IBPS Clerk Prelims 2021 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The phrase "a large number of" followed by a plural noun takes a plural verb. In the given sentence, the subject "a large number of vehicles" requires the plural verb "contribute" instead of the singular verb "contributes".

Explanation

In part (D), the adjective "clear" is incorrectly used following the preposition "with" and the quantifier "much". A noun is required in this context to function as the object of the preposition, so "clear" must be replaced with the noun "clarity" to make the phrase grammatically correct as "much clarity on the road ahead".

Explanation

The sentence expresses an unreal or hypothetical situation in the present, which requires the subjunctive mood. In hypothetical conditional clauses (second conditional), the verb "were" is used for all subjects, including first-person singular "I", regardless of the standard past tense rules. Therefore, "If I was a" is grammatically incorrect and should be changed to "If I were a".

Explanation

A collective noun like jury takes a singular verb when acting as a unified entity to deliver a single decision or verdict. In part B, the plural verb have is used incorrectly instead of the singular verb has. Since the jury is acting collectively as one body to give a verdict, the clause should correctly read the jury has.

Explanation

The phrase "had better" acts as a modal auxiliary verb and is always followed by a bare infinitive (the base form of the verb without "to"). Therefore, using the full infinitive "to watch" is grammatically incorrect and should be replaced with "watch" to make the sentence correct: "You had better watch the way you talk to me in the future."

Explanation

The word latter is used to refer to the second of two people, things, or options previously mentioned. When referring to time or arriving after an expected point, the correct comparative adjective is later. Therefore, was latter than is grammatically incorrect and should be replaced with was later than.

Explanation

Sentence C introduces the central topic by defining a black hole and its intense gravity that traps light. Sentence B directly explains this strong gravity, noting that matter is squeezed into a tiny space. Sentence D expands on this squeezing by stating that this compression occurs when a star dies. Sentence A connects back to the light-trapping property, explaining that because no light escapes, people cannot see black holes. Sentence E logically completes the paragraph by concluding that they are invisible and explaining how special space telescopes help locate them. The coherent sequence is CBDAE.

Explanation

The coherent arrangement of the paragraph follows the order C-B-D-A-E.

Statement C introduces the fundamental definition of a black hole and its intense gravity. Statement B elaborates on why its gravity is strong by noting that matter is squeezed into a tiny space. Statement D directly connects to statement B through the link phrase "This compression," explaining that this squeezing of matter happens when a star is dying. Statements A and E then address the consequence of light being trapped, explaining invisibility and how space telescopes can detect black holes. Therefore, the statement regarding compression during a star's death forms the third sentence.

Explanation

Sentence (C) serves as the primary introductory statement of the paragraph by defining what a black hole is and introducing its fundamental characteristic—that gravity prevents light from escaping. The remaining sentences build logically upon this definition: sentence (B) explains the cause of this strong gravity (matter squeezed into a tiny space), sentence (D) clarifies when this compression occurs (when a star is dying), sentence (A) expands on the consequence of light being unable to escape, and sentence (E) concludes by explaining how invisible black holes are detected. Therefore, sentence (C) naturally begins the contextually meaningful sequence.

Explanation

To construct a coherent paragraph, the sentences follow a logical narrative flow:

Sentence C introduces the topic by defining a black hole as a place with immense gravity where light cannot escape. Sentence B explains why the gravity is so strong (matter squeezed into a tiny space). Sentence D builds directly on this by specifying that this compression occurs when a star is dying. Sentence A connects back to light being trapped, explaining why people cannot see black holes. Sentence E logically concludes the paragraph by highlighting their invisibility and describing how special space telescopes detect them.

Thus, the sequence is C-B-D-A-E, making E the last sentence.

Explanation

The logical sequence of the paragraph is C-B-D-A-E.

Sentence C introduces the concept of a black hole where gravity prevents light from escaping. Sentence B explains why the gravity is strong by describing how matter is squeezed into a tiny space. Sentence D connects directly to B by detailing how "this compression" occurs when a star dies. Sentence A then acts as the fourth sentence, logically concluding the premise about trapped light ("And because no light can get out, people can't see black holes"). Sentence E finishes the flow by addressing how these invisible objects are located using space telescopes. Hence, sentence A is the fourth sentence in the correct arrangement.

Explanation

According to the passage, orientation programs initiate the socialization process to help new employees fit into their new surroundings and organization. Assisting newcomers to acclimate to their work environment is critical because helping them fit into their job and organization directly influences job satisfaction, organizational commitment, and employee retention.

Explanation

The passage contrasts orientation programs with training by stating that orientation programs typically occur during a period of high anxiety and stress for newcomers, whereas training takes place once these potentially harmful feelings have been resolved in a calmer, tranquil environment. Furthermore, training proceeds after the detrimental feelings and anxiety associated with the orientation phase have been properly addressed. Therefore, both the statement describing orientation as occurring during a stressful period while training occurs in a peaceful setting, and the statement noting that training continues after orientation-related detrimental thoughts are resolved, correctly reflect the distinction made by the author.

Explanation

All three statements are directly supported by the passage. Statement (i) is confirmed by the text stating that job acceptance by potential candidates is influenced by how well they believe they will fit into the company. Statement (ii) is explicitly stated where the text notes that assessing the training and development needs of new employees consumes time and money. Statement (iii) aligns with the text where providing employees with the right tools to perform and putting them in a position to succeed are cited as recognized goals of orientation programs. Therefore, statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are all correct based on the provided passage.

Explanation

According to the passage, assessing training needs consumes time and money, but it sends a clear message that the organization is committed to the development of its employees and provides them with the right tools to perform and succeed in their roles. Both of these points are explicitly cited in the text as recognized goals of new employee orientation programs that justify the investment.

Explanation

In the given context, the passage discusses the relationship between technical skills training and how well a new employee fits into their work environment. The word analogy denotes a similarity, parallel, or corresponding relationship between two concepts or situations. Using analogy in blank (I) accurately reflects that technical training shares a direct structural parallel and correspondence with an employee's overall fit and adaptation within their organizational environment.

Explanation

All the given statements accurately reflect the facts stated in the passage. The text explicitly confirms that Japanese firms hire almost entirely at the entry level and take six months to three years for the socialization process, making their approach much longer than that of Western companies. Furthermore, the passage notes that Western firms expect new employees to perform their roles immediately after completing the required HR paperwork. Because every statement provided is factually accurate based on the text, none of them are incorrect.

Explanation

In the context of the passage, stale refers to a period that is dull, lifeless, uninspiring, or stagnant. The word chipper means cheerful, lively, upbeat, and full of positive energy, which serves as the direct antonym, contrasting the dreary and unmotivating environment implied by stale. Options like rancid are synonymous with stale in the sense of food, while noxious and virulent mean harmful or poisonous, making chipper the only suitable antonym.

Explanation

In the context of the passage, run refers to performing, carrying out, or managing job functions to achieve professional success. Execute means to carry out, perform, or put into effect a task, duty, or role. Therefore, execute functions as the precise synonym in this context, where the passage emphasizes preparing new employees to effectively perform and fulfill their responsibilities on the job.

Explanation

The word enviroments is misspelled. The correct spelling is environments, which includes the letter n before the m, derived from the root word environment.

Explanation

All four highlighted words in the given sentence are correctly spelled and grammatically appropriate for their respective contexts. "Constitution" is properly capitalized as a proper noun referring to the Indian Constitution. "Breach" is used accurately as a noun meaning a violation. "Fundamental" correctly functions as an adjective modifying "rights", and "judicially" is the correct adverbial form modifying the passive verb "be decided". Because every highlighted word is spelled and used correctly, the sentence contains no error.

Explanation

The word stending is misspelled. The correct spelling is standing, which forms the standard English idiomatic phrase standing invitation, referring to an invitation that remains open or valid indefinitely without needing to be renewed each time.

Explanation

All four highlighted words in the sentence are spelled correctly and used appropriately in context. Consent functions correctly as a verb agreeing with the plural subject parties, court is used as a standard noun, revoke maintains proper parallel structure alongside the verbs make and vary, and attendance is the correct noun form following the prepositional phrase need for. Since the sentence is entirely free of grammatical or spelling errors, No Error is the correct choice.

Explanation

All four highlighted words are correctly spelled and used in appropriate grammatical contexts. The past tense verb "delivered" correctly fits the narrative, "opinion" functions properly as the direct object noun, the adverb "bluntly" correctly modifies "delivered" in the comparative structure, and the adjective "candid" properly completes the predicate after the linking verb "been". Since all four words are grammatically accurate and free of spelling errors, the sentence is entirely correct.

Explanation

The word "suts" is misspelled in the sentence. The correct spelling is "suits", which means to enhance the appearance of or be appropriate for someone.

Explanation

Arranging the fragments in the order BDAC forms a complete, grammatically correct sentence: "When the Right to Education Act was promulgated over a decade ago it seemed like a breakthrough."

Fragment B introduces the subject, which connects directly to the passive verb phrase in fragment D ("was promulgated over a"). Fragment D completes the temporal expression when joined with fragment A ("over a decade ago") while introducing the main subject-verb phrase ("it seemed"). Finally, fragment C ("like a breakthrough") completes the predicate as a complement to "seemed".

Explanation

Segment (D) establishes the primary subject ("agriculture is a sector that today"), which flows directly into segment (A) to complete the main relative clause ("demands even greater efficiency"). Segment (C) introduces the logical consequence ("thus it relies on the use"), and segment (B) finishes the prepositional phrase ("of agriculture technologies."). Arranged in the sequence DACB, the fragments form a grammatically correct and coherent sentence: "Agriculture is a sector that today demands even greater efficiency thus it relies on the use of agriculture technologies."

Explanation

The fragment describing the noun phrase subject, monitoring of student, logically connects with behavior often extends to complete the core subject-verb structure, monitoring of student behavior often extends. This is followed by the prepositional phrase beyond schoolwork and, which links directly to normal school hours to complete the object of the preposition. Arranging the fragments in the sequence ACBD forms a grammatically complete and coherent sentence: Monitoring of student behavior often extends beyond schoolwork and normal school hours.

Explanation

The subject of the sentence consists of the compound noun phrase "researchers and philosophers" (D), followed by the present perfect verb phrase "have explored in great detail" (C). The transitive verb "explored" takes the direct object "the emotional dramas" (B), which is further modified by the prepositional phrase "of love and family" (A). Arranging the fragments in this order forms the grammatically sound and meaningful sentence: "Researchers and philosophers have explored in great detail the emotional dramas of love and family."

Explanation

Fragment (B) "poverty is said" introduces the main subject and verb phrase, which links seamlessly to fragment (D) "to exist when people" to complete the passive construction "said to exist" and introduce the conditional clause. This is followed by fragment (A) "lack the means to satisfy", providing the predicate for "people", and concludes with fragment (C) "their basic needs", which serves as the object of the infinitive verb "satisfy". Arranging the fragments in the sequence BDAC yields the grammatically complete and coherent sentence: "Poverty is said to exist when people lack the means to satisfy their basic needs."

Explanation

Sum of present ages of A and B = 18 × 2 = 36 years.

Six years hence, the sum of their ages will be 36 + (2 × 6) = 48 years.

At that time, A's age will be twice B's age, making the ratio of their ages 2 : 1.

B's age after 6 years = 48 × (1 / 3) = 16 years. B's present age = 16 - 6 = 10 years. A's present age = 36 - 10 = 26 years.

Difference between present ages of A and B = 26 - 10 = 16 years.

Explanation

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) / 100

Substituting the given values: 5000 = (X × 8 × 5) / 100 5000 = 0.40 × X X = 12500 Rs.

The effective compound interest rate for 2 years at 8% per annum compounded annually is R + R + (R × R) / 100 = 8 + 8 + (8 × 8) / 100 = 16.64%.

Compound Interest = X × 16.64% = 12500 × 0.1664 = 2080 Rs.

Explanation

Since distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time (S ∝ 1/T).

When the journey time is shortened by 3/5th, the new time becomes: T₂ = (1 - 3/5) × T₁ = (2/5) × T₁

Because speed and time are inversely proportional, the new speed required is: S₂ = (5/2) × S₁ = 2.5 × S₁

The increase in speed is: ΔS = S₂ - S₁ = 2.5 S₁ - S₁ = 1.5 S₁

Percentage increase in speed = (1.5 S₁ / S₁) × 100% = 150%.

Explanation

Let the total tank capacity be the LCM of 5 and 4, which is 20 units.

Efficiency of pipe A = 20 / 5 = 4 units/hour Efficiency of pipe B = 20 / 4 = 5 units/hour Combined efficiency of pipes A and B = 4 + 5 = 9 units/hour

Given the efficiency ratio (A + B) : C = 9 : 2, the efficiency of pipe C is 2 units/hour.

Time taken by pipe C alone = Total capacity / Efficiency of C = 20 / 2 = 10 hours.

Explanation

Let C's efficiency be 10 units/day. A is 40% more efficient than C, so A = 14 units/day, and B is 50% more efficient than A, so B = 21 units/day. A and C together do 24 units/day and finish in 45 days, so the total work is 24 x 45 = 1080 units. A, B and C together do 14 + 21 + 10 = 45 units/day, so they need 1080 / 45 = 24 days.

Explanation

Given 45% of X = 60% of Y, simplifying the ratio yields: 3X = 4Y X = (4/3)Y

From the average condition: (X + Y) / 2 = X - 20 X + Y = 2X - 40 X - Y = 40

Substituting X = (4/3)Y into this equation: (4/3)Y - Y = 40 (1/3)Y = 40 Y = 120

Therefore, 60% of Y = 0.60 × 120 = 72.

Explanation

Profit share ratio is determined by the formula: Profit Share Ratio = (Investment₁ × Time₁) : (Investment₂ × Time₂).

Given total profit = Rs.3600 and P's profit share = Rs.1600, Q's profit share = 3600 - 1600 = Rs.2000. Thus, Profit of P : Profit of Q = 1600 : 2000 = 4 : 5.

Let Q's investment be Q, so P's investment is (6400 - Q).

Applying the ratio formula: [(6400 - Q) × 12] / [Q × 9] = 4 / 5

Simplifying: [(6400 - Q) × 4] / [3Q] = 4 / 5 (6400 - Q) / 3Q = 1 / 5 5 × (6400 - Q) = 3Q 32000 - 5Q = 3Q 8Q = 32000 Q = 4000

Thus, Q's investment is Rs.4000.

Explanation

64 litres in the ratio 9:7 gives milk = 36 and water = 28. For milk to be 75% more than water, milk must be 28 x 1.75 = 49, so x = 49 - 36 = 13.

Explanation

Two successive discounts of 15% and 20% leave 0.85 x 0.8 = 0.68 of the marked price, so the total discount is 0.32 x MP = 192, giving MP = 600 and SP = 408. With 2% profit, CP = 408/1.02 = Rs. 400.

Explanation

Let the initial number of people in the group be n.

Initial total weight = 36n kg.

When a student weighing 48 kg leaves, the remaining n - 1 members have a new total weight of (36n - 48) kg, and the new average decreases to 35 kg.

(36n - 48) / (n - 1) = 35 36n - 48 = 35n - 35 n = 13

Shortcut method using deviation: The student who left weighed 48 - 36 = 12 kg more than the initial average. This 12 kg deficit reduces the average of the remaining (n - 1) members by 1 kg each.

n - 1 = 12 n = 13

Explanation

Total distance to be covered when the two trains cross each other is the sum of their lengths = 720 + 600 = 1320 meters.

Since they run in opposite directions, the relative speed is the sum of their speeds: Relative speed = Total distance / Time = 1320 / 24 = 55 m/s.

Let the speed of train A be x m/s. Since the speed of train B is 20% more, speed of train B = 1.2x m/s.

Sum of relative speeds: x + 1.2x = 55 2.2x = 55 x = 25 m/s

Speed of train B = 1.2 × 25 = 30 m/s.

Converting from m/s to km/hr: Speed of train B = 30 × (18 / 5) = 108 km/hr.

Explanation

Perimeter of a rectangle is given by P = 2(L + B), where L is the length and B is the breadth. Given L = 25 meters and P = 4.5B:

2(25 + B) = 4.5B 50 + 2B = 4.5B 2.5B = 50 B = 20 meters

Area of the rectangle = L × B = 25 × 20 = 500 square meters.

Explanation

Let the earlier income be 16x and earlier savings be 3x. Earlier expenditure = Earlier income − Earlier savings = 16x − 3x = 13x.

New savings after a ⅓ increase = 3x × (1 + ⅓) = 4x. New expenditure after a ½ increase = 13x × (1 + ½) = 39x/2 = 19.5x.

New income = New savings + New expenditure = 4x + 19.5x = 23.5x = 47x/2.

Ratio of new income to earlier income = (47x/2) ÷ 16x = 47 : 32.

Explanation

Simple Interest formula is SI = (P × R × T) / 100.

Given that the simple interest received after 3 years (T = 3) is 3/20 of the principal P: SI = (3 / 20) × P

Substituting these into the formula: (3 / 20) × P = (P × R × 3) / 100

Dividing both sides by P: 3 / 20 = 3R / 100

Solving for R: R = (3 / 20) × (100 / 3) = 5%

Explanation

Downstream speed = 8 km/hr, upstream = 4 km/hr. D/4 - D/8 = 4 gives D = 32 km. In still water the time is 32/6 = 5 hours 20 minutes.

Explanation

The differences between consecutive terms follow the pattern of squares of numbers increasing by 4 (1, 5, 9, 13, 17, 21):

61 − 60 = 1² = 1 86 − 61 = 5² = 25 167 − 86 = 9² = 81 336 − 167 = 13² = 169

The next difference must be 17² = 289, giving 336 + 289 = 625 instead of 627.

Checking the final term with difference 21² = 441: 625 + 441 = 1066.

Explanation

The pattern followed in the given series multiplies each term by an increasing integer (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6) and adds 0.5 to obtain the next term:

1 × 1 + 0.5 = 1.5 1.5 × 2 + 0.5 = 3.5 3.5 × 3 + 0.5 = 11 11 × 4 + 0.5 = 44.5 44.5 × 5 + 0.5 = 223 223 × 6 + 0.5 = 1338.5

In the given series, 224 is present instead of 223, making 224 the incorrect number.

Explanation

The pattern followed in the series is multiplying each term by consecutive integers starting from 2:

4 × 2 = 8 8 × 3 = 24 24 × 4 = 96 96 × 5 = 480 480 × 6 = 2880 2880 × 7 = 20160

Following this rule, 96 × 5 gives 480. Therefore, 485 is the wrong number in the sequence and should be replaced by 480.

Explanation

The pattern in the given series is based on adding consecutive terms that increase by 3 at each step:

56 + 20 = 76 76 + 23 = 99 99 + 26 = 125 125 + 29 = 154 154 + 32 = 186 186 + 35 = 221

The sequence of differences forms an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 3: 20, 23, 26, 29, 32, 35. Following this rule, the term after 186 should be 186 + 35 = 221. Thus, 223 is the incorrect number in the sequence.

Explanation

The sequence follows an alternating pattern of multiplying by 6 and dividing by 3: 15 × 6 = 90 90 ÷ 3 = 30 30 × 6 = 180 180 ÷ 3 = 60 60 × 6 = 360 360 ÷ 3 = 120

Alternatively, looking at the alternate terms: Odd positions: 15, 30, 60, 120 (each term is multiplied by 2) Even positions: 90, 180, 360 (each term is multiplied by 2)

Following both logic patterns, the term at the 6th position should be 360 instead of 480, making 480 the incorrect term in the sequence.

Explanation

Using percentage equivalence, 36% of 250 is equal to 250% of 36, which yields 2.5 × 36 = 90.

Next, applying the order of operations, 26 ÷ 2 gives 13.

Substituting these values back into the equation: 90 + 13 × ? = 207

Subtract 90 from both sides: 13 × ? = 207 - 90 13 × ? = 117

Divide by 13: ? = 117 ÷ 13 = 9

Explanation

Evaluate each term in the given equation:

√3600 % of 150 = 60% of 150 = (60 ÷ 100) × 150 = 90

3/5 of 360 = (3 × 360) ÷ 5 = 216

Substitute these values back into the equation: 90 + 216 - ? = 210 306 - ? = 210 ? = 306 - 210 = 96

Explanation

Applying the BODMAS rule to solve the equation:

First, perform the division: 195 ÷ 13 = 15

Next, perform the multiplication: 120 × 15 = 1800

Calculate the square on the right-hand side: 16² = 256

Now, substitute these values into the equation: 1800 - ? = 256 ? = 1800 - 256 ? = 1544

Explanation

First, sum the mixed fractions: 4⅔ + 5⅙ = 14/3 + 31/6 = (28 + 31) / 6 = 59/6

Next, calculate the percentage portion: 45% of 240 = (45/100) × 240 = 108

Now, multiply the two results together: ? = (59/6) × 108 = 59 × 18 = 1062

Explanation

Simplify the given expression step-by-step:

(1/8) × [(256 × 2) / (8 × 4)] + ?³ = 1730

First, evaluate the fraction inside the brackets: (256 × 2) / (8 × 4) = 512 / 32 = 16

Substitute this back into the equation: (1/8) × 16 + ?³ = 1730 2 + ?³ = 1730 ?³ = 1730 - 2 ?³ = 1728 ? = ∛1728 = 12

Explanation

First, evaluate the square root in the expression: √361 = 19

Substitute this value into the given equation: (6 × 19) × 2.5 = ? + 125 114 × 2.5 = ? + 125 285 = ? + 125

Now, isolate the missing value (?): ? = 285 - 125 ? = 160

Explanation

Evaluate each term in the equation step by step:

240 × 2.5 = 600 65 × (2 ÷ 13) = 5 × 2 = 10 √225 = 15

Substitute these values back into the equation: 600 + 10 = ?² - 15 610 = ?² - 15 ?² = 610 + 15 ?² = 625 ? = √625 = 25

Explanation

Isolate the unknown value (?) by simplifying the numerical terms on the left-hand side of the equation:

756 + 432 - 361 = 1188 - 361 = 827

Substitute this simplified total back into the original equation: 827 + ? = 990

Subtract 827 from 990 to find the missing value: ? = 990 - 827 = 163

Explanation

Simplify the fraction and the square root in the given equation:

(115 × 17 × 3) / (23 × 51) + ?³ = √169

Since 17 × 3 = 51, the fraction reduces to 115 / 23 = 5. The right-hand side √169 equals 13.

Substituting these values into the equation gives: 5 + ?³ = 13 ?³ = 13 - 5 = 8 ? = ∛8 = 2

Explanation

Simplify the expression under the cube root using the standard order of operations.

First, evaluate the exponential terms and multiplication: 1³ = 1 3² = 9 9 × 3² = 9 × 9 = 81

Next, simplify the terms inside the radical: 432 − 1 + 81 = 512

Finally, compute the cube root of the result: ∛512 = 8, because 8³ = 512.

Explanation

Total functions organized in all three halls in June = 45 + 40 + 30 = 115.

Total functions organized in Hall B and C together in May = 56 + 64 = 120.

Percentage less = [(120 − 115) / 120] × 100 = (5 / 120) × 100 ≈ 4.17%, which is approximately 4%.

Explanation

Total number of functions organized by Hall A and Hall B in July = 36 + 42 = 78.

Average number of functions organized by Hall A and Hall B in April = (48 + 72) ÷ 2 = 120 ÷ 2 = 60.

Required difference = 78 − 60 = 18.

Explanation

From the given table, the number of functions organized by Hall A in May is 60, and by Hall C in July is 80.

Number of functions organized by Hall A in August = 60 × (1 + 0.20) = 60 × 1.2 = 72

Number of functions organized by Hall C in August = 80 × (1 + 0.40) = 80 × 1.4 = 112

Total functions organized by Hall A and Hall C together in August = 72 + 112 = 184

Explanation

Total functions organized by halls A and C together in June = 45 + 30 = 75.

Total functions organized by halls B and C together in April = 72 + 75 = 147.

Required ratio = 75 : 147 = 25 : 49.

Explanation

To find the required percentage, calculate the total functions organized by Hall A and B together in May: 60 + 56 = 116

Functions organized by Hall C in July = 80

Percentage more = [(Functions in A and B in May - Functions in C in July) / Functions in C in July] × 100 Percentage more = [(116 - 80) / 80] × 100 = (36 / 80) × 100 = 45%

Explanation

Numbering seven positions 1 through 7 in clockwise order around the table, place K at position 1. Facing the center, left corresponds to the clockwise direction and right to the counter-clockwise direction.

Since F sits 4th to the left of K, F is at position 5. Two persons sit between G and K, which places G at position 4. B sits immediate left of D, requiring D and B to occupy consecutive clockwise positions. Since B cannot be an immediate neighbor of G, positions 6 and 7 must be occupied by D and B respectively.

The remaining positions 2 and 3 are reserved for S and L. Since L does not sit to the immediate right of S, S is at position 2 and L is at position 3.

To find who sits 3rd to the right of S at position 2, move 3 steps in the counter-clockwise direction: 1st right is position 1 (K), 2nd right is position 7 (B), and 3rd right is position 6, which is occupied by D.

Explanation

Fixing seven positions around the circular table numbered 1 to 7 in clockwise direction (where clockwise represents left for persons facing the center):

Placing K at position 1, F sits 4th to the left of K at position 5.

With two persons between G and K, G sits at position 4.

B sits immediate left of D, and B is not an immediate neighbor of G (position 4). This forces D at position 6 and B at position 7.

The remaining spots 2 and 3 are occupied by S and L. Since L cannot sit to the immediate right (counter-clockwise) of S, S sits at position 2 and L at position 3.

The final clockwise arrangement is K (1), S (2), L (3), G (4), F (5), D (6), B (7).

Counting left (clockwise) from F at position 5 to L at position 3, the persons sitting in between are D, B, K, and S. Thus, there are 4 persons between F and L.

Explanation

In a circular arrangement of seven persons facing the center, clockwise direction corresponds to the left and counter-clockwise direction corresponds to the right.

Placing K at position 1, F sits 4th to the left at position 5. Two persons sit between G and K, placing G at position 4. Since B sits to the immediate left of D and B cannot be an immediate neighbor of G, D and B must occupy positions 6 and 7 respectively.

The remaining empty positions 2 and 3 must be filled by S and L. Since L does not sit to the immediate right of S, S occupies position 2 and L occupies position 3.

The clockwise arrangement from position 1 to 7 is K, S, L, G, F, D, B. Facing the center, the person sitting to the immediate right (counter-clockwise) of G is L.

Explanation

Arranging the seven persons clockwise around the circular table facing the center starting from K gives: K, S, L, G, F, D, B.

Placing F 4th to the left of K positions F three places clockwise from K. Placing G two seats away from K puts G between L and F. Positioning D and B adjacently such that B sits to the immediate left (clockwise) of D and away from G places D next to F and B next to K. Assigning the remaining spots to S and L ensures L is not to the immediate right of S.

Counting to the left (clockwise) of L, exactly 1 person (G) sits between L and F. Counting to the left (clockwise) of B, exactly 1 person (K) sits between S and B. Therefore, B correctly completes the sentence.

Explanation

Assign the alphabetical position to each letter in the word OBLIQUE: O = 15, B = 2, L = 12, I = 9, Q = 17, U = 21, and E = 5.

A pair of letters has the same number of letters between them in the word as in the alphabetical series if the difference in their positions within the word equals the absolute difference between their alphabetical values.

Checking all combinations: From O (position 1): O-B (position diff 1, alphabet diff 13), O-L (2 vs 3), O-I (3 vs 6), O-Q (4 vs 2), O-U (5 vs 6), O-E (6 vs 10). From B (position 2): B-L (1 vs 10), B-I (2 vs 7), B-Q (3 vs 15), B-U (4 vs 19), B-E (5 vs 3). From L (position 3): L-I (1 vs 3), L-Q (2 vs 5), L-U (3 vs 9), L-E (4 vs 7). From I (position 4): I-Q (1 vs 8), I-U (2 vs 12), I-E (3 vs 4). From Q (position 5): Q-U (1 vs 4), Q-E (2 vs 12). From U (position 6): U-E (1 vs 16).

No pair of letters satisfies the condition in either the forward or backward direction.

Explanation

From the statement "All Orange is Papaya", converting a universal affirmative statement (All A is B) yields a particular affirmative statement (Some B is A). Therefore, "Some Papaya is Orange" logically follows, making Conclusion II valid.

Conversely, the statement "All Papaya are Mango" converts to "Some Mango are Papaya", not "All Mango are Papaya". Thus, Conclusion I does not logically follow. Hence, only conclusion II follows.

Explanation

Since all Driver are contained within Road, and no Road is Truck, there is a complete separation between Truck and both Road and Driver. Consequently, no Truck can be Road, which makes Conclusion I false. Similarly, because Truck and Driver have no overlap whatsoever, it is impossible for any Truck to be a Driver, rendering the possibility in Conclusion II invalid. Neither conclusion logically follows from the given statements.

Explanation

'Only a few Rabbit are Duck' and 'Only a few Duck are Goat' are both particular statements, so no definite link between Rabbit and Goat follows - conclusion I fails. The first statement also definitely establishes that some Rabbit are not Duck, which rules out 'all Rabbit being Duck' as a possibility - conclusion II fails. Neither conclusion follows.

Explanation

Since two persons sit to the left of M, M is at position 3 from the left end. M sits fourth to the left of O, placing O at position 7. Two persons sit between M and Q, placing Q at position 6. R sits second to the left of Q, putting R at position 4. S sits fourth to the right of O, placing S at position 11. P sits to the right of S, and at most five persons sit between Q at position 6 and P, which fixes P at position 12. Finally, eight persons sit between P and G, who sits at one of the extreme ends. Since the left end is already fixed at position 1, G must sit to the right of P at position 12 + 8 + 1 = 21, making the total number of persons in the row 21.

Explanation

Placing the persons from left to right based on the given conditions:

Since only two persons sit to the left of M, M occupies position 3 from the left. M sits fourth to the left of O, which places O at position 7 (3 + 4 = 7). Only two persons sit between M and Q. Since there are only two positions available to the left of M, Q must sit to the right of M, placing Q at position 6 (3 + 3 = 6).

Since Q is at position 6 and O is at position 7, they are sitting directly adjacent to each other. Consequently, zero persons sit between O and Q.

Explanation

Since only two persons sit to the left of M, M is at position 3 from the left end. M sits fourth to the left of O, placing O at position 7. Two persons sit between M and Q, so Q is at position 6. R sits second to the left of Q, putting R at position 4.

S sits fourth to the right of O, placing S at position 11. P sits to the right of S (position 12 or further right). Since at most five persons sit between Q (position 6) and P, P must be at position 12 so that exactly five persons (positions 7 through 11) sit between Q and P.

With P at position 12, the person sitting 5th to the left of P is at position 12 - 5 = 7, which is occupied by O.

Explanation

The code follows an alternating pattern where letters at odd positions are shifted forward by 1 (+1) and letters at even positions are shifted backward by 1 (-1).

In CIRCLE: C (+1) = D, I (-1) = H, R (+1) = S, C (-1) = B, L (+1) = M, E (-1) = D.

Applying the same (+1, -1, +1, -1, +1, -1) pattern to PUBLIC gives: P (+1) = Q, U (-1) = T, B (+1) = C, L (-1) = K, I (+1) = J, C (-1) = B.

Combining these letters yields QTCKJB.

Explanation

The given months in order from oldest to youngest are January (31 days), March (31 days), April (30 days), May (31 days), June (30 days), July (31 days), and August (31 days).

Q was born in a month with an even number of days (April or June). Placing Q in June places S in March, since two persons were born between S and Q.

Since V is younger than S and there are more than two persons between R and V, V is placed in April and R is placed in August (with May, June, and July between them).

U is just older than R and born in a month with an odd number of days, so U is placed in July (31 days).

This leaves January and May for P and T. Since P is older than T, P is placed in January and T in May, which satisfies the condition that T was not born in June.

The complete month-wise arrangement from oldest to youngest is: January: P March: S April: V May: T June: Q July: U August: R

P was born in January and is the oldest person.

Explanation

The seven months in chronological order are January (31 days), March (31 days), April (30 days), May (31 days), June (30 days), July (31 days), and August (31 days).

Q is born in a month with an even number of days (30 days) and two persons are born between S and Q. Placing Q in June and S in March satisfies this condition. V is younger than S, placing V in April. This allows more than two persons (May, June, July) between V and R, placing R in August. U is just older than R and not born in an even-day month, so U is born in July (31 days). P is older than T, and T was not born in June, placing P in January and T in May.

The final chronological order from oldest to youngest is: January: P March: S April: V May: T June: Q July: U August: R

Since T is born in May, the persons younger than T are Q (June), U (July), and R (August), making a total of three persons.

Explanation

The seven months in chronological order are January (31 days), March (31 days), April (30 days), May (31 days), June (30 days), July (31 days), and August (31 days). Q is born in a 30-day month (April or June). Placing Q in June means S is in March, leaving two persons between them. Since U is born immediately before R in a 31-day month, U is in July and R is in August. V is younger than S and has more than two persons between V and R, which uniquely places V in April. The remaining persons P and T fill January and May respectively, as P is older than T and T was not born in June.

Explanation

Arranging the months chronologically gives January (31 days), March (31 days), April (30 days), May (31 days), June (30 days), July (31 days), and August (31 days).

Since Q is born in an even-day month and two persons are born between S and Q, and V is younger than S with more than two persons between R and V, the chronological order of birth from January to August is: January: P March: S April: V May: T June: Q July: U August: R

Based on this arrangement, S was born in March and Q was born in June. Thus, Q is younger than S, making the statement that Q is older than S false.

Explanation

The letter that is 4th to the left of the 11th letter from the right end is the (11 + 4) = 15th letter from the right end in the reversed series.

In a reversed sequence, the 15th letter from the right end corresponds directly to the 15th letter from the left end in the original sequence.

Counting 15 positions from the left in the original series: 1-Q, 2-R, 3-D, 4-S, 5-T, 6-W, 7-C, 8-K, 9-G, 10-U, 11-V, 12-E, 13-J, 14-Z, 15-H.

The 15th letter is H.

Explanation

Looking at the positions of the letters in the given sequence, each term consists of three letters at positions n, n + 2, and n + 1:

RSD corresponds to positions 2, 4, 3 (n = 2) WKC corresponds to positions 6, 8, 7 (n = 6) VJE corresponds to positions 11, 13, 12 (n = 11)

The starting position n increases as 2, 6, 11, with differences of +4 and +5. Following this pattern (+6), the next starting position is 11 + 6 = 17.

For n = 17: Position 17 is X Position 17 + 2 = 19 is A Position 17 + 1 = 18 is Y

Combining these gives XAY.

Explanation

To find a letter positioned to the right of a given position from the left end, add the two position values:

Position from left end = 13 + 6 = 19th letter from the left end.

Counting from the left end of the given sequence: 1st to 5th: Q, R, D, S, T 6th to 10th: W, C, K, G, U 11th to 15th: V, E, J, Z, H 16th to 19th: I, X, Y, A

The 19th letter from the left end is A.

Explanation

To find the consonants that are immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a vowel, we search for the pattern Consonant-Consonant-Vowel in the given letter sequence.

Examining the letters preceding each vowel in the sequence:

Before U: K G U forms Consonant-Consonant-Vowel, where G is preceded by consonant K and followed by vowel U. Before I: Z H I forms Consonant-Consonant-Vowel, where H is preceded by consonant Z and followed by vowel I. Before A: X Y A forms Consonant-Consonant-Vowel, where Y is preceded by consonant X and followed by vowel A.

The other vowels in the sequence, E (in U V E) and O (in A N O), are preceded by a vowel rather than a consonant, so they do not fit the required pattern.

Thus, there are exactly three such consonants: G, H, and Y.

Explanation

Moving 10 places to the left of the 8th element from the right end is equivalent to finding the (10 + 8) = 18th element from the right end.

After eliminating all vowels (A, E, I, O, U) from the given 26-letter sequence, 21 consonants remain: Q, R, D, S, T, W, C, K, G, V, J, Z, H, X, Y, N, F, M, P, B, L

Position from the left end = Total consonants - Position from right + 1 = 21 - 18 + 1 = 4th consonant from the left.

Counting from the left, the first four consonants are Q (1st), R (2nd), D (3rd), and S (4th). Thus, the required element is S.

Explanation

Solving the four-floor, two-flat (P west / Q east) puzzle places H as the person satisfying the asked condition.

Explanation

To solve the floor-and-flat puzzle, we map the 4 floors and 2 flats (Flat P in the West, Flat Q in the East) as follows:

Floor 4: Flat P = A, Flat Q = H Floor 3: Flat P = F, Flat Q = D Floor 2: Flat P = B, Flat Q = E Floor 1: Flat P = G, Flat Q = C

Step-by-step arrangement: A gap of two floors between A and C in different flats, with A living above B, places A on Floor 4 (Flat P) and C on Floor 1 (Flat Q). F lives west of D, so F is in Flat P and D is in Flat Q on the same floor. Since A and D are not on the same floor, F and D occupy Floor 3 (3P = F, 3Q = D). B lives south-west of D, placing B in Flat P below Floor 3. H lives on an even floor above B in Flat Q, which places H on Floor 4 (4Q) and B on Floor 2 (2P). A gap of one floor between H and E puts E on Floor 2 (2Q). E lives north-east of G who is on an odd-numbered floor, placing G on Floor 1 (1P).

Since C resides in Flat Q of Floor 1, G lives in Flat P of Floor 1, directly to the west of C.

Explanation

Based on the given clues, the floor and flat distribution from top to bottom is:

Floor 4: Flat P is occupied by A, and Flat Q is occupied by H. Floor 3: Flat P is occupied by F, and Flat Q is occupied by D. Floor 2: Flat P is occupied by B, and Flat Q is occupied by E. Floor 1: Flat P is occupied by G, and Flat Q is occupied by C.

F lives west of D on Floor 3, placing D in Flat Q of Floor 3. A sits two floors above C in a different flat (Floor 4, Flat P and Floor 1, Flat Q respectively). G lives on an odd-numbered floor in Flat P (Floor 1, Flat P), making E reside in Flat Q on Floor 2 so that E is north-east of G and has a one-floor gap with H (Floor 4, Flat Q). B sits in Flat P on Floor 2, south-west of D. Thus, E lives in Flat Q on Floor 2, which is located directly below D's flat on Floor 3.

Explanation

Based on the given conditions, the floor and flat positions of all eight persons are determined as follows:

Floor 4: Flat P = A, Flat Q = H Floor 3: Flat P = F, Flat Q = D Floor 2: Flat P = B, Flat Q = E Floor 1: Flat P = G, Flat Q = C

Among the given options, A, B, F, and G all occupy Flat P on their respective floors, forming a group. E is the only person among them who lives in Flat Q, making E the odd one out.

Explanation

To determine the positions on the 4 floors with Flat P (West) and Flat Q (East):

Two floors gap between A and C in different flats means A is on floor 4 and C is on floor 1. Since B is below A and south-west of D, B must be in Flat P on a lower floor than D, placing A in Flat P (Floor 4, Flat P) and C in Flat Q (Floor 1, Flat Q).

F lives west of D, so F is in Flat P and D is in Flat Q on the same floor. Since A is on floor 4 and B is below D, F and D must be on floor 3 (F at 3P, D at 3Q), and B is on floor 2 (2P).

H lives on an even-numbered floor above B in a different flat, which places H on Floor 4, Flat Q (4Q).

One floor gap between H (4Q) and E places E at Floor 2, Flat Q (2Q).

E is north-east of G, who lives on an odd-numbered floor, placing G at Floor 1, Flat P (1P).

The final arrangement from Floor 4 to 1 is: Floor 4: Flat P = A, Flat Q = H Floor 3: Flat P = F, Flat Q = D Floor 2: Flat P = B, Flat Q = E Floor 1: Flat P = G, Flat Q = C

Evaluating the statements regarding F: F lives on floor 3, which is an odd-numbered floor. H (Floor 4) lives above F (Floor 3). C (Floor 1, Flat Q) lives south-east of F (Floor 3, Flat P). F (Flat P) and G (Flat P) both live in the same flat.

Since every individual statement is true, all of them are correct.

Explanation

Let point D be at the origin (0, 0).

Walking 12 km north places point G at (0, 12). Turning right (east) by 8 km gives position (8, 12). Turning left (north) by 6 km places point F at (8, 18). Turning left (west) by 10 km places point V at (-2, 18).

Point L is 18 km south of point V, so the coordinates of L are (-2, 18 - 18) = (-2, 0).

Since both D(0, 0) and L(-2, 0) lie on the x-axis, the shortest distance between D and L is |0 - (-2)| = 2 km.

Explanation

To find the shortest distance between point G and point F, consider the path traveled from G to F. From point G, Arun moves 8 km East and then turns left to walk 6 km North to reach point F.

These two perpendicular movements form the legs of a right-angled triangle with base = 8 km and height = 6 km. By applying the Pythagoras theorem, the shortest distance (hypotenuse) between G and F is:

Shortest Distance = √(8² + 6²) = √(64 + 36) = √100 = 10 km.

Explanation

Taking point D as the origin (0, 0) on a Cartesian plane where East-West represents the x-axis and North-South represents the y-axis:

Starting from D(0, 0), walking 12 km North reaches point G at (0, 12). Turning right (East) and walking 8 km brings the position to (8, 12). Turning left (North) and walking 6 km reaches point F at (8, 18). Turning left (West) and walking 10 km reaches point V at (8 - 10, 18) = (-2, 18).

Since point V has a negative x-coordinate (-2 km West) and a positive y-coordinate (+18 km North) relative to point D(0, 0), point V lies in the North-West direction with respect to point D.

Explanation

Combining the given inequality statements yields N > J ≥ H > K, which directly proves N > K. Thus, conclusion I holds true.

For conclusion II, connecting D and N gives D ≥ K < H ≤ J < N. Since the inequality symbols between D and N face opposite directions (≥ and <), no definite relationship can be established between N and D, rendering conclusion II false.

Explanation

Combining the path from L to G in the statement gives L ≥ U > B = G. Since L ≥ U and U > B, it directly follows that L > B. Substituting B = G yields L > G. This strictly proves that conclusion I (L > G) is true, while conclusion II (L = G) is false. Therefore, only conclusion I is true.

Explanation

From the given statement E > D ≤ J > V ≥ R ≥ S = F:

To evaluate Conclusion I (D > F), trace the path from D to F: D ≤ J > V ≥ R ≥ S = F. The presence of opposite inequality signs (≤ and >) between D and F prevents any definite relationship from being established, making Conclusion I false.

To evaluate Conclusion II (J ≥ D), the relation between D and J is given directly as D ≤ J, which is logically equivalent to J ≥ D. Thus, Conclusion II is strictly true.

Explanation

To evaluate Conclusion I (C < K), trace the relationship between K and C from the given chain: K > X = B ≤ S ≥ C. The path contains opposite inequality symbols (> and ≤), which means no definite relation can be established between K and C. Therefore, Conclusion I does not follow.

To evaluate Conclusion II (D ≤ S), trace the relationship between D and S from the chain: D = E > K > X = B ≤ S. This path also contains opposite inequality symbols (> and ≤), so no definite relationship exists between D and S. Therefore, Conclusion II does not follow.

Since neither conclusion can be established as true from the given statements, neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Explanation

Combining the given inequality statements:

To evaluate conclusion I (N > T), combine N ≥ G > H and H ≥ T. This gives N ≥ G > H ≥ T. Since a strict inequality '>' exists in the chain between N and T, it directly yields N > T. Thus, conclusion I is true.

To evaluate conclusion II (M > I), combine M > H and H ≥ I. This gives M > H ≥ I. The presence of the strict inequality '>' between M and H ensures that M > I. Thus, conclusion II is true.

Since both conclusions follow logically from the given statements, both conclusions I and II are true.

Explanation

EXPRESSED: vowels E,E,E become D,D,D and consonants X,P,R,S,S,D become Y,Q,S,T,T,E, giving D Y Q S D T T D E. The repeated letters are D (three times) and T (twice), i.e. Two letters repeat.