IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

According to the passage, the men of Suvaranagari were extremely lazy and avoided working in the fields. As soon as the sun rose, they would eat a hearty breakfast, gather in groups to gossip, and spend the rest of the day telling impossible stories and tall tales to one another, returning home only for lunch and dinner.

Explanation

Exhausted by managing all the household chores and field labor while the men engaged in idling and gossiping, the women of Suvarnanagari gathered to decide on a course of action. They resolved to teach the men a lesson by writing a letter of complaint to the king, knowing him to be a fair and benevolent ruler who would address their grievance.

Explanation

According to the passage, after writing and sending a letter to the king detailing their problem, many days passed without any response or arrival of help. Seeing that nothing changed and that no action had been taken on their complaint over time, the women felt neglected and began to lose hope, questioning why the ruler of a vast empire would care about the plight of a tiny village.

Explanation

According to the passage, when the men were boasting about their impossible feats to impress the stranger, the second man claimed that when he was just a day old, he could ride a horse. He stated that he rode a big horse all the way to the king's palace, where the king received him warmly and shared a delicious meal with him.

Explanation

According to the passage, the stranger fabricated a story that the king had summoned four supermen to repair a large hole in the city wall. He explained that the city walls were constructed using the largest and toughest stones, which required supernatural strength to be lifted and set into place.

Explanation

"To make a beeline for" is an established idiomatic expression that means to move swiftly and directly toward a specific destination. In the given sentence, the past tense form "made a beeline for" correctly matches the past context established by "there was" and "entered". The idiom is used accurately with its correct standard preposition "for" and appropriate indefinite article "a".

Explanation

The standard idiomatic expression is "in the nick of time", which means just in time or at the last possible moment before it is too late. In this fixed phrase, both "nick" and "time" remain in their singular forms. Therefore, "nicks of times" is grammatically incorrect and must be replaced with "nick of time".

Explanation

The idiom "on cloud nine" is a fixed English expression meaning to be extremely happy or elated. Since the phrase is used correctly in its standard form and the sentence is grammatically sound, no correction is required.

Explanation

In English grammar, a preposition like "of" must be followed by a gerund (-ing form of a verb) when a verb acts as its object. Therefore, the phrase "a habit of" requires the gerund "passing" rather than the base verb "pass". Additionally, the standard idiomatic expression meaning to shift responsibility to someone else is "passing the buck", which includes the definite article "the". Thus, "passing the buck" makes the sentence grammatically accurate and idiomatically correct.

Explanation

The idiomatic expression meaning to strain mentally or think intensely to solve a problem is "rack one's brain" or "rack one's brains." The word "rack" in this context derives from the medieval torture device, symbolizing intense effort or agony of thought. In the past tense, the correct verb form is "racked," paired with the possessive pronoun and plural noun "his brains."

Explanation

The sentence describes events that occurred in the past, established by the past perfect construction "had killed". Therefore, the main action must also be expressed in the past tense ("passed") rather than the present tense ("passes"). The phrase "passed a bill that proposed" maintains correct sequence of tenses and grammatical consistency throughout the sentence.

Explanation

The verb 'force' follows the pattern 'force someone to do something', requiring a to-infinitive object complement. Additionally, 'go on strike' is the correct standard English idiom used to express initiating or participating in a strike. Since the sentence correctly combines the object complement structure 'forced scientists and teachers' with the idiom 'to go on strike', it is grammatically correct as written and requires no correction.

Explanation

The word healthier is already in the comparative degree, making the use of more before it a double comparative, which is grammatically incorrect. Removing the redundant modifier more avoids the double comparative error while retaining the appropriate comparative degree needed to contrast exotic oils with commonly used ones. Substituting the phrase with as a healthier option makes the sentence grammatically accurate and precise.

Explanation

The phrase refers to "rural masses," which represents people, so the relative pronoun "who" must be used instead of "which." Additionally, "masses" is a plural noun, requiring the plural past tense verb "were" rather than the singular verb "was." Finally, to maintain the original intended meaning that the rural population was previously not conscious of urban luxuries but is now connected to them, the word "unaware" must be retained. Combining these grammatical rules yields "who were earlier unaware."

Explanation

absolute tense consistency is required between clauses referring to the same past timeframe. The main clause uses the past continuous tense "was adding manpower and giving salary hikes" to describe actions that occurred over the last few months. To maintain grammatical agreement across the sentence, the dependent clause describing the parallel situation must also be in the past tense. Since the subject "most industries" is plural, it takes the plural past tense verb "were", making "while most industries were" grammatically correct.

Explanation

Both assuage and alleviate mean to make an unpleasant feeling, such as guilt, pain, or suffering, less severe or intense. In the context of the sentence, Raghu is attempting to lessen, ease, or relieve his feelings of guilt after committing a crime. Therefore, both words fit the blank appropriately and maintain the intended meaning of the sentence.

Explanation

The sentence describes allocating funds to repair or restore a dilapidated temple. "Revamp" means to give new and improved form, structure, or appearance to something, while "renovate" means to restore something old or damaged to a good state of repair. Since both words fit grammatically as infinitives following "to" and express the intended meaning of restoring the structure, the pair forms a valid contextual completion.

Explanation

Both stomach and digest are used idiomatically to mean mentally processing, enduring, or accepting difficult and unpleasant information. In this sentence, Chirag found it impossible to accept or come to terms with the shocking news of his loved one's passing, making both words grammatically and contextually appropriate to fill the blank.

Explanation

Both sojourn and tarriance refer to a temporary stay, brief visit, or period of remaining in a place. In the context of the sentence, Preethika visited the speaker during her short trip or stay in Europe, making both words grammatically correct and appropriate to complete the phrase European sojourn or European tarriance meaningfully.

Explanation

Both beatify and canonize fit the contextually required meaning of conferring official religious honor upon a person for their noble contributions to humanity. In the Catholic tradition, to beatify means to declare a deceased person blessed, while to canonize means to officially declare someone a saint. Both words complete the sentence meaningfully as acts of solemn recognition and honor.

Explanation

The phrase "are subordinate factors" is grammatically flawless. It correctly uses the plural verb "are" to agree with the plural subject noun "factors", followed by the appropriate descriptive adjective "subordinate" to indicate secondary importance. The structure and syntax within this segment adhere perfectly to standard rules of subject-verb agreement and modifier placement.

Explanation

Part (B) "and make some sort" is grammatically correct. It properly uses the conjunction "and" to link parallel base-form verbs following the causative verb structure "let me", and correctly employs the standard quantifier phrase "some sort" to introduce a descriptive complement.

Explanation

The phrase "the German objection to" is grammatically sound and error-free. The noun "objection" standardly takes the preposition "to" when expressing opposition or disapproval toward an action or policy, seamlessly connecting with the subsequent object "any hindrance to immigration." Additionally, the proper adjective "German" is correctly placed to modify the noun "objection."

Explanation

The phrase "I certainly did not" is grammatically correct as the subject pronoun "I" is properly modified by the adverb "certainly" and paired with the auxiliary verb "did not".

The remaining parts of the sentence contain grammatical errors: the infinitive "to" requires the base verb "realize" rather than "realized", the phrase "one of" requires the superlative article and plural noun "the most important aspects", and the singular demonstrative "this" requires the singular noun "question".

The complete grammatically correct sentence is: "I certainly did not begin to realize one of the most important aspects of this question until I reached the land of opportunities."

Explanation

The segment "happily gifted individuals" is grammatically correct as the adverb "happily" properly modifies the adjective "gifted", which modifies the plural noun "individuals".

The remaining segments contain grammatical errors: the demonstrative pronoun "these" should be replaced with "those" to refer to people described by a relative clause, the relative pronoun "which" should be replaced with "who" to refer to human subjects, and the numerical modifier "one" requires the singular noun "aspect" instead of "aspects". Thus, this segment is the only correct part of the sentence.

Explanation

The phrase "I asked him what trade could be" is grammatically correct. In indirect speech following a past-tense reporting verb ("asked"), noun clauses introduced by question words ("what") maintain normal subject-verb word order ("trade could be") rather than inverted question order, and appropriately use the past form of the modal auxiliary verb ("could").

Explanation

Every part of the sentence before the final clause contains a distinct grammatical error:

The introductory phrase in the first part incorrectly uses the conjunction "If" instead of "As per" or "Under". The second part violates subject-verb agreement by pairing the singular subject "individual" with the plural verb "are" instead of "is". The third part improperly uses the gerund "linking" following the particle "to" instead of the standard infinitive form "to link". The fourth part uses the incorrect preposition "from" instead of "with" or "to". Because all four evaluated parts contain errors, none of them is grammatically correct.

Explanation

The phrase "were sitting on beautiful chairs and" is grammatically sound and free of errors. The plural auxiliary verb "were" correctly agrees with the plural subject "kings", forming the past continuous verb phrase "were sitting" to describe an ongoing action in the past. The conjunction "and" appropriately sets up the parallel structure required for the second action that follows.

Explanation

In the given sentence, the phrase containing the adjectives "grave and anxious" joined with the conjunction and subject "for they" contains no grammatical errors. The word "for" acts as a coordinating conjunction meaning "because," correctly introducing the reason clause that follows, while "grave and anxious" correctly function as predicate adjectives describing the subjects.

Explanation

Each of the first four segments of the sentence contains a distinct grammatical error. The preposition "on" in the phrase "on the center" is incorrect and should be "in the center." The preposition "from" in "from the palace" should be "of the palace." The plural verb "were" fails subject-verb agreement with the singular subject "splendor" and must be replaced by "was." Finally, the word "seen" is redundant and grammatically misplaced before the relative clause "that any of the guests had ever seen." Because none of these listed sentence fragments is grammatically sound, all presented sentence parts are incorrect.

Explanation

To add the given fractions, find the least common multiple (LCM) of the denominators 10, 11, and 15, which is 330.

Convert each fraction to have the common denominator of 330: 9/10 = (9 × 33) / 330 = 297/330 3/11 = (3 × 30) / 330 = 90/330 7/15 = (7 × 22) / 330 = 154/330

Summing the numerators gives: (297 + 90 + 154) / 330 = 541 / 330

Converting this improper fraction into a mixed fraction: 541 ÷ 330 = 1 with a remainder of 211, which equals 1 211/330.

Explanation

To find the value that replaces the question mark, first evaluate the cube root: ³√42875 = 35

Substitute this value into the given equation: 35 - ? = 21 ? = 35 - 21 ? = 14

The correct value that satisfies the equation is 14.

Explanation

Simplify the given expression by canceling common factors:

(57 / 67) × (32 / 171) × (45 / 128)

Since 171 = 57 × 3, reducing 57/171 gives 1/3: = (1 / 67) × 32 × (1 / 3) × (45 / 128)

Dividing 45 by 3 gives 15: = (1 / 67) × 32 × (15 / 128)

Since 128 = 32 × 4, reducing 32/128 gives 1/4: = (1 / 67) × (15 / 4)

Multiplying the remaining terms in the numerator and denominator: = 15 / (67 × 4) = 15 / 268

Explanation

To find the value of the question mark, convert the given statement into a direct mathematical product:

? = (1/4) × (1/2) × (3/4) × 52,000

Simplifying the denominators first: 4 × 2 × 4 = 32

Now divide 52,000 by 32: 52,000 ÷ 4 = 13,000 13,000 ÷ 2 = 6,500 6,500 ÷ 4 = 1,625

Finally, multiply by the remaining numerator factor: ? = 1,625 × 3 = 4,875

Explanation

First, evaluate the division: 7921 ÷ 178 = 44.5.

Substituting this into the given equation: 44.5 - 5.5 = √? 39 = √?

Squaring both sides to solve for ?: ? = 39² = 1521

Explanation

First, calculate 38% of 4500: (38 ÷ 100) × 4500 = 38 × 45 = 1710

Substitute this into the given equation: 1710 - 25% of ? = 1640

Rearranging the terms: 25% of ? = 1710 - 1640 25% of ? = 70

Since 25% is equal to ¼: ¼ × ? = 70 ? = 70 × 4 = 280

Explanation

First, find the square root of 2704: √2704 = 52

Next, perform the subtraction inside the parentheses: 5863 - 52 = 5811

Finally, multiply by 0.5 (or divide by 2): 5811 × 0.5 = 2905.5

Explanation

Let the missing number be x.

x² + 15² - 33² = 97 x² + 225 - 1089 = 97 x² - 864 = 97 x² = 97 + 864 = 961 x = √961 = 31

The value that correctly replaces the question mark is 31.

Explanation

Combine the two values being subtracted from 25639:

5252 + 3232 = 8484

Now, subtract this total from the initial number:

25639 - 8484 = 17155

The value that replaces the question mark is 17155.

Explanation

To evaluate the expression, solve for ? using basic arithmetic operations:

283 × 56 + 252 = 20 × ?

First, calculate the product on the left side: 283 × 56 = 15848

Next, add 252: 15848 + 252 = 16100

Finally, divide by 20 to isolate ?: ? = 16100 ÷ 20 = 805

Explanation

Rounding each decimal number to its nearest integer gives:

105.003 ≈ 105 307.993 ≈ 308 215.630 ≈ 216

Summing these approximate values: 105 + 308 + 216 = 629

The value closest to 629 is 630.

Explanation

Approximating 5223 to 5220 simplifies the division:

5220 ÷ 36 = 145

Multiplying 145 by 0.93 gives:

145 × 0.93 = 134.85

Rounding 134.85 to the nearest whole number yields 135.

Explanation

To calculate the approximate value of 635 × 455 ÷ 403:

First, express the fraction 455 ÷ 403 as (403 + 52) ÷ 403 = 1 + (52 ÷ 403) ≈ 1 + 0.13 = 1.13.

Now, multiply this by 635: 635 × 1.13 = 635 + (635 × 0.13) = 635 + 82.55 = 717.55.

Alternatively, rounding 403 down to 400 gives 635 × 455 ÷ 400 ≈ 722.3. Since the denominator was decreased, the actual value will be slightly less than 722.

The closest approximate value is 715.

Explanation

To find the approximate value of √2228, locate the nearest perfect square using benchmark squares:

40² = 1600 50² = 2500

Since 2228 is closer to 2500 than 1600, the square root lies in the upper 40s.

Calculating 47² = (50 - 3)² = 2500 - 300 + 9 = 2209.

Since 2209 is extremely close to 2228, √2228 is approximately equal to 47.

Explanation

To find the approximate cube root of 5332, compare 5332 with adjacent perfect cubes:

17³ = 4913 18³ = 5832

Since 5332 lies between 4913 and 5832, ∛5332 lies between 17 and 18. Evaluating 17.5³ = 5359.375 shows that 5332 is extremely close to 17.5³, giving ∛5332 ≈ 17.47, which rounds to 18.

Explanation

The given series follows the pattern where each term is multiplied by an increasing integer and added to the square of that integer:

5 × 1 + 1² = 6 6 × 2 + 2² = 16 16 × 3 + 3² = 57 57 × 4 + 4² = 244 244 × 5 + 5² = 1245

Multiplying the fourth term by 4 and adding 4² gives 57 × 4 + 16 = 244.

Explanation

The pattern in the series is obtained by multiplying each consecutive term by a factor that decreases by 0.5 at each step:

12 × 4 = 48 48 × 3.5 = 168 168 × 3 = 504 504 × 2.5 = 1260 1260 × 2 = 2520

Explanation

The pattern of the given series is generated by multiplying each term by consecutive integers starting from 2 and adding consecutive integers starting from 1:

4 × 2 + 1 = 9 9 × 3 + 2 = 29 29 × 4 + 3 = 119 119 × 5 + 4 = 599 599 × 6 + 5 = 3599

Following this logic, the missing term in place of the question mark is 119.

Explanation

The given series follows a pattern where consecutive prime numbers are subtracted from each term:

177 − 7 = 170 170 − 11 = 159 159 − 13 = 146

The prime numbers subtracted in sequence are 7, 11, and 13. The next prime number in the sequence is 17.

146 − 17 = 129

To verify, subtracting the subsequent prime number 19 from 129 gives the final term of the series: 129 − 19 = 110.

Explanation

The pattern of the given series is based on adding the cubes of consecutive natural numbers (n³) to each preceding term:

3 - 2 = 1 = 1³ 11 - 3 = 8 = 2³ 38 - 11 = 27 = 3³ 102 - 38 = 64 = 4³

Following this sequence, the next difference must be 5³ = 125. Adding 125 to 102 yields:

102 + 125 = 227.

Explanation

Let the present ages of P and Q be 8x and 5x years respectively.

After 4 years, their ages become (8x + 4) and (5x + 4).

Given, (8x + 4) / (5x + 4) = 4 / 3 3 × (8x + 4) = 4 × (5x + 4) 24x + 12 = 20x + 16 4x = 4 x = 1

Present age of P = 8 × 1 = 8 years Present age of Q = 5 × 1 = 5 years

P's age after 7 years = 8 + 7 = 15 years Q's present age = 5 years

Required ratio = 15 : 5 = 3 : 1

Explanation

For four consecutive numbers, the average lies exactly at the midpoint of the middle two numbers, B and C.

Since the average is 49.5, the middle numbers are B = 49 and C = 50. Thus, the four consecutive numbers are A = 48, B = 49, C = 50, and D = 51.

The product of B and D is: B × D = 49 × 51 = (50 - 1) × (50 + 1) = 50² - 1² = 2500 - 1 = 2499.

Explanation

The perimeter of a rectangle is 2(l + b) = 58 cm, which simplifies to l + b = 29 cm. Multiple combinations of length and breadth satisfy this relation (for instance, if l = 20 cm and b = 9 cm, area = 180 cm²; if l = 15 cm and b = 14 cm, area = 210 cm²). Because the area of the rectangle is not fixed, the area of the triangle, which is half the area of the rectangle, cannot be uniquely determined from the given information.

Explanation

Let the three consecutive even integers be A = n, B = n + 2, and C = n + 4.

According to the given condition: 4A = 3C 4n = 3(n + 4) 4n = 3n + 12 n = 12

Since n = 12, the value of B is n + 2 = 12 + 2 = 14.

Explanation

Rate of interest R = (SI × 100) / (P × T) = (7128 × 100) / (19800 × 3) = 12% per annum.

Compound Interest CI = P × [(1 + R/100)ᵀ - 1] = 19800 × [(1 + 12/100)³ - 1] = 19800 × [(1.12)³ - 1] = 19800 × 0.404928 = Rs 8017.5744.

Explanation

Cost Price (CP) = (Selling Price × 100) / (100 + Profit%)

Given: Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 16,756 Profit Percentage = 18%

Substituting the given values into the formula: CP = (16,756 × 100) / (100 + 18) CP = 1,675,600 / 118 CP = Rs. 14,200

Since 118% of the cost price equals Rs. 16,756, dividing 16,756 by 1.18 directly gives the cost price as Rs. 14,200.

Explanation

For a simple interest scheme over 2 years, the interest for 1 year is 1920 / 2 = Rs. 960.

The difference between 2-year compound interest and simple interest represents the interest earned on the first year's interest: Difference = 2112 - 1920 = Rs. 192.

Using Difference = Interest on 1st year's interest: Rate of interest R = (192 / 960) × 100 = 20%.

Principal P = (1920 × 100) / (20 × 2) = Rs. 4800.

When the rate increases by 4%, the new rate R′ = 20% + 4% = 24%.

New 2-year Simple Interest = (4800 × 24 × 2) / 100 = Rs. 2304. New 2-year Compound Interest = 4800 × [(1 + 24/100)² - 1] = 4800 × 0.5376 = Rs. 2580.48.

Total interest from both schemes = 2304 + 2580.48 = Rs. 4884.48.

Explanation

Total hours worked by Amit and Sujit = 5 days × 8 hours per day = 40 hours.

Combined speed of work = 5,76,000 ÷ 40 = 14,400 key depressions per hour.

Let Amit's speed be A key depressions per hour. Sujit's speed is 80% of Amit's speed, which equals 0.8A.

Their combined speed is A + 0.8A = 1.8A.

Equating the combined speed: 1.8A = 14,400 A = 14,400 ÷ 1.8 = 8000 key depressions per hour.

Explanation

The word STRESS consists of 6 letters in total, with the letter S repeating 3 times and the letters T, R, and E appearing 1 time each.

The formula for the number of distinct permutations of n letters where one letter repeats r times is n! / r!.

Substituting the values: Total arrangements = 6! / 3! = (6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1) / (3 × 2 × 1) = 720 / 6 = 120.

Explanation

Let the marked price (MP) = 100.

Cost Price (CP) = MP - 40% of MP = 100 - 40 = 60. Selling Price (SP) = MP + 50% of MP = 100 + 50 = 150.

Profit = SP - CP = 150 - 60 = 90.

Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100 Profit Percentage = (90 / 60) × 100 = 150%.

Explanation

To determine the position of Point B relative to Point D, set up coordinates taking Point B as the origin (0, 0).

Point C is 10m east of Point B, so its coordinates are (10, 0). Point D is 30m north of Point C, placing Point D at coordinates (10, 30).

Comparing the coordinates of Point B (0, 0) with Point D (10, 30), Point B lies 10m to the west and 30m to the south of Point D. Therefore, Point B is in the South-West direction from Point D.

Explanation

Point A is 25 m north of Point B along the vertical axis. Point W is positioned 3 m north of Point A on the same straight vertical line. Since Points B, A, and W are collinear along the north-south axis, the total distance between Point B and Point W is the direct sum of the individual vertical distances: 25 m + 3 m = 28 m.

Explanation

Taking point B as the origin (0, 0):

C is 10 m east of B, so C is at (10, 0). D is 30 m north of C, so D is at (10, 30). E is 7 m east of D, so E is at (17, 30). X is 18 m south of E, so X is at (17, 12). M is 12 m south of X, so M is at (17, 0).

Since both B (0, 0) and M (17, 0) lie on the same horizontal axis, the straight-line distance between B and M is 17 - 0 = 17 m.

Explanation

Ameya's age as of 1.2.99 is 23 years (18 years plus 5 years), satisfying the age requirement of being between 16 and 24 years. His readiness to pay Rs. 40,000 satisfies the fee criteria of Rs. 15,000 entrance fee plus Rs. 25,000 waiver fee. However, he fails to satisfy any of the conditions (I) through (V):

His century was scored on his 18th birthday rather than in an inter-university or inter-state tournament, so condition (II) is not fulfilled. No inter-college tournament victories or specific college-level achievements are mentioned to meet conditions (I), (III), or (V). Additionally, although he captained his state team and scored three fifties, there is no record of him representing his state in national-level matches to satisfy condition (IV). Since none of the required performance criteria are met, membership cannot be granted.

Explanation

Satyen was 16 years old in March 1991, making his age 23 years and 11 months on 1.2.99, which satisfies the age criteria (above 16 and up to 24 years). He also meets the fee criteria by agreeing to pay the Rs. 15,000 entrance fee and Rs. 1,000 monthly fee.

He satisfies condition (IV) because he represented his state for 6 years (more than three times) with a remarkable wicket-keeping record of 11 stump-outs and 16 catches.

Condition (II) is not satisfied because he scored only one fifty instead of the required two. Conditions (I), (III), and (V) are not satisfied as he lacks the specified college-level achievements.

Explanation

Atul's age on February 1, 1999 is 23 years and 1 month (born January 2, 1976), which meets the age criterion of being between 16 and 24 years. His readiness to pay an entrance fee of Rs. 40,000 satisfies the fee requirement (Rs. 15,000 standard fee plus Rs. 25,000 to waive monthly charges).

He satisfies Condition (I) because he led his college team to win college-level matches twice and has scored two centuries for his college.

Condition (III) is not satisfied because, while he served as college captain for 3 years, the details do not specify that his 15 wickets were taken in college-level matches, and facts cannot be assumed. Thus, he qualifies for membership by satisfying only Condition (I).

Explanation

To qualify for membership, a candidate must satisfy the primary age requirement of being above 16 years and not more than 24 years of age as on 1.2.99. Anil was 17 years old in January 1992. By 1.2.99, a period of 7 years and 1 month has elapsed, making his age 24 years and 1 month. Since his age exceeds the maximum permissible limit of 24 years on the cutoff date, he fails the basic age criteria, and therefore membership cannot be given to him.

Explanation

Diyen was 16 years old in February 1991, making him exactly 24 years old on 1.2.99, which fulfills the age criteria of being above 16 and not more than 24 years. He also satisfies the fee payment criteria by agreeing to pay the Rs. 15,000 entrance fee and monthly dues. Among the additional conditions, he satisfies condition (I) because he led his college team to win an inter-college tournament while scoring a century. He also satisfies condition (IV) because he represented his state in national level matches for 4 consecutive years with a remarkable wicket-keeping record of 22 stumpings and 20 catches. Thus, membership is granted as he satisfies both conditions (I) and (IV).

Explanation

As on 1.2.99, Sarvesh is 23 years old (born 30.01.76), meeting the age requirement of 16 to 24 years. His payment of Rs. 40,000 covers the Rs. 15,000 entrance fee plus Rs. 25,000 additional fee, waiving the monthly fee requirement. For the performance criteria, he satisfies (I) by captaining his college team to tournament victories over 4 years and scoring centuries; satisfies (II) by scoring 3 centuries and 4 fifties in interuniversity matches; and satisfies (III) by leading his college team 4 times (at least thrice) while scoring 1,200 aggregate runs (at least 1,000 runs). Thus, he qualifies by satisfying conditions (I), (II), and (III).

Explanation

By analyzing the given conditions step-by-step:

Ramesh works in company Q and wears a Pink tie. Lokesh works in company P, which sponsors a Green tie. Shailesh works in company U.

Since neither Nilesh nor Dinesh works in company S, Hitesh must work in company S, which sponsors a Blue tie. Nilesh does not work in company T, so Nilesh works in company R, leaving Dinesh to work in company T.

Company T does not sponsor Purple or Yellow ties, so company T sponsors the Red tie. Since company R does not sponsor the Purple tie, company R sponsors the Yellow tie, while company U sponsors the Purple tie.

Therefore, Company R sponsors the Yellow coloured tie.

Explanation

From the given clues, Ramesh works in Q wearing a Pink tie, Shailesh works in U, and Lokesh works in P wearing a Green tie. Nilesh does not work in S or T, which leaves Nilesh in company R. Hitesh does not work in R or T, placing Hitesh in company S with a Blue tie. This leaves Dinesh to work in company T. Since company T does not sponsor Purple or Yellow ties, T must sponsor the Red tie. Therefore, Dinesh works in company T and wears a Red tie, making Red-T-Dinesh the correct combination.

Explanation

Lokesh works in company P and wears a Green tie. Ramesh works in company Q and wears a Pink tie. Shailesh works in company U. Since neither Nilesh nor Dinesh works in company S, Hitesh must work in company S and wear a Blue tie. As Nilesh does not work in company T, Nilesh works in company R, leaving Dinesh in company T.

For the tie colours of the remaining companies T, R, and U among Yellow, Purple, and Red: company T does not sponsor Purple or Yellow, which leaves Red as the only possible colour sponsored by company T. Therefore, Red colour is sponsored by company T.

Explanation

Ramesh works in company Q (from IV), Lokesh works in company P (from VII), and Shailesh works in company U (from VI). The remaining companies are S, R, and T for Dinesh, Nilesh, and Hitesh. Since neither Nilesh nor Dinesh works in company S (from VI), Hitesh must work in company S. With Nilesh excluded from company T (from V), Nilesh works in company R and Dinesh works in company T. Combining these assignments gives Ramesh (Q), Dinesh (T), Lokesh (P), Nilesh (R), Shailesh (U), and Hitesh (S), which corresponds to the sequence Q, T, P, R, U, S.

Explanation

D and G are sisters, both being daughters of N. Since C is married to G, Q (the daughter of C) is the daughter of G as well. Because Q is the daughter of D's sister G, Q is D's niece.

Explanation

E is the wife of N, which makes N the husband of E. Since K is the mother of E, N is married to K's daughter. Therefore, N is the son-in-law of K.

Explanation

D is a daughter of N, and G is the sister of D, which makes G another daughter of N. Since N has no sons, the children of N consist entirely of female offspring. This establishes that N has two daughters, D and G.

Explanation

The 1st, 4th, and 7th digits of the number 4671358 are 4, 1, and 8 respectively.

By arranging these three digits, the possible 3-digit numbers that can be formed are 148, 184, 418, 481, 814, and 841.

Evaluating these numbers, 841 is equal to 29², where 29 is a two-digit odd number. No other arrangement yields a perfect square of an odd number.

The digit in the tens place of the two-digit odd number 29 is 2.

Explanation

Comparing the first statement ("always follow your passion" = "ke ag mo jp") and the fourth statement ("follow music on twitter" = "ty jp fi sc"), the only common word between them is "follow". Correspondingly, the only common code shared between these two statements is "jp". Therefore, the code for "follow" is "jp".

Explanation

Comparing the given statements allows us to find the code for each word step-by-step:

Comparing the second, third, and fourth statements, the word common to all three is 'music', which corresponds to the common code 'sc'.

Comparing the first and third statements, the common word is 'always', which corresponds to the common code 'ag'.

Comparing the third and fourth statements, the common word is 'on', which corresponds to the common code 'fi'.

In the third statement, 'music always on mind' is coded as 'fi sc ag lw'. Substituting the codes for 'music' (sc), 'always' (ag), and 'on' (fi) leaves 'mind' uniquely coded as 'lw'.

Explanation

Comparing the statement 'great passion for music' with the other statements reveals the code for each word:

'music' appears in statements 2, 3, and 4, where the common code is 'sc', so 'music' is coded as 'sc'. 'passion' appears in statements 1 and 2, where the common code is 'mo', so 'passion' is coded as 'mo'.

After removing 'music' ('sc') and 'passion' ('mo') from statement 2, the remaining words 'great' and 'for' correspond to the remaining codes 'bu' and 'nd'. Since neither word appears in any other statement, 'nd' can represent either 'for' or 'great'.

Explanation

Comparing the first and third statements, the common word is 'always' and the common code is 'ag', so 'always' = 'ag'. Comparing the second, third, and fourth statements, the common word is 'music' and the common code is 'sc', so 'music' = 'sc'. Since 'music always help' is coded as 'ag hr sc', the remaining word 'help' corresponds to 'hr'.

Comparing the first and second statements, 'passion' is 'mo'. Comparing the first and fourth statements, 'follow' is 'jp'. In the first statement, eliminating 'always' (ag), 'passion' (mo), and 'follow' (jp) leaves 'your' = 'ke'.

Comparing the third and fourth statements, 'on' is 'fi'. In the fourth statement, eliminating 'follow' (jp), 'music' (sc), and 'on' (fi) leaves 'twitter' = 'ty'.

Combining the derived codes gives 'help' = 'hr', 'your' = 'ke', and 'twitter' = 'ty', which forms the code set 'ty ke hr'.

Explanation

Comparing the first statement 'always follow your passion' and the second statement 'great passion for music', the common word is 'passion' and the common code is 'mo'. Therefore, 'passion' is coded as 'mo'.

Since 'divine' is a new word not present in any of the given statements, it must be represented by a new code that does not appear in the given clues. The code 'xy' is a new, unassigned code, making 'mo xy' the possible code for 'divine passion'.

Explanation

To find the element that is ninth to the left of the twenty-first element from the left end, subtract the positions: 21 - 9 = 12th element from the left end.

Counting from the left end of the given arrangement: 1st: 1, 2nd: 5, 3rd: 8, 4th: 4, 5th: 2, 6th: 1, 7th: 5, 8th: 2, 9th: 3, 10th: 4, 11th: 5, 12th: 6.

The 12th element from the left end is 6.

Explanation

To find the required count, look for the pattern: Odd Digit → 5 → Even Digit.

Scanning the sequence for all occurrences of 5: 1 5 8 — Preceded by odd digit 1 and followed by even digit 8. 1 5 2 — Preceded by odd digit 1 and followed by even digit 2. 1 5 6 — Preceded by odd digit 1 and followed by even digit 6.

The other occurrences of 5 in the arrangement (4 5 6 and 9 5 1) do not satisfy both conditions simultaneously. Thus, there are exactly three such 5s.

Explanation

The single-digit perfect squares are 1, 4, and 9. Locating each occurrence of the digit 1 in the given sequence:

The first 1 is followed by 5 (not a perfect square). The second 1 is followed by 5 (not a perfect square). The third 1 is followed by 4 (a perfect square, since 2² = 4). The fourth 1 is followed by 5 (not a perfect square).

Only one such 1 satisfies the condition in the arrangement.

Explanation

To find the 4s that are immediately preceded by a digit strictly greater than 4, examine the digit immediately to the left of each occurrence of 4 in the arrangement:

In 8 4 (at the 4th position), 4 is preceded by 8, which is greater than 4. In 3 4 (at the 10th position), 4 is preceded by 3, which is not greater than 4. In 1 4 (at the 18th position), 4 is preceded by 1, which is not greater than 4. In 7 4 (at the 24th position), 4 is preceded by 7, which is greater than 4.

Therefore, exactly two such 4s fulfill the condition.

Explanation

Deleting all even digits from the given arrangement leaves only the odd digits in order: 1, 5, 1, 5, 3, 5, 7, 9, 5, 1, 1, 5, 7.

With 13 odd digits in total, the 10th digit from the right end corresponds to the (13 - 10 + 1) = 4th digit from the left end. The 4th odd digit from the left end is 5.

Explanation

Comparing the given statements: 'red' appears in statements 1, 2, and 4, giving red = ew. 'paint' appears in statements 1 and 4, giving paint = fm. 'gate' appears in statements 2 and 4, giving gate = op. 'of' appears in statements 2 and 3, giving of = sa.

In statement 2 ('gate of red colour' = 'Ib ew op sa'), substituting gate = op, of = sa, and red = ew leaves colour = Ib.

In statement 3 ('house of your choice' = 'sa cu ri nk'), since {house, your} = {cu, ri} from statement 1 and of = sa, the remaining word gives choice = nk.

In statement 4 ('gate with red paint' = 'gy op ew fm'), substituting gate = op, red = ew, and paint = fm leaves with = gy.

In the given condition 'colour with canvas' = 'hv Ib gy', substituting colour = Ib and with = gy leaves canvas = hv.

Combining the codes for canvas (hv), of (sa), and choice (nk) gives 'nk hv sa'.

Explanation

T is 14 positions to the left of D. R is 8 positions to the right of T, which moves R back towards D by 8 steps. Therefore, R is 14 - 8 = 6th to the left of D. The number of boys sitting between two individuals with a relative distance of 6 positions is 6 - 1 = 5.

Explanation

Combining the given statements to check Conclusion I gives the path: B = Q ≤ P < J ≤ Y. Since there is a strict inequality (<) between P and J in the chain, it follows directly that B < Y. Thus, Conclusion I is true.

To check Conclusion II, tracing the relation between J and X gives: J ≤ Y = Z ≥ A > X. Because the inequality signs reverse direction between J and X (≤ followed by ≥ and >), no definite relationship can be derived between X and J. Thus, Conclusion II is false.

Explanation

From the given inequality chain, connecting Q and Z yields Q ≤ P < J ≤ Y = Z. Because the strict inequality symbol (<) appears in the path between P and J, the relationship between Q and Z strictly simplifies to Q < Z, which is equivalent to Z > Q. Consequently, Conclusion I (Z = Q) is false, while Conclusion II (Z > Q) is strictly true.

Explanation

Combining the given statements yields G < R ≤ S and T < R ≤ S.

For Conclusion I: From G < R ≤ S, the presence of the strict inequality relation (<) between G and S guarantees that G < S is true.

For Conclusion II: From T < R ≤ S, combining T < R and R ≤ S gives T < S, which is equivalent to S > T, so Conclusion II is also true.

Both conclusions I and II logically follow from the given statements.

Explanation

To evaluate Conclusion I (M < C), combining the relevant statement parts yields M < K ≤ I ≥ C. Because opposite inequality signs (< and ≥) exist in the chain between M and C, no definite relation can be derived.

To evaluate Conclusion II (N > U), combining the relevant statement parts yields U < M < K ≤ I > N. Here again, opposite inequality signs (≤ and >) appear in the chain between U and N, so no definite relation can be derived.

Both conclusions fail to follow from the given statements.

Explanation

Combining the given statements P = U < M < K ≤ I and D ≥ P:

For Conclusion I (D ≥ K): Connecting D and K through P yields D ≥ P < K. Since the inequality symbols face in opposite directions, no definite relationship can be established between D and K. Therefore, Conclusion I is false.

For Conclusion II (I > P): Connecting P and I gives P = U < M < K ≤ I, which simplifies directly to P < I, or equivalently, I > P. Therefore, Conclusion II is true.

Explanation

The 4th, 7th, and 9th digits of the given number 937862541 are 8, 5, and 1 respectively.

Using these three digits, a total of 3! = 6 distinct 3-digit numbers can be formed: 158, 185, 518, 581, 815, and 851.

Testing each number for divisibility by 7: 518 ÷ 7 = 74 581 ÷ 7 = 83

The remaining numbers (158, 185, 815, and 851) leave non-zero remainders when divided by 7. Thus, exactly two such numbers are completely divisible by 7.