In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (A) revealed
Explanation
The verb "revealed" means to bring to light, expose, or disclose something that was hidden, complex, or previously obscure. In the given sentence, the statement on Afghanistan policy exposed or highlighted the persistent, difficult reality of the situation in the country. It naturally fits the context of bringing attention to an underlying state of affairs.
2English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (E) faced
Explanation
In the given context, "faced" is the most appropriate word as it means to confront or deal with a difficult situation. The sentence refers to the challenging and intractable circumstances that the United States has encountered and had to deal with continuously since leading the invasion of Afghanistan in 2001. Grammatically and semantically, "faced" fits seamlessly into the present perfect tense construct "has faced" to describe an ongoing experience.
3English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (C) completed
Explanation
In the context of the passage, President Barack Obama is discussing the conclusion of the U.S. combat mission in Afghanistan by the end of the year. The word "completed" appropriately conveys that the military mission would be brought to a finish or concluded, paving the way for the subsequent phase where Afghan forces take full responsibility for their own security.
4English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (D) support
Explanation
In the given context, the verb "support" appropriately fits the blank as it describes the political, developmental, and security backing the United States and its allies intended to provide to a "unified Afghanistan" after concluding their primary combat mission. As Afghanistan assumed direct responsibility for its own governance and national defense, international assistance shifted toward supporting and aiding the country's ongoing unity and stability.
5English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (D) remain
Explanation
In the context of the sentence, the passage refers to a small residual troop presence staying behind after the primary drawdown in Afghanistan. The verb 'remain' accurately captures the concept of a military force staying back in the country to carry out specific residual tasks such as training local forces and conducting counterterrorism operations. Grammatically, 'remain' fits smoothly after the modal verb 'could' and connects appropriately with the infinitive phrase "to train".
6English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (E) assist
Explanation
In military and international relations contexts, foreign advisory missions are frequently defined by the standard phrase to "train and assist" local security forces. In the passage, the small residual force is intended to help the Afghan forces build self-reliance and operational capacity. The verb "assist" fits grammatically and contextually alongside "train" to describe providing direct support and guidance to the national army.
7English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (E) remnants
Explanation
In a military and counterterrorism context, the word remnants refers to the surviving leftover groups or remaining elements of a degraded or defeated force. Here, the passage describes counterterrorism operations targeted against the remaining, scattered pockets of Al-Qaeda following major military operations. Therefore, remnants is the grammatically and contextually appropriate term to describe the surviving traces of a terrorist organization.
8English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (C) withdrawn
Explanation
In the context of military operations, pulling back or removing military personnel from a conflict zone is precisely termed "withdrawing" them. The sentence contrasts the number of troops that have been removed from Afghanistan (60,000) with the remaining force (36,500). Therefore, "withdrawn" is the correct verb that accurately fits the action of troop reduction.
9English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (D) suggested
Explanation
In the context of military planning and proposals, the verb "suggested" accurately conveys that sections of the U.S. armed forces proposed or recommended a specific troop count of 10,000. It fits both semantically and grammatically with the direct object structure following the present perfect auxiliary "have", indicating a recommended target figure for residual force strength.
10English Language
In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
President Barack Obama's recent statement of his Afghanistan policy has again (1) the intractable situation the United States has (2) since it led the invasion of the country in 2001. In his State of the Union address to the Congress on January 28, Mr. Obama said the mission there would be (3) by the end of the year, and that thereafter the U.S. and its allies would (4) a "unified Afghanistan", as it took responsibility for itself. With the agreement of the Afghan government, a "small force" could (5) to train and (6) Afghan forces and carry out counterterrorism operations against any Al - Qaeda (7). Washington has (8) 60,000 of its troops from Afghanistan since Mr. Obama took office in 2009, but 36,500 remain, with 19,000 from other countries in the NATO - ISAF coalition. Western plans are for a residual force of 8,000 to 12,000, two - thirds of them American, but sections of the U.S. military have (9) a U.S. strength of 10,000 with 5,000 from the rest of the coalition. Mr. Obama is discussing the (10) with senior officers.
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Answer: (A) options
Explanation
In this context, President Obama is evaluating various strategic choices and troop level proposals regarding the future military presence in Afghanistan alongside his senior military commanders. The word "options" fits logically and grammatically, as it accurately denotes the alternative courses of action under deliberation before making a final strategic decision.
11English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
According to the passage, why is a perfectly competitive firm a price taker?
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Answer: (D) A perfectly competitive firm cannot charge above the market price as it will lose all its customers
Explanation
According to the passage, a perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker because the pressure from competing firms forces it to accept the prevailing market equilibrium price. If such a firm attempts to raise the price of its product by even a penny above the market price, it will lose all of its sales and customers to competitors who offer identical products. Therefore, the firm must accept the prevailing price set by overall market supply and demand.
12English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
According to the author, who determines the price of wheat?
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Answer: (B) Market Supply and Demand
Explanation
According to the passage, the market price of wheat is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market. In a perfectly competitive market, individual farmers are price takers who have no control over setting prices and must accept the equilibrium price established by overall market supply and demand.
13English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
The rules of perfect competition would definitely not apply to which of the following firms?
I) A wheat farmer II) A firm that produces standardized nuts and bolts III) A utilities company that has monopoly over electricity supply to an area IV) A firm that has an exclusive patent over its products
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Answer: (E) III and IV only
Explanation
Perfect competition requires a market with many buyers and sellers, identical products, free entry and exit, and no single firm possessing market power over price. A utilities company with a monopoly over electricity supply operates as the sole supplier in an area with restricted entry, giving it full control over supply and price rather than acting as a price taker. Similarly, a firm with an exclusive patent holds a legal right to a unique product, effectively eliminating identical competition and preventing free market entry by competitors. Therefore, the conditions of perfect competition fail to apply to a monopoly utility provider and a patent-holding firm.
14English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
Why is agriculture a good example of perfect competition?
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Answer: (A) There is very little distinction between same crops produced by different farmers
Explanation
Agriculture serves as a primary example of perfect competition because the crops produced by different farmers are largely interchangeable and homogenous. As highlighted in the passage, buyers perceive no meaningful distinction between the same crop grown by different individual farmers, preventing any single producer from charging a price above the market equilibrium.
15English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
Why, according to the author, must a perfectly competitive firm be a small player in the overall market?
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Answer: (C) The increase or decrease in output of the firm should not alter the supply available in the market and hence indirectly affect the market price
Explanation
According to the passage, a perfectly competitive firm must be a small player in the overall market so that any increase or decrease in its output does not noticeably alter the total quantity supplied in the market. Because market price is determined solely by total supply and demand across the entire industry, an individual firm's output changes must remain too small to influence overall market supply or distort the market price.
16English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
Which of the following can be inferred from the information given in the passage?
I) A perfectly competitive market does not exist in real life
II) A firm in a perfectly competitive market cannot sell its products below market price due to regulations
III) Agriculture is the only sector in which there is perfect competition
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Answer: (A) I only
Explanation
The passage explicitly describes a perfectly competitive market as a hypothetical extreme, which directly implies that such a market structure is theoretical and does not exist in real life in its pure form, making statement I a valid inference. Statement II is incorrect because the text notes that firms do not sell below the market price out of economic self-interest—since they can sell as much as they want at the market price—rather than because of regulatory restrictions. Statement III is incorrect because agricultural markets are mentioned merely as a common real-world example of highly competitive behavior, not as the only sector, and pure perfect competition itself is theoretical. Thus, only statement I logically follows from the text.
17English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many
buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant
information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without
any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing
equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will
lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the
computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the
individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or
decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms
selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The
same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly
reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00
per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel,
would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when
they can sell all they want at the higher price?
From the passage, it can be inferred that the author is a
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Answer: (B) Economist
Explanation
The author defines and analyzes core microeconomic concepts such as perfect competition, price takers, market equilibrium, supply and demand dynamics, and free market entry and exit. The use of formal economic terminology alongside real-world market data to explain price behavior and firm dynamics reflects the analytical perspective and expertise typical of an economist.
18English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
What is the purpose of the passage?
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Answer: (B) To explain how an individual producer is a price taker in a perfectly competitive market
Explanation
The passage explains that in a perfectly competitive market the individual firm cannot set its own price and must accept the prevailing equilibrium price - i.e. it is a price taker. That is the passage's central purpose, so option (b) is correct.
19English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
Choose the word that is synonymous with the word "Prevailing" as used in the passage.
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Answer: (C) Current
Explanation
The passage speaks of firms being forced 'to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market', i.e. the price currently in force. 'Current' is therefore the synonym, option (c).
20English Language
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Firms are said to be in perfect competition when the following conditions occur: (1) many firms produce identical products; (2) many buyers are available to buy the product, and many sellers are available to sell the product; (3) sellers and buyers have all relevant information to make rational decisions about the product being bought and sold; and (4) firms can enter and leave the market without any restrictions—in other words, there is free entry and exit into and out of the market.
A perfectly competitive firm is known as a price taker, because the pressure of competing firms forces them to accept the prevailing equilibrium price in the market. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market raises the price of its product by so much as a penny, it will lose all of its sales to competitors. When a wheat grower, wants to know what the going price of wheat is, he or she has to go to the computer or listen to the radio to check. The market price is determined solely by supply and demand in the entire market and not the individual farmer. Also, a perfectly competitive firm must be a very small player in the overall market, so that it can increase or decrease output without noticeably affecting the overall quantity supplied and price in the market.
A perfectly competitive market is a hypothetical extreme; however, producers in a number of industries do face many competitor firms selling highly similar goods, in which case they must often act as price takers. Agricultural markets are often used as an example. The same crops grown by different farmers are largely interchangeable. According to the United States Department of Agriculture monthly reports, in 2015, U.S. corn farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel and wheat farmers received an average price of $6.00 per bushel. A corn farmer who attempted to sell at $7.00 per bushel, or a wheat grower who attempted to sell for $8.00 per bushel, would not have found any buyers. A perfectly competitive firm will not sell below the equilibrium price either. Why should they when they can sell all they want at the higher price?
Choose the word that is synonymous with the word “Hypothetical” as used in the passage.
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Answer: (A) Theoretical
Explanation
Hypothetical refers to something based on a hypothesis, supposition, or proposed idea rather than established fact or practical reality. Theoretical similarly describes ideas, models, or concepts based on theory and abstract reasoning rather than practical application or empirical observation, making it a direct synonym.
21English Language
Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark e) as the answer.
Soon after the Tsunami had killed thousands of people along the coasts of southern India, parliament passes a bill that proposed to set up an institutional mechanism to respond promptly to natural disasters.
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Answer: (A) passed a bill that proposed
Explanation
The sentence refers to a completed event in the past, established by the past perfect tense "had killed" in the preceding clause. To maintain tense consistency, the verb in the main clause must also be in the past tense ("passed") rather than the present tense ("passes"). The relative clause "that proposed" correctly uses the past tense to describe the bill's intended objective at the time of its passage. Thus, "passed a bill that proposed" provides the correct verb forms and maintains smooth grammatical flow.
22English Language
Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark e) as the answer.
Denial of wages forced scientists and teachers at the agriculture universities throughout the country to go on strike, crippling crucial research that could help the state of agriculture in the country.
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Answer: (E) No correction required
Explanation
The original sentence is grammatically correct and uses proper idiomatic phrasing. The verb "force" correctly takes an infinitive structure ("forced [someone] to [do something]"), and "go on strike" is the standard idiomatic expression for abstaining from work in protest. Since the sentence contains no grammatical, structural, or idiomatic errors, no correction is required.
23English Language
Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark e) as the answer.
In an attempt to boost their profits many edible oil producing companies have been engaging themselves in propaganda against commonly used oils and promoting exotic and expensive varieties of oils as healthier options.
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Answer: (E) No correction required
Explanation
The original phrase "as healthier options" is grammatically correct. The comparative adjective "healthier" correctly compares exotic and expensive varieties of oils with the previously mentioned commonly used oils. Additionally, the plural noun "options" properly agrees in number with the plural phrase "varieties of oils". Since the sentence is structurally and grammatically accurate as written, no correction is needed.
24English Language
Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark e) as the answer.
Thanks to numerous government initiatives, rural masses which was earlier unaware of the luxuries of urban ways of living are now connected to the same lifestyle.
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Answer: (D) who were earlier unaware
Explanation
The phrase "rural masses" refers to people, requiring the relative pronoun "who" instead of "which". Furthermore, "masses" is a plural noun and takes the plural past-tense verb "were" rather than the singular "was". Preserving the original context of lacking knowledge about urban luxuries requires retaining the adjective "unaware", making "who were earlier unaware" the grammatically accurate replacement.
25English Language
Which of the phrases a), b), c) and d) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No correction is required', mark e) as the answer.
Over the last few months, while most industries are busy in restructuring operations, cutting costs and firing, the Indian pharmaceutical and healthcare industry was adding manpower and giving salary hikes.
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Answer: (B) while most industries were
Explanation
The main clause of the sentence uses the past continuous tense ("was adding") to describe actions taking place over a past period. To maintain correct sequence of tenses and grammatical consistency, the subordinate clause describing a simultaneous activity in the past must also use the past tense "were" to match the plural subject "most industries".
26English Language
Which of the phrases 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below each sentence should replace the word/ phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5 as the answer.
US Secretary of State made it clear that time running out for diplomacy over Iran's nuclear programme and said that talks aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a nuclear weapon would resume in April.
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Answer: (B) was running out
Explanation
In indirect speech with a main reporting verb in the past tense (made it clear, said), subordinate clauses must follow the sequence of tenses and take past tense verbs. The original phrase "time running out" lacks a finite auxiliary verb to form a complete predicate. Adding "was" creates the past continuous tense "was running out", which correctly maintains past tense consistency alongside "made" and "would resume".
27English Language
Which of the phrases 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below each sentence should replace the word/ phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5 as the answer.
While the war of the generals rage on, somewhere in small town India, Wonderful things are happening, quietly and minus fanfare.
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Answer: (C) rages on
Explanation
In the subject-verb structure of the clause, the true subject is the singular noun "war", while "of the generals" acts merely as a prepositional phrase modifying it. A verb must agree in number with its grammatical subject rather than the plural object of the preposition. Therefore, the third-person singular present tense verb "rages on" is required to maintain correct subject-verb agreement.
28English Language
Which of the phrases 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below each sentence should replace the word/ phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5 as the answer.
According to WWF, the small island nation of Samoa was the first in switch off its lights for Earth Hour
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Answer: (B) the first to switch off
Explanation
The ordinal structure "the first" is correctly followed by an infinitive verb (to + base verb) when indicating the entity that performs an action. Additionally, the correct phrasal verb meaning to turn off electrical appliances or lights is "switch off". Therefore, "the first to switch off" provides the correct prepositional and infinitive phrasing required in the sentence.
29English Language
Which of the phrases 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below each sentence should replace the word/ phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5 as the answer.
The campaign is significant because not just the youths are directly appealing to the world but because their efforts challenge the chimera of normalcy in the area.
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Answer: (A) not just because
Explanation
To maintain parallel structure when using correlative conjunctions like "not just... but...", the grammatical elements following both parts of the pair must be symmetrical. Since the second clause uses the structure "but because", the first clause must mirror it by using "not just because". Placing "because" after "not just" ensures proper parallelism: "significant not just because... but because...".
30English Language
Which of the phrases 1, 2, 3 and 4 given below each sentence should replace the word/ phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 5 as the answer.
The doctor's association has threatened to go on indefinite strike support of their teachers.
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Answer: (D) in support of
Explanation
The standard idiomatic prepositional phrase used to express backing, agreement, or assistance toward a cause or group is in support of. In the given sentence, the phrase support of lacks the preposition in required to complete the idiom and logically connect the action of going on strike to its intended cause. Inserting in support of correctly establishes the prepositional phrase and restores proper grammatical structure.
31Numerical Ability
The LCM of two numbers x and y is 20. Find the number of unordered pairs (x,y)?
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Answer: (A) 8
Explanation
Prime factorization of 20 = 2² × 5¹.
For a number N = p₁ᵃ × p₂ᵇ, the number of ordered pairs (x, y) whose LCM is N is given by the formula:
N_ordered = (2a + 1)(2b + 1)
Substituting a = 2 and b = 1:
N_ordered = (2 × 2 + 1)(2 × 1 + 1) = 5 × 3 = 15
To find the number of unordered pairs, we add 1 for the symmetric pair (20, 20) and divide by 2:
N_unordered = (N_ordered + 1) / 2 = (15 + 1) / 2 = 8
32Numerical Ability
The largest number that divides 43, 91 and 183 and leaves the same remainder in each case is
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Answer: (E) 4
Explanation
To find the largest number that divides numbers x, y, and z leaving the same remainder in each case, we compute the highest common factor (HCF) of the differences between the numbers: HCF(|x - y|, |y - z|, |z - x|).
Since 12, 23, and 35 share no further common factors, the highest common factor is 4. Dividing 43, 91, and 183 by 4 gives a remainder of 3 in each case.
33Numerical Ability
In a church, the first bell rings at intervals of 2 seconds, the second bell rings at intervals of 4 seconds and so on till the fifth bell, which rings at intervals of 10 seconds. How many times do all the bells ring together in a half- an- hour period?
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Answer: (D) 15
Explanation
The intervals at which the five bells ring are 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10 seconds. All five bells ring together at time intervals equal to the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of their individual ringing times.
LCM(2, 4, 6, 8, 10) = 120 seconds = 2 minutes
This means all five bells ring together every 2 minutes.
A half-an-hour period is equal to 30 minutes.
Number of times they ring together in 30 minutes = 30 ÷ 2 = 15.
34Numerical Ability
What is the smallest number which when multiplied by 10 is exactly divisible by 12, 18, 24 and 32?
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Answer: (B) 144
Explanation
Let the required smallest number be N. The product 10 × N must be exactly divisible by 12, 18, 24, and 32, which means 10 × N must be a multiple of their LCM.
Therefore, 10 × N = 288 × k for the smallest positive integer k.
N = (288 × k) ÷ 10 = (144 × k) ÷ 5
For N to be an integer, k must be a multiple of 5. The smallest positive value for k is 5.
N = (144 × 5) ÷ 5 = 144.
35Numerical Ability
The ratio of two numbers is 5:6. The product of the HCF and LCM of the two numbers is 120. What is the HCF of the two numbers?
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Answer: (A) 2
Explanation
Let the HCF of the two numbers be x. Since the ratio of the two numbers is 5:6, the numbers can be written as 5x and 6x.
The fundamental relationship between two numbers and their HCF and LCM is:
Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM
Substituting the given values into the formula:
5x × 6x = 120
30x² = 120
x² = 4
x = 2
Therefore, the HCF of the two numbers is 2.
36Numerical Ability
The sum of two numbers is 65 and the HCF of the two numbers is 5. If the LCM of the two numbers is 180, what is the sum of the reciprocals of the two numbers?
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Answer: (E) 13/180
Explanation
Let the two numbers be x and y.
The sum of the reciprocals of two numbers is given by:
1/x + 1/y = (x + y) / (x × y)
We are given that the sum of the numbers (x + y) = 65.
Using the fundamental relationship for two numbers, Product = HCF × LCM:
x × y = 5 × 180 = 900
Substituting these values into the reciprocal sum formula:
1/x + 1/y = 65 / 900
Dividing both the numerator and denominator by 5:
65 / 900 = 13 / 180
37Numerical Ability
What is the greatest number which divides 1070 and 1265 and leaves remainders 3 and 4 respectively?
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Answer: (D) 97
Explanation
Subtract the respective remainders from the given numbers to find the numbers that are exactly divisible:
1070 − 3 = 1067
1265 − 4 = 1261
The required greatest number is the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of 1067 and 1261.
Using the difference method to find the HCF:
Difference = 1261 − 1067 = 194
194 = 2 × 97
Since 1067 and 1261 are odd numbers, 2 is not a factor. Testing 97:
1067 ÷ 97 = 11
1261 ÷ 97 = 13
Therefore, HCF(1067, 1261) = 97.
38Numerical Ability
What is the LCM of 1 / 3 , ¼ and 1 / 5 ?
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Answer: (A) 1
Explanation
The LCM of fractions is calculated using the formula:
LCM of fractions = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators)
For the given fractions 1/3, 1/4, and 1/5:
LCM of numerators (1, 1, 1) = 1
HCF of denominators (3, 4, 5) = 1
Substituting these values into the formula gives LCM = 1 ÷ 1 = 1.
39Numerical Ability
125⁴ ÷ 25⁴ × 5⁵ = 5^?
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Answer: (B) 9
Explanation
Convert all terms to powers of 5 using the exponent rules (aᵐ)ⁿ = aᵐⁿ, aᵐ ÷ aⁿ = aᵐ⁻ⁿ, and aᵐ × aⁿ = aᵐ⁺ⁿ.
125⁴ = (5³)⁴ = 5¹²
25⁴ = (5²)⁴ = 5⁸
Now, substitute these into the expression:
125⁴ ÷ 25⁴ × 5⁵ = 5¹² ÷ 5⁸ × 5⁵
= 5¹²⁻⁸⁺⁵
= 5⁹
Equating 5⁹ to 5^?, the missing value is 9.
40Numerical Ability
{⅐}{of}{⁵⁄₂₈}÷{¾}+{⅓}+{⅙}
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Answer: (A) 1
Explanation
Following BODMAS rules, evaluate the 'of' operation first:
(1/7) × (5/28) = 5/196
The first multiplier in each term increases by 3, 4, 5, and 6 respectively (1, 4, 8, 13, 19). Following this rule, the fourth term should be 197 instead of 214. Therefore, 214 is the wrong number in the series.
45Numerical Ability
Find the wrong number in given series sequence.
5,20,73,274,1049
Ananya and Anjali started a business by investing money in the ratio 3:4 respectively. After some months Aditi joined the business by investing half the amount as Ananya. What percentage of the total profit will Aditi earn?
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Answer: (E) Cannot be determined
Explanation
Profit distribution in a partnership depends on the product of the capital invested and the time period for which it remains in the business (Profit ∝ Investment × Time).
Let the investments of Ananya and Anjali be 3x and 4x respectively. Aditi's investment is half of Ananya's, which is 1.5x.
To determine Aditi's percentage share of the total profit, the exact number of months for which Aditi invested her capital is required. Since the question only mentions that Aditi joined "after some months" without specifying the exact duration, the ratio of profit shares cannot be established. Therefore, the profit percentage cannot be determined with the given information.
48Numerical Ability
If I walk at 4km / h , I miss the bus by 10 min. If I walk at 5km / h , I reach 5 min before the arrival of the bus. How far I walk to reach the bus stand?
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Answer: (A) 5 km
Explanation
Distance = (Product of speeds / Difference between speeds) × Total time difference
The total time difference between being 10 minutes late and 5 minutes early is 10 + 5 = 15 minutes, which is 15/60 = ¼ hour.
Substituting the given values:
Distance = (4 × 5) / (5 - 4) × (15/60)
Distance = 20 × ¼ = 5 km
49Numerical Ability
The speed of a boat in still water is 15km / hr and the rate of current is 3km / hr . The distance travelled down steam in 12 minutes is:
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Answer: (D) 3.6 km
Explanation
Downstream speed = Speed of boat in still water + Speed of current = 15 + 3 = 18 km/hr.
Time in hours = 12 minutes / 60 = 1/5 hour.
Distance = Speed × Time = 18 × (1/5) = 3.6 km.
50Numerical Ability
6 men finish one- fourth work in 2 days. The number of additional men required for finishing the same work in 2 days is
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Answer: (A) 18 men
Explanation
Since 6 men finish 1/4 of the work in 2 days, 6 men will complete the entire work in 2 × 4 = 8 days.
Using the relation M₁ × D₁ = M₂ × D₂, where M is the number of men and D is the number of days:
6 × 8 = M₂ × 2
48 = 2 × M₂
M₂ = 24 men
To complete the work in 2 days, a total of 24 men are required. Since 6 men are already present, the number of additional men required is 24 - 6 = 18 men.
51Numerical Ability
A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
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Answer: (C) 35 hrs
Explanation
Let the work done per hour (efficiency) by pipe A be 1 unit/hr.
Since pipe B is twice as fast as A, efficiency of B = 2 units/hr.
Since pipe C is twice as fast as B, efficiency of C = 2 × 2 = 4 units/hr.
Efficiency ratio of A : B : C = 1 : 2 : 4
Combined efficiency of (A + B + C) = 1 + 2 + 4 = 7 units/hr.
Total capacity of the tank = Combined efficiency × Time taken together
= 7 × 5 = 35 units.
Time taken by pipe A alone = Total capacity / Efficiency of A
= 35 / 1 = 35 hours.
52Numerical Ability
A dishonest milkman plans to adulterate milk by adding water. If water is freely available, how many liters of water should he add to 5 liters of milk, so that, by selling the milk at cost price, he makes a profit of 20% ?
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Answer: (B) 1 liter
Explanation
When water (available free of cost) is added to milk and the mixture is sold at the cost price of pure milk, the percentage profit depends entirely on the ratio of water to milk:
Profit % = (Volume of Water / Volume of Milk) × 100
Substituting the given profit percentage of 20% and milk volume of 5 liters:
20 = (Volume of Water / 5) × 100
Volume of Water = (20 × 5) / 100 = 1 liter
Adding 1 liter of water to 5 liters of pure milk yields a 20% gain.
53Numerical Ability
Rita's present age is four times her daughter's present age and two- thirds of her mother's present age. The total of the present ages of all of them is 154 years. What is the difference between Rita's and her mother's present age?
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Answer: (A) 28 years
Explanation
Let Rita's present age be R years.
Daughter's present age = R / 4 years
Mother's present age = 3R / 2 years
Given the sum of all their present ages is 154 years:
R + (R / 4) + (3R / 2) = 154
Taking 4 as the common denominator:
(4R + R + 6R) / 4 = 154
11R / 4 = 154
R = (154 × 4) / 11 = 56 years
Rita's age is 56 years, and her mother's age is (3 / 2) × 56 = 84 years.
The difference between her mother's age and Rita's age is:
84 - 56 = 28 years.
54Numerical Ability
If SP = Rs.84,% gain = 20% ,then CP = ?
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Answer: (C) Rs.70
Explanation
Cost Price (CP) is given by the formula: CP = [100 / (100 + Gain %)] × SP.
On combining two groups of students having 30 and 40 average marks respectively in an exam, the resultant group has an average score of 34. Find the ratio of the number of students in the first group to the number of students in the second group.
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Answer: (B) 3:2
Explanation
Using the rule of alligation for weighted averages:
Ratio of students (n₁ : n₂) = (Group 2 Average − Combined Average) : (Combined Average − Group 1 Average)
The edge of an ice cube is 14cm . The volume of the largest cylindrical ice cube that can be formed out of it is
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Answer: (C) 2156 cu. cm
Explanation
To form the largest cylinder inside a cube of edge length 14 cm, the cylinder's diameter and height must both equal the edge length of the cube.
Radius of the cylinder (r) = 14 / 2 = 7 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 14 cm
Volume of a cylinder V = πr²h
Substituting the values:
V = (22/7) × 7² × 14 = 22 × 7 × 14 = 2156 cu. cm
57Numerical Ability
A rope makes 125 rounds of a cylinder with base radius 15 cm. How many times can it go round a cylinder with base radius 25 cm?
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Answer: (B) 75
Explanation
The total length of the rope remains constant regardless of the cylinder's radius. The length wrapped in n rounds around a cylinder of base radius r is given by L = n × 2πr.
Since the length is constant, the relation simplifies to:
n₁ × r₁ = n₂ × r₂
If 6 boys and 6 girls have to sit in a round circular music chair. So, that there is a girl between every 2 boys. Find the number of ways they can sit?
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Answer: (A) 6! × 5!
Explanation
First, arrange the 6 boys around the circular table. The number of ways to arrange n items in a circle is (n − 1)!, so 6 boys can be seated in (6 − 1)! = 5! ways.
Seating the 6 boys creates 6 distinct spaces between them. The 6 girls must fill these 6 spaces so that a girl sits between every two boys. Since the circle's orientation is already fixed by the seated boys, the 6 girls can be arranged in these positions in 6! ways.
By the multiplication principle, the total number of ways they can sit is 6! × 5!.
59Numerical Ability
The LCM of two numbers is 360, and their HCF is 15. If one of the numbers is 45, what is the value of the remainder when the other number is divided by 7?
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Answer: (A) 1
Explanation
Using the fundamental property of two numbers, Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM:
45 × b = 15 × 360
b = (15 × 360) / 45
b = 120
To find the remainder when 120 is divided by 7:
120 = (7 × 17) + 1
The remainder obtained is 1.
60Numerical Ability
Study the following table carefully to answer the questions. Rate of interest (pcpa) offered by five companies on deposits under different schemes
Company → Scheme ↓ A B C D E
I 8.5 9.0 8.0 8.5 9.0
II 9.5 8.5 9.0 9.0 8.5
III 8.0 8.0 7.5 8.5 8.5
IV 10.0 9.5 10.5 9.5 10.0
Mr. Lal invested Rs. 30000 in company A under Scheme II, which offers simple interest and Rs. 48000 in Company D under Scheme II, which offers compound interest. What will be the total amount of interest earned by Mr Lal in two years?
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Answer: (A) Rs. 14728.80
Explanation
For Company A under Scheme II, the interest rate is 9.5% per annum simple interest.
Simple Interest = (P × R × T) / 100 = (30000 × 9.5 × 2) / 100 = ₹5700.
For Company D under Scheme II, the interest rate is 9% per annum compound interest.
Compound Interest = P × [(1 + R / 100)ᵀ - 1] = 48000 × [(1 + 9 / 100)² - 1] = 48000 × [(1.09)² - 1] = 48000 × 0.1881 = ₹9028.80.
Total interest earned in two years = ₹5700 + ₹9028.80 = ₹14728.80.
61Reasoning Ability
Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:
Which of the following expressions will be true if the expression R > O = A > S < T as definitely true?
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Answer: (B) S< R
Explanation
From the given inequality expression R > O = A > S < T, the direct relation between R and S can be established by combining the chain from R to S:
R > O = A > S
Since O = A, this simplifies to R > A > S. By the transitive property of inequalities, R > A and A > S directly implies R > S. Reversing the relation gives S < R.
62Reasoning Ability
Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:
Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark (?) in the given expression in order to make the expression 'P > A' as well as 'T ≤ L' definitely true?
P > L? A ≥ N = T
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Answer: (D) ≥ (or) =
Explanation
To make P > A definitely true, the symbol replacing ? in P > L ? A must maintain the strict inequality, allowing ?, to be >, ≥, or =.
To make T ≤ L (or L ≥ T) definitely true in the chain L ? A ≥ N = T, the symbol ? must be either ≥ or = so that L ≥ A ≥ N = T holds, ensuring L ≥ T.
Combining both conditions, replacing the question mark with either ≥ or = makes both relations definitely true.
63Reasoning Ability
Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:
Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given such a manner that makes the expressions 'B ≥ N' as well as 'D ≤ L' definitely true? B_L_O_N_D
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Answer: (D) >,= , = , ≥
Explanation
Substituting the symbols '>', '=', '=', '≥' into the blanks yields:
B > L = O = N ≥ D
Analyzing the relation between B and N:
B > L = O = N gives B > N, which satisfies B ≥ N.
Analyzing the relation between D and L:
L = O = N ≥ D gives L ≥ D, which is equivalent to D ≤ L.
64Reasoning Ability
Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:
Which of the following letters should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expression 'A < P' definitely false?
_ < _ < _ >
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Answer: (E) P,N,A,L
Explanation
Placing the letters P, N, A, and L into the blank spaces in order yields the expression P < N < A > L.
From the inequality chain P < N < A, it directly follows that P < A (or A > P). Since A is strictly greater than P, the statement 'A < P' is definitely false.
65Reasoning Ability
Read each statement carefully and answer the following questions:
Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expressions 'F > N' and 'U > D' definitely false? F_O_U_N_D
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Answer: (C) <, =, =, <
Explanation
Placing the symbols <, =, =, < into the expression F _ O _ U _ N _ D yields F < O = U = N < D.
From this inequality chain, F < N, which makes the statement F > N definitely false. Similarly, U = N < D implies U < D, which makes the statement U > D definitely false. Thus, this sequence of symbols satisfies both conditions.
66Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is to the immediate right of B who is 4th to the right of K. P is 2nd to the left of B and is 4th to the right of W. Q is 2nd to the right of D who is 2nd to the right of H.
Who is third to the right of B?
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Answer: (D) H
Explanation
Arranging eight persons facing the centre in clockwise sequence starting with K at position 1:
B is fourth to the right of K, so B is at position 5.
M is to the immediate right of B, which places M at position 6.
P is second to the left of B, placing P at position 3, which also makes P fourth to the right of W at position 7.
Since H, D, and Q must be placed such that D is two positions to the right of H and Q is two positions to the right of D, they occupy positions 8, 2, and 4 respectively.
The full clockwise arrangement is K, D, P, Q, B, M, W, and H. Moving three positions to the right (clockwise) from B leads to position 8, which is occupied by H.
67Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is to the immediate right of B who is 4th to the right of K. P is 2nd to the left of B and is 4th to the right of W. Q is 2nd to the right of D who is 2nd to the right of H.
Which of the following represents the immediate neighbours of D?
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Answer: (E) PK
Explanation
Placing the 8 people facing the centre in clockwise order starting from K at position 1:
Position 1: K
Position 2: H
Position 3: W
Position 4: M
Position 5: B
Position 6: Q
Position 7: P
Position 8: D
D is located at position 8, flanked by P at position 7 and K at position 1. Thus, P and K are the immediate neighbours of D.
68Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is to the immediate right of B who is 4th to the right of K. P is 2nd to the left of B and is 4th to the right of W. Q is 2nd to the right of D who is 2nd to the right of H.
Who is third to the right of W?
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Answer: (B) D
Explanation
For people seated around a circle facing the centre, moving counter-clockwise corresponds to moving to the right.
W is seated at position 3.
First to the right of W is position 2 (H).
Second to the right of W is position 1 (K).
Third to the right of W is position 8 (D).
69Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is to the immediate right of B who is 4th to the right of K. P is 2nd to the left of B and is 4th to the right of W. Q is 2nd to the right of D who is 2nd to the right of H.
Who is second to the left of P?
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Answer: (C) K
Explanation
Numbering eight positions around the circle anti-clockwise from 1 to 8:
Placing K at position 1, B is 4th to the right of K, placing B at position 5. M is to the immediate right of B, placing M at position 6.
P is 2nd to the left of B, which puts P at position 3. Since P is 4th to the right of W, W is placed at position 7.
The remaining vacant positions are 2, 4, and 8. Placing H at position 8 puts D at position 2 (2nd to the right of H) and Q at position 4 (2nd to the right of D).
The complete anti-clockwise arrangement is K (1), D (2), P (3), Q (4), B (5), M (6), W (7), and H (8).
Counting two positions clockwise (to the left) from P at position 3 leads to position 1, which is occupied by K.
70Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
B, D, M, K, P, Q, W and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. M is to the immediate right of B who is 4th to the right of K. P is 2nd to the left of B and is 4th to the right of W. Q is 2nd to the right of D who is 2nd to the right of H.
Who is to the immediate left of B?
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Answer: (A) Q
Explanation
Placing K at a reference position facing the centre, B sits directly opposite K. M sits to the immediate right of B, and P sits 2nd to the left of B. W sits opposite P, leaving positions for H, D, and Q such that D is 2nd to the right of H and Q is 2nd to the right of D. Looking clockwise (to the left facing centre) from B, the adjacent seat is occupied by Q.
71Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four 4 corners face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre.
- Only one person sits between L and Q. L sits at middle of one of the series.
- O sits to the immediate right of Q.
- Both R and S are immediate neighbours of L.
- M sits second to left of N.
- N is neither an immediate neighbour of Q nor S.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
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Answer: (A) L
Explanation
Arranging the eight friends around the square table determines four middle-side positions facing inward (L, N, M, Q) and four corner positions facing outward (R, P, O, S). Because R, S, O, and P all sit at corners, L is the only one among the choices who sits at a side position and faces inward.
72Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four 4 corners face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre.
- Only one person sits between L and Q. L sits at middle of one of the series.
- O sits to the immediate right of Q.
- Both R and S are immediate neighbours of L.
- M sits second to left of N.
- N is neither an immediate neighbour of Q nor S.
Who sits third to the left of Q?
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Answer: (C) R
Explanation
Q occupies a middle position on one side facing inward towards the centre. Moving clockwise along the table from Q to count to its left, the first seat is occupied by S, the second by L, and the third by R.
73Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four 4 corners face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre.
- Only one person sits between L and Q. L sits at middle of one of the series.
- O sits to the immediate right of Q.
- Both R and S are immediate neighbours of L.
- M sits second to left of N.
- N is neither an immediate neighbour of Q nor S.
How many people sit between M and S when counted from the right hand side of S?
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Answer: (E) Four
Explanation
Based on the given conditions, L sits at a side middle facing the center. Since Q has only one person between itself and L, Q sits at a side middle two positions away. O sits to the immediate right of Q at a corner facing outside. The two positions adjacent to L are corners occupied by R and S. Since N is not adjacent to S or Q, S sits at the corner adjacent to L away from N, while R sits at the corner between L and N. N sits at a side middle facing the center, and M sits second to the left of N at the opposite side middle. The remaining corner position is occupied by P.
The complete sequence starting from L facing inside is L, R (corner, facing outside), N (side, facing inside), P (corner, facing outside), M (side, facing inside), O (corner, facing outside), Q (side, facing inside), and S (corner, facing outside).
S sits at a corner facing outside, so the right-hand side of S leads towards L. Counting from the right-hand side of S towards M, the individuals sitting between S and M are L, R, N, and P. Thus, there are four people sitting between M and S.
74Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four 4 corners face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre.
- Only one person sits between L and Q. L sits at middle of one of the series.
- O sits to the immediate right of Q.
- Both R and S are immediate neighbours of L.
- M sits second to left of N.
- N is neither an immediate neighbour of Q nor S.
Which of the following is true regarding P?
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Answer: (E) Q is an immediate neighbour of P.
Explanation
The arrangement along one side of the square table places N in a middle position, P in the adjacent corner position, and M in the next middle position. Thus, P sits directly in the corner seat between N and M.
75Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight friends L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four 4 corners face outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre.
- Only one person sits between L and Q. L sits at middle of one of the series.
- O sits to the immediate right of Q.
- Both R and S are immediate neighbours of L.
- M sits second to left of N.
- N is neither an immediate neighbour of Q nor S.
What is the position of P with respect to S?
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Answer: (A) Fourth to the left
Explanation
Place L at a middle position facing the centre. Since R and S are immediate neighbours of L, they occupy the two adjacent corners. Q sits at a middle position with one person between L and Q. O sits to the immediate right of Q, occupying a corner position.
To satisfy all conditions, S sits at the corner between L and Q, and R sits at the corner between L and N. N sits at the middle position adjacent to R, facing the centre. Since M sits second to the left of N, M occupies the adjacent middle position. The remaining corner position between N and M is occupied by P.
In an eight-person arrangement, S and P occupy diagonally opposite corners. Counting four positions from S in either direction leads to P, placing P fourth to the left of S.
76Reasoning Ability
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows having five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent person. In row 1- V, W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2- F, G, H, I and J are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of the are facing South. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
- Y sits third to the left of W. The one who faces Y sits second to the right of F.
- Only one person sits between F and I.
- H and J are immediate neighbours of each other. J does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
- The one faces G sits to the immediate right of Z.
- X is not an immediate neighbour of Z.
Who amongst the following faces H?
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Answer: (A) Y
Explanation
Numbering positions 1 to 5 from left to right for both rows, Row 1 faces North and Row 2 faces South (where facing South means right is towards position 1 and left is towards position 5).
Since Y sits third to the left of W in Row 1, Y must be at position 1 and W at position 4.
The person in Row 2 facing Y is at position 1. Since this person sits second to the right of F, F must be at position 3.
With one person between F and I, placing I at position 5 leaves position 4 for G. Since J cannot sit at an extreme end and must be adjacent to H, J sits at position 2 and H sits at position 1.
In Row 1, position 4 (which faces G) is to the immediate right of Z, placing Z at position 3. Since X cannot be adjacent to Z, X sits at position 5 and V sits at position 2.
Thus, Row 1 from left to right is Y, V, Z, W, X, and Row 2 from left to right is H, J, F, G, I. The person facing H at position 1 is Y.
77Reasoning Ability
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows having five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent person. In row 1- V, W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2- F, G, H, I and J are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of the are facing South. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
- Y sits third to the left of W. The one who faces Y sits second to the right of F.
- Only one person sits between F and I.
- H and J are immediate neighbours of each other. J does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
- The one faces G sits to the immediate right of Z.
- X is not an immediate neighbour of Z.
Who amongst the following sits to the immediate left of the person who sits exactly in the middle of row-2?
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Answer: (D) G
Explanation
In Row 1 (facing North), the seating order from left to right is Y, V, Z, W, X. In Row 2 (facing South), the corresponding facing positions from left to right are H, J, F, G, I.
The person sitting exactly in the middle of Row 2 (position 3) is F. Since the members in Row 2 face South, their left direction is toward position 4. The person seated at position 4 is G, who sits to the immediate left of F.
78Reasoning Ability
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows having five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent person. In row 1- V, W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2- F, G, H, I and J are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of the are facing South. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
- Y sits third to the left of W. The one who faces Y sits second to the right of F.
- Only one person sits between F and I.
- H and J are immediate neighbours of each other. J does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
- The one faces G sits to the immediate right of Z.
- X is not an immediate neighbour of Z.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
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Answer: (C) W
Explanation
Based on the given conditions, the step-by-step seating arrangement is determined as follows:
In Row 1 (facing North), Y sits third to the left of W, placing Y at position 1 and W at position 4. The person facing Y is at position 1 of Row 2 (facing South), which is second to the right of F, placing F at position 3. One person sits between F and I, placing I at position 5. Since H and J are immediate neighbours and J is not at an extreme end, J is at position 2 and H is at position 1, leaving G at position 4.
The person facing G (position 4) is W, who sits to the immediate right of Z, placing Z at position 3. Since X is not adjacent to Z, X sits at position 5 and V at position 2.
Row 2 (facing South): H (1), J (2), F (3), G (4), I (5)
Row 1 (facing North): Y (1), V (2), Z (3), W (4), X (5)
H, I, Y, and X are all seated at the extreme ends of the two rows. W sits at an inner position (position 4 of Row 1) and not at an extreme end, making W the one that does not belong to the group.
79Reasoning Ability
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows having five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent person. In row 1- V, W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2- F, G, H, I and J are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of the are facing South. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
- Y sits third to the left of W. The one who faces Y sits second to the right of F.
- Only one person sits between F and I.
- H and J are immediate neighbours of each other. J does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
- The one faces G sits to the immediate right of Z.
- X is not an immediate neighbour of Z.
Who amongst the following sits third to the right of the person who faces X?
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Answer: (C) J
Explanation
Based on the given conditions, the seating arrangement in the two parallel rows from left to right (positions 1 to 5) is:
Row 2 (facing South): H, J, F, G, I
Row 1 (facing North): Y, V, Z, W, X
X sits at position 5 in Row 1. The person facing X is I, who is at position 5 in Row 2 facing South.
For a person facing South, "right" points towards position 1. Counting three positions to the right from I at position 5 (position 4 is G, position 3 is F, position 2 is J) gives J.
80Reasoning Ability
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows having five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent person. In row 1- V, W, X, Y and Z are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing North. In row 2- F, G, H, I and J are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all of the are facing South. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
- Y sits third to the left of W. The one who faces Y sits second to the right of F.
- Only one person sits between F and I.
- H and J are immediate neighbours of each other. J does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
- The one faces G sits to the immediate right of Z.
- X is not an immediate neighbour of Z.
Which of the following is true regarding V?
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Answer: (B) An immediate neighbour of V faces F.
Explanation
From the clues the arrangement is Row 1 (facing North): Y, V, Z, W, X and Row 2 (facing South): H, J, F, G, I. V's immediate neighbours in row 1 are Y and Z, and Z sits directly opposite F. Hence 'An immediate neighbour of V faces F' is true, option (b).
81Reasoning Ability
Observe the arrangement below and answer the questions that follow:
THU0$&G#3M1%A5W7<@9QP8
Of the five options below, only one of them is different from the pattern of the other four. Select that option.
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Answer: (D) AW<
Explanation
In the given sequence, the common pattern across the set moves +4 positions to the right from the first element to get the second element, and then moves -2 positions to the left to get the third element.
In AW<, the elements are located at positions 13 (A), 15 (W), and 17 (<) in the sequence, which follows a (+2, +2) pattern instead of (+4, -2). Thus, AW< is the group that differs from the rest.
82Reasoning Ability
Observe the arrangement below and answer the questions that follow:
THU0$&G#3M1%A5W7<@9QP8
Select the element that's sixth to the left of the seventh element from the right.
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Answer: (B) M
Explanation
The given sequence has 22 elements in total. The 7th element counting from the right end is '7', which corresponds to the 16th element from the left (22 - 7 + 1 = 16). Moving 6 positions to the left from index 16 gives index 10 (16 - 6 = 10), where the element is 'M'.
83Reasoning Ability
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below: B2MEJ%R5@ND1P4@T39FU16HJA7*GQ#
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
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Answer: (E) DPT
Explanation
In the given sequence, the standard pattern involves selecting elements that are two positions to the right of each other (skipping exactly one character between consecutive terms). In DPT, while P is two positions to the right of D, T is three positions to the right of P, skipping two characters (4 and @) instead of one. Because it breaks the two-position gap pattern, DPT does not belong to the group.
84Reasoning Ability
What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet ?
CEA IKG OQM ?
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Answer: (D) UWS
Explanation
In the given series, each letter in a group advances by 6 positions in the alphabetical order to form the corresponding letter in the next group:
First letters: C (3) + 6 = I (9), I (9) + 6 = O (15), O (15) + 6 = U (21).
Second letters: E (5) + 6 = K (11), K (11) + 6 = Q (17), Q (17) + 6 = W (23).
Third letters: A (1) + 6 = G (7), G (7) + 6 = M (13), M (13) + 6 = S (19).
Combining the results gives UWS.
85Reasoning Ability
In a family of 8 people, G is the mother of B. H has two daughters - G and D. F is H's only granddaughter. E is D's father. C is the brother of B. B is A's son.
How many children does D have?
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Answer: (D) Either 0 or 1
Explanation
The eight family members are E, H, G, D, A, B, C, and F.
Generation 1 consists of parents E (father) and H (mother).
Generation 2 consists of their daughters G and D, and G's husband A (since G is the mother of B and B is A's son).
Generation 3 consists of B (male, son of G and A), C (male, brother of B), and F (female, the only granddaughter of H).
Since B and C are male, F is the sole female grandchild in the family. F can be the daughter of G and A, which leaves D with 0 children, or F can be the daughter of D, which gives D 1 child. In both scenarios, all eight family members and specified relationships are fully satisfied. Therefore, D has either 0 or 1 child.
86Reasoning Ability
In a family of 8 people, G is the mother of B. H has two daughters - G and D. F is H's only granddaughter. E is D's father. C is the brother of B. B is A's son.
How is D related to C?
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Answer: (B) Aunt
Explanation
G is the mother of B, and C is the brother of B, which means G is the mother of C. H and E have two daughters, G and D, making D the sister of G. Since D is the sister of C's mother (G), D is C's maternal aunt.
87Reasoning Ability
A person rode his bicycle Northwards, then turned left and rode one km and again turned left and rode 2km. He found himself exactly one km West of his starting point. How far did he ride Northwards initially?
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Answer: (B) 2km
Explanation
Let the initial distance ridden Northwards be d km.
Taking the starting point as the origin (0, 0):
Riding North by d km reaches coordinates (0, d).
Turning left (West) and riding 1 km reaches coordinates (-1, d).
Turning left (South) and riding 2 km reaches coordinates (-1, d - 2).
Since the final position is exactly 1 km West of the starting point, the final coordinates are (-1, 0).
Equating the vertical (y-axis) displacements:
d - 2 = 0
d = 2 km
Thus, he initially rode 2 km Northwards.
88Reasoning Ability
Anup starts from point A and travels towards north for 8 km and then he turns to his left and travels for 15 km to reach point B. What is the distance between A and B and the direction to which Anup is finally facing?
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Answer: (A) 17 km, West.
Explanation
The distance between point A and point B forms the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle with sides 8 km and 15 km.
Using the Pythagoras theorem:
AB = √(8² + 15²) = √(64 + 225) = √289 = 17 km.
Since Anup was initially travelling North, turning to his left changes his direction to West. Thus, the straight-line distance between A and B is 17 km, and he is finally facing West.
89Reasoning Ability
(i) P, Q, R, S, T, and U are six members of a group which three are males and three are females. (ii) There are two engineers, two lawyers, one teacher and one doctor in the group. (iii) Q, T, P, and R are two married couples and no person in the group has the same profession. (iv) T, a teacher with blue dress married a male Lawyer with brown dress. (v) Colour of the dresses of both the husbands and that of both the wives is the same. (vi) Two persons have blue dress, two have brown and the remaining one each has black and green. (vii) P is a male engineer and whose sister S is also an engineer. (vii) Q is a doctor.
Which of the following group of female members?
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Answer: (C) QST
Explanation
From the given statements, T is a female teacher who married a male lawyer. P is a male engineer, and his sister S is female. The two married couples are formed by Q, T, P, and R. Since T (teacher) cannot marry P (engineer), T is married to R (male lawyer), which means P is married to Q, making Q a female doctor. This identifies T, S, and Q as the three female members of the group.
90Reasoning Ability
(i) P, Q, R, S, T, and U are six members of a group which three are males and three are females. (ii) There are two engineers, two lawyers, one teacher and one doctor in the group. (iii) Q, T, P, and R are two married couples and no person in the group has the same profession. (iv) T, a teacher with blue dress married a male Lawyer with brown dress. (v) Colour of the dresses of both the husbands and that of both the wives is the same. (vi) Two persons have blue dress, two have brown and the remaining one each has black and green. (vii) P is a male engineer and whose sister S is also an engineer. (vii) Q is a doctor.
Who is wife of P?
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Answer: (D) Q
Explanation
From the given statements, T is a female teacher married to a male lawyer. Since P is an engineer and Q is a doctor, neither of them can be the lawyer married to T. Thus, R must be the male lawyer married to T. Since Q, T, P, and R constitute the two married couples, P must be married to Q. As P is a male engineer, Q is his female spouse (doctor). Therefore, Q is the wife of P.
91Reasoning Ability
(i) P, Q, R, S, T, and U are six members of a group which three are males and three are females. (ii) There are two engineers, two lawyers, one teacher and one doctor in the group. (iii) Q, T, P, and R are two married couples and no person in the group has the same profession. (iv) T, a teacher with blue dress married a male Lawyer with brown dress. (v) Colour of the dresses of both the husbands and that of both the wives is the same. (vi) Two persons have blue dress, two have brown and the remaining one each has black and green. (vii) P is a male engineer and whose sister S is also an engineer. (vii) Q is a doctor.
What is the colour of U's dress?
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Answer: (C) Black or Green
Explanation
From the given information, T is a female Teacher wearing a blue dress, married to R, a male Lawyer who wears a brown dress. P is a male Engineer who is married to Q, a female Doctor.
Since the wives share the same dress colour and T wears Blue, Q must also wear Blue. Similarly, since the husbands share the same dress colour and R wears Brown, P must also wear Brown.
This accounts for the two blue dresses (T and Q) and the two brown dresses (R and P). The remaining two members, S and U, must wear the remaining two dress colours: Black and Green. Since no specific condition differentiates the dress colours of S and U, the colour of U's dress is either Black or Green.
92Reasoning Ability
(i) P, Q, R, S, T, and U are six members of a group which three are males and three are females. (ii) There are two engineers, two lawyers, one teacher and one doctor in the group. (iii) Q, T, P, and R are two married couples and no person in the group has the same profession. (iv) T, a teacher with blue dress married a male Lawyer with brown dress. (v) Colour of the dresses of both the husbands and that of both the wives is the same. (vi) Two persons have blue dress, two have brown and the remaining one each has black and green. (vii) P is a male engineer and whose sister S is also an engineer. (vii) Q is a doctor.
Which of the following is a pair of married ladies?
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Answer: (A) QT
Explanation
Condition (iv) states that T is a teacher married to a male lawyer, making T a female wife. Condition (v) states that both husbands wear brown dresses and both wives wear blue dresses. Since P is a male engineer, he is the husband in the second couple. Condition (viii) establishes that Q is a doctor. Among the four married individuals (P, Q, R, T), since P is a male husband and T is a female wife, R must be the male lawyer married to T, and Q must be the female doctor married to P. Consequently, the two married ladies are Q and T, which forms the pair QT.
93Reasoning Ability
(i) P, Q, R, S, T, and U are six members of a group which three are males and three are females. (ii) There are two engineers, two lawyers, one teacher and one doctor in the group. (iii) Q, T, P, and R are two married couples and no person in the group has the same profession. (iv) T, a teacher with blue dress married a male Lawyer with brown dress. (v) Colour of the dresses of both the husbands and that of both the wives is the same. (vi) Two persons have blue dress, two have brown and the remaining one each has black and green. (vii) P is a male engineer and whose sister S is also an engineer. (vii) Q is a doctor.
What is the profession of R ?
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Answer: (B) Lawyer
Explanation
The group consists of six members with specific professions: two Engineers, two Lawyers, one Teacher, and one Doctor.
Based on the given statements:
P and S are the two Engineers.
Q is the Doctor.
T is the Teacher.
With four members (P, S, Q, and T) taking up the positions of the two Engineers, the Doctor, and the Teacher, the remaining two members (R and U) must occupy the remaining two positions, which are both Lawyers. Thus, R is a Lawyer.
94Reasoning Ability
In certain code language "WINDOW" is written as "SJJEKX". Then what is the code for the word "SIMPLE"?
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Answer: (D) "OJIQHF"
Explanation
The coding pattern applies alternating operations of -4 and +1 to the alphabetical positions of consecutive letters.
In WINDOW:
W (23) - 4 = 19 (S)
I (9) + 1 = 10 (J)
N (14) - 4 = 10 (J)
D (4) + 1 = 5 (E)
O (15) - 4 = 11 (K)
W (23) + 1 = 24 (X)
Applying the same alternating (-4, +1) rule to SIMPLE:
S (19) - 4 = 15 (O)
I (9) + 1 = 10 (J)
M (13) - 4 = 9 (I)
P (16) + 1 = 17 (Q)
L (12) - 4 = 8 (H)
E (5) + 1 = 6 (F)
Combining these transformed letters yields OJIQHF.
