence flows naturally from this premise: sentence E builds upon the survey findings, sentence A details the mechanisms of economic trust, sentence B provides additional governance-related survey insights, and sentence D offers the final concluding statement. Therefore, sentence C forms the starting sentence of the coherent sequence C-E-A-B-D.

Explanation

The logical sequence of the paragraph is C-E-A-B-D. Sentence C introduces the topic by mentioning a recent survey on the relationship between trust and prosperity. Sentence E elaborates on the survey findings regarding social cohesion and economic transactions. Sentence A explains the specific mechanism by which trust reduces transaction costs and boosts prosperity. Sentence B introduces an additional finding using the transition "also highlighted," explaining that trust leads to better governance, making it the fourth sentence. Sentence D concludes the paragraph by summarizing the overall impact on economic growth and stability.

Explanation

Sentence C introduces the general topic by mentioning a recent survey that explored the link between trust and prosperity. Sentence E logically follows sentence C as it elaborates directly on the survey's core findings regarding how trust enhances social cohesion and economic transactions. Sentence A then expands on how trust reduces transaction costs, sentence B introduces additional survey findings on governance using the transition "also highlighted", and sentence D presents the overall concluding impact. Therefore, sentence E is the second sentence in the coherent sequence C-E-A-B-D.

Explanation

The paragraph starts with sentence C to introduce the survey on trust and prosperity. Sentence E elaborates on the general survey findings. Sentence A provides specific details on how trust reduces transaction costs and boosts economic prosperity, logically continuing sentence E. Sentence B adds another finding about governance, and sentence D concludes the paragraph. Therefore, the sequence is C-E-A-B-D, placing sentence A in the third position.

Explanation

Sentence C introduces the central theme by presenting a recent survey on the link between trust and prosperity. Sentence E immediately follows to elaborate on the survey's findings regarding social cohesion and economic transactions. Sentence A expands on this mechanism, explaining how trust reduces transaction costs and drives investment. Sentence B introduces an additional finding from the survey regarding better governance. Finally, sentence D provides the concluding statement, using the transition "Consequently" to summarize how fostering trust leads to greater economic growth and stability. Thus, sentence D forms the fifth sentence of the rearranged sequence.

Explanation

In statement (I), "bend their knees" is used correctly as an idiomatic expression meaning to submit or yield. In statement (II), "knee" is used correctly as a noun referring to the anatomical leg joint injured during physical activity. Statement (III) contextually misuses "knee" instead of its homophone "knead", which is the correct verb meaning to work bread dough with hands. Thus, the word is used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner in statements (I) and (II).

Explanation

Interchanging the words in positions A (pulled) and C (jammed) restores the logical and contextually correct flow of the sentence. The modified sentence reads: "The paper jammed into the inner part of the copy machine and had to be pulled out by the printer technician." Contextually, paper gets stuck or "jammed into" the internal mechanism of a copier, requiring it to be manually "pulled out" by a technician to clear the obstruction.

Explanation

Interchanging word (A) "enough" with word (C) "thought", and word (B) "going" with word (D) "opening" restores both the contextual meaning and grammatical correctness of the sentence.

"Has thought about" forms a correct verb structure for expressing past consideration, while "enough students" properly uses "enough" as a determiner for the plural noun. Additionally, "opening her own school" correctly describes starting an educational institution, and "keep it going" is the standard idiomatic expression meaning to sustain its operation over time.

The fully restored sentence reads: "Mrs. Griffin has thought about opening her own school but is worried that she wouldn't have enough students to keep it going."

Explanation

The word spirits in position C refers to the morale or emotional state of the team, which pairs logically with the verb phrase were raised so high. Meanwhile, halftime in position A represents the break between halves of a sports match, which serves as the temporal marker for when this occurred (during halftime). Swapping A and C restores the correct idiomatic phrase "our team's spirits were raised" and places the time indicator where it belongs contextually.

Explanation

The adjective reliant requires the fixed preposition on (or upon) to indicate dependence, making the phrase reliant in idiomatically incorrect. Furthermore, because the subject the global economy is singular and describes a current general fact, it requires the singular present tense verb remains. Combining the correct verb agreement with the appropriate preposition yields remains heavily reliant on.

Explanation

The standard preposition that follows "leading" to denote a result, consequence, or outcome is "to", not "at". The present participle phrase "leading to concerns about" correctly functions as a participial clause expressing the result of the main clause, making the sentence grammatically sound and contextually appropriate.

Explanation

The subject of the sentence, "Cognitive biases", is a plural noun, which requires a finite verb to complete the clause. Since the sentence expresses a general fact about human psychology, it requires the simple present tense rather than the participle form "distorting". A plural subject takes the plural verb form "distort". Additionally, the standard and idiomatically correct preposition to express what is being perceived is "of", making "perception of reality" grammatically correct.

Explanation

When two sequential actions occur in the past, the clause introduced by the conjunction "before" represents the later event and takes the simple past tense. The past perfect tense is reserved for the action that took place first. Replacing the past perfect form with the simple past verb "sat" correctly establishes the chronological sequence where the driver opened the door prior to the speaker sitting in the car.

Explanation

Initial amount in April 2019 = 17500.

Amount after two successive annual increases of 20% in April 2020 and April 2021 = 17500 × (1 + 20/100)² = 17500 × (6/5)² = 17500 × 36/25 = 25200.

Since he spends 60% of the total amount in April 2021, the remaining amount left with him at the end of April 2021 is 40% of 25200.

Remaining amount = 25200 × 40/100 = 10080.

Explanation

Let length be 4x and breadth be 3x.

Area of rectangle = length × breadth = 4x × 3x = 12x² Given, 12x² = 300 ⇒ x² = 25 ⇒ x = 5 cm.

Original length = 4 × 5 = 20 cm Original breadth = 3 × 5 = 15 cm

New length = 20 + 10% of 20 = 22 cm New breadth = 15 - 20% of 15 = 12 cm

New perimeter = 2 × (new length + new breadth) = 2 × (22 + 12) = 2 × 34 = 68 cm.

Explanation

Profit in a partnership is divided in the ratio of the product of investment and time period.

Profit ratio = (Investment of A × Time of A) : (Investment of B × Time of B)

Given that A stayed for 9 months, B stayed for 12 months, and the profit ratio is 9 : 16:

9 / 16 = (Investment of A × 9) / (Investment of B × 12)

9 / 16 = (Investment of A / Investment of B) × (3 / 4)

Investment of A / Investment of B = (9 / 16) × (4 / 3) = 3 / 4

Therefore, the ratio of investment of A to B is 3 : 4.

Explanation

Assume total work is 20 units (LCM of 4 and 20).

Efficiency of (A + B + C) = 20 ÷ 4 = 5 units/day. Efficiency of (B + C) = 20 ÷ (20/3) = 3 units/day.

Efficiency of A = Efficiency of (A + B + C) - Efficiency of (B + C) = 5 - 3 = 2 units/day.

Work required for A to complete = 60% of 20 = 12 units.

Time taken by A alone to complete 60% of the work = 12 ÷ 2 = 6 days.

Explanation

Convert the speed from km/hr to m/s: 72 × (5/18) = 20 m/s. Length of the train = Speed × Time = 20 × 16 = 320 meters. Increased speed = 20 + 12 = 32 m/s. Time taken to cross the same pole at the new speed = Length / New Speed = 320 / 32 = 10 seconds.

Explanation

Effective compound interest rate for 2 years at 20% p.a. = 20 + 20 + (20 × 20)/100 = 44%. Effective simple interest rate for 2 years at 30% p.a. = 30 × 2 = 60%. Difference in interest rates = 60% - 44% = 16%. Given difference in interest = Rs 896. 16% of X = 896 X = (896 × 100) / 16 = 5600.

Explanation

Let the cost price of each article A and B be x.

Net loss = Loss on B - Profit on A 30% of x - 20% of x = 10% of x

Given that the net loss is ₹50: 10% of x = 50 x = 500

So, the cost price of article B is ₹500.

To earn a profit of 40% on article B, its selling price is calculated as: Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 + Profit%) Selling Price = 500 × (1 + 0.40) = 500 × 1.40 = 700

Explanation

The differences between consecutive terms in the series follow a factorial pattern:

101 - 100 = 1 (1!) 103 - 101 = 2 (2!) 109 - 103 = 6 (3!) 133 - 109 = 24 (4!)

The next difference must be 5! = 120.

Adding 120 to the last given term gives 133 + 120 = 253.

Explanation

The given series follows a pattern where each term is obtained by dividing the previous term by consecutive decreasing integers starting from 7:

12600 ÷ 7 = 1800 1800 ÷ 6 = 300 300 ÷ 5 = 60 60 ÷ 4 = 15 15 ÷ 3 = 5

Explanation

The given sequence is an alternating series composed of two distinct sub-series at odd and even positions. The terms at even positions (189, 193, 197) increase by 4 at each step. The terms at odd positions (?, 176, 172) decrease by 4 at each step. Working backward from the second odd-positioned term, the missing first term is 176 + 4 = 180.

Explanation

Analyze the differences between successive terms in the series: 224 - 8 = 216 = 6³ 249 - 224 = 25 = 5² 313 - 249 = 64 = 4³ 322 - 313 = 9 = 3²

Following the alternating pattern of cubes and squares, the next difference is 2³ = 8. Missing term = 322 + 8 = 330.

Explanation

The pattern in the series is formed by multiplying each term by an increasing integer n (starting from 2) and adding n to the product:

21 × 2 + 2 = 44 44 × 3 + 3 = 135 135 × 4 + 4 = 544 544 × 5 + 5 = 2725 2725 × 6 + 6 = 16356

Therefore, the missing term is 44.

Explanation

Using the ratio method, the age ratios of A to B are: At 3 years hence = 5 : 2 (difference = 3 units) At 7 years hence = 2 : 1 = 6 : 3 (multiplying by 3 to equalize the difference to 3 units)

The time gap between 3 years hence and 7 years hence is 4 years. Change in ratio units for B = 3 - 2 = 1 unit. Since 1 unit = 4 years, B's age 3 years hence = 2 × 4 = 8 years. Present age of B = 8 - 3 = 5 years.

Explanation

Let x be the bigger number and y be the smaller number.

According to the given conditions: x - y = 2 50% of x = 60% of y ⇒ 0.5x = 0.6y ⇒ 5x = 6y ⇒ y = (5/6)x

Substituting y in the difference equation: x - (5/6)x = 2 x/6 = 2 x = 12

Explanation

Let the quantity of milk be M and water be W. Since water is 25% of milk, W = M/4.

The total volume of the mixture is M + W = 120 liters. M + M/4 = 5M/4 = 120 M = 96 liters, and W = 24 liters.

When 12 liters of water is added, the new quantity of water becomes 24 + 12 = 36 liters, while the quantity of milk remains 96 liters.

The required ratio of water to milk in the resulting mixture is 36 : 96, which simplifies to 3 : 8.

Explanation

Let the speed of current be C and speed of boat in still water be B.

Upstream speed U = B - C. Given U : C = 4 : 1, which means (B - C) / C = 4, giving B = 5C.

Downstream speed D = B + C = 5C + C = 6C.

From the given data, Downstream speed D = 60 / 2.5 = 24 kmph.

Equating the two expressions for downstream speed: 6C = 24 C = 4 kmph

Thus, the speed of current is 4 kmph.

Explanation

Let the original fraction be x/y.

Increasing the numerator by 150% gives a new numerator of 250% of x, or 2.5x. Decreasing the denominator by 25% gives a new denominator of 75% of y, or 0.75y.

The new fraction becomes: (2.5x)/(0.75y) = (250/75)(x/y) = (10/3)(x/y)

The given resultant value is 11 1/9 % of 8: (100/9)% × 8 = (1/9) × 8 = 8/9

Equating the two expressions: (10/3)(x/y) = 8/9 x/y = (8/9) × (3/10) = 24/90 = 4/15

Thus, the original fraction is 4/15.

Explanation

To find the approximate value of the expression, write the terms under a single square root:

? = √[(48 × 24) / 35] = √(1152 / 35)

1152 ÷ 35 ≈ 32.91

Taking the square root: √32.91 ≈ 5.74

Rounding to the nearest integer gives 6.

Alternatively, using direct nearest square root approximations: √48 ≈ √49 = 7 √24 ≈ √25 = 5 √35 ≈ √36 = 6

Substituting these values: ? ≈ (7 × 5) ÷ 6 = 35 ÷ 6 ≈ 5.83, which rounds to 6.

Explanation

Simplify the left-hand side by breaking down the fractions:

(85 × 108 × 72) ÷ (17 × 18 × 12) = (85 ÷ 17) × (108 ÷ 18) × (72 ÷ 12) = 5 × 6 × 6 = 180

55 ÷ 11 = 5

Adding these terms gives the value of the left-hand side: 180 + 5 = 185

Equating the left-hand side with the right-hand side: 185 = 370 ÷ ? ? = 370 ÷ 185 = 2

Explanation

Convert the mixed fractions into standard numerical forms:

3 ⅓ × 3 ¾ = (10/3) × (15/4) = 150/12 = 12.5 15 ¾ = 15.75

Substitute these values back into the equation:

? + 15.75 - 12.5 = 5 ? + 3.25 = 5 ? = 5 - 3.25 ? = 1.75

Explanation

Let the unknown value be x.

Simplifying the right-hand side of the equation: (15 × 4 - 40) / 2 = (60 - 40) / 2 = 20 / 2 = 10

Simplifying the left-hand side denominator: √25 = 5

Substituting these back into the given equation: x / 5 = 10 x = 10 × 5 x = 50

Explanation

Evaluate the square roots on the right side of the given equation: √324 = 18 and √256 = 16

Summing these values gives: 18 + 16 = 34

Substitute this result into the original equation: 510 ÷ ? = 34

Rearranging to solve for the missing value: ? = 510 ÷ 34 = 15

Explanation

First, calculate 45% of 800: 45% of 800 = (45 / 100) × 800 = 45 × 8 = 360

Alternatively, this can be calculated mentally as 50% of 800 (400) minus 5% of 800 (40), which equals 360.

Now, substitute this value into the expression and solve from left to right: 360 + 60 - 270 = 420 - 270 = 150

Explanation

Break the expression down into simple arithmetic steps:

First, evaluate (9/17) × 867: 867 ÷ 17 = 51 9 × 51 = 459

Second, calculate 112% of 400: 112% of 400 = 112 × 4 = 448

Third, substitute these values into the original expression: 459 + 448 - 39 = 907 - 39 = 868

Explanation

Simplify the expression on the left-hand side: (4/5) × (3/8) × (15/27) × ? = (4 × 3 × 15) / (5 × 8 × 27) × ? = 180 / 1080 × ? = (1/6) × ?

Calculate the value on the right-hand side: 60% of 270 = (60 / 100) × 270 = 162

Equating both sides: (1/6) × ? = 162 ? = 162 × 6 = 972

Explanation

Applying the BODMAS rule, the operations are executed in the sequence of 'Of', Division, Multiplication, and Subtraction:

4 of 143 ÷ 26 × 12 - 200

Perform 'Of': 4 × 143 = 572 Perform Division: 572 ÷ 26 = 22 Perform Multiplication: 22 × 12 = 264 Perform Subtraction: 264 - 200 = 64

Explanation

Simplify the right-hand side of the equation: 147 / 3 = 49 RHS = 38 + 49 = 87

Now, solve for the unknown value (?): 30% of ? = 87 (30 / 100) × ? = 87 ? = (87 × 10) / 3 ? = 29 × 10 = 290

Explanation

Follow standard order of operations (BODMAS/PEMDAS) to solve the expression:

272 ÷ 4 = 68 18 × 6 = 108 ³√1331 = 11

Substituting these simplified values into the expression gives:

68 - 108 + 11 = -40 + 11 = -29

Explanation

Applying the BODMAS rule, perform division and multiplication before addition:

1512 ÷ 36 = 42 44 × 32 = 1408

Adding the two results together: 42 + 1408 = 1450

Explanation

Convert the mixed fractions into improper fractions: 5 5/8 = 45/8 and 2 2/3 = 8/3

According to BODMAS rules, perform the multiplication first: (45/8) × (8/3) = 15

Now substitute this value back into the expression: 15 - 9 1/5 + 5 1/2

Separate the whole numbers and fractional parts: (15 - 9 + 5) + (-1/5 + 1/2) = 11 + (-2/10 + 5/10) = 11 + 3/10 = 11 3/10