HPAS2013CSAT (Paper II)✓ Every question solved

HPAS Prelims 2013 CSAT (Paper II) with Answers & Explanations

All 96 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

96
Questions
4
Subjects
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Logical Reasoning4143%
  • Quantitative Aptitude3132%
  • Reading Comprehension1314%
  • Decision Making1111%
1Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: The growing tendencies towards regionalism in the country have had serious effects on higher education. These tendencies are generally expressed in demands relating to the medium of instruction. Some of these demands are based on sound educational principles and are wholly justifiable; but in their most extreme form they usually indicate either ignorance of the minimum requirements of higher education or chauvinism of a kind that places considerations of a parochial character above these requirements. In practice, both have been in evidence. More specifically, the problem arises when instruction at the post- graduate level is sought to be given in the regional languages. Most of the relevant literature with which students at this level of education ought to be familiar is usually not available in any of the regional languages. It is true that comprehension is much easier in the mother tongue, and that the necessary literature could grow over a period of time. But when the range of literature a student is exposed to at even the post- graduate level is constricted by language barriers, the content of education gets diluted. Since the products of such education are later absorbed as teachers of the succeeding generations, the damage done is more long- lasting than is generally assumed. The usual answer to these impediments is that English needs to be taught as a "library language" and students should be required to familiarize themselves with the more advanced literature in the subject through this language. In principle this is unobjectionable, particularly if the "library language" is taught intensively from an early stage of schooling and the students have therefore no difficulties of comprehension through this language. As per the passage higher education should be provided in :
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Answer: (D) a "library language"

Explanation

The passage highlights that post-graduate instruction in regional languages often constricts the range of literature available to students, thereby diluting the content of education. To resolve these impediments and ensure access to advanced academic literature, the author supports the approach where education is facilitated through a library language, specifically mentioning English as a library language to ensure students have no difficulties of comprehension while engaging with advanced global resources.

2Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: The growing tendencies towards regionalism in the country have had serious effects on higher education. These tendencies are generally expressed in demands relating to the medium of instruction. Some of these demands are based on sound educational principles and are wholly justifiable; but in their most extreme form they usually indicate either ignorance of the minimum requirements of higher education or chauvinism of a kind that places considerations of a parochial character above these requirements. In practice, both have been in evidence. More specifically, the problem arises when instruction at the post- graduate level is sought to be given in the regional languages. Most of the relevant literature with which students at this level of education ought to be familiar is usually not available in any of the regional languages. It is true that comprehension is much easier in the mother tongue, and that the necessary literature could grow over a period of time. But when the range of literature a student is exposed to at even the post- graduate level is constricted by language barriers, the content of education gets diluted. Since the products of such education are later absorbed as teachers of the succeeding generations, the damage done is more long- lasting than is generally assumed. The usual answer to these impediments is that English needs to be taught as a "library language" and students should be required to familiarize themselves with the more advanced literature in the subject through this language. In principle this is unobjectionable, particularly if the "library language" is taught intensively from an early stage of schooling and the students have therefore no difficulties of comprehension through this language. The intervention of regional voices has had a __________ effect on the quality of higher education.
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Answer: (C) diluting

Explanation

The passage directly states that when the range of literature a student is exposed to at the post-graduate level is constricted by regional language barriers, the content of education gets diluted. Since this dilution of content directly impacts the quality of education, the intervention of regional voices demanding regional mediums of instruction has a diluting effect on the quality of higher education.

3Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: The growing tendencies towards regionalism in the country have had serious effects on higher education. These tendencies are generally expressed in demands relating to the medium of instruction. Some of these demands are based on sound educational principles and are wholly justifiable; but in their most extreme form they usually indicate either ignorance of the minimum requirements of higher education or chauvinism of a kind that places considerations of a parochial character above these requirements. In practice, both have been in evidence. More specifically, the problem arises when instruction at the post- graduate level is sought to be given in the regional languages. Most of the relevant literature with which students at this level of education ought to be familiar is usually not available in any of the regional languages. It is true that comprehension is much easier in the mother tongue, and that the necessary literature could grow over a period of time. But when the range of literature a student is exposed to at even the post- graduate level is constricted by language barriers, the content of education gets diluted. Since the products of such education are later absorbed as teachers of the succeeding generations, the damage done is more long- lasting than is generally assumed. The usual answer to these impediments is that English needs to be taught as a "library language" and students should be required to familiarize themselves with the more advanced literature in the subject through this language. In principle this is unobjectionable, particularly if the "library language" is taught intensively from an early stage of schooling and the students have therefore no difficulties of comprehension through this language. How does the author view the higher education scenario in India ?
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Answer: (D) He presents a critical analysis of the situation

Explanation

The author presents a detailed evaluation of how regionalism affects higher education in India. Through a structured argument, the text examines the educational implications of transitioning the medium of instruction at the post-graduate level to regional languages. It highlights critical challenges such as the scarcity of advanced academic literature in local languages, the consequent dilution of academic standards, and the cascading effect of this dilution on future generations of teachers. The author also assesses the proposed solution of teaching English as a library language, analyzing its practical viability. This balanced and objective evaluation of the issues, causes, and consequences constitutes a thorough critical analysis of the situation.

4Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: The growing tendencies towards regionalism in the country have had serious effects on higher education. These tendencies are generally expressed in demands relating to the medium of instruction. Some of these demands are based on sound educational principles and are wholly justifiable; but in their most extreme form they usually indicate either ignorance of the minimum requirements of higher education or chauvinism of a kind that places considerations of a parochial character above these requirements. In practice, both have been in evidence. More specifically, the problem arises when instruction at the post- graduate level is sought to be given in the regional languages. Most of the relevant literature with which students at this level of education ought to be familiar is usually not available in any of the regional languages. It is true that comprehension is much easier in the mother tongue, and that the necessary literature could grow over a period of time. But when the range of literature a student is exposed to at even the post- graduate level is constricted by language barriers, the content of education gets diluted. Since the products of such education are later absorbed as teachers of the succeeding generations, the damage done is more long- lasting than is generally assumed. The usual answer to these impediments is that English needs to be taught as a "library language" and students should be required to familiarize themselves with the more advanced literature in the subject through this language. In principle this is unobjectionable, particularly if the "library language" is taught intensively from an early stage of schooling and the students have therefore no difficulties of comprehension through this language. The medium of instruction at the post-graduate level should be chosen discerningly because :
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Answer: (C) many of the beneficiaries have a deep influence as teachers on succeeding generations.

Explanation

The passage highlights that the medium of instruction at the post-graduate level must be chosen with great care because any dilution in the quality of education at this stage has far-reaching consequences. The students who receive post-graduate education are the ones who subsequently become teachers for future generations. If their education is compromised due to a poorly chosen medium of instruction, the resulting deficiencies will be passed on to their students, creating a long-lasting and damaging cycle across succeeding generations.

5Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: The growing tendencies towards regionalism in the country have had serious effects on higher education. These tendencies are generally expressed in demands relating to the medium of instruction. Some of these demands are based on sound educational principles and are wholly justifiable; but in their most extreme form they usually indicate either ignorance of the minimum requirements of higher education or chauvinism of a kind that places considerations of a parochial character above these requirements. In practice, both have been in evidence. More specifically, the problem arises when instruction at the post- graduate level is sought to be given in the regional languages. Most of the relevant literature with which students at this level of education ought to be familiar is usually not available in any of the regional languages. It is true that comprehension is much easier in the mother tongue, and that the necessary literature could grow over a period of time. But when the range of literature a student is exposed to at even the post- graduate level is constricted by language barriers, the content of education gets diluted. Since the products of such education are later absorbed as teachers of the succeeding generations, the damage done is more long- lasting than is generally assumed. The usual answer to these impediments is that English needs to be taught as a "library language" and students should be required to familiarize themselves with the more advanced literature in the subject through this language. In principle this is unobjectionable, particularly if the "library language" is taught intensively from an early stage of schooling and the students have therefore no difficulties of comprehension through this language. The benefits of higher education can be reaped to the maximum by students if they are exposed to "library language" :
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Answer: (B) from an early stage of schooling

Explanation

The passage explains that teaching a "library language" like English helps students access advanced literature in higher education. It states that this approach is highly beneficial and unobjectionable if the library language is taught intensively from an early stage of schooling. Introducing the language early ensures that students develop strong comprehension skills, enabling them to reap the maximum benefits of higher education without facing language barriers at later stages.

6Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : We all are creatures of the clichés among which we have grown up. From the middle of the nineteenth century, such phrases as 'the struggle for existence' or 'the survival of the fittest', and 'for a long time the biologists' theory that the animal world was like 'a gladiator's show', have conditioned our thinking. More recently, the general Freudian atmosphere, supporting the old idea of the original sin, has destroyed our belief even in our babies, who appear as little gangsters possessed by jealousy and hate. The result has been that many of us have felt that it is all hopeless, that it is natural for everything to fight for itself, that struggle is the law of existence, and thus hatred and war are inevitable. But during the present times there has been more and more evidence to suggest that co-operation may be even more important in the evolutionary process than competition. While in nature, there is indeed a struggle for life, there is also such a thing as the struggle for the life of others, and today the principle of co-operation is in a fair way becoming established as the most important factor in the survival of animal groups as of individuals. From the protozoa right up to man this mutual aid has been established : there is a 'social appetite' even in the lowest of organisms. No longer can domination of the weaker by the stronger, whether individuals or nations, be supported by the supposed example of the natural world. The most appropriate title for the passage would be :
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Answer: (D) Understanding evolution afresh

Explanation

The passage highlights a paradigm shift in how we perceive the natural world. It begins by describing the long-held, conditioning beliefs that viewed evolution solely as a ruthless struggle for existence and a gladiator's show. It then presents modern evidence showing that cooperation and mutual aid are actually the most crucial factors in the survival and evolution of species from protozoa to human beings. By contrasting the outdated competitive clichés with this new cooperative understanding, the passage invites the reader to look at the process of evolution from a new, updated perspective. Therefore, understanding evolution afresh is the most fitting title.

7Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : We all are creatures of the clichés among which we have grown up. From the middle of the nineteenth century, such phrases as 'the struggle for existence' or 'the survival of the fittest', and 'for a long time the biologists' theory that the animal world was like 'a gladiator's show', have conditioned our thinking. More recently, the general Freudian atmosphere, supporting the old idea of the original sin, has destroyed our belief even in our babies, who appear as little gangsters possessed by jealousy and hate. The result has been that many of us have felt that it is all hopeless, that it is natural for everything to fight for itself, that struggle is the law of existence, and thus hatred and war are inevitable. But during the present times there has been more and more evidence to suggest that co-operation may be even more important in the evolutionary process than competition. While in nature, there is indeed a struggle for life, there is also such a thing as the struggle for the life of others, and today the principle of co-operation is in a fair way becoming established as the most important factor in the survival of animal groups as of individuals. From the protozoa right up to man this mutual aid has been established : there is a 'social appetite' even in the lowest of organisms. No longer can domination of the weaker by the stronger, whether individuals or nations, be supported by the supposed example of the natural world. Implicit in the 'struggle for life' is :
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Answer: (A) the struggle for one's own survival

Explanation

The passage draws a clear distinction between "the struggle for life" and "the struggle for the life of others". By contrasting these two concepts, the author implies that the traditional term "struggle for life" refers to an organism's struggle for its own individual survival.

8Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : We all are creatures of the clichés among which we have grown up. From the middle of the nineteenth century, such phrases as 'the struggle for existence' or 'the survival of the fittest', and 'for a long time the biologists' theory that the animal world was like 'a gladiator's show', have conditioned our thinking. More recently, the general Freudian atmosphere, supporting the old idea of the original sin, has destroyed our belief even in our babies, who appear as little gangsters possessed by jealousy and hate. The result has been that many of us have felt that it is all hopeless, that it is natural for everything to fight for itself, that struggle is the law of existence, and thus hatred and war are inevitable. But during the present times there has been more and more evidence to suggest watchful that co-operation may be even more important in the evolutionary process than competition. While in nature, there is indeed a struggle for life, there is also such a thing as the struggle for the life of others, and today the principle of co-operation is in a fair way becoming established as the most important factor in the survival of animal groups as of individuals. From the protozoa right up to man this mutual aid has been established : there is a 'social appetite' even in the lowest of organisms. No longer can domination of the weaker by the stronger, whether individuals or nations, be supported by the supposed example of the natural world. What has led to the destruction of our belief even in our babies ?
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Answer: (A) The primordial idea that man is a born sinner

Explanation

According to the passage, our belief in our babies has been destroyed by the general Freudian atmosphere, which supports the old idea of the original sin. The concept of original sin is equivalent to the primordial idea that man is born a sinner, which portrays even infants as being possessed by jealousy and hate.

9Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : We all are creatures of the clichés among which we have grown up. From the middle of the nineteenth century, such phrases as 'the struggle for existence' or 'the survival of the fittest', and 'for a long time the biologists' theory that the animal world was like 'a gladiator's show', have conditioned our thinking. More recently, the general Freudian atmosphere, supporting the old idea of the original sin, has destroyed our belief even in our babies, who appear as little gangsters possessed by jealousy and hate. The result has been that many of us have felt that it is all hopeless, that it is natural for everything to fight for itself, that struggle is the law of existence, and thus hatred and war are inevitable. But during the present times there has been more and more evidence to suggest that co-operation may be even more important in the evolutionary process than competition. While in nature, there is indeed a struggle for life, there is also such a thing as the struggle for the life of others, and today the principle of co-operation is in a fair way becoming established as the most important factor in the survival of animal groups as of individuals. From the protozoa right up to man this mutual aid has been established : there is a 'social appetite' even in the lowest of organisms. No longer can domination of the weaker by the stronger, whether individuals or nations, be supported by the supposed example of the natural world. The passage has a/an attitude towards biologists' views about evolution.
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Answer: (B) doubting

Explanation

The author of the passage questions and challenges the classical nineteenth-century biological theories of evolution that emphasize the struggle for existence and the survival of the fittest. By highlighting modern evidence which shows that cooperation and mutual aid are the most important factors in the survival of animal groups, the author expresses a doubting attitude toward the traditional competitive model of evolution.

10Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : We all are creatures of the clichés among which we have grown up. From the middle of the nineteenth century, such phrases as 'the struggle for existence' or 'the survival of the fittest', and 'for a long time the biologists' theory that the animal world was like 'a gladiator's show', have conditioned our thinking. More recently, the general Freudian atmosphere, supporting the old idea of the original sin, has destroyed our belief even in our babies, who appear as little gangsters possessed by jealousy and hate. The result has been that many of us have felt that it is all hopeless, that it is natural for everything to fight for itself, that struggle is the law of existence, and thus hatred and war are inevitable. But during the present times there has been more and more evidence to suggest that co-operation may be even more important in the evolutionary process than competition. While in nature, there is indeed a struggle for life, there is also such a thing as the struggle for the life of others, and today the principle of co-operation is in a fair way becoming established as the most important factor in the survival of animal groups as of individuals. From the protozoa right up to man this mutual aid has been established : there is a 'social appetite' even in the lowest of organisms. No longer can domination of the weaker by the stronger, whether individuals or nations, be supported by the supposed example of the natural world. The passage is a fervent plea for :
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Answer: (C) recognizing the need for reassessing dominant scientific views on evolution

Explanation

The passage highlights how traditional evolutionary concepts such as the struggle for existence and the survival of the fittest have historically dominated human thinking, leading to the belief that conflict and competition are inevitable. It presents contemporary scientific evidence showing that cooperation and mutual aid are far more crucial to the survival and evolution of species from protozoa to humans. By challenging these established biological clichés and emphasizing co-operation over competition, the author actively calls for a reassessment of the dominant, older scientific views on evolution.

11Decision Making
Each sentence below has two blanks and is followed by four sets of words. Choose the set of words that best fills in the blanks. The good administrator should not only be ___________ but should have the ____________ to know when to do a particular thing.
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Answer: (B) perceptive; sagacity

Explanation

The word perceptive means having or showing keen insight, understanding, and intuition, which is an essential trait for an administrator to understand complex situations. The word sagacity refers to the quality of having or showing keen mental discernment, sound judgment, and wisdom. In this context, having the sagacity to know when to do a particular thing perfectly describes the timely decision-making and wisdom required of a good administrator.

12Reading Comprehension
Each sentence below has two blanks and is followed by four sets of words. Choose the set of words that best fills in the blanks. The ancient teachers insisted on strict disciplining of the disciples before they ____________ to impart knowledge of ___________ import to them.
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Answer: (A) ventured; profound

Explanation

The word ventured fits the first blank as it represents the cautious step of embarking on a significant and revered task, which is imparting knowledge to disciples. The word profound is the most suitable adjective to collocate with import, referring to matters of deep, immense, and sacred significance, aligning with the ancient teachers requiring strict discipline beforehand.

13Reading Comprehension
Each sentence below has two blanks and is followed by four sets of words. Choose the set of words that best fills in the blanks. It is true that the ____________ between the different branches of science are ________________ being broken.
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Answer: (C) borders; constantly

Explanation

The word borders refers to the dividing lines or separations between different academic disciplines or fields of study. In scientific research, traditional divisions between separate fields like physics, chemistry, and biology are not rigid; they frequently overlap to form interdisciplinary areas of study. Thus, these borders are constantly—meaning continuously and without interruption—being dissolved or broken to foster collaborative discoveries. This combination of words accurately conveys the evolving, integrated, and dynamic nature of contemporary scientific inquiry.

14Reading Comprehension
Each sentence below has two blanks and is followed by four sets of words. Choose the set of words that best fills in the blanks. My intention is to draw a realistic picture, and if there is any touch of pessimism, it is ___________________ in the present situation and it is for us to ___________________ it.
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Answer: (B) inherent; rectify

Explanation

The sentence describes drawing a realistic picture where any pessimism that arises is naturally built-in or a fundamental part of the current state of affairs, making inherent the most appropriate word for the first blank. Since pessimism is a negative condition, the responsibility lies with us to amend, improve, or put the situation right, which is precisely defined by the action to rectify it.

15Logical Reasoning
Each sentence below has two blanks and is followed by four sets of words. Choose the set of words that best fills in the blanks. ______________ of power from atomic disintegration remained just a dream till the ________________ of nuclear fission was discovered.
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Answer: (C) generation; phenomenon

Explanation

The sentence discusses the production of electricity or energy from atomic disintegration, which is standardly referred to as the generation of power. Additionally, nuclear fission is a physical occurrence scientifically classified as a phenomenon. Since the singular verb was is used at the end of the sentence, the singular noun phenomenon is grammatically correct to complete the clause.

16Decision Making
Which one of the following does not fall under the dark side of charismatic leadership ?
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Answer: (D) Obsessive concern with perfection

Explanation

An obsessive concern with perfection is a behavioral trait associated with perfectionism, micro-management, or obsessive-compulsive tendencies. While it can cause operational stress and inefficiencies within an organization, it is a task-oriented dysfunction rather than one of the ego-driven, manipulative, and self-serving behaviors that characterize the dark side of charismatic leadership.

17Logical Reasoning
The extent to which two individuals share the same attitudes about a range of topics is known as :
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Answer: (B) Attitude similarity

Explanation

In social psychology, attitude similarity is defined as the degree to which two individuals share the same attitudes, beliefs, values, or interests across various topics. This concept is a major predictor of interpersonal attraction, as sharing similar viewpoints provides validation for an individual's own beliefs, reduces the likelihood of conflict, and fosters smoother communication and mutual liking.

18Logical Reasoning
As humans are aware of the inevitability of their own death, they confront existential terror. This statement explains :
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Answer: (C) Terror management theory

Explanation

Terror management theory is a social psychology framework that posits that the unique human awareness of the inevitability of death creates a potential for overwhelming existential terror. To manage this deep anxiety, individuals rely on cultural worldviews and self-esteem, which provide a sense of personal value, order, and symbolic or literal immortality, thereby buffering the psychological dread associated with mortality.

19Decision Making
Ravi works in a firm. He has respect for himself and believes in the capability and competence of others. He trusts others and is trusted by others. What kind of style Ravi has ?
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Answer: (A) Secured attachment style

Explanation

In adult attachment theory, individuals with a secure attachment style have a positive view of both themselves and others. Ravi exhibits respect for himself, which represents high self-esteem and a positive self-model. Simultaneously, his belief in the competence of others and his willingness to trust and be trusted reflect a positive model of others. This combination of self-confidence and interpersonal trust allows him to form stable, healthy, and cooperative relationships in the workplace.

20Decision Making
Hari is not a person who is bothered much about his friends and colleagues. However, he wants to have control on all the information about the activities they undertake including their resources and participation in different activities and events. Which one of the following is the main component of Hari's nature ?
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Answer: (D) Power

Explanation

Power represents the capacity to control, direct, or influence the behavior of others and the allocation of resources. In behavioral psychology, an individual with a high need for power seeks dominance, authority, and comprehensive oversight of information flow. Hari's lack of personal concern for his peers, combined with his desire to monitor their resources, activities, and participation, demonstrates a drive to establish dominance and authority through the control of information and resources.

21Logical Reasoning
Which one of the following represents the cognitive component of an attitude ?
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Answer: (C) "Punjabi food is the best of Asian Cuisine"

Explanation

The cognitive component of an attitude represents the beliefs, knowledge, thoughts, and opinions held by an individual about an attitude object. The statement "Punjabi food is the best of Asian Cuisine" represents a subjective belief, judgment, or cognitive evaluation regarding the attribute and quality of the cuisine, which constitutes the cognitive dimension of the attitude.

22Decision Making
Ramesh is trying to persuade the farmers to adopt a new kind of technology. Which one of the following he should not include in his efforts ?
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Answer: (B) Significant issues in his message

Explanation

Including significant issues, unresolved problems, or negative complications in a persuasive communication message creates cognitive dissonance, confusion, and skepticism among the audience. For effective persuasion and successful technology adoption, the communication must be clear, simple, and focused on relative advantages and solutions rather than highlighting barriers. Presenting significant issues directly undermines the message's appeal and decreases the audience's confidence, hindering the adoption of the new technology.

23Decision Making
When a person tries to change his/her emotions, he/she is eliminating or changing the stressor directly, it is known as :
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Answer: (B) Problem focussed coping

Explanation

Problem-focused coping involves taking direct, active steps to manage, alter, or eliminate the underlying source of stress. Rather than merely addressing the emotional distress generated by a stressful situation, an individual utilizing this coping mechanism focuses on altering the external environment or the stressor itself, thereby resolving the problem at its root.

24Decision Making
When Shivani is presenting an argument against the views of Subodh, both give out their ideas, provide counter offers and are ready to give concessions either directly or through representatives. This process can be labelled as :
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Answer: (B) Negotiation

Explanation

Negotiation is a process of dialogue where parties with differing views exchange ideas, put forth proposals, make counter-offers, and offer mutual concessions to resolve a conflict or reach a mutually acceptable agreement. This exchange can take place directly between the concerned individuals or through their designated representatives.

25Logical Reasoning
The differential styles initially developed in the interactions between infant and caregiver when the infant acquires basic attitudes about self worth, security and interpersonal trust, refers to :
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Answer: (A) Attachment styles

Explanation

Attachment styles refer to the systematic patterns of expectations, needs, and behaviors that individuals develop in the context of close relationships, which are initially shaped during infancy through interactions with primary caregivers. Formulated by John Bowlby and Mary Ainsworth, attachment theory posits that the responsiveness and sensitivity of a caregiver teach an infant whether they are worthy of love and whether other people are reliable and trustworthy. These early experiences form internal working models—cognitive frameworks comprising mental representations for understanding the self and others—that establish the foundation for self-worth, a sense of security, and interpersonal trust, persisting throughout the lifespan into adult relationships.

26Decision Making
Nikhil is basically a helpful person. One day he is with his close friends and witnesses an accident. Nikhil does not take any initiative in helping the victim as he is with his close group. This kind of behaviour is known as :
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Answer: (C) Implicit bystander effect

Explanation

The implicit bystander effect is a social psychological phenomenon where the activation of a group setting or the presence of a social circle diminishes an individual's likelihood of taking action to help. Even though Nikhil is fundamentally a helpful person, being in the presence of his close group of friends triggers a subconscious diffusion of responsibility. The social context of the group implicitly suppresses his individual altruistic impulses and personal accountability, leading to passive behavior and a failure to initiate assistance for the accident victim.

27Logical Reasoning
Which theory suggests that norms will influence behaviour only to the extent they are focal for the person involved at the time the behaviour occurs ?
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Answer: (A) Normative focus theory

Explanation

The Focus Theory of Normative Conduct, often referred to as normative focus theory, was developed by Robert Cialdini, Raymond Reno, and Carl Kallgren in 1990. The theory suggests that social norms do not influence human behavior constantly or universally. Instead, they direct behavior primarily when they are salient, prominent, or focal in the consciousness of an individual at the exact moment of decision-making. If a norm is not activated or brought to attention at the time of the action, its influence on behavior remains negligible. This makes situational cues and attention-focusing mechanisms critical for motivating norm-consistent actions, such as litter reduction or recycling.

28Logical Reasoning
When we collectively misunderstand what attitudes others hold, and believe erroneously that others have different attitudes than ourselves, we are getting involved in :
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Answer: (D) Pluralistic ignorance

Explanation

Pluralistic ignorance is a social psychological phenomenon wherein individuals in a group privately reject a particular norm, belief, or attitude but falsely assume that everyone else in the group accepts it. Consequently, people conform to the perceived norm under the mistaken belief that their own private attitude is different from the majority. This collective misinterpretation leads people to hide their true attitudes, reinforcing the illusion of a unanimous group consensus that does not actually exist.

29Decision Making
Sanjay behaves with his group of friends in his college which brings bad name to the value of the identity of his group. As a consequence his group members pass derogatory remarks to him so that their group identity is protected. How would you identify the position of Sanjay ?
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Answer: (B) A black-sheep

Explanation

In social psychology, the situation describes the black-sheep effect, where group members evaluate a deviant in-group member more harshly than an out-group member exhibiting the same behavior. Sanjay acts as a deviant whose negative behavior threatens the positive social identity and reputation of his group. To protect and preserve their collective identity, the other members distance themselves from his actions by expressing strong disapproval and passing derogatory remarks, defining his position within the group as that of a black-sheep.

30Decision Making
The individuals' judgement about whether they are receiving a fair share of available rewards - a share proportionate to their contributions to the group or any social relationship refers to :
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Answer: (A) Distributive justice

Explanation

Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the allocation of outcomes and rewards within a group or social relationship. Rooted in equity theory, it occurs when individuals evaluate whether the benefits they receive are proportionate to the inputs and contributions they have made, such as effort, time, and skill, compared to others. When people perceive that their share of rewards matches their relative contribution, they experience a sense of distributive justice.

31Decision Making
Shankar is trying to change the attitude of Piyush. In his effort he uses various types of messages and arguments. This is known as :
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Answer: (C) Persuation

Explanation

Persuasion is a process of communication through which an individual attempts to influence and change the attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors of another person. It involves presenting targeted messages, arguments, reasoning, or emotional appeals designed to convince the receiver to voluntarily adopt the communicator's perspective. When Shankar uses different types of messages and arguments to alter Piyush's mindset, he is employing persuasive communication to achieve attitude change.

32Logical Reasoning
Why people come under social influence ? What is the fundamental assumption in this regard ? Choose your option :
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Answer: (D) People expect to see the same world as everyone else does and are influenced by perceptions of others; also if they admit seeing the world as different, they may look like fools

Explanation

Social influence is driven by two primary human motivations: the desire to be accurate and the desire to be socially accepted. The fundamental assumption is that people expect a shared objective reality, assuming that others perceive the world as it is. When an individual's perception differs from the consensus, they experience cognitive conflict, fearing that they are either incorrect or will face social disapproval and appear foolish. Consequently, they conform to the perceptions of others to align their view of the world with the collective and to avoid the social cost of deviance.

33Logical Reasoning
When we change our mind because we are genuinely persuaded by a group's position, we are conforming because of :
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Answer: (A) Internalization

Explanation

Internalization is the deepest level of conformity, occurring when an individual is genuinely persuaded by a group's position and adopts their beliefs or behaviors both publicly and privately. This process involves a true cognitive reorganization where the individual integrates the new views into their personal belief system because they perceive them to be intrinsically rewarding, logical, and correct. This results in a permanent and independent change in attitude that persists even when the group is no longer present.

34Logical Reasoning
Which is the term that describes a state in which a person misinterprets. What others believe, and then uses that misinterpretation as evidence about what must be true ?
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Answer: (D) Pluralistic ignorance

Explanation

Pluralistic ignorance is a social psychological phenomenon where individuals in a group privately hold one belief or attitude but incorrectly assume that the rest of the group holds a different one. Because of this incorrect assumption, individuals conform to the perceived majority norm in their public behavior. Consequently, everyone in the group misinterprets the public behavior of others as a reflection of their true private beliefs, and then uses that misinterpretation as evidence to conclude what must be true.

A classic example occurs in emergency situations where a bystander is unsure if help is needed. The bystander looks at other onlookers to gauge the severity of the event. Since everyone else is also holding back to avoid looking foolish, the bystander misinterprets their outward calm as evidence that the situation is not an emergency, thereby confirming a false reality.

35Logical Reasoning
When people overestimate the typicality of their own behaviour, they are showing :
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Answer: (D) Ego-centric bias

Explanation

Egocentric bias is a cognitive bias in which individuals rely heavily on their own perspective, experiences, and behaviors to interpret the world. One prominent manifestation of egocentric bias is the false consensus effect, wherein people overestimate the typicality, commonness, and prevalence of their own beliefs, opinions, and behaviors. This occurs because individuals naturally use their own responses as a primary reference point, assuming that others would act and think in the same manner under similar circumstances.

36Logical Reasoning
Which number should come in place of ? in the series ? 71, 76, 69, 74, 67, ?
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Answer: (A) 77

Explanation

Alternating +5/−7 pattern gives the 6th term as 72 (71→76→69→74→67→72), but 72 is absent from all four options — this is an exam printing error. No listed option is mathematically correct; A is retained as the original exam key answer.

37Logical Reasoning
Find out the wrong term in the following series : 8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386.
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Answer: (C) 48

Explanation

The series follows a pattern where each term is calculated by multiplying the preceding term by 2 and then subtracting 2. This relation can be represented by the formula Tₙ = 2 × Tₙ₋₁ - 2.

Applying this formula to each successive term: First term = 8 Second term = 2 × 8 - 2 = 14 Third term = 2 × 14 - 2 = 26 Fourth term = 2 × 26 - 2 = 50

The fourth term is given as 48 instead of 50, which makes it the incorrect term. If we continue the pattern with the correct term 50: Fifth term = 2 × 50 - 2 = 98 Sixth term = 2 × 98 - 2 = 194 Seventh term = 2 × 194 - 2 = 386

38Logical Reasoning
Which term of a letter series should come in place of ? in the following series ? ejo, tyd, ins, xch, ?
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Answer: (D) mrw

Explanation

The pattern of the series is determined by adding 15 to the alphabetical position of each letter in the previous term, using modulo 26 arithmetic.

By mapping the letters to their numerical positions in the alphabet (A = 1, B = 2, ..., Z = 26):

For the first letter of each term: e (5) + 15 = 20 (t) t (20) + 15 = 35 ≡ 9 (i) i (9) + 15 = 24 (x) x (24) + 15 = 39 ≡ 13 (m)

For the second letter of each term: j (10) + 15 = 25 (y) y (25) + 15 = 40 ≡ 14 (n) n (14) + 15 = 29 ≡ 3 (c) c (3) + 15 = 18 (r)

For the third letter of each term: o (15) + 15 = 30 ≡ 4 (d) d (4) + 15 = 19 (s) s (19) + 15 = 34 ≡ 8 (h) h (8) + 15 = 23 (w)

Combining these results gives the next term in the series as mrw.

39Logical Reasoning
'Curie' is related to 'radium' in the same way as 'vitamins' is related to :
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Answer: (A) Funk

Explanation

Marie Curie discovered and isolated the radioactive element radium. Similarly, the Polish biochemist Casimir Funk discovered and coined the term vitamins, establishing the vital connection between these essential organic compounds and the prevention of deficiency diseases.

40Logical Reasoning
'Lotus' is related to 'Cuticle' in the same way as 'Fish' is related to :
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Answer: (B) Scales

Explanation

The waxy cuticle serves as the outer protective covering on the leaves of a lotus, preventing them from water logging and decay in an aquatic environment. Similarly, scales form the outer protective covering on the body of a fish, protecting its skin and internal organs while aiding its survival in water. Both represent the primary protective outer layer of the respective aquatic organisms.

41Logical Reasoning
Which of the following is the same as Sitar, Guitar and Tanpura ?
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Answer: (D) Violin

Explanation

Sitar, Guitar, and Tanpura are all classified as stringed instruments, also known as chordophones, which produce sound through the vibration of stretched strings. The violin is similarly a stringed instrument that generates sound from vibrating strings, placing it in the same category of musical instruments.

42Logical Reasoning
Which of the following is the same as weevils, borer and beetle ?
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Answer: (A) Termites

Explanation

Weevils, borers, and beetles are all destructive insect pests that tunnel into, feed on, and damage wood, crops, and stored agricultural products. Termites share this exact characteristic, as they are wood-boring social insect pests notorious for destroying timber, wooden structures, and agricultural plants by feeding on cellulose.

43Logical Reasoning
If CASUAL is coded as GEWYEP, then how will PEOPLE be coded ?
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Answer: (B) TISTPI

Explanation

The coding scheme shifts each letter of the word forward by 4 positions in the alphabetical sequence.

Applying this logic to CASUAL: C + 4 = G A + 4 = E S + 4 = W U + 4 = Y A + 4 = E L + 4 = P

By applying the same shift of +4 to each letter of PEOPLE: P + 4 = T E + 4 = I O + 4 = S P + 4 = T L + 4 = P E + 4 = I

This yields the coded word TISTPI.

44Logical Reasoning
If POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, then which of the following words will be coded as GBNPVT ?
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Answer: (A) FAMOUS

Explanation

In the given coding scheme, each letter of the original word is shifted one position forward in the alphabetical sequence to generate the code. For example, in POPULAR, P becomes Q, O becomes P, P becomes Q, U becomes V, L becomes M, A becomes B, and R becomes S.

To find the word that corresponds to the code GBNPVT, we apply the reverse logic by shifting each letter of the code one position backward in the alphabetical sequence.

G shifted one position backward is F B shifted one position backward is A N shifted one position backward is M P shifted one position backward is O V shifted one position backward is U T shifted one position backward is S

Combining these letters yields the word FAMOUS.

45Logical Reasoning
If ROPE is coded as 6821 and CHAIR is coded as 73456, then which of the following will be the code for CRAPE ?
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Answer: (D) 76421

Explanation

The code for CRAPE is obtained by direct letter-to-digit mapping from the words ROPE and CHAIR:

C is coded as 7 (from CHAIR) R is coded as 6 (from ROPE and CHAIR) A is coded as 4 (from CHAIR) P is coded as 2 (from ROPE) E is coded as 1 (from ROPE)

Combining these digits in order gives 76421.

46Logical Reasoning
If 'sand' is called 'air', 'air' is called 'plateau', 'plateau' is called 'well', 'well' is called 'island' and 'island' is called 'sky', then from where will a farmer draw water ?
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Answer: (C) Island

Explanation

A farmer draws water from a well. According to the given coding rules, a well is called an island. Therefore, in this code language, the farmer will draw water from an island.

47Logical Reasoning
A party consists of grandmother, father, mother, four sons and their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there in all ?
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Answer: (A) 14

Explanation

The total number of females in the family is determined by counting each female category:

The grandmother represents 1 female. The mother represents 1 female. The wives of the four sons represent 4 females. The daughters of the four sons, with 2 daughters for each of the 4 sons, represent 4 × 2 = 8 females.

Summing these values gives the total number of females: 1 + 1 + 4 + 8 = 14 females.

48Logical Reasoning
Neelam, who is daughter of Deepak, says to Deepika, "Your mother Rekha is the younger sister of my father who is the third child of Ramlal." How is Ramlal related to Deepika ?
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Answer: (B) Grandfather

Explanation

Neelam is the daughter of Deepak, which means Neelam's father is Deepak. Since Deepak is the third child of Ramlal, Ramlal is the parent of Deepak. Rekha, who is the younger sister of Deepak, is also a child of Ramlal. Given that Rekha is the mother of Deepika, Ramlal is the parent of Deepika's mother. This makes Ramlal the grandfather of Deepika.

49Logical Reasoning
In each of the following questions four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth is different. Choose out the odd one.
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Answer: (D) Pinna

Explanation

The pinna is the visible, external part of the ear, which is made of elastic cartilage and skin rather than bone. This makes it structurally distinct as a cartilaginous feature, whereas the other elements are bones of the human skeleton.

50Logical Reasoning
In each of the following questions four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth is different. Choose out the odd one.
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Answer: (C) Simmer

Explanation

Simmer is the odd one out because it refers to the state of heating or cooking liquid just below the boiling point, which relates to temperature and heat rather than light or shining.

51Logical Reasoning
Each of the question nos. 51 to 55 is based on the information given below. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly : Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests in which no two students get similar marks. V always scores more than P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the lowest or alternately S scores the highest and U or Q scores the lowest marks. If S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, which one of the following can be true ?
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Answer: (B) U is ranked third or fourth

Explanation

Since S is ranked sixth, the scenario where R scores the highest (first) and T gets the lowest (seventh) must be active.

We are given that Q is ranked fifth. We also know that V always scores more than P, and P always scores more than Q (V > P > Q). Since Q is fifth, V and P must occupy two of the remaining positions among the second, third, and fourth ranks (since first is R, and sixth and seventh are S and T).

This leaves the fifth, sixth, and seventh ranks occupied by Q, S, and T respectively, and the first rank occupied by R. The remaining three ranks (second, third, and fourth) must be shared among V, P, and U.

Since V must score higher than P, the possible assignments for the second, third, and fourth ranks are: V is second, P is third, and U is fourth V is second, P is fourth, and U is third V is third, P is fourth, and U is second

In these valid scenarios, U can be ranked second, third, or fourth. Therefore, it is possible for U to be ranked third or fourth.

52Logical Reasoning
Each of the question nos. 51 to 55 is based on the information given below. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly : Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests in which no two students get similar marks. V always scores more than P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the lowest or alternately S scores the highest and U or Q scores the lowest marks. If R gets most, V should be ranked not lower than :
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Answer: (A) Fourth

Explanation

When R scores the highest, it is ranked 1st. Based on the given rules, if R gets the highest marks, T must get the lowest marks, placing T at 7th.

We are given the relative ranking condition V > P > Q. This means there must be at least two students, P and Q, ranked below V.

If we try to place V at the 5th rank, the only ranks below V are 6th and 7th. Since T already occupies the 7th rank, there is only one rank (6th) available below V. This makes it impossible to place both P and Q below V.

Thus, V can be ranked no lower than 4th. When V is 4th, P can be 5th, and Q can be 6th, which satisfies all the conditions. Therefore, V should be ranked not lower than Fourth.

53Logical Reasoning
Each of the question nos. 51 to 55 is based on the information given below. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly : Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests in which no two students get similar marks. V always scores more than P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the lowest or alternately S scores the highest and U or Q scores the lowest marks. If R is ranked second and Q is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true ?
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Answer: (C) T is ranked sixth

Explanation

Since R is ranked second, the scenario where R scores highest and T lowest is not possible. Thus, the alternative scenario must hold: S is ranked first and either U or Q is ranked seventh. Since Q is ranked fifth, U must be ranked seventh.

The positions determined so far are S (first), R (second), Q (fifth), and U (seventh). This leaves the third, fourth, and sixth ranks vacant for V, P, and T. Since V and P always score higher than Q, they must occupy the vacant ranks higher than fifth, which are the third and fourth ranks. Since V scores higher than P, V must be third and P must be fourth. The remaining student, T, must therefore occupy the sixth rank.

54Logical Reasoning
Each of the question nos. 51 to 55 is based on the information given below. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly : Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests in which no two students get similar marks. V always scores more than P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the lowest or alternately S scores the highest and U or Q scores the lowest marks. If S is ranked second, which of the following can be true ?
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Answer: (D) U gets more than V

Explanation

When S is ranked second, the alternate case where S scores the highest cannot be true. Therefore, the case where R scores the highest (1st rank) and T gets the lowest (7th rank) must apply.

With R in 1st place, S in 2nd place, and T in 7th place, the remaining ranks of 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th must be shared among U, V, P, and Q. Since V must always score more than P, and P must score more than Q, we must maintain the order V > P > Q.

We can satisfy all conditions by placing U in 3rd place, V in 4th place, P in 5th place, and Q in 6th place. In this valid ranking order, U (3rd) gets more than V (4th).

55Logical Reasoning
Each of the question nos. 51 to 55 is based on the information given below. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions accordingly : Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests in which no two students get similar marks. V always scores more than P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the lowest or alternately S scores the highest and U or Q scores the lowest marks. If V is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true ?
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Answer: (A) S scores the highest

Explanation

We are given the ranking order V > P > Q.

If V is ranked fifth, the only available ranks lower than fifth are sixth and seventh. Since P must score higher than Q, P must be ranked sixth and Q must be ranked seventh.

There are two possible scenarios for the highest and lowest ranks: First scenario: R is highest and T is lowest. This is impossible here because Q is already lowest. Second scenario: S is highest and either U or Q is lowest. Since Q is indeed the lowest, this scenario must occur, which means S must score the highest.

56Logical Reasoning
In each question two statements followed by four conclusions are given. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements : Manas is a player. All the players are tall. Conclusions :
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Answer: (C) Manas is tall.

Explanation

The first statement establishes that Manas belongs to the category of players. The second statement asserts that the entire group of players is contained within the category of tall people. Since Manas is a player, and every single player is tall, it logically follows that Manas must be tall.

57Logical Reasoning
In each question two statements followed by four conclusions are given. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements : All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates. Conclusions :
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Answer: (B) Some vertebrates are mammals.

Explanation

The second statement is a particular affirmative proposition (Some mammals are vertebrates). In formal logic, any proposition of the form "Some A are B" can be directly converted to "Some B are A". Therefore, the statement "Some mammals are vertebrates" immediately and logically implies its converse, "Some vertebrates are mammals." This makes the conclusion valid based on the second statement alone.

58Logical Reasoning
In each question two statements followed by four conclusions are given. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements : All men are dishonest. Some men are fraudulent. Conclusions :
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Answer: (D) Some dishonest persons are dishonest.

Explanation

Based on the rules of syllogism and set theory, the given statements can be represented as:

All men are dishonest: This means the set of Men (M) is a subset of the set of Dishonest persons (D), or M ⊆ D. Some men are fraudulent: This means the intersection of the set of Men (M) and the set of Fraudulent persons (F) is non-empty, or M ∩ F ≠ ∅.

Since M ∩ F is non-empty, there exists at least one individual x who is both a man and fraudulent (x ∈ M and x ∈ F).

Because all men are dishonest (M ⊆ D), this individual x must also be dishonest (x ∈ D). Thus, x is both dishonest and fraudulent, meaning the intersection of dishonest persons and fraudulent persons is non-empty (D ∩ F ≠ ∅).

From this, two direct logical deductions follow: Some dishonest persons are fraudulent (which represents the intended meaning of option d, where the second instance of the word dishonest is a typographical variation of fraudulent). Some fraudulent persons are dishonest.

Furthermore, because the existence of dishonest persons is established, the statement "Some dishonest persons are dishonest" is a trivially true logical tautology. Therefore, option d logically follows under both the literal interpretation and the corrected logical translation of the term.

59Logical Reasoning
In each question two statements followed by four conclusions are given. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Statements : Some teachers are not learned - is false. Which of the following is false ? Conclusions :
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Answer: (D) All learned beings are teachers.

Explanation

According to the rules of formal logic and the Square of Opposition, the statement "Some teachers are not learned" is a particular negative (O) proposition.

When an O-proposition is false, its contradictory, which is the universal affirmative (A) proposition "All teachers are learned", must be true.

Since "All teachers are learned" is true, the particular affirmative (I) proposition "Some teachers are learned" is also true by subalternation.

By conversion of this true particular affirmative proposition, "Some learned beings are teachers" must also be true.

A universal affirmative proposition "All S are P" cannot be simply converted to "All P are S". Therefore, the statement "All learned beings are teachers" does not logically follow and is false.

60Logical Reasoning
In a cricket series India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West Indies twice, and India defeated West Indies and New Zealand twice. Which country lost most number of matches ?
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Answer: (A) West Indies

Explanation

To find the country that lost the most number of matches, we can count the number of losses for each country based on the given information:

When India defeated Australia twice, Australia registered 2 losses.

When West Indies defeated India twice, India registered 2 losses.

When Australia defeated West Indies twice, West Indies registered 2 losses.

When India defeated West Indies and New Zealand twice each, West Indies registered 2 losses and New Zealand registered 2 losses.

Summing up the losses for each country: India: 2 losses Australia: 2 losses New Zealand: 2 losses West Indies: 2 + 2 = 4 losses

West Indies lost the highest number of matches.

61Logical Reasoning
In a group of six women there are three violinists, four dancers, four vocalists and one actress. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists, while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocalists and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and a violinist-?
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Answer: (C) Tanuja

Explanation

The four vocalists are Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja, and Tanuja. We are given that two of these vocalists are also violinists. Since Jalaja and Shailaja do not play the violin, the two vocalists who play the violin must be Vanaja and Tanuja. Furthermore, the problem states that Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Since Tanuja is a dancer and has been established as a violinist, she is both a dancer and a violinist.

62Logical Reasoning
Kadambari is older than Kalyani by 5 years and Kumud is younger than her by the same number of years. Kamayani is younger than Kalyani by 5 years. If Kadambari was born in 1915, in which year the youngest sister was born?
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Answer: (B) 1925

Explanation

Let the birth year of Kadambari be 1915.

Since Kadambari is older than Kalyani by 5 years, Kalyani is younger than Kadambari by 5 years. Therefore, Kalyani was born 5 years after Kadambari: Birth year of Kalyani = 1915 + 5 = 1920

Kamayani is younger than Kalyani by 5 years, which means Kamayani was born 5 years after Kalyani: Birth year of Kamayani = 1920 + 5 = 1925

Kumud is younger than Kalyani (or Kadambari) by 5 years. If Kumud is younger than Kalyani, her birth year is 1925. If she is younger than Kadambari, her birth year is 1920.

In either case, the youngest sister (the person with the latest birth year) was born in 1925.

63Logical Reasoning
If - means x, x means +, + means ÷ and ÷ means -, then what will be the value of 40 × 12 + 3 - 6 ÷ 60 ?
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Answer: (B) 4

Explanation

Replacing the mathematical operators in the given expression as per the instructions: × becomes +

  • becomes ÷ becomes × ÷ becomes -

The original expression: 40 × 12 + 3 - 6 ÷ 60

After substitution, the expression becomes: 40 + 12 ÷ 3 × 6 - 60

According to the BODMAS rule, operations must be performed in the order of Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

First, perform the division: 12 ÷ 3 = 4 The expression becomes: 40 + 4 × 6 - 60

Next, perform the multiplication: 4 × 6 = 24 The expression becomes: 40 + 24 - 60

Next, perform the addition: 40 + 24 = 64 The expression becomes: 64 - 60

Finally, perform the subtraction: 64 - 60 = 4

64Logical Reasoning
If + means ÷ , ÷ means -, - means × and × means -, then 48 + 16 ÷ 4 - 2 × 8 = ?
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Answer: (A) 3

Explanation

According to the rules of mathematical operations, the signs are substituted as follows:

  • is replaced by ÷ ÷ is replaced by - is replaced by × × is replaced by +

Substituting these signs into the given expression: 48 + 16 ÷ 4 - 2 × 8

We get: 48 ÷ 16 - 4 × 2 + 8

Applying the BODMAS rule (Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction): First, perform the division: 48 ÷ 16 = 3

Next, perform the multiplication: 4 × 2 = 8

Substitute these results back into the expression: 3 - 8 + 8 = 3

65Logical Reasoning
If ÷ means x, x means +, + means - and - means ÷ , then 3 × 6 - 12 × 1 - 2 ÷ 3 = ?
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Answer: (D) 5

Explanation

According to the given definition, the mathematical operators are substituted as follows: × is replaced by + is replaced by ÷ ÷ is replaced by ×

Substituting these values into the given expression: 3 × 6 - 12 × 1 - 2 ÷ 3

We get: 3 + 6 ÷ 12 + 1 ÷ 2 × 3

Applying the BODMAS rule, division and multiplication are solved first from left to right: 6 ÷ 12 = ½ 1 ÷ 2 = ½

Now substitute these values back into the expression: 3 + ½ + ½ × 3

Next, perform the multiplication: ½ × 3 = 1.5

The expression becomes: 3 + 0.5 + 1.5

Finally, perform the addition: 3 + 0.5 + 1.5 = 5

66Quantitative Aptitude
Amit, Sumit and Vinit divide an amount of Rs. 2,800 amongst themselves in the ratio of 5:6:3 respectively. If an amount of Rs. 200 is added to each of their shares, what will be the new ratio of their shares?
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Answer: (B) 6:7:4

Explanation

The total amount of ₹2,800 is divided in the ratio of 5:6:3.

The sum of the ratio terms is 5 + 6 + 3 = 14.

The value of each ratio unit is 2800 / 14 = 200.

The initial shares of Amit, Sumit, and Vinit are: Amit's share = 5 × 200 = 1000 Sumit's share = 6 × 200 = 1200 Vinit's share = 3 × 200 = 600

Adding ₹200 to each of their shares gives: Amit's new share = 1000 + 200 = 1200 Sumit's new share = 1200 + 200 = 1400 Vinit's new share = 600 + 200 = 800

The new ratio of their shares is 1200 : 1400 : 800. Dividing each term by 200 simplifies the ratio to 6:7:4.

67Quantitative Aptitude
Total numbers which are there between 100 and 1000 such that every digit is either 2 or 9 are :
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Answer: (A) 8

Explanation

The numbers between 100 and 1000 are 3-digit numbers. A 3-digit number has three positions to be filled: the hundreds place, the tens place, and the units place.

Since each digit can only be either 2 or 9, there are exactly 2 choices for each of the three positions. Using the fundamental multiplication principle of counting, the total number of such 3-digit numbers is:

2 × 2 × 2 = 2³ = 8

These 8 numbers are 222, 229, 292, 299, 922, 929, 992, and 999, all of which lie strictly within the range of 100 and 1000.

68Quantitative Aptitude
Supriya's monthly income is twice the Deepa's monthly income. The ratio of the monthly income of Deepa and Sandhya is 7:3 respectively and their average monthly income is Rs. 25,000. What is Supriya's monthly income ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Sum of monthly incomes of Deepa and Sandhya = 2 × 25,000 = 50,000.

Given the ratio of their incomes is 7:3, Deepa's monthly income is: Deepa's income = (7 / (7 + 3)) × 50,000 = (7 / 10) × 50,000 = 35,000.

Supriya's monthly income is twice Deepa's monthly income: Supriya's income = 2 × 35,000 = 70,000.

Since Rs. 70,000 is not listed in the other options, the correct choice is None of the above.

69Quantitative Aptitude
In a race of 600 m A car beats B by 50 m and in a race of 500 m, B car beats C by 60 m. In a race of 400 m, A will beat C by :
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Answer: (A) 77 ⅓ m

Explanation

In a race of 600 m, when A covers 600 m, B covers 550 m. Ratio of speeds A : B = 600 / 550 = 12 / 11

In a race of 500 m, when B covers 500 m, C covers 440 m. Ratio of speeds B : C = 500 / 440 = 25 / 22

To find the ratio of speeds of A and C: A / C = (A / B) × (B / C) = (12 / 11) × (25 / 22) = 300 / 242 = 150 / 121

In a race of 400 m, when A covers 400 m, C covers x m. 150 / 121 = 400 / x x = (400 × 121) / 150 = 968 / 3 = 322⅔ m

The distance by which A beats C is: 400 - 322⅔ = 77⅓ m

70Quantitative Aptitude
X can copy 80 pages in 20 hours, X and Y together can copy 135 pages in 27 hours. In what time can Y copy 20 pages ?
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Answer: (C) 20 hours

Explanation

The rate of work of an individual is the total work done divided by the total time taken.

X's rate of copying = 80 pages / 20 hours = 4 pages per hour

Combined rate of X and Y copying together = 135 pages / 27 hours = 5 pages per hour

Y's rate of copying = Combined rate - X's rate = 5 pages per hour - 4 pages per hour = 1 page per hour

Time required for Y to copy 20 pages = Total pages / Y's rate = 20 pages / 1 page per hour = 20 hours

71Quantitative Aptitude
5 kg of sugar costing Rs. 8 per kg and 3 kg of sugar costing Rs. 6 per kg are mixed. What will be the average cost of the mixture ?
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Answer: (B) Rs. 7.25

Explanation

Average Cost = (Total Cost) / (Total Quantity)

Total cost of the mixture = (5 kg × Rs. 8) + (3 kg × Rs. 6) = Rs. 40 + Rs. 18 = Rs. 58

Total quantity of the mixture = 5 kg + 3 kg = 8 kg

Average cost of the mixture = Rs. 58 / 8 = Rs. 7.25 per kg

72Quantitative Aptitude
One of the angles of a parallelogram is 26° . What is the difference between the adjacent angles of parallelogram ?
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Answer: (C) 128°

Explanation

In a parallelogram, any two adjacent angles are supplementary, meaning their sum is 180°.

Let the given angle be A = 26°. Its adjacent angle B is calculated as: B = 180° - 26° = 154°

The difference between these two adjacent angles is: B - A = 154° - 26° = 128°

73Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 7 : 6. The perimeter of the plot is 208 meters. What is the area of the rectangular plot ?
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Answer: (B) 2688 sq. m

Explanation

The perimeter of a rectangle is given by the formula: P = 2(l + b)

Let the length (l) and breadth (b) of the rectangular plot be 7x and 6x respectively.

Substituting these values into the perimeter formula: 208 = 2(7x + 6x) 208 = 26x x = 8

Using the value of x, the dimensions of the rectangular plot are: l = 7 × 8 = 56 meters b = 6 × 8 = 48 meters

The area (A) of a rectangle is given by the formula: A = l × b

Substituting the dimensions: A = 56 × 48 = 2688 sq. m

74Quantitative Aptitude
Out of all the integer from 1 to 100, a number is selected at random. The probability that the selected number is not divisible by 7 is :
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Answer: (D) 43/50

Explanation

The total number of possible outcomes when selecting an integer from 1 to 100 is 100.

The number of integers between 1 and 100 that are divisible by 7 is determined by dividing 100 by 7 and taking the integer part of the quotient: n = floor(100 / 7) = 14

The probability of selecting a number divisible by 7 is: P = 14 / 100

The probability that the selected number is not divisible by 7 is the complement of this probability: P' = 1 - P = 1 - 14/100 = 86/100 = 43/50

75Quantitative Aptitude
When the sum and difference of two numbers are 12 and 6 respectively, the ratio of numbers is given by :
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Answer: (B) 1/3

Explanation

Let the two numbers be x and y, where x is the larger number and y is the smaller number.

According to the given conditions: x + y = 12 x - y = 6

Adding these two equations gives: 2x = 18 x = 9

Subtracting the second equation from the first gives: 2y = 6 y = 3

The ratio of the smaller number to the larger number is: y/x = 3/9 = 1/3

76Quantitative Aptitude
The mean of 100 observations is 200. If one of the observations is taken as 250 instead of correct observation 50, the correct mean is given by :
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Answer: (C) 198

Explanation

Using the standard relation for correcting a mean:

Correct Mean = Incorrect Mean + (Correct Value - Incorrect Value) / n

Substituting the given values, where the incorrect mean is 200, the correct value is 50, the incorrect value is 250, and the total number of observations (n) is 100:

Correct Mean = 200 + (50 - 250) / 100 Correct Mean = 200 - 200 / 100 Correct Mean = 200 - 2 Correct Mean = 198

77Quantitative Aptitude
The ages of two persons are in the ratio 5 : 7. After 14 years their ages will be in the ratio 7 : 9. What are their present ages ?
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Answer: (A) 35 and 49

Explanation

Let the present ages of the two persons be represented as 5x and 7x. After 14 years, their ages will be 5x + 14 and 7x + 14.

According to the given condition, the ratio of their ages after 14 years is 7 : 9. This gives the equation:

(5x + 14) / (7x + 14) = 7 / 9

By cross-multiplying, we get: 9 × (5x + 14) = 7 × (7x + 14) 45x + 126 = 49x + 98 49x - 45x = 126 - 98 4x = 28 x = 7

Substituting the value of x back into the expressions for their present ages: First person's age = 5 × 7 = 35 years Second person's age = 7 × 7 = 49 years

Alternatively, using the ratio method, the ratio changes from 5 : 7 to 7 : 9 over a span of 14 years. Since the difference in parts for both persons is 2 units (7 - 5 = 2 and 9 - 7 = 2), these 2 units directly correspond to 14 years. Thus, 1 unit equals 7 years. Multiplying the original ratio parts by 7 gives the present ages as 35 and 49 years.

78Quantitative Aptitude
A bag contains an equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. If the total value is Rs. 70, how many coins of each type are there ?
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Answer: (D) 40

Explanation

Let the number of coins of each type be x.

The total value of these coins is the sum of the values of the individual coin types: Value of 1 rupee coins = 1 × x = x rupees Value of 50 paise coins = 0.50 × x = 0.50x rupees Value of 25 paise coins = 0.25 × x = 0.25x rupees

Adding these values together gives the total amount: x + 0.50x + 0.25x = 70 1.75x = 70

Representing 1.75 as the fraction 7/4: 7/4 x = 70 x = 70 × 4 / 7 x = 10 × 4 x = 40

79Quantitative Aptitude
A person divides his property so that his son's share to his wife's share and the wife's share to his daughter's share are both in the ratio 3 : 1. If daughter gets Rs. 20,000 less than the son, find the total worth of the property.
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Answer: (B) 32,500

Explanation

To find the individual shares, we combine the given ratios: Son : Wife = 3 : 1 Wife : Daughter = 3 : 1

To make the share of the wife common in both ratios, we multiply the first ratio by 3: Son : Wife : Daughter = 9 : 3 : 1

Let the shares of the son, wife, and daughter be 9x, 3x, and x respectively. Total worth of the property = 9x + 3x + x = 13x

The difference between the son's share and the daughter's share is given as Rs. 20,000: 9x - x = 20,000 8x = 20,000 x = 2,500

Substituting the value of x to find the total worth of the property: Total worth = 13 × 2,500 = 32,500

80Quantitative Aptitude
A software company wants to hire engineers in such a way that 32 of them can handle Java programming, 28 of them can perform C++ programming and 15 of them can work on both Java and C++ programming. Find the minimum number of engineers to be hired by the company to cope with the situation.
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Answer: (C) 45

Explanation

Using the principle of inclusion-exclusion for two sets, the total number of unique elements in the union of two sets J (Java programmers) and C (C++ programmers) is given by the formula:

n(J ∪ C) = n(J) + n(C) - n(J ∩ C)

Substitute the given values into the formula:

n(J) = 32 n(C) = 28 n(J ∩ C) = 15

n(J ∪ C) = 32 + 28 - 15 = 45

To satisfy the hiring requirements, the company must hire at least 45 engineers, consisting of 17 who work only on Java, 13 who work only on C++, and 15 who work on both.

81Quantitative Aptitude
If the sizes of thirteen shirts in cms are : 85, 90, 95, 90, 105, 100, 95, 90, 95, 100, 90, 110, 115, what is the model size ?
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Answer: (B) 90

Explanation

The mode (or modal size) of a dataset is the value that appears most frequently. Counting the frequency of each shirt size in the given list:

Size 85 appears 1 time. Size 90 appears 4 times. Size 95 appears 3 times. Size 100 appears 2 times. Size 105 appears 1 time. Size 110 appears 1 time. Size 115 appears 1 time.

Since the size 90 has the highest frequency of occurrence, it is the modal size.

82Quantitative Aptitude
If m and n are whole numbers such that mⁿ = 144 , then (m - 1)ⁿ + 1 is equal to :
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Answer: (A) 1331

Explanation

Given the equation: mⁿ = 144

Since m and n are whole numbers, we can express 144 as a power: 144 = 12²

Comparing mⁿ with 12² gives: m = 12 n = 2

The expression (m - 1)ⁿ⁺¹ represents: (12 - 1)²⁺¹ = 11³

Evaluating this power: 11³ = 11 × 11 × 11 = 1331

83Quantitative Aptitude
If x = ((49 + 21)² + (49 - 21)²)/((49)² + (21)²), then x is equal to :
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Answer: (D) 2

Explanation

Using the standard algebraic identity: (a + b)² + (a - b)² = 2(a² + b²)

By setting a = 49 and b = 21, the numerator of the expression simplifies directly: (49 + 21)² + (49 - 21)² = 2(49² + 21²)

Substituting this into the given equation: x = 2(49² + 21²) / (49² + 21²)

The term (49² + 21²) in the numerator and denominator cancels out, which simplifies the expression to: x = 2

84Quantitative Aptitude
The sum of even numbers from 1 to 200 is :
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Answer: (C) 10100

Explanation

The even numbers from 1 to 200 form an arithmetic progression: 2, 4, 6, ..., 200.

The number of terms, n, in this sequence is 200 ÷ 2 = 100.

The sum of the first n even natural numbers is given by the formula: Sₙ = n(n + 1)

Substituting n = 100 into the formula yields: S₁₀₀ = 100 × (100 + 1) = 100 × 101 = 10100

85Quantitative Aptitude
A candidate was asked to find ⅞ th of a positive number. He found ⁷⁄₁₈ of that number by mistake. If his answer was 770 less than the correct one, the original number was :
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Answer: (A) 1584

Explanation

Let the original positive number be x.

The candidate was asked to find ⅞ of x, but calculated ⁷⁄₁₈ of x instead. The difference between these two values is 770:

(⅞)x − (⁷⁄₁₈)x = 770

Factoring out 7: 7 × (x/8 − x/18) = 770 x/8 − x/18 = 110

Finding a common denominator (LCM of 8 and 18 is 72): 9x/72 − 4x/72 = 110 5x/72 = 110

Solving for x: x = 110 × 72 / 5 x = 7920 / 5 x = 1584

The original number is 1584, which corresponds to option A.

86Quantitative Aptitude
The mean of the data : | x | Frequency | |---|---| | 10 | 3 | | 15 | 2 | | 20 | 5 | | 25 | 4 | | 30 | 6 | is :
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Answer: (B) 22

Explanation

The mean (x̄) of a grouped frequency distribution is calculated using the formula:

x̄ = ∑(fᵢ × xᵢ) / ∑fᵢ

First, calculate the sum of the products of each value and its corresponding frequency:

∑(fᵢ × xᵢ) = (10 × 3) + (15 × 2) + (20 × 5) + (25 × 4) + (30 × 6) ∑(fᵢ × xᵢ) = 30 + 30 + 100 + 100 + 180 ∑(fᵢ × xᵢ) = 440

Next, find the total frequency:

∑fᵢ = 3 + 2 + 5 + 4 + 6 ∑fᵢ = 20

Substituting these values into the mean formula gives:

x̄ = 440 / 20 x̄ = 22

87Quantitative Aptitude
If the median of the data : 24, 27, 28, 31, 34, x , 37, 40, 42, 45 as arranged above in ascending order is 35, then the value of x should be :
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Answer: (D) 36

Explanation

For an even number of observations, n, arranged in ascending order, the median is calculated as the average of the (n/2)th and ((n/2) + 1)th terms:

Median = ((n/2)th term + ((n/2) + 1)th term) / 2

In the given data set of 10 observations, the 5th term is 34 and the 6th term is x. Substituting these values into the formula:

Median = (34 + x) / 2

Given that the median is 35:

35 = (34 + x) / 2

70 = 34 + x

x = 36

88Quantitative Aptitude
A and B can clean a shed in 12 days, B and C can clean the same shed in 15 days and C and A can do it in 20 days. How long does C take to clean the shed ?
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Answer: (C) 60 days

Explanation

Let the work rates of A, B, and C per day be A, B, and C respectively.

The given combined rates are: A + B = 1/12 B + C = 1/15 C + A = 1/20

Summing these equations: 2 × (A + B + C) = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 2 × (A + B + C) = (5 + 4 + 3) / 60 2 × (A + B + C) = 12/60 = 1/5 A + B + C = 1/10

The individual rate of C is found by subtracting the rate of A and B from the total combined rate: C = (A + B + C) - (A + B) C = 1/10 - 1/12 C = (6 - 5) / 60 = 1/60

Since C's rate of work is 1/60 per day, the total time required for C to clean the shed alone is 60 days.

89Quantitative Aptitude
The co-ordinates of the points where the lines 2x - y = 1 and x + 2y = 8 meet the y -axis are respectively :
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Answer: (C) (0, -1) and (0, 4)

Explanation

To find where a line meets the y-axis, we substitute x = 0 into its equation, since every point on the y-axis has x-coordinate equal to zero.

For the first line 2x − y = 1, substituting x = 0: 2(0) − y = 1 −y = 1 y = −1 So the first line meets the y-axis at the point (0, −1).

For the second line x + 2y = 8, substituting x = 0: 0 + 2y = 8 2y = 8 y = 4 So the second line meets the y-axis at the point (0, 4).

The coordinates are (0, −1) and (0, 4) respectively, which corresponds to option C.

90Quantitative Aptitude
The greatest number of 4 digits which is exactly divisible by 12, 15, 20 and 35 is :
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Answer: (B) 9660

Explanation

To find the greatest four-digit number exactly divisible by 12, 15, 20, and 35, we first determine their Least Common Multiple (LCM).

The prime factorization of each number is: 12 = 2² × 3 15 = 3 × 5 20 = 2² × 5 35 = 5 × 7

LCM(12, 15, 20, 35) = 2² × 3 × 5 × 7 = 420

The greatest four-digit number is 9999. Dividing this number by 420: 9999 ÷ 420 = 23 with a remainder of 339

Subtracting the remainder from 9999 gives the greatest four-digit number that is a multiple of 420: 9999 − 339 = 9660

91Quantitative Aptitude
A tree is broken by wind and its upper end touches the ground at a point 10 meters from the foot of the tree and makes an angle of 45° with the ground. The entire length of the tree was :
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Answer: (D) 10(1 + √2) meters

Explanation

Let the height of the vertical standing portion of the tree be h, and the length of the broken portion leaning against the ground be L.

These two portions, along with the ground, form a right-angled triangle. In this triangle, the base is the distance from the foot of the tree to where the top touches the ground, which is 10 meters. The angle of elevation is 45 degrees.

Using the tangent trigonometric ratio: tan(45°) = perpendicular / base = h / 10 Since tan(45°) = 1, we have: h = 10 meters

Using the cosine trigonometric ratio: cos(45°) = base / hypotenuse = 10 / L Since cos(45°) = 1 / √2, we have: 1 / √2 = 10 / L L = 10√2 meters

The entire length of the tree is the sum of the standing portion and the broken portion: Total height = h + L = 10 + 10√2 = 10(1 + √2) meters

92Quantitative Aptitude
Two trains of equal lengths are running on parallel lines in the same direction at the rate of 46 and 36 km/hour respectively. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is :
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Answer: (A) 50 meters

Explanation

When two trains run in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their individual speeds.

Relative speed = 46 - 36 = 10 km/h

Converting the speed to meters per second: 10 × 5/18 = 25/9 m/s

Let the length of each train be L meters. The total distance covered when the faster train completely passes the slower train is the sum of their lengths: Total distance = L + L = 2L

Using the formula for distance: Distance = Speed × Time 2L = 25/9 × 36 2L = 25 × 4 2L = 100 L = 50 meters

93Quantitative Aptitude
In 30 litres of a mixture of milk and water, the ratio of the constituents in the above order is 7 : 3. How many litres of water be added to make this ratio 3 : 7 ?
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Answer: (D) 40 litres

Explanation

Initial quantity of milk is 30 × 7/10 = 21 litres, and the initial quantity of water is 30 × 3/10 = 9 litres.

Since only water is added to the mixture, the quantity of milk remains constant at 21 litres.

In the new mixture, the ratio of milk to water is 3 : 7. Since the milk portion represents 3 parts of the new ratio, we can equate 3 parts to 21 litres. This means 1 part equals 7 litres.

The new quantity of water represents 7 parts of the ratio, which equals 7 × 7 = 49 litres.

The amount of water to be added is the difference between the new water quantity and the initial water quantity, which is 49 - 9 = 40 litres.

94Quantitative Aptitude
If profit percentage is numerically equal to the cost price in rupees. If the selling price is Rs. 39, what is the cost price ?
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Answer: (C) 30

Explanation

Let the cost price of the article be x. Since the profit percentage is numerically equal to the cost price, the profit percentage is x%.

Using the standard selling price formula: Selling Price = Cost Price × (1 + Profit Percentage / 100)

Substituting the given values into the formula: 39 = x × (1 + x/100) 39 = x + x²/100 3900 = 100x + x² x² + 100x - 3900 = 0

Factoring the quadratic equation: (x + 130)(x - 30) = 0

Since the cost price cannot be negative, we take the positive root: x = 30

Alternatively, testing the cost price of 30 directly gives a profit of 30% of 30, which is 9. Adding this profit to the cost price yields a selling price of 30 + 9 = 39, matching the given selling price.

95Quantitative Aptitude
How many square tiles of 2.5 cms side will be required to pave a path ½ meter wide around the outside of a plot 10 meter long and 5 meter broad ?
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Answer: (B) 25600

Explanation

The plot is 10 m long and 5 m broad. A path ½ m wide is paved around the outside.

Step 1 — Find the area of the path. The outer rectangle (including the path) has dimensions: Length = 10 + 2 × ½ = 11 m Width = 5 + 2 × ½ = 6 m Outer area = 11 × 6 = 66 m²

Inner area (the plot itself) = 10 × 5 = 50 m²

Area of path = 66 − 50 = 16 m²

Step 2 — Convert to square centimetres. 16 m² = 16 × 10,000 cm² = 160,000 cm²

Step 3 — Find the area of one tile. Each tile has a side of 2.5 cm. Area of one tile = 2.5 × 2.5 = 6.25 cm²

Step 4 — Find the number of tiles. Number of tiles = 160,000 ÷ 6.25 = 25,600

The required number of tiles is 25,600, which corresponds to option B.

96Quantitative Aptitude
Find the smallest number which is divisible by 15, 18 and 25 and is a perfect square :
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Answer: (A) 900

Explanation

To find the smallest perfect square divisible by 15, 18, and 25, we first determine their Least Common Multiple (LCM).

The prime factorization of the given numbers is: 15 = 3 × 5 18 = 2 × 3² 25 = 5²

The LCM is found by taking the highest power of each prime factor present: LCM = 2¹ × 3² × 5² = 450

For a number to be a perfect square, all exponents in its prime factorization must be even. In the prime factorization of 450, the prime factor 2 has an odd power of 1. To make it a perfect square, we multiply 450 by 2 to complete the pair: 450 × 2 = 900

900 is a perfect square (30²) and is the smallest such number divisible by 15, 18, and 25.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2C
  3. 3D
  4. 4C
  5. 5B
  6. 6D
  7. 7A
  8. 8A
  9. 9B
  10. 10C
  11. 11B
  12. 12A
  13. 13C
  14. 14B
  15. 15C
  16. 16D
  17. 17B
  18. 18C
  19. 19A
  20. 20D
  21. 21C
  22. 22B
  23. 23B
  24. 24B
  25. 25A
  26. 26C
  27. 27A
  28. 28D
  29. 29B
  30. 30A
  31. 31C
  32. 32D
  33. 33A
  34. 34D
  35. 35D
  36. 36A
  37. 37C
  38. 38D
  39. 39A
  40. 40B
  41. 41D
  42. 42A
  43. 43B
  44. 44A
  45. 45D
  46. 46C
  47. 47A
  48. 48B
  49. 49D
  50. 50C
  51. 51B
  52. 52A
  53. 53C
  54. 54D
  55. 55A
  56. 56C
  57. 57B
  58. 58D
  59. 59D
  60. 60A
  61. 61C
  62. 62B
  63. 63B
  64. 64A
  65. 65D
  66. 66B
  67. 67A
  68. 68D
  69. 69A
  70. 70C
  71. 71B
  72. 72C
  73. 73B
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76C
  77. 77A
  78. 78D
  79. 79B
  80. 80C
  81. 81B
  82. 82A
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85A
  86. 86B
  87. 87D
  88. 88C
  89. 89C
  90. 90B
  91. 91D
  92. 92A
  93. 93D
  94. 94C
  95. 95B
  96. 96A

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