SSC CGL2013General AwarenessPage 1 of 6

SSC CGL Tier 1 2013 General Awareness Questions with Solutions

Questions from every shift of the year, grouped by section. Questions 1–50 of 297, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation.

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1General Awareness
Social accounting system in India classified into is
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Answer: (C) public sector, private sector, joint sector

Explanation

The social accounting system in India provides a framework for the systematic recording and presentation of the economic transactions of the nation by categorizing institutional units based on their ownership and control structures. This system classifies the economy into the public sector, which includes government administrative departments and state-owned enterprises; the private sector, consisting of households and private corporate bodies; and the joint sector, which comprises enterprises where ownership and management are shared between the government and private entities. This sectoral division is essential for national income accounting as it allows for a detailed analysis of resource allocation, capital formation, and the specific economic contributions of different organizational forms within the Indian domestic territory.

2General Awareness
Forced savings refer to
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Answer: (D) reduction of consumption consequent to a rise in prices

Explanation

Forced saving occurs when a rise in the general price level reduces the real purchasing power of consumers, thereby compelling them to consume less than they otherwise would have. In an inflationary environment, if nominal incomes do not rise as fast as prices, the quantity of goods and services individuals can purchase decreases. This involuntary reduction in consumption releases real resources that can then be utilized for investment or government expenditure. Effectively, the community is forced to save because the cost of living exceeds the growth of their disposable income, shifting the balance from private consumption to other sectors of the economy.

3General Awareness
The demand for labour is called
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Answer: (B) derived demand

Explanation

The demand for labour is a derived demand because it depends on the demand for the goods and services that the labour helps to produce. Firms hire workers only when there is a market for the products those workers create.

4General Awareness
Which of the following is not an investment expenditure in goods and services?
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Answer: (C) An increase in business inventories

Explanation

An increase in business inventories is classified as a change in stocks rather than a direct investment expenditure. In economic accounting, particularly in the context of Gross Fixed Capital Formation, investment expenditure refers to the active outlay of funds to acquire new fixed assets that increase the long-term productive capacity of an economy. An increase in inventory represents the value of goods that have been produced but remain unsold, or raw materials that have not yet been processed. While this is included in the broader category of Gross Investment to ensure the national income identity balances, it often reflects a residual outcome where production exceeds market demand. Unlike fixed capital assets, it is treated as a change in current assets and is not categorized as a proactive expenditure on a final capital good or service.

5General Awareness
Which one of the following represents the savings of the private corporate sector?
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Answer: (B) Undistributed profits

Explanation

Savings of the private corporate sector consist of undistributed profits, which are the net profits remaining after the payment of taxes and dividends. These retained earnings are kept by the company for reinvestment or to meet future requirements rather than being distributed to shareholders.

6General Awareness
Who presides over the joint session of Indian Parliament?
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Answer: (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation

According to Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. This provision ensures that the presiding officer of the more numerous House leads the proceedings when the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha meet together to resolve a deadlock on a bill, as outlined under Article 108. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides, followed by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

7General Awareness
Division of powers and independent Judiciary are the two important features of
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Answer: (C) federal form of Government

Explanation

A federal form of government is characterized by a constitutional distribution of powers between a central authority and its constituent units, such as states or provinces. This division ensures that both levels of government operate within their respective spheres of jurisdiction as defined by a written constitution. An independent judiciary is a critical pillar of this system, as it acts as the guardian of the constitution and the final arbiter in legal disputes. It ensures that neither the central nor the state governments overstep their constitutional boundaries, thereby maintaining the balance of power and protecting the autonomy of the sub-national units.

8General Awareness
Which article of the Indian Constitution did Dr BR Ambedkar term as the 'Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution'?
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Answer: (C) Article 32

Explanation

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution because it provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies. This article ensures that the Fundamental Rights guaranteed to citizens are not mere paper declarations by providing a functional mechanism for their enforcement. It grants every citizen the right to move the Supreme Court directly if their fundamental rights are violated. Under this article, the Supreme Court has the power to issue directions, orders, or writs including Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto, and Certiorari for the protection of these rights. Ambedkar argued that without such a remedy, all other rights would be meaningless, making this provision the most critical element of the entire constitutional framework.

9General Awareness
Who was the first to use the term 'State'?
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Answer: (C) Machiavelli

Explanation

Niccolo Machiavelli is credited with being the first political thinker to use the term State in its modern sense. In the opening sentence of his famous work, The Prince, written in 1513, he used the Italian word lo stato to describe a sovereign political entity that exercises authority over a territory and its people. While ancient Greek and Roman philosophers used terms like polis, civitas, or res publica to describe political communities, Machiavelli introduced a secular and power-oriented conceptualization of the state as an independent administrative and legal apparatus. His usage marked a significant shift toward the modern understanding of the state as a centralized institution of political power.

10General Awareness
Under which article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?
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Answer: (D) Article 33

Explanation

Article 33 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the application of fundamental rights to the members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous services. The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline within these specialized organizations, which is crucial for national security and public order. This legislative power is vested exclusively in the Parliament and cannot be exercised by state legislatures. Laws enacted under this article, such as the Army Act, Navy Act, and Air Force Act, are protected from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violating fundamental rights, allowing for restrictions on activities like forming associations, participating in political demonstrations, or communicating with the press.

11General Awareness
Pulakesin II was the greatest ruler of the
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Answer: (A) Chvalukyas of Badami

Explanation

Pulakesin II was the most illustrious monarch of the Vatapi Chalukya dynasty, ruling from 610 to 642 CE. His reign and military achievements are documented in the Aihole inscription, a Sanskrit panegyric composed by his court poet Ravikirti. He is famously credited with defeating the northern Emperor Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada River, which established the Narmada as the boundary between their respective empires. Under Pulakesin II, the Badami Chalukyas consolidated their power over the Deccan, transforming their kingdom into a major imperial power that influenced the political and cultural landscape of early medieval India.

12General Awareness
The Uttaramerur inscription provides information on the administration of the
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Answer: (C) Cholas

Explanation

The Uttaramerur inscriptions, dating to the reign of the Chola monarch Parantaka I in the early 10th century, provide a comprehensive record of the local self-government and village administration during the Chola period. These inscriptions detail the constitution and functioning of the Sabha, the village assembly of Brahmin settlements, and specify the qualifications and disqualifications for its members. A key feature described is the Kudavolai system, where members of various committees were chosen by drawing palm-leaf tickets from a pot. This evidence illustrates the highly organized and decentralized administrative system that characterized Chola governance, emphasizing local autonomy and the rigorous selection process for representatives.

13General Awareness
Pitts India Act of 1784 was a/an
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Answer: (B) ordinance

Explanation

The Pitt's India Act of 1784 was an authoritative legislative decree passed by the British Parliament to bring the East India Company's administration under the direct supervision of the British government. It functioned as a formal ordinance that established a dual system of governance, creating the Board of Control to oversee the Company's civil, military, and revenue affairs. This act ensured that the British Crown held ultimate political authority over the Company's territorial possessions in India, effectively serving as a high-level regulatory mandate to rectify the previous management's deficiencies.

14General Awareness
Which one of the following statements is not true in respect of AO Hume?
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Answer: (C) He presided over the Congress Annual Sessions twice

Explanation

Allan Octavian Hume served as the General Secretary of the Indian National Congress from its formation in 1885 until 1906, but he never presided over any of its annual sessions. Although he was the primary force behind the establishment of the organization and managed its administrative affairs for over two decades, the presidential chair was always occupied by other leaders. The first session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, and while other British individuals like George Yule and William Wedderburn did serve as Congress presidents, Hume himself remained strictly in the role of the General Secretary to guide the party's growth.

15General Awareness
Which of the following movements saw the biggest peasant guerrilla war on the eve of independence?
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Answer: (C) Telangana Movement

Explanation

The Telangana Movement (1946-1951) was the most intense and largest peasant guerrilla war in modern Indian history, involving nearly 3,000 villages and 3 million people. It was directed against the feudal oppression of the Nizam of Hyderabad and continued through the period of Indian independence.

16General Awareness
Maps on large scale, representing both natural and man-made features are called
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Answer: (A) Topographic maps

Explanation

Topographic maps are large-scale maps designed to provide detailed representations of the Earth surface. These maps are characterized by their ability to depict both natural features, such as mountains, valleys, rivers, and forests, and man-made or cultural features, such as roads, railways, buildings, and administrative boundaries. By using specific symbols and contour lines to indicate elevation and terrain shape, topographic maps offer a precise three-dimensional perspective of the landscape on a two-dimensional plane. Because they cover relatively small geographical areas with a high level of detail, they are essential tools for engineering, urban planning, and navigation.

17General Awareness
Which river in India flows in a rift-valley?
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Answer: (B) Narmada

Explanation

The Narmada river flows through a structurally controlled rift valley that was formed due to the subsidence of a land block between two parallel faults. This valley is situated between the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. The formation of this rift valley is a result of the intense tectonic activity and crustal deformation that occurred during the Himalayan orogeny, which created cracks and longitudinal faults in the hard crystalline block of the Peninsular Plateau. Because the river is confined within this narrow, sunken graben, it flows westward and drains into the Arabian Sea, traveling against the general eastward tilt of the Indian subcontinent.

18General Awareness
A narrow strip of land that connects two larger land masses is called
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Answer: (C) isthmus

Explanation

An isthmus is a narrow piece of land with water on each side that joins two larger areas of land. It acts as a land bridge, providing a natural link between continents or large territories. For instance, the Isthmus of Panama connects North America and South America while separating the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. Similarly, the Isthmus of Suez connects Africa and Asia. This geographical feature is characterized by its role in connecting landmasses that would otherwise be separated by seas or oceans.

19General Awareness
Tiny marine animals which constitute limestone skeletons are called
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Answer: (B) coral reefs

Explanation

Coral polyps are tiny, colonial marine invertebrates that extract calcium carbonate from seawater to create a hard, protective external skeleton. This skeletal structure is composed of limestone (CaCO₃) and serves as the physical foundation for the living animal. As individual polyps die, their stony skeletons remain, and new generations of polyps grow on top of them. Over long periods, the accumulation of these limestone skeletons results in the formation of massive structures known as coral reefs. These reefs are essentially biological limestone formations built by the continuous secretion and deposition of calcium carbonate by these tiny marine organisms.

20General Awareness
Apatanis are the major tribal group of
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Answer: (C) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

The Apatani people are a major tribal group residing in the Ziro Valley of the Lower Subansiri district in Arunachal Pradesh. They are distinguished from other tribes by their unique settled agricultural system, which integrates wet rice cultivation with fish farming in the same fields without the use of farm animals or machinery. Historically, the Apatani are also recognized for their distinct cultural practices, including the traditional nose plugs and facial tattoos once common among women, and their social organization centered around patrilineal clans. Their language belongs to the Tani branch of the Sino-Tibetan family, and their highly efficient and sustainable land-use practices have led to the inclusion of the Apatani Cultural Landscape on the UNESCO World Heritage Tentative List.

21General Awareness
Which of the following plant pigments absorbs in red and far-red region of light?
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Answer: (B) Phytochrome

Explanation

Phytochrome is a specialized plant pigment that exists in two interconvertible forms, Pr and Pfr, which specifically absorb red light (around 660 nm) and far-red light (around 730 nm) respectively. This mechanism allows plants to detect light quality and regulate processes like seed germination and flowering. Chlorophyll primarily absorbs blue and red light but lacks the distinct red/far-red interconversion property.

22General Awareness
The process through which excess of light energy is dissipated in photosynthesis is known
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Answer: (D) quenching

Explanation

Quenching, specifically non-photochemical quenching (NPQ), is the primary biological mechanism by which plants safely dissipate excess absorbed light energy as heat to prevent damage to the photosynthetic apparatus. Photolysis is the light-driven splitting of water molecules and photophosphorylation is the synthesis of ATP, both of which are productive stages of photosynthesis rather than energy dissipation processes.

23General Awareness
AIDS virus destroys
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Answer: (D) lymphocytes

Explanation

The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which causes AIDS, primarily targets and destroys CD4+ T-lymphocytes, also known as helper T cells. These lymphocytes play a central role in the immune system by signaling other immune cells to respond to infections. HIV enters these cells by binding to the CD4 receptor on their surface, using the cell's machinery to replicate itself and ultimately leading to the destruction of the lymphocyte. The significant reduction in the count of these specific lymphocytes weakens the body's immune response, leading to the stage of infection known as Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

24General Awareness
Teeth and Bones acquire strength and rigidity from
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Answer: (D) calcium

Explanation

Calcium is the primary mineral responsible for the structural integrity and hardness of the skeletal system. In both bones and teeth, calcium exists largely in the form of hydroxyapatite, a complex crystalline salt of calcium phosphate represented by the chemical formula Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂. This mineralized matrix provides the necessary mechanical strength and rigidity to support the body's framework and withstand the physical pressures of mastication. Approximately 99 percent of the body's total calcium is stored within the bone and tooth structures to maintain their density and durability.

25General Awareness
The type of tail found in Shark is
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Answer: (B) heterocercal

Explanation

Sharks possess a heterocercal tail, which is a characteristic feature of cartilaginous fishes belonging to the class Chondrichthyes. In a heterocercal caudal fin, the vertebral column or the posterior end of the notochord tilts upward and extends into the dorsal lobe of the tail. This anatomical arrangement results in an asymmetrical shape where the upper lobe is significantly larger and more developed than the lower lobe. This structure is functionally important as it provides the necessary upward thrust and lift during swimming, helping the shark maintain its vertical position in the water column and compensating for the lack of a swim bladder.

26General Awareness
The Sigmoid Colon is part of
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Answer: (B) large Intestine

Explanation

The large intestine is the terminal portion of the gastrointestinal tract, responsible for the absorption of water and the formation of feces. It is anatomically divided into the cecum, the colon, the rectum, and the anal canal. The colon is further subdivided into four segments: the ascending colon, the transverse colon, the descending colon, and the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is the S-shaped section located in the lower left quadrant of the abdomen, serving as the link between the descending colon and the rectum. Its primary function is to store fecal matter until it is ready to be expelled. Because it is a direct continuation and specific region of the colon, it is classified as a part of the large intestine.

27General Awareness
A good conductor while carrying current is
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Answer: (C) electrically neutral

Explanation

A current-carrying conductor is electrically neutral because the total number of flowing electrons is exactly balanced by the total number of stationary protons in the atomic nuclei of the material. There is no net accumulation or loss of charge as electrons enter and leave the conductor at the same rate.

28General Awareness
The angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical meridian at a place is
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Answer: (B) declination

Explanation

Magnetic declination is defined as the horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the geographical (true) meridian at a specific location. It varies depending on the observer's position on the Earth's surface.

29General Awareness
The device used for measuring the wavelength of X-rays is
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Answer: (B) Bragg spectrometer

Explanation

A Bragg spectrometer utilizes the phenomenon of X-ray diffraction by crystals to determine the wavelength of X-rays. When a beam of X-rays is incident on a crystal lattice, the atoms act as a three-dimensional diffraction grating. The relationship between the wavelength of the radiation λ, the interplanar spacing of the crystal d, and the glancing angle θ is given by Bragg's Law: 2d sin θ = nλ, where n is an integer representing the order of reflection. By rotating the crystal and measuring the specific angles at which constructive interference occurs and produces maximum intensity in the reflected beam, the wavelength of the incident X-rays can be precisely calculated.

30General Awareness
Alpha particle is the nucleus of an atom of
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Answer: (B) helium

Explanation

An alpha particle consists of two protons and two neutrons bound together, making it identical to the nucleus of a helium-4 atom. It is often represented by the chemical symbol ⁴₂He²⁺, indicating it is a doubly ionized helium atom that has lost both of its electrons. Because it contains two protons and no electrons, an alpha particle carries a net positive charge of +2e. These particles are commonly emitted from the nuclei of heavy radioactive elements, such as uranium or radium, during the process of alpha decay. Its mass is approximately 4 atomic mass units, which is characteristic of the helium nucleus.

31General Awareness
Who is the founder of 'Face book' which is currently the No.1 social networking website in India?
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Answer: (C) Mark Zuckerberg

Explanation

Mark Zuckerberg co-founded Facebook on February 4, 2004, while studying at Harvard University. Originally launched as TheFacebook.com, the platform was initially intended for Harvard students to connect with one another before expanding to other universities and eventually the general public. As the primary developer and chief executive, Zuckerberg steered the company through significant growth and technological evolution, establishing it as the world leading social networking service with over a billion active users by late 2012.

32General Awareness
In programming, repeating some statements is usually called
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Answer: (B) Looping

Explanation

Looping is a fundamental programming concept that involves the repeated execution of a specific block of code or statements until a certain condition is met. This mechanism allows a program to perform repetitive tasks efficiently, such as iterating over elements in a data structure or performing a calculation multiple times with varying inputs, without the need to rewrite the code for each iteration. Common implementations of this concept include for loops, while loops, and do-while loops, which provide the control logic necessary to manage the flow of repeated execution based on boolean expressions.

33General Awareness
Silicon is a polymer of
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Answer: (B) Dialkyldichloro silane

Explanation

Silicones are organosilicon polymers produced by the hydrolysis and condensation of dialkyldichloro silanes (R2SiCl2). These monomers allow for the formation of long, linear polymer chains characteristic of silicone materials.

34General Awareness
Which is a natural colloid?
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Answer: (C) Blood

Explanation

Blood is a natural colloid because it contains plasma proteins and suspended cells which do not settle out quickly and exhibit the Tyndall effect. Cane-sugar, urea, and sodium chloride are crystalloids that form true solutions when dissolved in water.

35General Awareness
Which one of the following does not contain silver?
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Answer: (B) German silver

Explanation

German silver is a metallic alloy composed of copper, nickel, and zinc, typically in proportions of approximately 50 to 60 percent copper, 20 percent nickel, and 20 to 30 percent zinc. Despite its name, the alloy contains no elemental silver (Ag). It is named for its silvery-white appearance and metallic luster, which are provided by the nickel content. It is widely used in commercial applications such as tableware, jewelry, and musical instruments because it is hard, tough, and highly resistant to corrosion.

36General Awareness
The presence of cobalt in vitamin B12 was established for the first time by
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Answer: (B) borax-Bead test

Explanation

The borax-bead test is a traditional qualitative analysis technique used to identify the presence of certain transition metals. When borax, Na₂B₄O₇ · 10H₂O, is heated on a platinum wire loop, it loses its water of crystallization and forms a transparent, glassy bead of sodium metaborate (NaBO₂) and boric anhydride (B₂O₃). When this bead is reacted with a cobalt-containing substance in an oxidizing flame, the cobalt reacts with the boric anhydride to form cobalt(II) metaborate, Co(BO₂)₂. This specific compound produces a distinct and characteristic deep blue color in the bead. This method provided the first chemical confirmation of cobalt in Vitamin B12 crystals shortly after the vitamin was isolated in 1948.

37General Awareness
Which bacterial strain developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations can be used for treating oil spills?
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Answer: (D) Pseudomonas

Explanation

Pseudomonas putida, often referred to as the superbug, was the first genetically engineered bacterium patented for its ability to break down various components of crude oil during oil spills. Other options like Agrobacterium are primarily used in plant genetic engineering, not bioremediation.

38General Awareness
Coating of solid waste with impervious material is known as
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Answer: (D) encapsulation

Explanation

Encapsulation is the process of coating or surrounding solid or hazardous waste with an impervious material to prevent the leaching of contaminants. While capping involves placing a cover over a landfill site, encapsulation specifically describes the coating of the waste itself.

39General Awareness
Ultraviolet rays can used in water treatment as
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Answer: (C) disinfectant

Explanation

Ultraviolet (UV) rays serve as a potent disinfectant in water treatment by utilizing germicidal electromagnetic radiation, typically at a wavelength of approximately 254 nm. This radiation penetrates the cell walls of pathogenic microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and protozoa. The energy is absorbed by the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA), causing structural damage through the formation of thymine dimers. This genetic disruption prevents the microorganisms from replicating and performing vital cellular functions. Because the pathogens cannot multiply, they are rendered harmless and cannot cause infection, providing a chemical-free method to ensure biological safety in water supplies.

40General Awareness
Thiamidine dimer formation in DNA is caused by
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Answer: (C) UV-rays

Explanation

Ultraviolet (UV) radiation, particularly in the UV-B range (280–315 nm), possesses sufficient energy to induce photochemical reactions between adjacent pyrimidine bases on a DNA strand. When two thymine bases are situated next to each other, UV light promotes the formation of covalent bonds between them, most commonly creating a cyclobutane pyrimidine dimer (CPD). This process involves the saturation of the double bonds at the C5 and C6 positions of the thymine rings, resulting in a four-membered cyclobutane ring that links the two bases. These dimers create a physical kink or bulge in the DNA double helix, which distorts the helical structure and can obstruct essential biological processes such as DNA replication and transcription.

41General Awareness
Winner of the Australian Open Men's Singles Title in 2013 is
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Answer: (C) Novak Djokovic

Explanation

Novak Djokovic won the 2013 Australian Open Men's Singles title by defeating Andy Murray in the final with a score of 6–7(2–7), 7–6(7–3), 6–3, 6–2. This victory was significant as it marked Djokovic's third consecutive Australian Open title, making him the first man in the Open Era to achieve three consecutive titles at this tournament. It was his fourth Australian Open title overall and his sixth career Grand Slam title. His path to the final included a legendary five-set fourth-round victory over Stanislas Wawrinka, showcasing the physical resilience and defensive baseline play that defined his dominance on the hard courts of Melbourne Park during this period.

42General Awareness
Who among the following Presidents of MCC was a non-professional cricketer?
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Answer: (C) Christopher Martin Jenkin

Explanation

Christopher Martin-Jenkins served as the President of the Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) for the 2010-2011 term. Unlike many other individuals who have held this prestigious position, Martin-Jenkins was primarily a cricket journalist, author, and broadcaster rather than a professional player. He was a highly respected voice on the BBC Test Match Special for several decades and served as the cricket correspondent for major publications such as The Times and The Daily Telegraph. While he played cricket at the club level and for the MCC, he did not pursue the sport as a professional career at the first-class or international level.

43General Awareness
Who won the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2012?
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Answer: (D) European Union

Explanation

The European Union was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2012 for its long-standing contribution to the advancement of peace and reconciliation, democracy, and human rights in Europe. The Norwegian Nobel Committee emphasized that for over six decades, the Union and its predecessors had successfully helped transform Europe from a continent of war to a continent of peace. The award highlighted the EU's role in stabilizing the continent after World War II and its instrumental work in integrating former communist countries and promoting democratic values following the fall of the Berlin Wall.

44General Awareness
Who won the Jnanpith Award for 2011?
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Answer: (C) Pratibha Ray

Explanation

Pratibha Ray was conferred with the 47th Jnanpith Award for the year 2011 in recognition of her outstanding contribution to Indian literature. A distinguished Odia novelist and academician, she is celebrated for her profound exploration of humanism and social issues, particularly through the lens of female protagonists in acclaimed works such as Yajnaseni and Shilapadma. By receiving this prestigious accolade, she became the first Odia woman and the fourth writer from Odisha to be honored with India's highest literary award.

45General Awareness
Who is the author of the book 'No Full Stops in India'?
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Answer: (C) MarkTully

Explanation

Mark Tully is the author of the book No Full Stops in India, which was published in 1991. As the former Bureau Chief of the BBC in New Delhi for over twenty years, Tully used this collection of essays to explore the diverse social, cultural, and political realities of the subcontinent. The book serves as a critique of the Westernized elite's approach to modernization and argues for a deeper respect for traditional Indian values and structures. Through detailed reportage and personal observations, Tully depicts India as a land of immense continuity and complexity where progress does not necessarily mean the end of ancient traditions.

46General Awareness
Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
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Answer: (C) Tahrir Square - Abu Dhabi

Explanation

Tahrir Square, also known as Martyr Square, is the central public plaza in Cairo, Egypt. It became a global symbol of political protest and civil resistance during the 2011 Egyptian Revolution, which led to the resignation of President Hosni Mubarak. Abu Dhabi, the capital of the United Arab Emirates, is not the location of this historic landmark.

47General Awareness
The term of a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council is
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Answer: (C) 2 yr

Explanation

According to Article 23 of the United Nations Charter, the Security Council consists of fifteen members, ten of whom are non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly. These non-permanent members serve a fixed term of two years. To maintain continuity within the council, the elections are staggered so that five new non-permanent members are elected every year. The selection process is governed by the principle of equitable geographical distribution, ensuring representation from various global regions including Africa, Asia-Pacific, Eastern Europe, Latin America and the Caribbean, and Western Europe and Others. Members are not eligible for immediate re-election upon the completion of their two-year term.

48General Awareness
Who is the Chairman of the 20th Law Commission?
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Answer: (C) Justice DK Jain

Explanation

Justice D.K. Jain, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India, was appointed as the Chairman of the 20th Law Commission of India. He assumed charge of the office in February 2013. The 20th Law Commission was established by the Government of India for a three-year tenure running from September 1, 2012, to August 31, 2015. As a non-statutory advisory body, the Law Commission is primarily responsible for identifying laws that are no longer relevant, suggesting new legislation, and recommending reforms to the existing legal and judicial framework to align with the socio-economic needs of the country.

49General Awareness
Julia Gillard is the Prime Minister of
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Answer: (C) Australia

Explanation

Julia Gillard served as the 27th Prime Minister of Australia and was the first woman to hold the office in the country history. A member of the Australian Labor Party, she assumed office in June 2010 and remained the head of the Australian government until June 2013. During her tenure, she led a minority government following the 2010 federal election and implemented significant policy reforms in areas such as education, carbon pricing, and the National Disability Insurance Scheme.

50General Awareness
Which is the first state in India to pass the Food Security Law?
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Answer: (B) Chhattisgarh

Explanation

The Chhattisgarh Food and Nutrition Security Act was passed by the Chhattisgarh State Assembly in December 2012, making it the first state in India to enact its own food security legislation. This law was passed ahead of the central National Food Security Act of 2013. It provided a legal right to food and nutrition to approximately 90 percent of the state's population, ensuring that eligible households receive food grains and other essential commodities at highly subsidized rates. The Act was designed to tackle malnutrition and hunger by establishing a robust public distribution system and ensuring nutritional security for children and pregnant women.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2D
  3. 3B
  4. 4C
  5. 5B
  6. 6D
  7. 7C
  8. 8C
  9. 9C
  10. 10D
  11. 11A
  12. 12C
  13. 13B
  14. 14C
  15. 15C
  16. 16A
  17. 17B
  18. 18C
  19. 19B
  20. 20C
  21. 21B
  22. 22D
  23. 23D
  24. 24D
  25. 25B
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28B
  29. 29B
  30. 30B
  31. 31C
  32. 32B
  33. 33B
  34. 34C
  35. 35B
  36. 36B
  37. 37D
  38. 38D
  39. 39C
  40. 40C
  41. 41C
  42. 42C
  43. 43D
  44. 44C
  45. 45C
  46. 46C
  47. 47C
  48. 48C
  49. 49C
  50. 50B

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