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SSC CGL Tier 1 2025 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 198 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

198
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4
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Where the questions came from

  • General Intelligence & Reasoning5528%
  • English Comprehension5528%
  • Quantitative Aptitude5025%
  • General Awareness3819%
1General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: WZWT, WVOH, WRGV, WNYJ, ?
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Answer: (A) WJQX

Explanation

The series follows a systematic pattern based on the alphabetical rank of the letters in each position of the cluster.

For the first letter, the character remains constant as W throughout the series.

For the second letter, the alphabetical rank decreases by 4 in each subsequent cluster: Z (26), V (22), R (18), and N (14). Applying the same logic, 14 - 4 = 10, which corresponds to the letter J.

For the third letter, the alphabetical rank decreases by 8 in each step: W (23), O (15), G (7), and Y (25). In a cyclic alphabet, the calculation for the transition from G to Y is 7 - 8 = -1, and adding 26 to handle the negative result gives 25 (Y). Following this pattern, 25 - 8 = 17, which corresponds to the letter Q.

For the fourth letter, the alphabetical rank decreases by 12 in each step: T (20), H (8), V (22), and J (10). The transition from H to V is calculated as 8 - 12 = -4, and -4 + 26 = 22 (V). To find the next letter, 10 - 12 = -2, and -2 + 26 = 24, which corresponds to the letter X.

By combining the letters determined for each position, the next cluster in the sequence is WJQX.

2General Intelligence & Reasoning
In the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives. Mekong : Tibet :: Amazon : ?
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Answer: (B) Peru

Explanation

The analogy follows the pattern of River : Source Region. The Mekong River originates on the Tibetan Plateau in the Sanjiangyuan area of Tibet. Similarly, the Amazon River begins its journey in the Andes Mountains of Peru. Geographers traditionally identify the source of the Amazon as the Carhuasanta stream on the slopes of Nevado Mismi in southern Peru, or more recently the Mantaro River, both of which are located within Peruvian territory.

3General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. C G K, G K O, K O S, O S W ?
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Answer: (C) SWA

Explanation

The series follows a pattern where each letter in a cluster is shifted forward by 4 positions in the alphabetical order to obtain the corresponding letter in the next cluster. By assigning numerical values to the letters where A=1, B=2, ..., Z=26, the transitions are as follows:

First letter: C(3) → G(7) → K(11) → O(15). Adding 4 to the last value gives 15 + 4 = 19, which corresponds to S.

Second letter: G(7) → K(11) → O(15) → S(19). Adding 4 to the last value gives 19 + 4 = 23, which corresponds to W.

Third letter: K(11) → O(15) → S(19) → W(23). Adding 4 to the last value gives 23 + 4 = 27. In a cyclic alphabetical series, 27 26 = 1, which corresponds to A.

Additionally, the second and third letters of each cluster become the first and second letters of the subsequent cluster. Following this logic, the first two letters of the missing cluster are S and W, and the third letter is W + 4, resulting in SWA.

4General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. MIN, NJM, OKL, PLK, ?
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Answer: (C) QMJ

Explanation

The series follows a specific alphabetical pattern for each position within the letter-clusters. For the first letter of each cluster, the sequence moves forward by one position: M to N, N to O, and O to P, making the next first letter Q. For the second letter of each cluster, the sequence also moves forward by one position: I to J, J to K, and K to L, making the next second letter M. For the third letter of each cluster, the sequence moves backward by one position: N to M, M to L, and L to K, making the next third letter J. Combining these results, the next cluster in the series is QMJ.

5General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. BRE, EUH, HXJ, KAL, ?
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Answer: (D) NDN

Explanation

The series is formed by applying specific addition patterns to the numerical positions of the letters in each cluster. For the first letter of each cluster, there is a constant increment of +3. Starting with B (2), the sequence is 2 + 3 = 5 (E), 5 + 3 = 8 (H), 8 + 3 = 11 (K), and 11 + 3 = 14, which corresponds to the letter N.

For the second letter of each cluster, there is also a constant increment of +3. Starting with R (18), the sequence is 18 + 3 = 21 (U), 21 + 3 = 24 (X), 24 + 3 = 27 (which cycles to 1 or A), and 1 + 3 = 4, which corresponds to the letter D.

For the third letter of each cluster, the sequence follows a pattern where the first increment is +3 and the subsequent increments are +2. Starting with E (5), the sequence is 5 + 3 = 8 (H), 8 + 2 = 10 (J), 10 + 2 = 12 (L), and 12 + 2 = 14, which corresponds to the letter N. Combining the letters N, D, and N from these three positions results in the cluster NDN.

6General Intelligence & Reasoning
In the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives. Watt : Power :: Pascal : ?
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Answer: (C) Pressure

Explanation

The relationship in this analogy is based on a physical quantity and its corresponding SI unit. The Watt is the International System of Units (SI) derived unit of Power, representing the rate of energy transfer equivalent to one joule per second. Similarly, the Pascal is the SI derived unit of Pressure. It is defined as one newton per square meter (1 Pa = 1 N/m²) and is used to quantify internal pressure, stress, and tensile strength. Therefore, just as Power is measured in Watts, Pressure is measured in Pascals.

7General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series: MCFI, NEKP, OGPW, PIUD, ?
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Answer: (C) QKZK

Explanation

The series follows a specific arithmetic progression for each letter position within the clusters. The first letter of each cluster increases by 1 each time, moving from M (13) to N (14), O (15), and P (16), which leads to Q (17). The second letter increases by 2 each time, moving from C (3) to E (5), G (7), and I (9), which leads to K (11). The third letter increases by 5 each time, moving from F (6) to K (11), P (16), and U (21), which leads to Z (26). The fourth letter increases by 7 each time, moving from I (9) to P (16), W (23), and D (4, as 23 + 7 = 30 and 30 - 26 = 4), which leads to K (11, as 4 + 7 = 11). Combining these results produces the cluster QKZK.

8General Intelligence & Reasoning
What comes next: 3, 12, 7, 16, 11, 20, 15, ?
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Answer: (B) 24

Explanation

The sequence consists of two interleaved arithmetic progressions, each with a common difference of 4. The terms at odd positions are 3, 7, 11, and 15, while the terms at even positions are 12, 16, and 20. Since the next number in the sequence falls on an even position (the 8th term), it follows the second progression. Adding 4 to the previous even-positioned term gives 20 + 4 = 24. This pattern is also consistent with a single-sequence rule of alternating between adding 9 and subtracting 5. Following the sequence 3 (+9) → 12 (-5) → 7 (+9) → 16 (-5) → 11 (+9) → 20 (-5) → 15, the next step is to add 9, which results in 15 + 9 = 24.

9General Intelligence & Reasoning
Each of the letters in the word STUDENT is arranged in alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the letter that is second from the left and the one that is fourth from the right in the new letter-cluster formed?
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Answer: (B) 13

Explanation

The letters of the word STUDENT are S, T, U, D, E, N, and T. Arranging these letters in alphabetical order results in the sequence: D, E, N, S, T, T, U.

In this new arrangement, the letter second from the left is E, and the letter fourth from the right is S. In the standard English alphabetical series, the position of E is 5 and the position of S is 19.

To find the number of letters between two given letters with positions P₁ and P₂, we use the formula (P₂ - P₁) - 1. Substituting the values, we get (19 - 5) - 1 = 14 - 1 = 13.

10General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following addresses are identical to each other? 1. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Towers, Surat, 395001 2. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001 3. Arjun M. A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001 4. Arjun Mehta A-101, Emerald Tower, Surat, 395001
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Answer: (C) 2 and 4

Explanation

Address 2 and address 4 are identical because every component of the string matches character-for-character. Both addresses list the recipient as Arjun Mehta, the residence as A-101, the building as Emerald Tower in the singular form, the city as Surat, and the pincode as 395001. Address 1 differs because it uses the plural Towers, and address 3 differs because it uses the abbreviated name Arjun M. since address 2 and address 4 share the exact same spelling, punctuation, and spacing, they are the only identical pair.

11General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301 1. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301 2. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector-12, Noida, 201301 3. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida 201301 4. Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201302
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Answer: (A) 1

Explanation

In clerical aptitude and data verification tasks, an identical match requires an exact character-by-character correspondence with the original string, including all punctuation marks, spaces, and numerical digits. Item 1 is the only entry that replicates the original address Meenal Gupta 102, Silver Oaks, Sector 12, Noida, 201301 perfectly. It maintains the specific placement of commas after the house name, the sector, and the city, preserves the correct spacing throughout the text, and retains the precise PIN code of 201301. Any deviation, such as adding a hyphen, omitting a comma, or changing a single digit, would render the address non-identical.

12General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find the option that best completes the analogy. AG:IO::CM:?
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Answer: (B) KU

Explanation

The analogy follows a pattern where each letter in the first pair is shifted forward by 8 positions in the English alphabet to obtain the corresponding letter in the second pair. In the first part of the analogy, the alphabetical position of A is 1 and G is 7. Adding 8 to these positions gives 1 + 8 = 9, which corresponds to I, and 7 + 8 = 15, which corresponds to O, resulting in the pair IO. Applying this same constant shift of +8 to the second part, the position of C is 3 and M is 13. Adding 8 to these positions yields 3 + 8 = 11, which is the letter K, and 13 + 8 = 21, which is the letter U. This results in the pair KU.

13General Intelligence & Reasoning
A is facing North, B is seated second to the right of A. Who is sitting immediately to the left of B?
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Answer: (A) The person seated to the immediate right of A

Explanation

When A faces North, the positions to the right of A follow an eastward direction. If B is seated second to the right of A, there is one position between A and B. Let the positions be represented as A followed by Position X and then B. Position X is the immediate right of A. In a linear arrangement where all individuals face North, the left of any person is the westward direction. Therefore, the person sitting immediately to the left of B is the individual at Position X, who is defined as being seated to the immediate right of A.

14General Intelligence & Reasoning
In the following question, the second word is related to the first word by a specific pattern of letter transformation. Identify the same pattern and apply it to the third word to find the correct option that completes the analogy. TIME: VJOG :: WORD : ?
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Answer: (A) YPTF

Explanation

The transformation pattern is determined by shifting each letter of the word by a specific numerical value based on its position. By converting the letters of TIME to their corresponding alphabetical positions, where T = 20, I = 9, M = 13, and E = 5, and comparing them to VJOG, where V = 22, J = 10, O = 15, and G = 7, the following shifts are identified:

T (20) + 2 = V (22) I (9) + 1 = J (10) M (13) + 2 = O (15) E (5) + 2 = G (7)

The logic follows a +2, +1, +2, +2 sequence for the first, second, third, and fourth letters respectively. Applying this pattern to the word WORD, where W = 23, O = 15, R = 18, and D = 4:

W (23) + 2 = Y (25) O (15) + 1 = P (16) R (18) + 2 = T (20) D (4) + 2 = F (6)

Combining these letters results in the word YPTF.

15General Intelligence & Reasoning
In each of the following questions, a specific pattern such as reversal or rearrangement has been applied to the first word to get the second. Apply the same pattern to the third word and find the correct answer from the given options. GNIDARERADING:NOITULOS:?
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Answer: (A) SOLUTION

Explanation

The relationship between the words is based on the reversal of the letter sequence. In the first pair, the word GNIDAER is the reverse of the word READING. Following this identical pattern, the word NOITULOS must be reversed to find the next word in the sequence.

When the letters of NOITULOS are written in reverse order, the sequence becomes S-O-L-U-T-I-O-N. This results in the word SOLUTION.

16General Intelligence & Reasoning
In each of the following questions, a specific pattern such as reversal or rearrangement has been applied to the first word to get the second. Apply the same pattern to the third word and find the correct answer from the given options. AYRRJC: CATTLE :: NCPDCAR: ?
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Answer: (C) PERFECT

Explanation

The pattern involves shifting each letter of the word forward by two positions in the English alphabetical sequence. For the first pair, AYRRJC becomes CATTLE through the transformations: A (+2) = C, Y (+2) = A, R (+2) = T, R (+2) = T, J (+2) = L, and C (+2) = E. Applying the same logic to NCPDCAR, the transformation results in: N (+2) = P, C (+2) = E, P (+2) = R, D (+2) = F, C (+2) = E, A (+2) = C, and R (+2) = T. This process yields the word PERFECT.

17General Intelligence & Reasoning
Identify the odd one: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 20
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Answer: (C) 20

Explanation

The given sequence consists of prime numbers, which are natural numbers greater than 1 that have no positive divisors other than 1 and the number itself. The numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, and 17 are all prime numbers. However, 20 is a composite number because it has multiple factors, including 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, and 20. Since every other number in the set belongs to the set of primes P = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, ...}, the number 20 is the odd one out as it fails to satisfy the prime number property.

18General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following is the odd one out?
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Answer: (C) 4, 6, 8

Explanation

The set 4, 6, 8 is the odd one out because it consists entirely of composite numbers. A composite number is a positive integer greater than 1 that has more than two factors. In this group, 4 = 2², 6 = 2 × 3, and 8 = 2³. This set is unique among the options as it is composed of non-prime integers, while the other groups consist strictly of prime numbers.

19General Intelligence & Reasoning
Rani said, "The man in the photo is my mother's son-in-law." Who is the man to Rani?
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Answer: (A) Husband

Explanation

In blood relation logic, a mother's son-in-law is the husband of her daughter. Since Rani is the daughter of her mother, the man who is her mother's son-in-law is Rani's husband. This relationship directly identifies the man in the photo as the person married to the speaker.

20General Intelligence & Reasoning
In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
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Answer: (D) N14:K11:H8

Explanation

The alphabetical positions of the letters in this group are N=14, K=11, and H=8. The difference between these ranks is consistently 3, as 14 - 11 = 3 and 11 - 8 = 3. This group is the odd one out because it follows a subtraction interval of 3, whereas the common pattern observed in the rest of the set is a consistent subtraction interval of 2 between the numerical positions of the letters in the English alphabet.

21General Intelligence & Reasoning
In each of the following questions, a group of three numbers/symbols is given in each option. Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern as the others.
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Answer: (D) J10:K11@:L12@

Explanation

In options a, b, and c, each of the three segments follows a consistent structural pattern of exactly three characters: a letter, a single-digit number, and a unique special character or symbol. For example, in option b, the segments are D4%, E5^, and F6 | , all maintaining a 1-1-1 character distribution. Option d deviates from this uniform pattern in multiple ways. The first segment, J10, lacks a trailing symbol entirely, while the segments K11@ and L12@ consist of four characters due to the double-digit numbers and include duplicate symbols (@). This inconsistency in segment length and the absence of unique symbols in each part distinguishes it from the others.

22General Intelligence & Reasoning
Pointing to a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my father." How is the man related to the woman?
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Answer: (A) Son

Explanation

The woman identifies the person as the son of the only daughter of her father. To solve this, analyze the description from the perspective of the speaker. For any woman, the only daughter of her father is the woman herself. Therefore, when she says his mother is the only daughter of my father, she is stating that his mother is herself. Since the woman is the mother of the man she is pointing to, the man is her son.

23General Intelligence & Reasoning
Pointing to a woman, John says, "She is the wife of my uncle's only son." How is the woman related to John?
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Answer: (C) Sister-in law

Explanation

John's uncle's only son is John's cousin. The woman mentioned is the wife of this cousin. In standard kinship terminology used in logical reasoning, the wife of one's brother or cousin is addressed as a sister-in-law. Therefore, the woman is the sister-in-law of John.

24General Intelligence & Reasoning
A man said, "My mother's husband's only son is the father of your sister's brother". How is the man related to you?
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Answer: (B) Father

Explanation

The relationship can be decoded by simplifying the descriptive phrases step by step. The speaker mentions my mother's husband's only son. A person's mother's husband is their father, and the only son of their father is the speaker himself. Therefore, the first part of the statement refers directly to the man who is speaking. The second part of the statement describes the listener's relation as the father of your sister's brother. Since your sister's brother is simply your brother, the man is stating that he is the father of your brother. If the man is the father of your brother, he is necessarily your father as well.

25General Intelligence & Reasoning
If '#' means '×', '@' means '-' and '&' means '+', then evaluate: 9 # 2 @ 3 & 1
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Answer: (C) 16

Explanation

The evaluation follows by substituting the symbols with their designated mathematical operators where # represents multiplication, @ represents subtraction, and & represents addition. The expression 9 # 2 @ 3 & 1 converts to 9 × 2 - 3 + 1. Following the standard order of operations, the multiplication is performed first to get 18 - 3 + 1. Subsequent calculation of the subtraction and addition leads to 15 + 1, which equals 16.

26General Awareness
Where and when will the 59ᵗʰ National Cross Country Championships-2025 be held?
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Answer: (B) 12ᵗʰ January 2025, Meerut, Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) has officially scheduled the 59ᵗʰ National Cross Country Championships to be held in Meerut, Uttar Pradesh, on 12ᵗʰ January 2025. This prestigious domestic event is organized under the auspices of the Uttar Pradesh Athletics Association and serves as a major platform for long-distance runners across India. Athletes from various states, union territories, and affiliated units compete in multiple categories, including senior men and women, as well as several junior and youth age groups. The championships are critical for identifying top endurance talent and often serve as the basis for selecting the national team for international cross-country fixtures.

27General Awareness
Read the statements about the Goncha Festival of Bastar: 1. Tupki, a mock gun made of bamboo, uses Goncha fruit as bullets. 2. The chariot procession was started by Chalukya rulers. 3. Rath Yatra begins on Ashadh Shukla Dashmi and ends on Dutiya. Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

The Goncha Festival, celebrated in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh, features a unique tradition involving the Tupki. This is a mock gun crafted from hollowed bamboo used by devotees to playfully fire wild berries, known as Goncha or Malakangni fruits, at one another during the festivities. This practice creates a rhythmic popping sound that characterizes the atmosphere of the celebration.

The origins of the chariot procession in Bastar trace back to the 15th century during the reign of King Purushottam Dev. He belonged to the Chalukya dynasty, which is also identified as the Kakatiya dynasty in regional history. After visiting the Jagannath Temple in Puri, the king returned with the title of Rath-pati and established the tradition of the Rath Yatra in Jagdalpur, mirroring the customs of Odisha but with distinct local tribal influences.

28General Awareness
Fill in the blank. In Carnatic music, a laghu with five beats is known as ________ jaati.
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Answer: (C) Khanda

Explanation

In the Carnatic music system of Suladi Sapta Talas, the duration of the Laghu anga is determined by its jaati. The Khanda jaati specifically signifies a count of five beats. A Khanda jaati laghu is performed with one downward beat of the palm followed by counting four fingers, making a total of five units of time or aksharas. This variation in the number of beats allows for the formation of thirty-five different tala variations based on the seven basic talas and the five jaati types.

29General Awareness
Which of the following statements about Judo is correct?
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Answer: (A) Judo was introduced in 1882 by Jigoro Kano in Japan.

Explanation

Jigoro Kano founded the martial art of Judo in 1882 in Japan. He established the Kodokan Judo Institute at the Eisho-ji temple in Tokyo, transitioning the practice from the older, combat-focused forms of Jujutsu into a modern sport and educational system. Kano designed Judo to emphasize physical education, mental discipline, and the philosophical principles of Seiryoku Zenyo (maximum efficiency) and Jita Kyoei (mutual welfare). His systematic approach to training and the introduction of a formalized ranking system using colored belts allowed the discipline to spread globally, eventually becoming the first Japanese martial art to gain widespread international recognition.

30General Awareness
Which of the following features distinguishes the Elephantra Caves from other rock-out sites of early India?
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Answer: (B) The caves focus on Shaivite themes and feature sculptural depth through light and shadow.

Explanation

The Elephanta Caves are distinguished by their sophisticated iconographic program dedicated to Lord Shiva, executed during the 5th to 7th centuries CE. A defining characteristic of these caves is the use of high-relief sculpture that leverages the natural light filtering through the multiple entrances of the rock-cut mandapa. This strategic architectural orientation creates a dramatic interplay of light and shadow, which enhances the sculptural depth and gives the massive stone panels, such as the iconic Sadashiva (Trimurti), a sense of three-dimensional movement and plastic vitality. The scale and artistic complexity of these Shaivite depictions represent a peak in Indian rock-cut architecture, where the cavernous interior is transformed into a dynamic spiritual space through deliberate chiaroscuro effects.

31General Awareness
What is the core structural focus of the 2024 IndiaUAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) within India's international investment strategy?
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Answer: (C) Assures post-establishment investor confidence via standard and national treatment.

Explanation

The India-UAE Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT), signed in February 2024, is designed to enhance the confidence of investors by providing a robust legal framework for the protection of investments after they have been made. Following the principles of India's 2016 Model BIT, this agreement specifically focuses on post-establishment protection, ensuring that once an investment is admitted under the host country's laws, it receives Fair and Equitable Treatment and National Treatment. National Treatment guarantees that UAE investors in India, and vice versa, are treated no less favorably than domestic investors in like circumstances. By prioritizing these protections and including a streamlined Investor-State Dispute Settlement mechanism that requires the exhaustion of local remedies for a period of three years, the treaty aims to create a stable and predictable climate for long-term capital flows between the two nations.

32General Awareness
Fill in the blank. The Santosh Trophy 2022- 23 final was uniquely held in ________, where Karnataka defeated Meghalaya to win the title after 54 years.
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Answer: (B) Riyadh

Explanation

The 76th National Football Championship for the Santosh Trophy (2022-23) concluded in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. In a historic move to provide international exposure and modernize the competition, the All India Football Federation (AIFF) conducted the semi-finals, the third-place play-off, and the final at the King Fahd International Stadium in Riyadh. This marked the first time in the tournament's history that matches were played outside of India. Karnataka secured the title by defeating Meghalaya 3-2 in the final, clinching their first championship in 54 years, with their previous victory dating back to the 1968-69 season when they competed as Mysore State.

33General Awareness
Which of the following statements best captures the essence of Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought by Kavitha Iyer?
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Answer: (A) A study on drought's human and ecological impacts in India.

Explanation

Landscapes of Loss: The Story of an Indian Drought by Kavitha Iyer is a non-fiction work of reportage that delves into the chronic agrarian crisis in India, specifically focusing on the Marathwada region of Maharashtra. The book provides a detailed examination of how recurring droughts and systemic policy failures impact the human population and the local environment. It documents the socio-economic struggles of farmers, the increasing frequency of suicides, and the forced migration of rural families, while also addressing the ecological consequences of water-intensive crop patterns and depleted groundwater levels. Through these narratives, Iyer captures the profound human and ecological devastation caused by environmental mismanagement and climate variability.

34General Awareness
Consider the following statements about glacial landforms: Statement 1: Hanging valleys are often found opening into main glacial valleys at higher elevations. Statement 2: Spurs of such hanging valleys are frequently truncated into triangular facets. Which of the following statements is/are Correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

Hanging valleys are characteristic features of glaciated highlands, formed because the main glacier possesses significantly greater erosive power and mass than its smaller tributary glaciers. While the main glacier carves a deep, wide U-shaped trough, the tributary glaciers erode their beds much less deeply. Consequently, when the ice melts, the floors of the tributary valleys are left perched at a higher elevation, appearing to hang above the floor of the main valley.

As the massive main glacier moves through the valley, it does not weave around obstacles like a river; instead, it grinds away the projecting ridges or interlocking spurs that existed in the pre-glacial landscape. This lateral erosion shears off the ends of these spurs, straightening the valley walls and leaving behind blunt, triangular cliff-like faces known as truncated spurs or triangular facets. These features are common along the steep sides of glacial troughs where hanging valleys meet the main valley.

35General Awareness
What is the primary function of the Crew Escape System (CES) on ISRO's Human Rated LVM3 (HLVM3) rocket?
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Answer: (B) To eject the crew module to safety during launch emergencies.

Explanation

The Crew Escape System (CES) is a mission-critical safety mechanism designed for the Gaganyaan program to ensure the survival of astronauts during the launch phase. It consists of a cluster of high-thrust solid fuel motors located at the top of the launch vehicle, specifically the Human Rated LVM3. The system is engineered to detect malfunctions or potential catastrophic failures during the pre-launch sequence or the atmospheric ascent. Upon activation, the CES motors ignite to provide a massive burst of thrust, pulling the Crew Module rapidly away from the rocket to a safe distance. This automated abort sequence protects the crew from fire, explosions, or aerodynamic instability of the launch vehicle, subsequently allowing the module to deploy its parachutes for a controlled splashdown in the ocean.

36General Awareness
Which of the following statements about Justice Sanjiv Khanna is/are true? 1. He is the 51st Chief Justice of India 2. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud 3. He served as CJI from 2023
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Justice Sanjiv Khanna was sworn in as the 51st Chief Justice of India on November 11, 2024, following his appointment by the President of India. He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, who retired on November 10, 2024, after serving a two-year term. The transition followed the established constitutional convention where the outgoing Chief Justice recommends the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court as their successor. Justice Khanna’s tenure as the Chief Justice began only in late 2024, as Justice D.Y. Chandrachud held the office throughout the year 2023. Before his elevation as the Chief Justice, Justice Sanjiv Khanna served as a judge of the Supreme Court since January 2019 and previously as a judge of the Delhi High Court. Justice Khanna is set to remain in office until his retirement in May 2025.

37General Awareness
Which of the following objectives are part of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000? 1. Providing free and compulsory education up to 14 years of age 2. Increasing fertility rate to ensure demographic dividend 3. Reducing infant mortality rate below 30 per 1000 live births 4. Promoting delayed marriage for girls
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Answer: (C) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation

The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 was formulated with the long-term objective of achieving a stable population by 2045, at a level consistent with the requirements of sustainable economic growth and social development. To achieve this, the policy identifies several socio-demographic goals. It emphasizes the importance of education by aiming to provide free and compulsory school education up to 14 years of age, while also focusing on reducing dropout rates. In terms of healthcare, the policy sets a target to reduce the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births and the maternal mortality ratio to below 100 per 100,000 live births. Furthermore, the policy encourages the regulation of the marriage age by promoting delayed marriage for girls, ideally not before 18 years and preferably after 20 years of age. These interventions are designed to lead the country toward a total fertility rate of 2.1, which is the replacement level.

38General Awareness
Which pathway in cellular respiration generates the most ATP?
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Answer: (C) Electron transport chain

Explanation

The electron transport chain and the associated process of oxidative phosphorylation generate the largest share of energy during aerobic respiration. During this stage, high-energy electrons transferred by NADH and FADH₂ are passed through a series of protein complexes located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. This transfer of electrons releases energy used to pump protons into the intermembrane space, creating a significant electrochemical gradient known as the proton-motive force. The flow of protons back into the mitochondrial matrix through the enzyme ATP synthase drives the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP. This mechanism is highly efficient, producing approximately 28 to 34 ATP molecules for every molecule of glucose oxidized, which accounts for the vast majority of the total ATP yield in cellular respiration.

39General Awareness
Arrange the following events in chronological order. a. Eastern Zonal Council meeting 2022 b. States Reorganisation Act passed c. First Central Zonal Council meeting
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Answer: (A) b-c-a

Explanation

The States Reorganisation Act was enacted by the Parliament in 1956 to reorganize state boundaries and establish the statutory framework for Zonal Councils. The first meeting of the Central Zonal Council subsequently took place on May 1, 1957, as part of the initial operationalization of these councils. The Eastern Zonal Council meeting in 2022 refers to the 25th meeting of the council held in December 2022 in Kolkata to discuss regional security, mining, and infrastructure issues.

40English Comprehension
Which of the following most accurately describes the legal character of the right to property under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (C) It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.

Explanation

Article 300A was inserted into the Constitution of India via the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, which shifted the right to property from the category of Fundamental Rights to a constitutional legal right. The article stipulates that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. This provision ensures that the State cannot seize private property through mere executive orders; any such deprivation must be sanctioned by a validly enacted legislation. While it is no longer a Fundamental Right, it remains a protected constitutional right that requires the State to follow due legal procedure and have legislative authorization before interfering with an individual's property ownership.

41General Awareness
For a rigid body, the angular velocity of any particle about a given axis of rotation is:
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Answer: (B) The same for all particles

Explanation

A rigid body is defined as a system of particles in which the distance between any two points remains constant over time. When a rigid body undergoes rotation about a fixed axis, every particle in the body moves in a circular path. If the body rotates through an angular displacement Δ θ in a time interval Δ t, every particle within the body must sweep through that same angle Δ θ in the same time Δ t to ensure the body remains rigid and its internal geometry is preserved. Since angular velocity is the rate of change of angular displacement, defined as ω = (dθ)/(dt), the angular velocity is a property of the body as a whole. Consequently, every particle in the rigid body possesses the same angular velocity at any given instant, regardless of its radial distance from the axis of rotation.

42Quantitative Aptitude
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhinivam (BSA) places emphasis on the use of technology to ensure the authenticity of evidence. This is particularly relevant for:
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Answer: (C) Digital and electronic evidence.

Explanation

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhinayam (BSA) significantly modernizes the legal framework by expanding the definition of documents to include electronic and digital records. Under Section 2(1)(i), electronic records are treated as primary evidence when stored in semiconductor memory or any communication device, provided the integrity of the data is maintained. The Act emphasizes technological authenticity by requiring specific certificates and procedures, such as the use of hash values, to verify that digital data has not been tampered with from the point of creation to its presentation in court. This ensures that electronic trails, such as emails, server logs, and smartphone data, are handled with the technical rigor necessary to establish their reliability in modern legal proceedings.

43General Awareness
Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options: Assertion (A): The One Nation One Ration Card ensures portability of food grains. Reason (R): It uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation

The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme is designed to allow National Food Security Act (NFSA) beneficiaries, particularly migrant workers, to access their food grain entitlements from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in India. This nationwide portability is technically facilitated through the integration of Electronic Point of Sale (ePoS) devices at retail outlets with a central server. For the system to function across state borders, it is essential to verify the identity of the beneficiary in real-time to prevent duplication and fraud. This verification is achieved through Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication (AeBA), which matches the fingerprints or iris scans of the beneficiary against the central Aadhaar database. Since biometric authentication is the mechanism that allows a beneficiary to be identified and served at any FPS regardless of their home state, the reason directly explains how the portability asserted in the first statement is made possible.

44Quantitative Aptitude
Cheraw, the bamboo dance performed using crossed bamboo sticks, is a folk dance of which state?
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Answer: (A) Mizoram

Explanation

Cheraw dance is a traditional cultural dance of Mizoram, commonly known as the Bamboo Dance. It is performed by men who sit on the ground holding pairs of long bamboo staves, which they rhythmicallly clap together against each other and horizontal bamboo bases. Female dancers perform intricate steps by moving in and out of the squares formed by the moving bamboos. Historically, this ancient folk dance was performed as a ritual to ensure a safe passage for the soul of a mother who died in childbirth, but it has evolved into a celebratory performance during major Mizo festivals like Chapchar Kut. The dance requires high levels of coordination and skill to match the increasing tempo of the bamboo beats.

45General Awareness
What is a key factor assessed in the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking 2025?
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Answer: (C) Defence Budget

Explanation

The Global Firepower index utilizes more than sixty individual factors to determine a nation PowerIndex score, focusing specifically on conventional war-making capabilities. A critical component of this evaluation is the financial health of a country, which is measured through its defence budget and overall military funding. This factor is essential because it dictates a nation's ability to procure advanced weaponry, maintain existing military infrastructure, and sustain long-term operations. By integrating financial metrics with geographical, logistical, and manpower data, the ranking provides a comparative assessment of the conventional military strength of global powers.

46General Awareness
Which of the following correctly describes cooperative sector industries?
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Answer: (C) Owned by workers or suppliers sharing profits and losses

Explanation

Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials, the workers, or both. In this organizational model, individuals with common interests pool their resources and capital to manage the industrial enterprise collectively. The primary objective is to safeguard the interests of the members and ensure that the benefits reach the grass-roots level. Since the stakeholders themselves are the owners, the profits and losses generated by the industry are shared among the members in proportion to the resources they have contributed or their level of participation in the production process. Classic examples of this sector include the dairy cooperatives like AMUL and various sugar mills in Maharashtra.

47General Awareness
Education is now placed under which list after the 42ⁿᵈ Amendment?
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Answer: (C) Concurrent List

Explanation

The 42ⁿᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List, which are education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice. By moving education to the Concurrent List, the Constitution empowered both the Union and State governments to legislate on the subject. This change was aimed at establishing a meaningful partnership between the Centre and the States in the field of education, ensuring that the Union government could provide national policy direction and maintain uniform standards while allowing States to manage regional educational needs. Under the provisions of the Concurrent List, if a conflict arises between central and state legislation, the central law typically takes precedence.

48English Comprehension
What is the main objective of the National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) launched in 2024?
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Answer: (C) To deliver sector-specific climate information services

Explanation

The National Framework for Climate Services (NFCS) is a multi-institutional initiative led by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) designed to bridge the gap between climate science and practical decision-making. Its primary objective is to provide tailored, science-based climate information and services to key sectors such as agriculture, water resources, health, energy, and disaster risk reduction. By downscaling national climate data into actionable insights for specific users, the framework enables stakeholders to better manage climate-related risks and integrate climate resilience into their long-term planning and policy-making. This initiative aligns India with the World Meteorological Organization Global Framework for Climate Services (GFCS), ensuring that climate data is effectively communicated and utilized by end-users to mitigate the impacts of climate variability.

49General Awareness
Argon is produced in Earth's crust via?
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Answer: (A) Decay of K-40

Explanation

Argon-40, which constitutes the vast majority of argon found on Earth, is primarily produced through the radioactive decay of Potassium-40 (⁴⁰K) located in the Earth's crust. Potassium-40 is a long-lived radioisotope present in many common rock-forming minerals such as feldspar and mica. It undergoes a branched decay process where approximately 10.7 percent of the isotope decays into stable Argon-40 (⁴⁰Ar) via electron capture, while the remainder decays into Calcium-40. This nuclear reaction follows the equation ⁴⁰K + e⁻ → ⁴⁰Ar + ₑ. With a half-life of about 1.25 billion years, this slow but steady accumulation of argon gas within the lithosphere is the fundamental source of the argon that eventually migrates into the atmosphere. This specific decay mechanism also serves as the scientific basis for Potassium-Argon (K-Ar) dating used by geologists to determine the age of ancient rocks.

50General Awareness
Which of the following is true about Fundamental Rights and DPSPs?
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Answer: (C) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, but DPSPs are not.

Explanation

Fundamental Rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, are justiciable because they are legally enforceable by the judiciary. Article 32 and Article 226 provide the right to approach the Supreme Court and High Courts, respectively, for the protection and enforcement of these rights. In contrast, Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV are non-justiciable. Article 37 explicitly states that the provisions contained in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court, though they remain fundamental in the governance of the country and represent the socio-economic goals the State aims to achieve.

51Quantitative Aptitude
Arrange the fractions ⁵⁄₉,⁴⁄₇,⅗ and ⅔ in ascending order.
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Answer: (B) ⁵⁄₉,⁴⁄₇,⅗,⅔

Explanation

To arrange fractions in ascending order, convert them into decimals or compare them using cross-multiplication. Converting the fractions into decimals:

⁵⁄₉ ≈ 0.555 ⁴⁄₇ ≈ 0.571 ⅗ = 0.600 ⅔ ≈ 0.666

Comparing these decimal values, the correct sequence from smallest to largest is 0.555 < 0.571 < 0.600 < 0.666.

Alternatively, using the cross-multiplication method for pairs: To compare ⁵⁄₉ and ⁴⁄₇, calculate 5 × 7 = 35 and 9 × 4 = 36. Since 35 < 36, ⁵⁄₉ < ⁴⁄₇. To compare ⁴⁄₇ and ⅗, calculate 4 × 5 = 20 and 7 × 3 = 21. Since 20 < 21, ⁴⁄₇ < ⅗. To compare ⅗ and ⅔, calculate 3 × 3 = 9 and 5 × 2 = 10. Since 9 < 10, ⅗ < ⅔.

Combining these comparisons, the ascending order is ⁵⁄₉, ⁴⁄₇, ⅗, ⅔.

52Quantitative Aptitude
Simplify: (2½ +3.6) - 1.9
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Answer: (A) 4.2

Explanation

To simplify the expression (2½ + 3.6) - 1.9, first convert the mixed fraction into a decimal. Since the fraction ½ is equivalent to 0.5, the term 2½ is equal to 2.5.

The expression then becomes (2.5 + 3.6) - 1.9. Following the order of operations, the addition within the parentheses is calculated first: 2.5 + 3.6 = 6.1

The final step is to perform the subtraction: 6.1 - 1.9 = 4.2

This calculation can also be performed by subtracting 1.9 from 3.6 first, which yields 1.7, and then adding the result to 2.5, resulting in 4.2.

53Quantitative Aptitude
Arvind started a business by investing ₹ 80,000. After 4 months Bhavin joined with ₹ 1,20,000. At the end of 8 months from the start, Chandan joined with ₹ 1,60,000. If the total profit is ₹ 1,05,000 at the end of the year, find the share of Chandan.
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Answer: (D) ₹ 26,250

Explanation

In a partnership, profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of the investment amount and the time period for which the amount was invested.

Let the total time period be 12 months. Arvind's investment factor = 80,000 × 12 Bhavin's investment factor = 1,20,000 × (12 - 4) = 1,20,000 × 8 Chandan's investment factor = 1,60,000 × (12 - 8) = 1,60,000 × 4

The ratio of their profit shares is: A : B : C = (80,000 × 12) : (1,20,000 × 8) : (1,60,000 × 4) A : B : C = 9,60,000 : 9,60,000 : 6,40,000

Dividing each term by 3,20,000 to simplify the ratio: A : B : C = 3 : 3 : 2

The sum of the ratios is 3 + 3 + 2 = 8. The total profit is ₹ 1,05,000.

Chandan's share = (²⁄₈) × 1,05,000 Chandan's share = (¼) × 1,05,000 Chandan's share = 26,250

54Quantitative Aptitude
A and B start a business. A invests ₹ 80,000 for 9 months, B invests ₹ 1,20,000 for 6 months. What is B's share of a ₹ 45,000 profit?
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Answer: (D) ₹ 22,500

Explanation

In a partnership, the profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of the investment amount and the time period for which it was invested. The ratio of profit sharing for A and B is calculated as follows:

Ratio of Profit = (Investment_A × Time_A) : (Investment_B × Time_B)

Substituting the given values: Ratio = (80,000 × 9) : (1,20,000 × 6) Ratio = 7,20,000 : 7,20,000 Ratio = 1 : 1

Since the ratio is 1 : 1, the total profit is divided equally between A and B.

B's share = ¹⁄₁₊₁ × 45,000 B's share = ½ × 45,000 = 22,500

Thus, B's share of the profit is ₹ 22,500.

55Quantitative Aptitude
What is the average of all integers between 100 and 250 that are exactly divisible by 11?
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Answer: (A) 176

Explanation

The integers between 100 and 250 that are exactly divisible by 11 form an arithmetic progression (AP). To find the first term a, we divide 100 by 11 to find the nearest integer multiple, which is 11 × 10 = 110. To find the last term l, we divide 250 by 11 to find the largest integer multiple within the range, which is 11 × 22 = 242.

For any set of numbers in an arithmetic progression, the average of all the terms is equivalent to the average of the first and last terms. This is expressed by the formula: Average = (a + l)/(2)

Substituting the identified values: Average = (110 + 242)/(2) = ³⁵²⁄₂ = 176

This shortcut is the most efficient method for finding the mean of a uniform sequence, as it bypasses the need to calculate the total number of terms or the sum of the series.

56Quantitative Aptitude
Two oils priced at ¥ 90 per kg and ¥ 150 per kg are blended and sold at ¥ 144 per kg, achieving a profit margin of 20% What is the ratio of the two oils in the mixture?
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Answer: (A) 1:1

Explanation

To find the ratio of the two oils, we must first determine the mean cost price of the mixture. The selling price is given as ¥ 144 per kg with a profit of 20%. The cost price CPₘ is calculated using the formula CP = (SP)/(1 + profit percentage).

CPₘ = (144)/(1 + 0.20) = (144)/(1.2) = ¥ 120 per kg.

Using the rule of alligation to find the ratio of the cheaper oil (CP₁ = ¥ 90) to the dearer oil (CP₂ = ¥ 150):

Ratio of Oil 1 to Oil 2 = (CP₂ - CPₘ) : (CPₘ - CP₁)

Substituting the values, we get: Ratio = (150 - 120) : (120 - 90) Ratio = 30 : 30 Ratio = 1 : 1

57Quantitative Aptitude
A landlord bought a flat for ¥ 8,000 . He wants to earn a 9% annual return on his investment after paying ¥ 2,000 per month for maintenance. What should be the monthly rent he charges?
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Answer: (C) ¥ 8,000

Explanation

The total monthly rent is the sum of the monthly maintenance cost and the monthly profit required to achieve the desired annual return. Given the context of the options and maintenance costs, the purchase price of the flat is ¥ 800,000.

To find the required monthly rent, first calculate the desired annual profit: Annual Profit = Investment × Rate of Return Annual Profit = 800,000 × 0.09 = ¥ 72,000

Next, determine the required monthly profit by dividing the annual profit by 12 months: Monthly Profit = ¥ 72,000 / 12 = ¥ 6,000

Finally, add the monthly maintenance cost to the required monthly profit to find the total monthly rent: Monthly Rent = Monthly Profit + Monthly Maintenance Monthly Rent = ¥ 6,000 + ¥ 2,000 = ¥ 8,000

58Quantitative Aptitude
An amount is said to double in 5 years with compound interest. How many years will it take for the amount to grow to 8 times its original value?
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Answer: (A) 15

Explanation

In compound interest, if a principal amount becomes n times its original value in t years, it will grow to nᵏ times in k × t years.

Given that the amount doubles (n = 2) in t = 5 years, we need to find the time required for it to become 8 times its original value. Since 8 = 2³, we have k = 3.

Using the relationship: Time required = k × t = 3 × 5 = 15 years.

This can also be verified using the compound interest formula A = P(1 + r)ᵗ. We are given 2P = P(1 + r)⁵, which simplifies to 2 = (1 + r)⁵. To find the time T for the amount to reach 8P, we set up the equation 8 = (1 + r)^T. Since 8 = 2³, we substitute the first relation into the second: ( (1 + r)⁵ )³ = (1 + r)^T. By the power of a power rule, (1 + r)¹⁵ = (1 + r)^T, yielding T = 15.

59Quantitative Aptitude
A sum becomes ¥ 6,600 in 2 years and ¥ 7,920 in 3 years at compound interest. What is the original principal?
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Answer: (C) ¥ 4,583,33

Explanation

In compound interest, the amount at the end of any year serves as the principal for the following year. Therefore, the ratio of the amount after 3 years to the amount after 2 years represents the annual growth factor (1 + r), where r is the interest rate.

1 + r = A₃ / A₂ = 7920 / 6600 = 1.2

The formula for the amount Aₙ after n years is Aₙ = P(1 + r)ⁿ. Using the value for the second year:

6600 = P(1.2)² 6600 = P × 1.44

To solve for the original principal P, divide the amount by the squared growth factor:

P = 6600 / 1.44 P = 4583.333...

The calculated principal is ¥4,583.33.

60Quantitative Aptitude
Suman purchased 25 litres of milk at ¥ 45 per litres and another 15 litres of milk at ¥ 50 per litres. She combined both quantities and then sold the entire mixture at ¥ 48 per litres. What was her total profit or loss?
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Answer: (B) Profit of ¥ 45

Explanation

The total Cost Price (CP) is calculated by summing the costs of the two separate quantities of milk. For the first quantity, the cost is 25 × 45 = 1125. For the second quantity, the cost is 15 × 50 = 750. Thus, total CP = 1125 + 750 = 1875.

The total quantity of milk is 25 + 15 = 40 litres. The total Selling Price (SP) is obtained by multiplying this total quantity by the selling rate of 48 per litre: SP = 40 × 48 = 1920.

The profit or loss is determined by the difference between the selling price and the cost price. Since SP > CP, there is a profit. The total profit is SP - CP = 1920 - 1875 = 45.

61Quantitative Aptitude
A toy manufacturer produced 1200 toy cars at a total cost of ¥ 90,000 . He donated 200 cars to a charity event. For the rest, he announced a 10% discount on the market price of ¥ 120 per car. He also offered 2 toy cars free for every 8 toy cars purchased. If all 1200 toy cars were distributed, what is his overall gain or loss percentage?
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Answer: (A) 4% loss

Explanation

The total cost price (CP) for 1200 toy cars is given as ¥ 90,000. Since 200 cars were donated, there are 1000 cars remaining to be distributed through the sales scheme. The market price is ¥ 120 per car, and with a 10% discount, the effective selling price per paid car is 120 × (1 - 0.10) = ¥ 108.

The promotional offer of 2 free cars for every 8 purchased implies that for every batch of 10 cars distributed, only 8 are paid for. Given that 1000 cars are distributed this way, the total number of paid cars is (1000 / 10) × 8 = 800 cars. The total revenue or selling price (SP) is calculated as 800 × 108 = ¥ 86,400.

The total loss incurred is CP - SP = 90,000 - 86,400 = ¥ 3,600. To find the loss percentage, we use the formula (Loss / CP) × 100, which results in (3,600 / 90,000) × 100 = 4%.

62English Comprehension
A retailer marks an air conditioner 80% above its cost price. He offers a first discount of 25% on the marked price. During a festive offer, an additional discount of 10% is applied on the already discounted price. If the final selling price is ¥ 15,552 , what is the approximate cost price of the air conditioner?
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Answer: (C) ¥ 12,800

Explanation

The final selling price (SP) is determined by applying the markup and successive discounts to the cost price (CP). The relationship is expressed as:

SP = CP × (1 + markup%) × (1 - d₁%) × (1 - d₂%)

Given a markup of 80%, a first discount of 25%, and a festive discount of 10%, we substitute the values:

15,552 = CP × (1 + 0.80) × (1 - 0.25) × (1 - 0.10)

15,552 = CP × 1.8 × 0.75 × 0.9

To simplify the calculation, convert the decimals into fractions:

15,552 = CP × ⁹⁄₅ × ¾ × ⁹⁄₁₀

15,552 = CP × ²⁴³⁄₂₀₀

Solving for CP:

CP = (15,552 × 200)/(243)

Dividing 15,552 by 243 yields 64. Therefore:

CP = 64 × 200 = 12,800

63English Comprehension
A 40-litres mixture contains juice and water in the ratio 5:3. How much water (in litres) must be added to this mixture to change the ratio of juice to water to 2:3?
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Answer: (B) 22.5litres

Explanation

The initial mixture of 40 litres contains juice and water in the ratio 5:3. The quantity of juice is calculated as ⁵⁄₅₊₃ × 40 = 25 litres, and the initial quantity of water is ⅜ × 40 = 15 litres. Since only water is added to the mixture, the quantity of juice remains constant at 25 litres. In the new ratio of 2:3, the juice represents 2 parts. If 2 parts correspond to 25 litres, then 1 part corresponds to ²⁵⁄₂ = 12.5 litres. The total quantity of water in the new mixture represents 3 parts, which is 3 × 12.5 = 37.5 litres. The amount of water to be added is the difference between the final quantity of water and the initial quantity: 37.5 - 15 = 22.5 litres.

64Quantitative Aptitude
A is able to complete a task in 15 days, while B takes 20 days to finish the same task. If they collaborate and work together for 4 days, what fraction of the work will still remain?
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Answer: (C) ⁸⁄₁₅

Explanation

The combined efficiency of A and B is the sum of their individual rates. A completes the task in 15 days, so A's rate is ¹⁄₁₅ per day. B completes it in 20 days, so B's rate is ¹⁄₂₀ per day.

Combined rate = ¹⁄₁₅ + ¹⁄₂₀ = (4 + 3)/(60) = ⁷⁄₆₀

The amount of work completed in 4 days is the product of their combined rate and the time spent: Work done = ⁷⁄₆₀ × 4 = ⁷⁄₁₅

The fraction of work remaining is determined by subtracting the completed portion from the total work, which is represented as 1: Remaining work = 1 - ⁷⁄₁₅ = (15 - 7)/(15) = ⁸⁄₁₅

65Quantitative Aptitude
The average of 15 numbers is 80. The average of the first 6 numbers is 72. The average of the next 6 numbers is 25% more than the average of the first 6 numbers. The 13th number is 8 more than the 15ᵗʰ number, and the 14th number is 10 less than the 15ᵗʰ number. What is the average of the 13ᵗʰ and 14ᵗʰ numbers?
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Answer: (C) 75.67

Explanation

The sum of all 15 numbers is calculated as 15 × 80 = 1200. The sum of the first 6 numbers is 6 × 72 = 432. The average of the next 6 numbers is 25% more than 72, which is 72 × 1.25 = 90, making their sum 6 × 90 = 540. The sum of the first 12 numbers is 432 + 540 = 972. Consequently, the sum of the 13ᵗʰ, 14ᵗʰ, and 15ᵗʰ numbers is 1200 - 972 = 228.

Let the 15ᵗʰ number be x. According to the problem, the 13ᵗʰ number is x + 8 and the 14ᵗʰ number is x - 10. Their sum is expressed as (x + 8) + (x - 10) + x = 228, which simplifies to 3x - 2 = 228. Solving for x gives 3x = 230, or x = 230/3.

The question asks for the average of the 13ᵗʰ and 14ᵗʰ numbers. This average is ((x + 8) + (x - 10))/(2) = (2x - 2)/(2) = x - 1. Substituting the value of x, we get ²³⁰⁄₃ - 1 = ²²⁷⁄₃ = 75.666..., which rounds to 75.67.

66English Comprehension
Three pipes, A, B and C, are capable of filling a tank in 6, 8 and 12 hours, respectively. When all three pipes are opened together, they operate for 2 hours before pipe C is closed. How much additional time will it take to completely fill the tank after that?
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Answer: (A) ⁶⁄₇ hours

Explanation

To find the additional time required, first determine the capacity of the tank by taking the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the individual filling times: 6, 8, and 12. The LCM is 24 units.

The efficiency (work per hour) of each pipe is calculated as: Pipe A: 24 / 6 = 4 units/hour Pipe B: 24 / 8 = 3 units/hour Pipe C: 24 / 12 = 2 units/hour

The total efficiency when all three pipes are open together is 4 + 3 + 2 = 9 units/hour. In the first 2 hours, the amount of work completed is 9 × 2 = 18 units.

The remaining work to fill the tank is 24 - 18 = 6 units. After pipe C is closed, only pipes A and B continue to operate. Their combined efficiency is 4 + 3 = 7 units/hour. The additional time required to fill the remaining 6 units is calculated by dividing the remaining work by their combined efficiency: Additional time = ⁶⁄₇ hours

67Quantitative Aptitude
A bullet train covers a fixed distance in 30 minutes at an average speed of 240km/h. Due to track maintenance, the distance increases by 20%. If the train needs to arrive on time (in 30 minutes), what should its new average speed be in km/h?
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Answer: (C) 288km/h

Explanation

Distance D is calculated using the formula D = S × T, where S is average speed and T is time. When time is constant, speed is directly proportional to distance (S ∝ D). Since the train must arrive in the same 30 minutes despite the track maintenance, the speed must increase by the same percentage as the distance to maintain the schedule.

The distance increases by 20%, meaning the new distance is 1.2 times the original distance. Consequently, the new speed must be 1.2 times the original speed:

New Speed = 240 km/h × 1.2 = 288 km/h

Alternatively, the initial distance can be calculated as 240 × (30/60) = 120 km. An increase of 20% results in a new distance of 120 × 1.2 = 144 km. To cover 144 km in 0.5 hours, the required speed is 144 / 0.5 = 288 km/h.

68Quantitative Aptitude
Two cars, X and Y, start from points 360km apart and travel at constant speeds. If they move towards each other, they meet in 4 hours. If they move in the same direction, they meet in 12 hours. What is the speed of car X? (Assume X is the faster car.)
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Answer: (A) 60km/h

Explanation

Let the speed of car X be u and the speed of car Y be v. When the cars move towards each other, their relative speed is u + v. According to the formula Speed = Distance / Time:

u + v = ³⁶⁰⁄₄ = 90 km/h

When the cars move in the same direction, with car X being faster, their relative speed is u - v:

u - v = ³⁶⁰⁄₁₂ = 30 km/h

By adding these two linear equations:

(u + v) + (u - v) = 90 + 30 2u = 120 u = 60 km/h

Thus, the speed of the faster car, X, is 60 km/h.

69Quantitative Aptitude
A circular pizza having a radius of 21cm. If 75% of it is eaten, what is the area of pizza remaining?
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Answer: (B) 346.36cm²

Explanation

The area of a circle is calculated using the formula A = π r². For a pizza with a radius r = 21cm, the total area is π × (21)² = 441π cm². If 75% of the pizza is eaten, then 25% of the area remains. The remaining area is 0.25 × 441π cm². Using the approximation π ≈ 3.14159, the calculation becomes 110.25 × 3.14159, which equals approximately 346.36cm². Alternatively, using the fractional approximation π ≈ 22/7, the calculation yields 0.25 × (22/7) × 441 = 0.25 × 1386 = 346.5cm².

70Quantitative Aptitude
A ring-shaped disc has an outer radius of 10cm and an inner radius of 7cm. What is the approximate ratio of the ring2019s area to the whole outer circle?
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Answer: (A) 1:2

Explanation

The area of a circle is calculated using the formula A = π r². For a ring-shaped disc, the area is found by subtracting the area of the inner circle from the area of the outer circle. Given an outer radius R = 10cm and an inner radius r = 7cm, the area of the ring is π R² - π r² = π(10² - 7²) = π(100 - 49) = 51π. The area of the whole outer circle is π R² = π(10²) = 100π. The ratio of the ring area to the outer circle area is 51π : 100π, which simplifies to 51/100, or 0.51. This value is approximately 0.5, which corresponds to the ratio 1:2.

71Quantitative Aptitude
A bicycle wheel has a radius of 35cm. What percentage of its circumference is covered in a quarter turn? (Use π = ²²⁄₇)
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Answer: (B) 25%

Explanation

The distance a bicycle wheel covers in one complete revolution is equivalent to its total circumference. A quarter turn signifies that the wheel has rotated through exactly one-fourth of a full circle. To determine the percentage of the circumference covered, we calculate the ratio of the distance traveled in a quarter turn to the total circumference and multiply by 100.

Let C represent the circumference of the wheel. The distance covered in a quarter turn is ¼C. The percentage is calculated as:

Percentage = (1)/(4)C{C} × 100

Percentage = ¼ × 100 = 25%

The specific radius of 35cm is provided as context but does not change the result, as the percentage of the circumference covered depends solely on the fraction of the rotation performed. Since a quarter turn is defined as 25% of a full 360° rotation, the distance covered is 25% of the total circumference.

72Quantitative Aptitude
The line y = mx + 5 passes through (1,8). Find m
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Answer: (C) 3

Explanation

The equation of the line is given as y = mx + 5. Since the line passes through the point (1, 8), the coordinates of this point must satisfy the equation. By substituting x = 1 and y = 8 into the equation, we obtain 8 = m(1) + 5. This simplifies to the linear equation 8 = m + 5. By subtracting 5 from both sides of the equation, we find that m = 3.

73Quantitative Aptitude
31³ +18³ -37³ +210 is equal to:
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Answer: (B) -14820

Explanation

To evaluate the expression 31³ + 18³ - 37³ + 210, we calculate the cubes of the individual terms: 31³ = 29791 18³ = 5832 37³ = 50653

Substituting these values into the expression: 29791 + 5832 - 50653 + 210

Summing the positive terms: 29791 + 5832 + 210 = 35833

Subtracting the negative term: 35833 - 50653 = -14820

This result can be quickly verified using the digital root (modulo 9) method. For the expression: 31 ≡ 4 ⟹ 31³ ≡ 4³ = 64 ≡ 1 9 18 ≡ 0 ⟹ 18³ ≡ 0 9 37 ≡ 1 ⟹ 37³ ≡ 1³ = 1 9 210 ≡ 3 9 The total is 1 + 0 - 1 + 3 = 3 9. For the answer -14820, the sum of digits is 1 + 4 + 8 + 2 + 0 = 15 ≡ 6 9. Since it is negative, -6 9 = 3, which matches.

74English Comprehension
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'An official reprimand or strong criticism'.
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Answer: (C) Censure

Explanation

Censure refers to a formal and public expression of severe disapproval or an official reprimand. It is commonly used in administrative, legislative, or professional contexts where a governing body formally records its strong criticism of an individual's conduct. The term specifically denotes the act of blaming or finding fault in an official capacity, making it the precise one-word substitute for a structured and authoritative rebuke.

75English Comprehension
Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Hobson's choice
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Answer: (C) No real choice at all

Explanation

The idiom Hobson's choice originates from Thomas Hobson, a 16th-century stable owner in Cambridge, England. To ensure his horses were not overworked, Hobson offered customers a strict condition: they could take the horse in the stall nearest the door or take no horse at all. While this appeared to provide a choice, it effectively forced the customer to accept the single option available. In modern English, the phrase describes a take-it-or-leave-it situation where an individual is presented with an apparent choice that offers no real alternative.

76English Comprehension
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. Perfidious
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Answer: (C) Loyal

Explanation

Perfidious is an adjective used to describe someone who is untrustworthy, deceitful, or guilty of a deliberate breach of faith. It originates from the Latin word perfidia, which translates to treachery or falsehood. In contrast, the word loyal refers to a person who is firm and constant in their support or allegiance to a person, cause, or institution. Since an antonym is a word with an opposite meaning, loyal serves as the direct opposite of being perfidious by representing the quality of being faithful and steadfast.

77English Comprehension
Identify the misspelt word
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Answer: (D) Quintessance

Explanation

The word is correctly spelled as Quintessence. It is derived from the Medieval Latin phrase quinta essentia, meaning the fifth essence, which in ancient and medieval philosophy referred to a substance higher than the four terrestrial elements. In English, the spelling follows its Latin root essentia, requiring the -ence suffix rather than -ance. The term is used to describe the most perfect or typical example of a quality or class. The spelling Quintessance is an error because it fails to adhere to the established etymological pattern of words related to essence and essential.

78English Comprehension
Spot the correct spelling of a CSF-shunt procedure.
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Answer: (A) Ventriculoperitoneal

Explanation

Ventriculoperitoneal is the medically accurate spelling for a cerebrospinal fluid shunt procedure that connects the brain ventricles to the abdominal cavity. The word is composed of the prefix ventriculo-, denoting the cerebral ventricles, and the adjective peritoneal, derived from peritoneum. In medical linguistics, the combining form ventriculo- utilizes the vowel o to link with the second anatomical term. The spelling of peritoneal follows the Latin origin peritonaeum, where the suffix -al is applied to the root to indicate location or relation. This procedure is a primary surgical intervention for hydrocephalus, facilitating the drainage and subsequent absorption of fluid within the peritoneal lining.

79English Comprehension
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: PERFIDIOUS
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Answer: (C) Treacherous

Explanation

Perfidious originates from the Latin term perfidia, which signifies faithlessness or a deliberate breach of trust. It is used to describe individuals or actions that are deceitful, untrustworthy, or characterized by duplicity. Treacherous serves as the most accurate synonym because it specifically denotes a betrayal of confidence or a violation of allegiance, aligning with the concept of being false to one's word or duty. Both words convey a sense of hidden danger and a lack of integrity in personal or professional relationships.

80English Comprehension
Select the correct option: The startup scaled so rapidly that its infrastructure could keep pace.
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Answer: (A) barely

Explanation

The adverb barely means only just or almost not, and it is used to describe a situation where something is achieved with the narrowest of margins. In the context of a startup scaling rapidly, the infrastructure is often stretched to its absolute limit to support the sudden influx of users or data. Using barely indicates that while the infrastructure did manage to function, it was on the verge of failing or being overwhelmed, effectively capturing the struggle to maintain equilibrium during high-speed growth.

81English Comprehension
Select the correct option: Rare though the phenomenon is, it can occur prolonged drought conditions.
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Answer: (D) under

Explanation

The preposition under is the standard choice in English for describing the specific circumstances, states, or environmental settings in which an event or phenomenon occurs. The idiomatic phrase under conditions is used to indicate the background situation—such as a prolonged drought—that governs or allows for a particular process to take place. It establishes the context of the environment where the phenomenon is observed.

82English Comprehension
Select the correct option: While the proposal appeared pragmatic on paper, its implementation proved complicated than expected.
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Answer: (B) more

Explanation

The sentence structure requires a comparative adverb to modify the adjective complicated in conjunction with the word than. In English grammar, adjectives with three or more syllables form their comparative degree by adding the word more before the adjective rather than using a suffix. Logic and context further dictate this choice; the use of the word while at the beginning of the sentence establishes a contrast between the theoretical pragmatism of the proposal and the unforeseen difficulties encountered during its execution. This implies that the level of complexity in practice was higher than what was initially anticipated, making the comparative more the grammatically and semantically correct fit.

83English Comprehension
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That the report failed to address the root causes (1)/ of the community unrest were surprising (2)/ given the exhaustive data (3)/compiled over several months. (4)
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Answer: (B) (2)

Explanation

The error lies in part (2) due to a subject-verb agreement violation. The subject of the sentence is the entire noun clause "That the report failed to address the root causes of the community unrest". In English grammar, a noun clause functioning as the subject of a sentence is always treated as a singular entity. Consequently, it requires a singular verb. The use of the plural verb "were" is incorrect in this context and should be replaced with the singular verb "was" to correctly agree with the clausal subject.

84English Comprehension
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: What renders the draft legislation particularly contentious is not its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se, (1)/ but that it presumes, without empirical substantiation, (2)/ a fiscal equivalence among states whose developmental baselines are (3)/incommensurable by any normative metric. (4)
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Answer: (B) (2)

Explanation

The error in the sentence is a violation of the principle of parallelism within the not... but... correlative structure. In part (1), the element following is not is a noun phrase, its proposed realignment of fiscal powers per se. To maintain grammatical symmetry, the element following but in part (2) must also be a balanced noun phrase rather than a subordinate clause beginning with that. For the sentence to be correct, part (2) should be restructured to match the noun phrase in part (1), for example, by using but its presumption, without empirical substantiation, of a fiscal equivalence. When two entities are compared or contrasted using this structure, they must belong to the same grammatical category to ensure clarity and logical flow.

85English Comprehension
Change the following from active to passive: They have been neglecting maintenance of the archives for years.
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Answer: (D) Maintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.

Explanation

The original sentence is in the Present Perfect Continuous tense, following the structure: Subject + has/have + been + present participle (V-ing) + object. To convert this into the passive voice, the object (Maintenance of the archives) becomes the subject, and the verb form must reflect the Present Perfect Continuous Passive structure: Subject + has/have + been + being + past participle (V3).

Since the new subject, Maintenance of the archives, is singular, the auxiliary verb has is used. The addition of being before the past participle neglected preserves the continuous aspect of the action, while been maintains the perfect aspect. Therefore, the passive construction becomes Maintenance of the archives has been being neglected by them for years.

86English Comprehension
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The choir began the introit at the priest's signal.
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Answer: (B) The introit was replaced by an organ improvisation.

Explanation

In the source sentence, the word introit refers specifically to a vocal or choral liturgical piece sung as the priest approaches the altar. In the selected sentence, the word functions as a homonym by referring to the liturgical entrance rite or the introductory portion of the service as a whole. While the original context focuses on the musical performance of a chant by a choir, the usage in the chosen sentence denotes the functional slot or phase of the ceremony, which in this case is being fulfilled by an organ improvisation rather than a vocal composition. This distinction between the specific musical work and the broader liturgical event or the act of entering establishes the homonymic relationship.

87English Comprehension
Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: It was being suggested by multiple sources that the operation had been compromised internally.
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Answer: (A) Multiple sources suggested the operation was compromised internally.

Explanation

To convert the sentence from passive to active voice, the agent of the action, multiple sources, is moved from the prepositional phrase to the subject position. The passive verb structure was being suggested is replaced by the active verb suggested, making the subject the doer of the action. This transformation creates a more direct and concise sentence while maintaining the original meaning. The clause concerning the internal compromise of the operation then functions as the object of the active verb, completing the grammatical transition.

88English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured through degrees, academic accolades and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through systematic curricula, institutionalised assessment and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience, introspection and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritise rote memorisation and standardised testing over critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem—solving but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded-ending with formal schooling or academic milestones, wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is inconvenient. According to the passage, how is wisdom primarily acquired?
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Answer: (C) Through experience and reflection

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that wisdom is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced understanding of human nature. It characterizes wisdom as the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience, introspection, and emotional intelligence. Unlike formal education, which is delivered through structured curricula and academic milestones, wisdom is a lifelong pursuit cultivated through lived realities and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace.

89English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured through degrees, academic accolades and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through systematic curricula, institutionalised assessment and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience, introspection and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritise rote memorisation and standardised testing over critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem—solving but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded-ending with formal schooling or academic milestones, wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is inconvenient. What does the author mean by "wisdom enriches the soul"?
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Answer: (B) It fosters deeper moral insight

Explanation

The passage distinguishes wisdom from formal education by defining it as the judicious and ethical application of knowledge to real-life contexts. When the author states that wisdom enriches the soul, they refer to the internal development of moral reasoning, empathy, and foresight. Unlike education, which focuses on equipping the mind with theoretical frameworks and structured data, wisdom is cultivated through introspection and lived experience. It manifests in qualities such as humility and ethical consistency, allowing an individual to navigate ambiguity with grace and prioritize doing what is right over mere problem-solving. This enrichment of the soul represents the deeper, qualitative growth of an individual's character and moral insight rather than a purely academic or technical proficiency.

90English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured through degrees, academic accolades and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through systematic curricula, institutionalised assessment and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience, introspection and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritise rote memorisation and standardised testing over critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem—solving but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded-ending with formal schooling or academic milestones, wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is inconvenient. Who, according to the author, can be wise despite formal education?
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Answer: (B) Farmers

Explanation

The author explicitly identifies farmers, artisans, and elders as examples of individuals who may not possess formal education but nonetheless exhibit significant wisdom. According to the passage, their wisdom is cultivated through lived realities and manifests as prudence and sagacity in their decision-making. This supports the author's central argument that wisdom is a lifelong pursuit earned through experience and reflection, rather than a quality strictly tied to academic degrees or systematic curricula.

91English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured through degrees, academic accolades and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through systematic curricula, institutionalised assessment and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience, introspection and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritise rote memorisation and standardised testing over critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem—solving but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded-ending with formal schooling or academic milestones, wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is inconvenient. What is the central contrast drawn in the passage?
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Answer: (D) Formal learning vs. applied wisdom

Explanation

The passage draws a clear distinction between education as the formal, institutionalised acquisition of knowledge and wisdom as the practical, judicious application of that knowledge to real-life contexts. It describes education in terms of degrees, systematic curricula, and theoretical frameworks, whereas wisdom is depicted as a quality cultivated through experience, introspection, and moral reasoning. By highlighting that an individual can be extensively educated yet lack the discernment to act ethically or effectively, the text emphasizes that the core contrast lies between structured academic learning and the sagacity required to navigate the complexities of life.

92English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions based on the passage: While education and wisdom are often conflated in colloquial discourse, a discerning mind perceives a fundamental divergence between the two. Education is the formal acquisition of knowledge, often measured through degrees, academic accolades and proficiency in structured disciplines. It is delivered through systematic curricula, institutionalised assessment and theoretical frameworks. However, wisdom transcends this rigidity; it is the judicious application of knowledge to real-life contexts, enriched by experience, introspection and emotional intelligence. An individual may be extensively educated yet remain bereft of wisdom if they lack the discernment to apply their learning ethically and effectively. Conversely, many wise individuals—farmers, artisans, elders—may not possess formal education, but their decisions exhibit prudence and sagacity cultivated through lived realities. Thus, education equips the mind, but wisdom enriches the soul. In an era dominated by information overload and algorithmic thinking, the schism between the two has widened. Educational institutions often prioritise rote memorisation and standardised testing over critical thinking and moral reasoning. Consequently, society produces individuals proficient in problem—solving but deficient in decision-making that requires empathy, patience, or foresight. Wisdom, being innately human, cannot be downloaded or fast-tracked; it is earned through trial, failure, reflection, and a nuanced understanding of human nature. Furthermore, while education is temporally bounded-ending with formal schooling or academic milestones, wisdom is a lifelong pursuit. It does not boast certificates but manifests in humility, ethical consistency, and the ability to navigate ambiguity with grace. Ultimately, the highest form of intelligence lies not merely in knowing what is right, but in consistently choosing to do it, especially when it is inconvenient. According to the author, why has the gap between education and wisdom widened in recent times?
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Answer: (C) Because of rote learning and algorithmic methods

Explanation

The passage explains that the widening gap between education and wisdom is a result of modern educational systems prioritizing rote memorization and standardized testing. This pedagogical approach focuses on algorithmic thinking and the efficient processing of information rather than the development of critical thinking, moral reasoning, and empathy. By emphasizing standardized assessment over the nuances of human experience and ethical application, society produces individuals who are academically proficient but lack the sagacity and discernment that characterize wisdom.

93English Comprehension
Choose the most suitable option to replace the part of the sentence: She has the reputation to be a kind woman.
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Answer: (B) of being a kind woman

Explanation

The noun reputation is idiomatically paired with the preposition of followed by a gerund when describing a person's character or standing. The construction reputation of being correctly identifies the state or quality for which the subject is known. By using the indefinite article a, the phrase successfully classifies the subject within a general category of kind individuals, fulfilling the grammatical requirements for defining a person's established public image or perceived nature.

94English Comprehension
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The doctor advised him <u>to avoid eating sweets and doing exercise regularly</u>.
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Answer: (C) to avoid eating sweets and to exercise regularly

Explanation

The sentence requires a parallel structure to clearly distinguish between two different pieces of medical advice: one negative (avoiding sweets) and one positive (exercising). By using the infinitive phrase to avoid eating sweets followed by and to exercise regularly, the sentence correctly links two separate actions to the main verb advised. This grammatical structure ensures that the advice to exercise is independent of the verb avoid, preventing the unintended meaning that the patient should avoid exercising. The inclusion of the second to establishes a clear parallel between the two infinitive clauses, providing both clarity and formal grammatical consistency.

95English Comprehension
A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that corresponding indirect speech. He asked me, "Have you done your homework?"
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Answer: (A) He asked me if I had done my homework.

Explanation

When converting a direct Yes/No question into indirect speech, the conjunction if or whether is used to link the reporting verb to the reported clause. Since the reporting verb asked is in the past tense, the Present Perfect tense have done in the direct speech undergoes a backshift to the Past Perfect tense had done. Additionally, the second-person pronouns you and your change to the first-person pronouns I and my to correspond with the object of the reporting verb me. The word order is also changed from interrogative to assertive, placing the subject before the verb.

96English Comprehension
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. He said that he would join the meeting after lunch.
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Answer: (A) "I will join the meeting after lunch", he said.

Explanation

In the transition from indirect to direct speech, the modal verb would is reverted to its original form will to reflect the speaker's future intent. The third-person pronoun he is changed to the first-person pronoun I because the direct speech must represent the actual words spoken by the individual. This follows the grammatical rule of backshifting where a future tense verb in direct speech becomes would in indirect speech when the reporting verb said is in the past tense.

97English Comprehension
Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage: 1. A media strategy was framed based on outreach results. 2. Demographic metrics were tracked from campaign dashboards. 3. User interactions were collected across platforms. 4. Analysts segmented users by age and behaviour.
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Answer: (A) 3-2-4-1

Explanation

The logical sequence follows the standard workflow of data-driven marketing and analytics. The process begins with sentence 3, which involves the initial collection of raw user interactions across various digital platforms. Once the data is gathered, sentence 2 occurs as specific demographic metrics are tracked via campaign dashboards to organize the information. This structured data then allows for sentence 4, where analysts perform detailed segmentation of users based on specific criteria like age and behavior. Finally, sentence 1 concludes the sequence, as the results and insights gained from this outreach and analysis are utilized to frame a targeted media strategy.

98English Comprehension
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. It is a process that involves the systematic and objective investigation of a subject to discover new facts or to confirm existing ones. 2. Research is a foundational pillar of academic and scientific progress. 3. This can be either theoretical, aiming to expand knowledge, or applied, seeking to solve a practical problem. 4. The findings of this investigation are then documented and peer-reviewed to ensure validity and credibility.
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Answer: (A) 2, 1, 3, 4

Explanation

Sentence 2 serves as the introductory statement by identifying the subject, Research, and establishing its importance in academia and science. Sentence 1 logically follows by defining what research is, using the pronoun It to refer back to the noun introduced in the first sentence. Sentence 3 continues the description of research by classifying it into two distinct types, theoretical and applied. Sentence 4 concludes the paragraph by explaining the final steps of the investigation process mentioned earlier, specifically the documentation and peer-review of findings. This sequence follows a logical flow from the general concept to a specific definition, then to classification, and finally to the verification of results.

99General Intelligence & Reasoning
A is the brother of B. C is the sister of B. D is the father of C. How is D related to A?
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Answer: (A) Father

Explanation

The relationships established are that A is the brother of B and C is the sister of B, which confirms that A, B, and C are all siblings belonging to the same generation. Since D is the father of C, and C is a sibling of A, D must also be the father of A. In a kinship structure, the parent of one sibling is the parent of all siblings in that immediate nuclear group.

100General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the address that is the same as the one given below. No.44, Hillcrest Villas, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh- 171001
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Answer: (B) No.44, Hillcrest Villas, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh- 171001

Explanation

Option b provides an exact character-to-character match with the reference address. Every component, including the house number (No.44), the property name (Hillcrest Villas), the city (Shimla), the state (Himachal Pradesh), and the six-digit pin code (171001), is identical in spelling, sequence, and punctuation to the original input. This perfect alignment ensures the data consistency required in clerical aptitude and visual matching tasks.

101General Intelligence & Reasoning
Identify the relation between Statement I and Statement II. Statement I. The bank's net profit increased significantly in the last quarter. Statement II. The bank implemented cost-cutting measures and improved loan recovery.
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Answer: (B) II is the cause and I is the effect.

Explanation

In financial management, cost-cutting measures directly reduce operational expenditures, while improved loan recovery increases interest income and reduces the necessity for bad debt provisioning. These specific operational actions lead to a higher bottom line for a financial institution. Since the strategic implementations described in Statement II are the drivers that result in the financial growth mentioned in Statement I, Statement II acts as the cause and Statement I is the resulting effect.

102General Intelligence & Reasoning
The following equation is incorrect. Which of the following two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation? 18 + 6× 4 - 12÷ 3 = 17
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Answer: (D) - and ÷

Explanation

To correct the equation 18 + 6 × 4 - 12 ÷ 3 = 17, the signs - and ÷ must be interchanged. By substituting these operators, the expression becomes 18 + 6 × 4 ÷ 12 - 3. According to the BODMAS rule, operations are performed in the order of Division and Multiplication (from left to right), followed by Addition and Subtraction.

First, calculate the multiplication and division parts: 6 × 4 ÷ 12 = 24 ÷ 12 = 2. The expression simplifies to 18 + 2 - 3. Next, perform the addition and subtraction from left to right: 18 + 2 = 20, and 20 - 3 = 17. Since the resulting value equals 17, the interchange of the minus and division signs correctly balances the equation.

103General Intelligence & Reasoning
The given statements are followed by two conclusions. Find out which conclusion is TRUE based on the given statements. Statements: 1. >K = L,M≥ N< K,O< J< P,N > Q > R Conclusions: 1. P > M 11. N< P
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Answer: (B) Only conclusion II is true

Explanation

To determine the validity of the conclusions, we combine the relevant inequality statements using the transitive property. Based on the provided strings, the variable represented by the leading character in the first statement is J (linked via the third statement).

From the statements: P > J (from O < J < P) J > K (from J > K = L) K > N (from M ≥ N < K)

By combining these inequalities into a single chain, we get: P > J > K > N

This transitive relationship directly implies P > N, which is equivalent to conclusion II (N < P).

Regarding conclusion I (P > M), we have P > K > N and M ≥ N. Since both P and M are compared to N as being greater, but no direct or transitive link exists between P and M, their relationship is indeterminate. Therefore, only conclusion II is logically true.

104General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the letter-cluster from along the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. B E K, D G M, F I O, H K Q, ?
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Answer: (C) JMS

Explanation

The series follows a pattern where each subsequent letter-cluster is formed by adding 2 to the positional value of the corresponding letters in the preceding cluster.

For the first letter in each cluster, the sequence is B (2), D (4), F (6), H (8). Adding 2 to the last value gives 10, which corresponds to the letter J.

For the second letter in each cluster, the sequence is E (5), G (7), I (9), K (11). Adding 2 to the last value gives 13, which corresponds to the letter M.

For the third letter in each cluster, the sequence is K (11), M (13), O (15), Q (17). Adding 2 to the last value gives 19, which corresponds to the letter S.

Combining these results, the next letter-cluster in the series is JMS.

105General Intelligence & Reasoning
What comes next: 3,6,18,108,?
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Answer: (B) 1944

Explanation

The given sequence follows a pattern where each term, starting from the third term, is the product of the two preceding terms. Specifically, the third term is derived by multiplying the first and second terms: 3 × 6 = 18. The fourth term is the product of the second and third terms: 6 × 18 = 108. To find the next term in the series, multiply the third and fourth terms: 18 × 108 = 1944.

106General Intelligence & Reasoning
What will come at the place of question mark? 5,9,17,33,65,?
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Answer: (A) 129

Explanation

The series follows a pattern where each term is generated by the relation xₙ = 2xₙ₋₁ - 1. Applying this rule to the sequence: 5 × 2 - 1 = 9 9 × 2 - 1 = 17 17 × 2 - 1 = 33 33 × 2 - 1 = 65 To find the missing term, we calculate 65 × 2 - 1 = 130 - 1 = 129.

Alternatively, the series can be solved by looking at the differences between consecutive terms, which are increasing powers of 2: 9 - 5 = 4 = 2² 17 - 9 = 8 = 2³ 33 - 17 = 16 = 2⁴ 65 - 33 = 32 = 2⁵ The next difference in the sequence must be 2⁶ = 64. Adding this to the last term, we get 65 + 64 = 129.

107General Intelligence & Reasoning
Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows. Statement: The government has announced a reduction in LPG subsidies. Conclusions: I. Citizens will now have to pay more for LPG. II. The government has no money left.
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Answer: (A) Only Conclusion I follows

Explanation

A subsidy is the financial assistance provided by the government to reduce the price of a commodity for consumers. When the government announces a reduction in the LPG subsidy, it means the government will cover a smaller portion of the total cost of the cylinder. As a result, the difference between the market price and the subsidized price decreases, forcing citizens to pay a higher retail price to cover the shortfall. Conclusion I is a direct logical consequence of the policy change described in the statement. Conclusion II cannot be inferred because a reduction in subsidies is a fiscal policy measure often used to manage deficits or redistribute resources, and it does not provide sufficient evidence to claim that the government has completely exhausted its financial resources.

108General Intelligence & Reasoning
Identify the assumptions that must hold for the statement to be valid, then choose the correction option. Statement: While technological advancements in energy production have made renewable sources more cost- competition, their intermittent nature means that large- scale adoption will require significant investments in energy storage technologies to stabilise the grid. Assumptions: I. Renewable energy sources are not continuous and need energy storage solution. II. The high cost of renewable energy production makes its adoption difficult without subsidies. III. Energy storage technologies are a necessary component of a stable energy grid with high renewable energy input.
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Answer: (A) Only I and III are implicit

Explanation

Assumption I is implicit because the statement identifies the intermittent nature of renewable energy sources as a primary challenge, which directly implies that these power sources are not continuous and require storage solutions to manage the variability in supply.

Assumption III is implicit because the statement explicitly links the stability of the grid to the implementation of energy storage technologies during the large-scale adoption of renewables. This establishes a necessary causal relationship where storage is framed as the essential requirement for maintaining a stable energy grid under high renewable input. The statement characterizes renewable energy as cost-competitive due to technological advancements, focusing the barrier to adoption on grid stabilization and storage rather than production costs or financial subsidies.

109General Intelligence & Reasoning
Read the following statement carefully and identify the conclusion that follows: Statement: Traffic violations have decreased after the installation of speed cameras. Conclusions: I. Surveillance discourage rule-breaking. II. People respect traffic rules voluntarily.
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Answer: (A) Only Conclusion I follows

Explanation

The statement provides a cause-and-effect relationship where the introduction of speed cameras, which serve as a mechanism for surveillance, leads to a reduction in traffic violations. In logical reasoning, when a specific monitoring tool results in improved compliance with regulations, it supports the general inference that surveillance acts as a deterrent against rule-breaking. Conclusion I follows because it directly reflects this observed impact of external monitoring on behavior. The decrease in violations is a reactive change prompted by the presence of the cameras rather than an internal or unforced shift in behavior, establishing that the threat of detection is the primary factor discouraging the violations.

110General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following is/are identical to the address given: Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011 1. Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011 2. Vikram Singh 18-B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011 3. Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, Delhi, 110011 4. Vikram Singh 18B, Golden Heights, Moti Nagar, New Delhi, 110011
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3

Explanation

The addresses labeled 1 and 3 are exact replicas of the original reference string provided. In data verification and clerical aptitude tests, identity requires every character, including punctuation and spaces, to be identical. Address 1 and address 3 maintain the house number 18B and the city name Delhi precisely as written in the source. Variations in other addresses, such as the addition of a hyphen in 18-B or the modification of the city to New Delhi, constitute deviations that render them non-identical to the master record.

111General Intelligence & Reasoning
Each question involves rearranging specific positions of the letters from the original word, and you must choose the correct transformed version from the options. PLANET is to EAPLNT as TARGET is to:
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Answer: (C) ERT AGT

Explanation

The transformation logic is based on rearranging the letters according to their original numerical positions in the word. By assigning an index to each letter of the word PLANET as 1(P), 2(L), 3(A), 4(N), 5(E), and 6(T), the transformed version EAPLNT follows the positional sequence 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6.

Applying this same index pattern to the word TARGET, where the letters are 1(T), 2(A), 3(R), 4(G), 5(E), and 6(T): Position 5: E Position 3: R Position 1: T Position 2: A Position 4: G Position 6: T

Arranging these letters in the defined order results in the sequence ERTAGT.

112General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find the odd one out: Jawaharlal Nehru, Indira Gandhi, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Narendra Modi, Rajiv Gandhi
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Answer: (C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is the odd one out because he is the only individual in the list who did not serve as the Prime Minister of India. He held the positions of the first Deputy Prime Minister and the Union Home Minister of independent India from 1947 to 1950. His political career was primarily defined by his leadership in the independence movement and his crucial role in the territorial and administrative integration of the princely states into the Indian Union. While he was a foundational figure in the Union Cabinet, he did not hold the office of the Head of Government.

113General Intelligence & Reasoning
Pointing to a boy, a man said, "He is the son of my wife's sister's husband." How is the boy related to the man?
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Answer: (B) Nephew

Explanation

The relationship can be decoded by breaking down the statement from the perspective of the man. The man's wife's sister is his sister-in-law. The husband of this sister-in-law is also referred to as the man's brother-in-law. The son of the man's sister-in-law and her husband is the man's nephew. In kinship terminology, the male child of one's sibling or the male child of one's spouse's sibling is defined as a nephew.

114General Intelligence & Reasoning
What comes next? MZM, PXK, SVI, ?
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Answer: (A) VTG

Explanation

The sequence is determined by applying a specific arithmetic progression to each position of the letters in the triplets. For the first letter of each term, the alphabetical position increases by 3 in each step: M (13) + 3 = P (16), P (16) + 3 = S (19), and S (19) + 3 = V (22).

For the second letter, the alphabetical position decreases by 2 in each step: Z (26) - 2 = X (24), X (24) - 2 = V (22), and V (22) - 2 = T (20).

For the third letter, the alphabetical position also decreases by 2 in each step: M (13) - 2 = K (11), K (11) - 2 = I (9), and I (9) - 2 = G (7).

By combining the resulting letters V, T, and G, we obtain the next term in the series.

115General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find the odd one out from the given alternatives:
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Answer: (D) Igneous Rock

Explanation

Igneous rock is classified as a primary rock type formed through the cooling and solidification of magma or lava. In contrast, the other three alternatives are specific classifications of soil, which is the thin layer of loose material found on the Earth surface formed by the weathering of rocks and the decomposition of organic matter over time. Therefore, igneous rock represents a geological precursor or parent material rather than a finished soil type.

116General Intelligence & Reasoning
If 'SUN' is coded as 'RTM', what is the code for 'MOON'?
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Answer: (B) LNNM

Explanation

The coding logic is based on shifting each letter to its preceding letter in the English alphabet (a shift of -1). For the word SUN:

S (19) - 1 = 18 (R) U (21) - 1 = 20 (T) N (14) - 1 = 13 (M)

This gives the code RTM. Applying the same -1 shift consistently to every letter of the word MOON:

M (13) - 1 = 12 (L) O (15) - 1 = 14 (N) O (15) - 1 = 14 (N) N (14) - 1 = 13 (M)

Combining these results, the code for MOON is LNNM.

117General Intelligence & Reasoning
If 25% of a certain number is 15, what is that number?
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Answer: (B) 60

Explanation

To determine the total value when a percentage of it is given, use the fundamental percentage formula: Total Value = (Part)/(Percentage Rate) Given that 25% of the number is 15, express the percentage as a decimal (0.25) or a fraction (1/4). Substituting these values into the formula: Total Value = (15)/(0.25) Multiplying both numerator and denominator by 100 or simply dividing by 0.25 yields: Total Value = 60 The fastest shortcut is recognizing that 25% is exactly one-fourth of a whole. Therefore, if one-fourth of the number is 15, the entire number is calculated by multiplying the part by four: 15 × 4 = 60 This method of using common fraction equivalents allows for rapid mental calculation by relating the percentage directly to its proportional part of the whole.

118General Intelligence & Reasoning
If 6^*3 = 54 and 8^*2 = 48 what is 5^*4?
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Answer: (D) 60

Explanation

The pattern follows the rule a b = 3(a × b). In the first given equation, 6 3 = 3(6 × 3) = 3 × 18 = 54. In the second given equation, 8 2 = 3(8 × 2) = 3 × 16 = 48. Applying this same logic to the required expression, we calculate 5 4 = 3(5 × 4) = 3 × 20 = 60.

119General Intelligence & Reasoning
If 2@3 = 13,3@4 = 25 then what is 4@5?
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Answer: (C) 41

Explanation

The logic followed in the given operations is the sum of the squares of the two numbers. For the first expression, 2@3 = 2² + 3² = 4 + 9 = 13. Similarly, for the second expression, 3@4 = 3² + 4² = 9 + 16 = 25. Applying the same pattern to the target expression, we calculate 4@5 = 4² + 5² = 16 + 25 = 41.

120General Intelligence & Reasoning
A 30 L mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 3:2. How much milk must be added to make it 4:1?
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Answer: (C) 30 L

Explanation

The initial mixture of 30 L has milk and water in the ratio 3:2. The quantity of milk is (3/5) × 30 = 18 L, and the quantity of water is (2/5) × 30 = 12 L. When milk is added to the mixture, the quantity of water remains unchanged at 12 L. In the final ratio of 4:1, the water represents 1 part of the total. If 1 part is equal to 12 L, then the 4 parts of milk must equal 4 × 12 = 48 L. To find the amount of milk to be added, subtract the initial quantity of milk from the final quantity: 48 - 18 = 30 L.

121General Intelligence & Reasoning
If the given symbols mean: '+' means 'divided by', '-' means 'multiplied by', '×' means 'minus' and '÷' means 'plus' Then, find the value of the following expression: 8 ÷ 2 × 3 + 18 - 6 = ?
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Answer: (A) 9

Explanation

Based on the instructions provided, the mathematical operators are substituted as follows:

  • means ÷ ÷ means + × means -
  • means ×

Applying these substitutions to the given expression 8 ÷ 2 × 3 + 18 - 6: 8 + 2 - 3 ÷ 18 × 6

Following the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

Division: 3 ÷ 18 = ³⁄₁₈ = ⅙ Multiplication: ⅙ × 6 = 1 Addition and Subtraction: 8 + 2 - 1 = 10 - 1 = 9

The value of the expression is 9.

122General Intelligence & Reasoning
Rearrange the letters given below to form the name of a weapon: REPSA
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Answer: (B) spear

Explanation

The letters REPSA can be rearranged to form the word spear. A spear is a pole weapon that has been used for hunting and warfare since prehistoric times. It consists of a long shaft, typically made of wood, and a sharpened head made of stone, bone, bronze, iron, or steel. This weapon is designed for either thrusting or throwing, providing the user with a reach advantage over enemies using shorter-range weapons. Historically, spears were essential for infantry units because they could be used in tight formations to create a defensive wall of points. Its utility as both a projectile and a close-quarters tool cemented its place as a primary implement of combat across nearly every culture in human history.

123General Intelligence & Reasoning
If + = ÷, - = ×, ÷ = +, × = - then 36 + 6 - 2 × 3 = ?
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Answer: (D) 9

Explanation

By replacing the operators according to the given logic where + denotes ÷, - denotes ×, and × denotes -, the original expression 36 + 6 - 2 × 3 is transformed into:

36 ÷ 6 × 2 - 3

Following the BODMAS rule, the operations are performed in the following sequence:

First, perform the division: 36 ÷ 6 = 6

Next, perform the multiplication: 6 × 2 = 12

Finally, perform the subtraction: 12 - 3 = 9

124General Awareness
In Ragavibodha, Pt. Somnath defined a raga through Devamaya svaraupa (ethos). Which of the following, denotes its tonal structure?
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Answer: (C) Swarlakshana

Explanation

In the treatise Ragavibodha, authored by Pandit Somnath in 1609 CE, the description of a raga is categorized into two distinct forms. The first is the Devamaya svarupa, which refers to the contemplative or iconographic form of the raga, often described through dhyana-slokas to convey its spiritual and emotional ethos as a deity. The second is the technical or musical form, which defines the raga through its sound. Swarlakshana denotes this tonal structure by detailing the specific swaras (notes), their sequences, and the melodic characteristics that constitute the raga's auditory identity. While the Devamaya form provides the aesthetic visualization, the Swarlakshana provides the essential musical framework required for performance and classification in the Mela system.

125General Awareness
Which of the following Mughal tombs deviates from the typical square 'hasht-bihisht' (eight-part) layout?
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Answer: (B) Akbar's Tomb (Sikandra)

Explanation

Akbar's Tomb at Sikandra departs significantly from the standard hasht-bihisht plan, which is characterized by a central domed chamber surrounded by eight interconnected rooms. Instead of the typical Persianate geometry of eight paradises, Akbar's tomb is a tiered, pyramidal structure consisting of five storeys that decrease in size as they rise. The uppermost level is an open-air marble courtyard surrounded by screens, lacking the high central bulbous dome that usually crowns hasht-bihisht layouts. This unique design reflects a transition in Mughal architecture, incorporating elements of indigenous multi-storeyed pavilion styles rather than adhering strictly to the nine-fold geometric grid established in earlier and later imperial mausoleums.

126General Awareness
Read the following statements carefully: Statement 1 : The seals of the Harappan culture were made using locally found steatite. Statement 2 : These seals often feature animal motifs and undeciphered script symbols. Which of the following is/ are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

Explanation

The Indus Valley Civilization produced thousands of seals, the vast majority of which were crafted from steatite, a soft soapstone found in abundance across the regional geology of Northwest India and Pakistan. This material was preferred because it was easy to carve into precise designs and could be fired at high temperatures to increase its durability while providing a white, lustrous finish. These seals served as symbols of authority and were used to authenticate trade goods and signify ownership. Most specimens are square or rectangular and feature a distinctive animal motif alongside a short inscription. Common animals depicted include the mythical unicorn, humped bull, elephant, rhinoceros, and tiger. The Harappan script found on these seals consists of several hundred distinct signs which remain undeciphered, as no bilingual inscription like the Rosetta Stone has been discovered to bridge the gap between the Harappan symbols and known languages.

127General Awareness
The festival of Bhagoria begins seven days before which Hindu festival?
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Answer: (B) Holika Dahan

Explanation

Bhagoria, also known as Bhagoria Haat, is a traditional tribal festival celebrated primarily by the Bhil and Bhilala communities in the Malwa and Nimar regions of Madhya Pradesh, as well as parts of Maharashtra. The festivities commence seven days before the Hindu festival of Holi, specifically leading up to the ritual of Holika Dahan. It serves as a significant cultural event marking the end of the agricultural harvest, where tribal people gather at local markets or haats to celebrate with folk music, traditional dances, and social shopping. Historically, the festival was also known as a venue for young men and women to choose their life partners.

128General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following terms is specifically associated with the javelin throw?
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Answer: (B) Sector

Explanation

In athletics, the sector is the designated wedge-shaped landing area where the implement must land for a throw to be ruled valid. In the javelin throw, this area is defined by two lines radiating from the center of the arc at the end of the runway. The lines are set at an angle of 28.96 degrees. For a throw to be measured, the tip of the javelin's metal head must strike the ground within the inner edges of the sector lines. The marking and dimensions of the sector are strictly regulated by international track and field standards to ensure safety and accurate measurement of the distance achieved.

129General Awareness
Which of the following dynasties minted the "Dehlival" coins in Delhi?
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Answer: (B) The Tomaras

Explanation

The Tomara dynasty, which founded the city of Dhillika (modern Delhi) in the 8th century, was responsible for the initial minting and circulation of the Dehlival coins. These coins were primarily composed of billon, an alloy of silver and copper, and typically featured the bull-and-horseman motif that was common in North Indian coinage of that era. Under the Tomaras, Delhi developed into a significant commercial center, and the Dehlival coins gained such widespread acceptance in trade and commerce that they became the standard currency of the region, maintaining their prominence even through subsequent political transitions.

130General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following pairs (Educational Event - Key Outcome/Initiative) is correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Charter Act, 1813 - Allocated funds for promotion of education

Explanation

The Charter Act of 1813 was a landmark in the history of Indian education as it was the first time the British East India Company officially acknowledged its responsibility for the education of the Indian people. Section 43 of the Act mandated that a sum of not less than one lakh rupees each year shall be set apart and applied to the revival and improvement of literature and the encouragement of the learned natives of India, and for the introduction and promotion of a knowledge of the sciences among the inhabitants of the British territories in India. This financial allocation provided the necessary legislative basis for the formal involvement of the colonial state in the educational sphere.

131General Intelligence & Reasoning
Who won India's first Paralympic medals in the women's 200m T12 and men's javelin throw F41 events at Paris 2024?
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Answer: (A) Simran (bronze, 200m T12) and Navdeep Singh (gold, javelin F41)

Explanation

Simran Sharma secured a bronze medal in the women's 200m T12 event at the Paris 2024 Paralympics, clocking a personal best time of 24.75 seconds. This achievement marked India's first-ever Paralympic medal in this specific track category. Navdeep Singh clinched the gold medal in the men's javelin throw F41 category with a throw of 47.32 meters. His medal was upgraded to gold following the disqualification of the initial winner for a breach of the code of conduct. This victory represented India's inaugural gold medal in the F41 classification for javelin throw, significantly contributing to the nation's highest-ever medal tally at a single Paralympic Games.

132General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following best reflects India's operational and diplomatic approach to boundary demarcation with Myanmar amidst recent local protests over fencing?
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Answer: (B) India and Myanmar conduct joint surveys and proposed a Joint Boundary Working Group.

Explanation

The demarcation of the 1,643 km international boundary between India and Myanmar is primarily governed by the bilateral Boundary Agreement signed on March 10, 1967. To address technical discrepancies and local concerns regarding the alignment of boundary pillars, both nations established a Joint Boundary Working Group (JBWG). This diplomatic and operational framework facilitates joint surveys conducted by the Survey of India and the Myanmar Survey Department. These periodic field exercises involve the verification of pillar coordinates, the restoration of damaged markers, and the resolution of territorial claims through mutual technical assessment. By utilizing this bilateral mechanism, India seeks to ensure a scientifically accurate and mutually agreed-upon border, balancing national security requirements like fencing with the historical and traditional rights of local border communities.

133General Intelligence & Reasoning
Who is the author of the book 'School to Startup: Navigating the path of Entrepreneurship'?
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Answer: (A) Rohit Sinha

Explanation

Rohit Sinha is a seasoned talent strategist and author who wrote School to Startup: Navigating the path of Entrepreneurship. The book is designed as a practical guide for students and aspiring business leaders, bridging the gap between traditional classroom education and the dynamic requirements of the startup ecosystem. It outlines the essential stages of the entrepreneurial journey, including idea generation, market validation, and the development of a resilient business model. Drawing from his professional experience in leadership and human capital, Sinha emphasizes the importance of mindset, adaptability, and strategic networking for young innovators looking to build sustainable enterprises in the modern economy.

134General Awareness
Where was the 4th KIO National (Senior, U-21 | Para) Karate Championship held from 26-29 March 2025?
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Answer: (C) Hyderabad

Explanation

The 4th KIO National (Senior, U-21 | Para) Karate Championship was organized by the Karate India Organisation (KIO) at the Gachibowli Indoor Stadium in Hyderabad, Telangana. Scheduled from 26th to 29th March 2025, this premier national event brought together top karatekas from across the country to compete in various weight categories and kata events. The championship serves as a critical selection trial for Indian athletes aiming to represent the nation in international competitions sanctioned by the Asian Karate Federation (AKF) and the World Karate Federation (WKF).

135General Awareness
Which of the following statements about the 2024 InterState athletics Championships is/are correct? 1. Sahil Silwal crossed 80m for the first time this season to win javelin gold. 2. Jyothika and Amoj's 4× 400m relay team broke the Asian Games record.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

Sahil Silwal secured the gold medal in the men javelin throw at the 63rd National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships 2024 held in Panchkula, Haryana. He achieved a distance of 81.81m on his second attempt, which was his best performance of the 2024 season. Prior to this event, Silwal had not crossed the 80m mark in the calendar year, making this his first successful 80m plus throw of the season and placing him ahead of competitors like Vikrant Malik and Kishore Jena.

136General Awareness
What is the minimum age required to contest the Presidential election in India?
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Answer: (A) 35

Explanation

Under Article 58 of the Constitution of India, specific eligibility criteria are defined for a person to be elected as the President. Specifically, Article 58(1)(b) mandates that no person shall be eligible for election as President unless he has completed the age of thirty-five years. This provision ensures that the individual occupying the highest constitutional office in the Republic of India possesses the requisite maturity and life experience. Along with this age requirement, the candidate must also be a citizen of India and fulfill the qualifications necessary for election as a member of the House of the People, also known as the Lok Sabha.

137General Awareness
Read the following statements about aerobic respiration. 1. Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria. 2. Kreb's cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. 3. The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is oxygen. which one of the following statement is correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation

The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of enzyme-catalyzed chemical reactions that occurs in the mitochondrial matrix of eukaryotic cells. It is a key component of aerobic respiration, following the link reaction that converts pyruvate into acetyl-CoA. During the final stage of aerobic respiration, known as the electron transport chain, oxygen serves as the terminal electron acceptor. This role is critical as oxygen combines with electrons and hydrogen ions to form water (H₂O), allowing the chain to continue functioning and enabling the production of ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Glycolysis, the first step in the breakdown of glucose, takes place in the cytoplasm (cytosol) of the cell rather than the mitochondria. This phase is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration and does not require the specialized environment of the mitochondrial interior.

138General Awareness
Which Article empowers the Parliament to create laws on State List subjects under national interest?
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Answer: (A) Article 249

Explanation

Article 249 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to legislate on any subject mentioned in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect. This resolution must be supported by at least two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest for Parliament to make laws regarding that specific matter. Such a resolution remains in force for a period not exceeding one year at a time, although it can be renewed any number of times for subsequent periods of one year. This provision allows the Union to address matters of urgent national importance that would otherwise fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the state legislatures.

139General Awareness
Vilasini Natyam, once performed in temples and courts, is a classical dance form revived in which Indian state?
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Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

Vilasini Natyam is a traditional classical dance form belonging to the state of Andhra Pradesh. It is the heritage of the female hereditary dancers known as Kalavantulu or Vilasinis, who historically performed in temples, royal courts, and public theaters. Unlike Kuchipudi, which was traditionally performed by male troupes, Vilasini Natyam represents the feminine solo dance tradition of the Telugu-speaking regions. The art form was revived in the late 20th century through the extensive research and performance efforts of Guru Swapnasundari, who worked with the last generation of traditional dancers to preserve its distinct repertoire, which includes temple rituals (Gudi Seva) and courtly presentations (Kacheri Aata).

140General Awareness
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option: Statement 1: The Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) shows the trade-offs and opportunity costs faced by an economy. Statement 2: The PPF is used to estimate the government's total revenue and expenditure.
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Answer: (A) Only Statement 1 is correct

Explanation

The Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) represents the maximum output combinations of two goods that an economy can produce given fixed resources and technology. Because resources are scarce, an economy cannot produce more of one good without sacrificing some amount of another good, which fundamentally illustrates the concept of trade-offs. The opportunity cost is reflected in the slope of the PPF, known as the Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT), which quantifies the quantity of one commodity that must be foregone to produce an additional unit of the other. In contrast, the PPF is a model of production capacity and resource allocation rather than a fiscal tool for tracking government financial flows; the estimation of revenue and expenditure is instead handled through the national budget and fiscal accounting frameworks.

141General Awareness
A key component evaluated by the 2025 Index of Economic Freedom concerning "Government Size" is:
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Answer: (B) Government Spending Levels

Explanation

The Index of Economic Freedom, published annually by The Heritage Foundation, evaluates the economic environment of nations through four main pillars: Rule of Law, Government Size, Regulatory Efficiency, and Open Markets. The Government Size pillar specifically measures the burden imposed by government expenditures and taxes on the economy. Within this pillar, Government Spending is a primary component that tracks the level of public expenditures as a percentage of a country's gross domestic product (GDP). This indicator includes all government consumption and transfer payments, reflecting the extent to which the state competes with the private sector for resources and the degree of government involvement in the economy. Along with Tax Burden and Fiscal Health, Government Spending Levels provide a quantitative assessment of how state-led fiscal policies impact overall economic freedom.

142Quantitative Aptitude
Which Five-Year Plan focused on heavy industries?
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Answer: (B) Second

Explanation

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961) was based on the Mahalanobis model, named after the statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis. This plan shifted the economic focus from agriculture toward rapid industrialization, specifically emphasizing the development of basic and heavy industries. The strategy aimed to create a self-reliant economy by building a strong capital goods sector, which included the production of iron, steel, chemicals, and heavy machinery. To achieve this, the government established several large-scale industrial projects and public sector enterprises, including the steel plants at Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela. This industrial push was intended to provide the necessary infrastructure and tools to support long-term economic growth and modernization across other sectors of the economy.

143Quantitative Aptitude
Which Indian initiative under the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) aims to improve micro-climate resilience through community-led water harvesting in semi-arid zones?
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Answer: (B) Climate Resilient Watershed Programme

Explanation

The Climate Resilient Watershed Programme is a strategic initiative funded by the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) to mitigate the impacts of climate variability in India's semi-arid regions. This programme prioritizes community-led interventions in water harvesting and soil conservation to build long-term micro-climate resilience. By integrating traditional knowledge with modern watershed management techniques, it facilitates the construction of decentralized water storage structures that enhance groundwater levels and maintain soil moisture. These efforts are crucial for stabilizing local agricultural ecosystems against the increasing frequency of dry spells and erratic monsoon patterns, thereby securing the livelihoods of vulnerable farming communities through improved resource governance and climate-smart water management practices.

144Quantitative Aptitude
Economic liberalisation mainly affects which sector?
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Answer: (D) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary

Explanation

Economic liberalisation refers to the reduction of government regulations and restrictions in an economy to facilitate greater participation by private entities and foreign investors. This process comprehensively reshapes all three sectors of the economy. In the primary sector, it introduces market-oriented reforms in agriculture and mining, such as the easing of export restrictions and the entry of private technology. In the secondary sector, it involves industrial delicensing, the reduction of import duties, and the promotion of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to boost manufacturing and infrastructure. In the tertiary sector, liberalisation opens up critical service areas like banking, insurance, telecommunications, and information technology to global competition and private players. Because the modern economy is highly integrated, the removal of trade barriers and the shift toward a market-driven model necessitate structural changes across the entire economic spectrum.

145General Awareness
Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): The 1991 reforms boosted India foreign exchange reserves significantly. Reason (R): Liberalised trade policies increased both exports and capital inflows.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation

The economic reforms of 1991 were triggered by a severe Balance of Payments crisis that left India with foreign exchange reserves barely sufficient to cover two weeks of imports. The transition to a Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG) model directly addressed this through structural changes. Trade liberalisation, which included the devaluation of the rupee and the elimination of the complex import licensing system, enhanced the competitiveness of Indian exports. Simultaneously, the opening of the Indian economy to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) led to a significant increase in capital inflows. These dual improvements in the current and capital accounts allowed the Reserve Bank of India to accumulate foreign exchange reserves at a rapid pace, growing from nearly depleted levels in 1991 to over $100 billion by 2004. The policy shift toward a market-oriented trade and investment regime was the primary causal factor behind the restoration and subsequent growth of India's external financial stability.

146General Awareness
Match the dominant folk dance with the song-theme: | Folk Dance | Song-theme | |------------|----------------------------------------------------------| | Panthi | Devotional hymns of Guru Ghasidas (Hari-Gaitri) | | Gotipua | Krishna-Jagannath leela narratives | | Kalbelia | Sensuous serpent metaphors | | Tippani | Work-song pounding couplets (Saathiyo Re) |
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Answer: (A) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv-D

Explanation

Panthi is a prominent folk dance of the Satnami community in Chhattisgarh, where performers sing hymns praising the life and philosophy of their spiritual leader, Guru Ghasidas. Gotipua is a traditional dance form from Odisha, performed by young boys dressed as women, which focuses on depicting the divine plays of Krishna and Lord Jagannath. Kalbelia is the folk dance of the snake-charmer tribe in Rajasthan, known for its fluid, sinuous movements and lyrical metaphors that evoke the elegance of serpents. Tippani originated in the Chorwad region of Gujarat as a functional work-dance performed by women laborers who beat the floor with mallets (tippanis) to rhythmically timed couplets and chants like Saathiyo Re to maintain pace during construction tasks.

147General Awareness
Consider the following statements: 1. The Sixth Schedule is applicable to Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh. 2. It empowers autonomous district councils to make laws on specified subjects. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation

The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution specifically applies to the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh are not covered under this schedule; Nagaland is instead governed by special provisions under Article 371A.

Under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule, Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) are established and vested with legislative powers. Paragraph 3 of the schedule empowers these councils to make laws regarding subjects such as the allotment and use of land, the management of forests other than reserved forests, the regulation of shifting cultivation, village administration, and matters concerning inheritance, marriage, and social customs. All such laws require the assent of the Governor to become effective.

148General Awareness
Consider the following statements about the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST). 1. It observes in the near-infrared and mid-infrared spectrum. 2. It is positioned at the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point L2. 3. It carries a coronagraph for exoplanet detection. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The James Webb Space Telescope is an infrared-optimized observatory designed to capture light in both the near-infrared and mid-infrared wavelengths, ranging from 0.6 to 28.5 micrometers. This spectral coverage allows it to peer through dense gas and dust clouds to observe distant galaxies and the formation of stars. To maintain the extremely cold operating temperatures necessary for infrared sensitivity, the telescope is stationed at the Sun-Earth L2 Lagrange point, located approximately 1.5 million kilometers away from Earth. This specific orbital position allows its sunshield to permanently block heat and light from the Sun, Earth, and Moon. Additionally, the telescope is equipped with coronagraphs in its NIRCam and MIRI instruments. These devices function by blocking the direct light of a star, enabling the telescope to detect and study the much fainter light of orbiting exoplanets and protoplanetary disks.

149Quantitative Aptitude
If a + b = 5 and ab = 6 , Find: (a³ + b³)² - 9a²b² (a + b)² .
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Answer: (A) -6875

Explanation

First, calculate the value of the term a³ + b³ using the algebraic identity a³ + b³ = (a + b)((a + b)² - 3ab). Substituting the given values a + b = 5 and ab = 6: a³ + b³ = 5(5² - 3 × 6) = 5(25 - 18) = 5 × 7 = 35

Next, substitute the values of a³ + b³, ab, and a + b into the required expression (a³ + b³)² - 9a²b² (a + b)²: (35)² - 9(ab)² (a + b)² 1225 - 9(6²)(5²) 1225 - 9 × 36 × 25 1225 - 9 × 900 1225 - 8100 = -6875

150Quantitative Aptitude
Given that W:X = 5:6 , X:Y = 3:7 , and Y:Z = 8:9 , find the compound ratio W:X:Y:Z .
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Answer: (A) 20:24:56:63

Explanation

To determine the compound ratio W:X:Y:Z, the individual ratios must be linked by equating the common terms. Starting with W:X = 5:6 and X:Y = 3:7, the term X is common to both. By multiplying the second ratio by 2, we obtain X:Y = (3 × 2) : (7 × 2) = 6:14, which allows the terms to be combined as W:X:Y = 5:6:14.

Next, we incorporate Y:Z = 8:9. The common term Y currently has values of 14 in the first group and 8 in the second. The least common multiple (LCM) of 14 and 8 is 56. To align these, we multiply the combined ratio W:X:Y by 4 (56 ÷ 14 = 4), which gives 20:24:56. We then multiply the ratio Y:Z by 7 (56 ÷ 8 = 7), which gives 56:63. Merging these results yields the unified ratio 20:24:56:63.

151Quantitative Aptitude
What is the value of √(6 + 6 + {6 + …)}
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Answer: (A) 3

Explanation

Let x = √(6 + 6 + {6 + …)}. Since the sequence is infinite, the term nested within the first square root is also equal to x. This allows us to set up the equation x = √(6 + x). Squaring both sides to remove the radical gives x² = 6 + x. Rearranging this into a standard quadratic equation results in x² - x - 6 = 0. Factoring the quadratic expression, we get (x - 3)(x + 2) = 0, which yields the roots x = 3 and x = -2. Because the principal square root of a positive real number must be positive, we discard the negative root, leaving x = 3.

A shortcut for infinite radicals of the form √(n + n + {n + …)} is to identify if n can be expressed as the product of two consecutive integers k(k + 1). If the operation is addition, the value of the expression is the larger integer k + 1. For n = 6, the consecutive factors are 2 and 3 because 2 × 3 = 6. Therefore, the value of the series is 3.

152Quantitative Aptitude
A vendor purchases seven shirts at the marked price of six shirts. If he sells each shirt after giving a 4% discount on its marked price, what is his profit percentage?
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Answer: (C) 12%

Explanation

Let the marked price (MP) of one shirt be M. The vendor purchases seven shirts for the price of six, meaning the total cost price (CP) for seven shirts is 6M. Therefore, the cost price of a single shirt is CP = (6M)/(7).

The vendor sells each shirt at a 4% discount on its marked price. The selling price (SP) per shirt is calculated as SP = M × (1 - 0.04) = 0.96M.

The profit percentage is determined using the formula: Profit % = (SP - CP)/(CP) × 100

Substituting the values: Profit % = (0.96M - 6M)/(7){(6M)/(7)} × 100 Profit % = ( (0.96 × 7)/(6) - 1 ) × 100 Profit % = ( (6.72)/(6) - 1 ) × 100 Profit % = (1.12 - 1) × 100 = 12%

153Quantitative Aptitude
Pipe A is capable of filling a tank in 16 minutes while Pipe B can fill the same tank in 24 minutes. Both pipes are opened together, but after 4 minutes, the rate of Pipe A doubles and the rate of Pipe B becomes half of its original. How many more minutes will it take to fill the tank completely?
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Answer: (A) 4 min

Explanation

Let the total capacity of the tank be the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 16 and 24, which is 48 units. The initial efficiency of Pipe A is 48 / 16 = 3 units per minute, and the initial efficiency of Pipe B is 48 / 24 = 2 units per minute.

During the first 4 minutes, both pipes work together at a combined rate of 3 + 2 = 5 units per minute. The amount of the tank filled in this period is 4 × 5 = 20 units. This leaves a remaining capacity of 48 - 20 = 28 units to be filled.

After 4 minutes, the efficiency of Pipe A doubles to 3 × 2 = 6 units per minute, and the efficiency of Pipe B becomes half, which is 2 / 2 = 1 unit per minute. The new combined rate of both pipes is 6 + 1 = 7 units per minute. To find the additional time required, we divide the remaining capacity by the new combined rate: 28 / 7 = 4 minutes.

154Quantitative Aptitude
Simplify: √(12 + 6√3)
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Answer: (B) 3 + √3

Explanation

To simplify the nested radical √(12 + 6√3), we aim to rewrite the radicand in the form of a perfect square (x + y)² = x² + y² + 2xy.

Comparing 12 + 6√3 to the expansion x² + y² + 2xy, we set the terms as follows: 2xy = 6√3 ⟹ xy = 3√3 x² + y² = 12

By testing factors of 3√3, we let x = 3 and y = √3. We verify these values by checking the sum of their squares: x² + y² = 3² + (√3)² = 9 + 3 = 12

Since both conditions are satisfied, the expression inside the square root can be rewritten as: 12 + 6√3 = 3² + (√3)² + 2(3)(√3) = (3 + √3)²

The square root of this perfect square is: √((3 + √3)²) = 3 + √3

155Quantitative Aptitude
A sum of ₹10000 is lent out in two parts, one at 7% simple interest and the other at 12% simple interest. If the annual interest is ₹900, the sum lent at 12% is:
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Answer: (B) ₹4000

Explanation

The overall annual interest rate for the entire sum is calculated as: R = (Total Interest × 100)/(Principal × Time) = (900 × 100)/(10000 × 1) = 9%

Using the method of alligation to find the ratio in which the two parts are divided: The first part is lent at 7% and the second part at 12%. The mean interest rate is 9%. Difference between the second rate and mean rate: 12 - 9 = 3 Difference between the mean rate and first rate: 9 - 7 = 2

The ratio of the sum lent at 7% to the sum lent at 12% is 3:2.

The total sum of 10000 is divided into 3 + 2 = 5 parts. Value of 1 part = ¹⁰⁰⁰⁰⁄₅ = 2000

The sum lent at 12% corresponds to 2 parts: Sum = 2 × 2000 = 4000

156Quantitative Aptitude
₹ 900 is lent at a certain rate of simple interest. After 9 months, another ₹ 600 is lent at a rate that is 1.5 times the original rate. If the total simple interest after 1 year is ₹72, find the original rate.
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Answer: (A) 6.4%

Explanation

The simple interest (SI) is calculated using the formula SI = (P × R × T)/(100), where P is the principal, R is the annual interest rate, and T is the time in years.

For the first amount of ₹ 900 lent for 1 year at rate R: SI₁ = (900 × R × 1)/(100) = 9R

For the second amount of ₹ 600 lent 9 months later, the remaining time until the end of the year is 3 months, which is ³⁄₁₂ = ¼ year. The rate for this amount is 1.5R. SI₂ = (600 × 1.5R × 1)/(4){100} = (6 × 1.5R)/(4) = (9R)/(4) = 2.25R

The total simple interest after 1 year is given as ₹ 72. Therefore: 9R + 2.25R = 72 11.25R = 72 R = (72)/(11.25)

Multiplying the numerator and denominator by 100 to remove decimals: R = ⁷²⁰⁰⁄₁₁₂₅

Dividing both by 225: R = ³²⁄₅ = 6.4

Thus, the original rate of interest is 6.4%.

157Quantitative Aptitude
A flagpole has a shadow measuring 10 metres. Given that the height of the flagpole is 10√3 metres, What is the angle at which the sun is elevated?
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Answer: (C) 60°

Explanation

In a right-angled triangle formed by a vertical object and its horizontal shadow, the tangent of the angle of elevation of the sun (θ) is the ratio of the height of the object to the length of its shadow. Using the trigonometric relation:

tan θ = (Height)/(Shadow)

Substituting the given values into the formula:

tan θ = 10√3{10}

tan θ = √3

In trigonometry, the angle whose tangent value is √3 is 60°. Therefore, the elevation of the sun is 60°.

158Quantitative Aptitude
A hollow metallic sphere has outer radius 10 cm and is melted to make 50 smaller solid spheres of radius 2 cm. What is the inner radius of the original sphere?
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Answer: (A) 8.43 cm

Explanation

The volume of material in a hollow sphere is calculated as the difference between the volumes of the outer and inner spheres: V = ⁴⁄₃π(R³ - r³). When this material is melted to form smaller solid spheres, the total volume remains conserved. Given the outer radius R = 10 cm, the number of smaller spheres n = 50, and their radius rₛ = 2 cm, the volume conservation equation is:

⁴⁄₃π(10³ - r³) = 50 × ⁴⁄₃π(2³)

Eliminating the constant factor ⁴⁄₃π from both sides simplifies the expression to:

1000 - r³ = 50 × 8

1000 - r³ = 400

r³ = 600

To find the inner radius r, calculate the cube root of 600:

r = ³√(600)

Since 8³ = 512 and 9³ = 729, the value of r lies between 8 and 9. Specifically, 8.4³ = 592.704 and 8.5³ = 614.125. Linear interpolation or further calculation confirms r ≈ 8.434 cm, which matches the provided value.

159Quantitative Aptitude
The volume of a hemisphere is numerically equal to four times its curved surface area. Find its radius.
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Answer: (A) 12 cm

Explanation

The volume of a hemisphere is given by the formula V = ⅔ π r³, and its curved surface area is defined as CSA = 2 π r², where r represents the radius. The problem states that the volume is numerically equal to four times the curved surface area, which can be expressed by the equation ⅔ π r³ = 4(2 π r²).

To solve for the radius, we simplify the equation by dividing both sides by 2 π r², assuming r is non-zero. This leads to ⅓ r = 4. Multiplying both sides by 3 yields r = 12. Thus, the numerical value of the radius is 12 cm.

160Quantitative Aptitude
What is the minimum number of cuts required to divide a cuboid into 8 equal cuboids?
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Answer: (B) 3

Explanation

To determine the number of pieces P produced by making n cuts on a cuboid, the cuts are distributed along the three axes as x, y, and z. The total number of pieces is calculated using the formula P = (x + 1)(y + 1)(z + 1), where x + y + z = n. To minimize the total number of cuts required to achieve a specific number of pieces, the factors (x + 1), (y + 1), and (z + 1) should be as close to each other as possible.

For P = 8, we express 8 as a product of three integers. The combination that minimizes the sum of cuts is 2 × 2 × 2 = 8. This gives us x + 1 = 2, y + 1 = 2, and z + 1 = 2, which results in x = 1, y = 1, and z = 1. The minimum number of cuts is therefore 1 + 1 + 1 = 3. In practice, this corresponds to making one cut along the length, one cut along the width, and one cut along the height, each passing through the center to divide the cuboid into eight equal smaller cuboids.

161Quantitative Aptitude
If the height of a cone is tripled and the radius is halved, how does the volume change?
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Answer: (B) Becomes three-fourths of the original

Explanation

The volume of a cone is given by the formula V = ⅓ π r² h, where r is the radius and h is the height. Let the initial volume be V₁ = ⅓ π r² h. According to the problem, the new height h' is 3h and the new radius r' is ʳ⁄₂.

The new volume V₂ is calculated by substituting these values into the formula: V₂ = ⅓ π (r')² h' V₂ = ⅓ π (ʳ⁄₂)² (3h) V₂ = ⅓ π (r²{4}) (3h) V₂ = ¾ (⅓ π r² h) V₂ = ¾ V₁

By comparing the two expressions, the volume of the cone becomes three-fourths of the original volume.

162Quantitative Aptitude
If sin θ = ¹²⁄₁₃ and θ ∈ (0,(π)/(2)) , then what is the value of tan θ ?
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Answer: (C) ¹²⁄₅

Explanation

In a right-angled triangle, the sine of an angle is defined as the ratio of the perpendicular to the hypotenuse. Given sin θ = ¹²⁄₁₃, we can consider the perpendicular p = 12 and the hypotenuse h = 13. Using the Pythagorean identity h² = p² + b², the base b is calculated as b = √(13² - 12²) = √(169 - 144) = √(25) = 5. Since θ is in the first quadrant (0, (π)/(2)), all trigonometric ratios are positive. The tangent of the angle is the ratio of the perpendicular to the base, resulting in tan θ = (p)/(b) = ¹²⁄₅.

163Quantitative Aptitude
What is the value of tan A + cot A if tan A = 2 ?
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Answer: (A) ⁵⁄₂

Explanation

The trigonometric identity states that cot A is the reciprocal of tan A, represented as cot A = (1)/(tan A). Given that tan A = 2, the value of cot A is ½.

Substituting these values into the required expression: tan A + cot A = 2 + ½

By taking the common denominator: (2 × 2 + 1)/(2) = (4 + 1)/(2) = ⁵⁄₂

164Quantitative Aptitude
What is the slope of the line 2x + 3y = 6 ?
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Answer: (A) - ⅔

Explanation

The slope m of a line expressed in the general form Ax + By + C = 0 is determined by the formula m = - (A)/(B). In the given equation 2x + 3y = 6, the coefficient of x is A = 2 and the coefficient of y is B = 3. Substituting these values into the formula results in:

m = - ⅔

Alternatively, the equation can be converted into the slope-intercept form y = mx + c, where m represents the slope. Subtracting 2x from both sides of 2x + 3y = 6 gives:

3y = -2x + 6

Dividing both sides by 3 yields:

y = - ⅔x + 2

Comparing this to y = mx + c, the slope m is identified as the coefficient of x, which is - ⅔.

165Quantitative Aptitude
A sector of a circle has a central angle of 60° and a radius of 8cm . Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of (π)/(3) radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to the area of the second sector?
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Answer: (C) 1:1

Explanation

The central angle of the first sector is given as 60°. To compare it with the second sector, we convert the central angle of the second sector from radians to degrees using the relation π radians = 180°. Thus, (π)/(3) radians = (180°)/(3) = 60°.

Since both sectors belong to the same circle, they share the same radius r = 8cm. The area of a sector is determined by the formula A = (θ)/(360°) × π r². Because both sectors have identical radii and identical central angles of 60°, their areas are exactly the same. Consequently, the ratio of the area of the first sector to the area of the second sector is 1:1.

166Quantitative Aptitude
A triangle can have:
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Answer: (C) Only one right or one obtuse angle

Explanation

According to the Angle Sum Property of a triangle, the sum of the three interior angles must be exactly 180°. If a triangle possesses a right angle (90°) or an obtuse angle (greater than 90°), the remaining two angles must be acute and their sum must be less than or equal to 90° to satisfy the equation A + B + C = 180°. If a triangle were to have two right angles, their sum alone would be 180°, leaving 0° for the third angle, which is geometrically impossible. Similarly, any combination of two angles where both are 90° or greater would result in a sum that meets or exceeds 180° before the third angle is even considered. Therefore, a triangle can contain at most one right angle or one obtuse angle.

167Quantitative Aptitude
A line L is the perpendicular bisector of the line segment connecting points A (2, 5) and B (8, -1). What is the y -intercept of line L ?
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Answer: (A) -3

Explanation

The midpoint of AB is (5, 2) and the slope of AB is -1. The perpendicular bisector L has a slope of 1 and passes through (5, 2), resulting in the equation y - 2 = 1(x - 5), which simplifies to y = x - 3. Setting x = 0 gives the y-intercept as -3.

168Quantitative Aptitude
The area of a triangle ABC is 16 cm². If a similar triangle DEF has sides that are twice the length of 's sides, what is the area of ?
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Answer: (C) 64 cm²

Explanation

The area of two similar triangles is proportional to the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides. If Δ ABC is similar to Δ DEF, the relationship is expressed by the formula:

(Area(Δ DEF))/(Area(Δ ABC)) = ((Side of Δ DEF)/(Side of Δ ABC))²

Given that the sides of Δ DEF are twice the length of the sides of Δ ABC, the ratio of the sides is 2:1. Substituting the given values into the equation:

(Area(Δ DEF))/(16 cm²) = (²⁄₁)²

Area(Δ DEF) = 16 × 4 = 64 cm²

169Quantitative Aptitude
44³ +35³ -53³ +159 is equal to
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Answer: (A) -20659

Explanation

To find the value of the expression 44³ + 35³ - 53³ + 159, we calculate each cube term:

44³ = 44 × 44 × 44 = 85184 35³ = 35 × 35 × 35 = 42875 53³ = 53 × 53 × 53 = 148877

Substituting these values into the expression: 85184 + 42875 - 148877 + 159

Summing the positive terms: 85184 + 42875 + 159 = 128218

Subtracting the negative term: 128218 - 148877 = -20659

The result can be verified using the digital root (sum of digits modulo 9) method: Digital root of 44³ = (4+4)³ = 8³ = 512 → 5+1+2 = 8 Digital root of 35³ = (3+5)³ = 8³ = 512 → 8 Digital root of 53³ = (5+3)³ = 8³ = 512 → 8 Digital root of 159 = 1+5+9 = 15 → 6

Total digital root: 8 + 8 - 8 + 6 = 14 → 1+4 = 5 Digital root of -20659 = -(2+0+6+5+9) = -22 → -4 ≡ 5 9

170Quantitative Aptitude
If sin A + cos A = ⁵⁄₄ , find sin 2A .
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Answer: (D) ⁹⁄₁₆

Explanation

The relationship between the sum of sine and cosine and the sine of the double angle is established by squaring the expression (sin A + cos A). According to the algebraic identity (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab, we have: (sin A + cos A)² = sin² A + cos² A + 2 sin A cos A

Using the fundamental trigonometric identity sin² A + cos² A = 1 and the double angle formula sin 2A = 2 sin A cos A, the equation simplifies to: (sin A + cos A)² = 1 + sin 2A

Substitute the given value sin A + cos A = ⁵⁄₄ into the equation: (⁵⁄₄)² = 1 + sin 2A ²⁵⁄₁₆ = 1 + sin 2A

To isolate sin 2A, subtract 1 from both sides: sin 2A = ²⁵⁄₁₆ - 1 sin 2A = (25 - 16)/(16) sin 2A = ⁹⁄₁₆

171Quantitative Aptitude
From an outside point P , two tangents, PA and PB , are drawn to a circle. Given that the length of PA is 12cm , what is the length of PB ?
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Answer: (C) 12cm

Explanation

According to the fundamental theorem of circle geometry, the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. In this scenario, since both PA and PB are tangents originating from the same external point P to the same circle, they must be equal in length. This property can be proven by considering the triangles formed by the center of the circle O, the points of tangency A and B, and the external point P. The triangles △ OAP and △ OBP are congruent because they share a common hypotenuse OP, have equal radii OA = OB, and contain right angles at the points of tangency. Consequently, by the property of congruent triangles, PA = PB. Given that PA is 12 cm, the length of PB is also 12 cm.

172Quantitative Aptitude
A circle is inscribed within a right triangle. Considering that the lengths of the two legs measure 6cm and 8cm , what is the radius of the inscribed circle?
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Answer: (A) 2cm

Explanation

The radius r of a circle inscribed in a right-angled triangle with legs a and b and hypotenuse c is calculated using the formula r = (a + b - c)/(2). To find the hypotenuse c, the Pythagorean theorem is applied: c = √(a² + b²) = √(6² + 8²) = √(36 + 64) = √(100) = 10 cm Using the given legs a = 6 cm and b = 8 cm and the calculated hypotenuse c = 10 cm, the inradius is: r = (6 + 8 - 10)/(2) = ⁴⁄₂ = 2 cm

173Quantitative Aptitude
If a = 0.02 , b = 0.03 , c = -0.05 , and a + b + c = 0 , find (a³ + b³ + c³) ÷ (3abc)
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Answer: (C) 1

Explanation

The algebraic identity a³ + b³ + c³ - 3abc = (a + b + c)(a² + b² + c² - ab - bc - ca) establishes the relationship between these terms. According to the problem, a + b + c = 0.02 + 0.03 + (-0.05) = 0. When the sum of three numbers is zero, the identity simplifies to a³ + b³ + c³ - 3abc = 0, which means a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc. Substituting this result into the given expression, we get (a³ + b³ + c³) ÷ (3abc) = (3abc) ÷ (3abc) = 1. This result holds true as long as a, b, and c are non-zero, which is satisfied by the values 0.02, 0.03, and -0.05.

174English Comprehension
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: LUMINOUS
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Answer: (D) Radiant

Explanation

Luminous is an adjective derived from the Latin word lumen, meaning light, and is used to describe something that emits or reflects light, appearing bright or shining. Radiant is a direct synonym as it describes an object that sends out light or heat in the form of rays or is characterized by glowing brightness. Both terms are used interchangeably in literary and scientific contexts to denote brilliance or intense illumination.

175English Comprehension
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: EXIGUOUS
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Answer: (A) Scanty

Explanation

The word exiguous is an adjective derived from the Latin exiguus, which means small or scanty. It is used to describe something that is very small in size or amount, often implying that it is meager or inadequate for a particular purpose. Scanty is a direct synonym as it also refers to a quantity that is small or insufficient in amount or degree. Both terms are frequently applied to describe limited resources, small incomes, or insufficient evidence, where the subject is barely enough to satisfy a need or requirement.

176English Comprehension
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: ABROGATE
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Answer: (C) Uphold

Explanation

The word abrogate is a verb that means to formally or officially repeal, cancel, or do away with a law, right, or formal agreement. It implies the act of nullifying or setting aside a standing rule or authority. The most appropriate antonym is uphold, which means to support, maintain, or defend a law, principle, or decision against challenge or repeal. While abrogate focuses on the termination of an established order, uphold focuses on the preservation and enforcement of that order, making them direct opposites in a legal and formal context.

177English Comprehension
Choose the correct meaning of idiom To chew the cud of reflection
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Answer: (C) Pondering deeply

Explanation

The idiom originates from the biological process of rumination, where certain animals like cows bring back swallowed food from their first stomach to chew it again slowly and thoroughly. Metaphorically, to chew the cud of reflection describes the mental process of turning an idea, memory, or problem over and over in one's mind. It signifies a state of deep, deliberate, and sustained contemplation where an individual carefully weighs thoughts or past experiences to gain a better understanding or reach a conclusion.

178English Comprehension
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Rarely had the court encountered a petition (a)/so devoid of legal merit, nor so conspicuously intended (b)/to attract media attention rather than judicial remedy. (c)/No error (d)
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Answer: (B) (b)

Explanation

The error lies in the use of the conjunction nor in part (b). When a sentence begins with a negative adverb such as Rarely, the negative force applies to the entire clause. In such structures, when connecting two adjectives or phrases that describe the subject, the coordinator or should be used instead of nor. The word or correctly maintains the negative scope established by Rarely without creating a redundant or grammatically incorrect negative connection. Therefore, the phrase should read so devoid of legal merit, or so conspicuously intended to maintain proper parallel structure and logical flow.

179English Comprehension
Find the word that is spelled correctly and means 'the quality of being sarcastic in a bitter way'.
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Answer: (A) Causticity

Explanation

Causticity is the noun form of the adjective caustic, derived from the Greek word kaustikos, which means capable of burning. In a figurative sense, it refers to the quality of being severely critical, biting, or sarcastic in a way that mimics the corrosive effect of a chemical. The word follows standard English suffixation where the suffix -ity is added to the adjective caustic to denote the state or quality of the base word, resulting in the spelling causticity.

180English Comprehension
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'A person who supports change'.
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Answer: (C) Reformer

Explanation

A reformer is defined as a person who works to improve or change a situation, law, or institution by making improvements or correcting faults. In a social, political, or religious context, this individual advocates for or implements systematic changes to existing practices to achieve progress and better conditions.

181English Comprehension
Choose the correct one-word substitute for: 'Extremely old-fashioned; belonging to a time before the biblical flood'.
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Answer: (C) Antediluvian

Explanation

The word antediluvian is derived from the Latin prefix ante, meaning before, and the noun diluvium, meaning flood. Its literal definition refers to the period in the Bible between the Creation and the Great Flood described in the Book of Genesis. In modern usage, the term is employed as an adjective to characterize something as being extremely old-fashioned, antiquated, or primitive, suggesting that the object or idea is so ancient that it predates a major historical or mythical turning point.

182English Comprehension
Choose the correct option: The anthropologist's findings were considered so controversial that they were initially
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Answer: (A) disregarded

Explanation

The sentence structure establishes a cause-and-effect relationship based on the word controversial. In academic and scientific discourse, findings that are highly controversial typically challenge established paradigms or provoke significant disagreement. Such work is often met with skepticism or an initial refusal to acknowledge its validity. The term disregarded logically completes the thought by indicating that the findings were ignored or dismissed by the community at first because they were seen as too contentious or problematic to be integrated into the existing body of knowledge.

183English Comprehension
Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The draft policy outlines (a)/that each employee must adhere to (b)/the code of conduct (c)/irrespective of their position.(d)
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Answer: (D) (d)

Explanation

The error in the sentence is a matter of pronoun-antecedent agreement. The word each is a distributive pronoun that is grammatically singular. When it modifies a noun, as in each employee, the entire subject phrase remains singular and requires a singular possessive pronoun for agreement. The use of the plural pronoun their is incorrect because it refers back to a singular antecedent. To maintain grammatical consistency, the plural their must be replaced by a singular possessive form such as his or her.

184English Comprehension
Change the following from active to passive: They were showing the movie at 7 p.m.
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Answer: (C) The movie was being shown at 7 p.m.

Explanation

The original sentence is in the Past Continuous tense, following the structure: Subject + was/were + verb-ing + Object. To convert a sentence in the Past Continuous tense into the passive voice, the formula used is: New Subject (original object) + was/were + being + Past Participle (V3) of the main verb.

In this case, the object the movie becomes the new subject. Since the movie is singular, it is followed by was being. The past participle of show is shown. Applying this structure results in: The movie was being shown at 7 p.m. This construction correctly preserves the continuous aspect and the past tense of the original active sentence.

185English Comprehension
Choose the correct spelling of a word meaning 'witty, clever and verbally skillful'.
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Answer: (A) Persiflage

Explanation

Persiflage is the correct spelling for a noun that refers to light, mocking, or frivolous banter and witty conversation. The word is derived from the French verb persifler, which combines the prefix per- used as an intensive and siffler meaning to hiss or whistle. In English usage, it characterizes a style of verbal skill marked by cleverness and an ironic or joking tone. It adheres to the standard French-derived suffix -age, similar to other loanwords like fuselage or sabotage.

186English Comprehension
Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The bishop condemned the act as simony, citing canonical law.
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Answer: (C) The alchemist failed to explain the simony in his formulas.

Explanation

The word simony in the original sentence refers to the ecclesiastical crime of buying or selling church offices, pardons, or spiritual benefits. This religious and legal definition is consistently applied in options a, b, and d, which all reference preachers, blessings, indulgences, and ecclesiastical courts.

In option c, the word is used in the context of alchemy and formulas. While simony is not a standard term in alchemical science, its usage in this scientific and chemical context implies a meaning distinct from the original religious offense. A homonym is defined as a word that shares the same spelling or pronunciation as another word but possesses a different meaning. Since the context of formulas and alchemy necessitates a definition unrelated to the trade of spiritual favors, it represents the homonym of the term as used in the source sentence.

187English Comprehension
Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: A decision has been taken to have the proposal reviewed by an external panel.
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Answer: (C) They have decided to get the proposal reviewed by an external panel.

Explanation

The original sentence uses the present perfect passive construction has been taken where the agent of the action is unstated. To convert this to the active voice, a logical subject such as they must be introduced to perform the action. The verb form shifts from the passive has been taken to the active have decided, maintaining the present perfect tense. The following infinitive phrase to have the proposal reviewed is a causative construction which is accurately represented by to get the proposal reviewed in the active version. This change effectively moves the subject to the beginning of the sentence and makes it the performer of the act of deciding, which is the primary requirement for active voice transformation.

188English Comprehension
Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She is confident to win the match.
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Answer: (C) of winning the match

Explanation

The adjective confident is idiomatically paired with the preposition of when expressing certainty about an outcome. In English grammar, when a verb follows a preposition, it must be in the gerund form ending in -ing. Therefore, the phrase confident of winning is the standard construction. The presence of the definite article the before match is required to specify the particular event being discussed, making option c the most grammatically appropriate replacement.

189English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplinessuch as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents a complex synthesis of philosophy, biology, and metaphysics. Far from being static relics of the past, these systems have exhibited an evolving dynamism, continuously negotiating their space within both indigenous frameworks and global health discourses. At the heart of this healing ethos lies the idea that the human body is not an isolated physiological entity but a site of interconnected energies and rhythms. Yoga, as codified in the Yoga Sutras of Patanjali, is not merely a physical regimen but a holistic path aimed at harmonising the body, mind and spirit, In the modern era, however, it has undergone commodification, particularly in the West, where its philosophical moorings are often diluted into mere physical exercise or stress-reduction techniques. This recontextualization, while facilitating global popularity, raises questions about cultural appropriation and epistemic erosion. Traditional medicine systems such as Ayurveda view disease as an imbalance in the tridosha—vata, pitta, and kapha—principles that regulate bodily function. These systems emphasise prakriti (constitution), ahara (diet), and dinacharya (daily routine) as central to preventive healthcare. Unlike allopathy’s symptom-targeting approach, traditional Indian medicine is premised on restoring equilibrium in the body’s internal ecology. This integrative vision aligns with contemporary calls for personalised and preventive medicine, though methodological differences continue to stoke skepticism in the biomedical community. State patronage of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga | Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) underlines a renewed institutional interest in traditional systems. However, critics caution against uncritical endorsement, citing the lack of standardised clinical trials, variability in diagnostic models, and challenges in evidence-based validation. Furthermore, pharmaceutical commercialisation of Ayurvedic formulations often sidelines traditional knowledge holders, reducing centuries-old practices to marketable commodities. The interface between Yoga and traditional medicine with modem healthcare is therefore both promising and fraught. While integrative models are being explored—especially in palliative care, mental health, and chronic disease management—they require epistemic humility and regulatory rigor. The danger lies in either romanticising these systems as panaceas or discarding them as pre-scientific relics. Ultimately, the relevance of Yoga and traditional medicine in contemporary India will depend on the country’s ability to safeguard their philosophical depth while subjecting them to transparent, rigorous scrutiny. Neither dogmatic revivalism nor dismissive scientism will suffice. What is needed is a dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve—not in opposition, but in mutual enrichment. What tension does the passage highlight regarding the global adoption of Yoga?
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Answer: (B) Loss of its philosophical essence

Explanation

The passage highlights a significant tension in the global adoption of Yoga by noting that while the practice has achieved widespread popularity, it has simultaneously undergone a process of commodification. This global spread, particularly in Western contexts, often leads to the dilution of Yoga's philosophical moorings, transforming a holistic path meant to harmonize the body, mind, and spirit into mere physical exercise or stress-reduction techniques. The text identifies this recontextualization as a form of epistemic erosion, where the deeper metaphysical and philosophical essence that defines traditional Yoga is sacrificed for marketable, simplified versions of the practice.

190English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplinessuch as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents a complex synthesis of philosophy, biology, and metaphysics. Far from being static relics of the past, these systems have exhibited an evolving dynamism, continuously negotiating their space within both indigenous frameworks and global health discourses. At the heart of this healing ethos lies the idea that the human body is not an isolated physiological entity but a site of interconnected energies and rhythms. Yoga, as codified in the Yoga Sutras of Patanjali, is not merely a physical regimen but a holistic path aimed at harmonising the body, mind and spirit, In the modern era, however, it has undergone commodification, particularly in the West, where its philosophical moorings are often diluted into mere physical exercise or stress-reduction techniques. This recontextualization, while facilitating global popularity, raises questions about cultural appropriation and epistemic erosion. Traditional medicine systems such as Ayurveda view disease as an imbalance in the tridosha—vata, pitta, and kapha—principles that regulate bodily function. These systems emphasise prakriti (constitution), ahara (diet), and dinacharya (daily routine) as central to preventive healthcare. Unlike allopathy’s symptom-targeting approach, traditional Indian medicine is premised on restoring equilibrium in the body’s internal ecology. This integrative vision aligns with contemporary calls for personalised and preventive medicine, though methodological differences continue to stoke skepticism in the biomedical community. State patronage of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga | Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) underlines a renewed institutional interest in traditional systems. However, critics caution against uncritical endorsement, citing the lack of standardised clinical trials, variability in diagnostic models, and challenges in evidence-based validation. Furthermore, pharmaceutical commercialisation of Ayurvedic formulations often sidelines traditional knowledge holders, reducing centuries-old practices to marketable commodities. The interface between Yoga and traditional medicine with modem healthcare is therefore both promising and fraught. While integrative models are being explored—especially in palliative care, mental health, and chronic disease management—they require epistemic humility and regulatory rigor. The danger lies in either romanticising these systems as panaceas or discarding them as pre-scientific relics. Ultimately, the relevance of Yoga and traditional medicine in contemporary India will depend on the country’s ability to safeguard their philosophical depth while subjecting them to transparent, rigorous scrutiny. Neither dogmatic revivalism nor dismissive scientism will suffice. What is needed is a dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve—not in opposition, but in mutual enrichment. Which of the following best reflects the Ayurvedic approach to disease?
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Answer: (C) Restoring body's internal balance through lifestyle

Explanation

The passage explains that Ayurveda conceptualizes disease as a state of imbalance among the three fundamental principles known as tridosha—namely vata, pitta, and kapha. To address these imbalances, the system emphasizes preventive healthcare and the restoration of equilibrium within the body's internal ecology. This is achieved through a focus on prakriti (individual constitution), ahara (diet), and dinacharya (daily routine), highlighting that lifestyle choices and routine are central to the Ayurvedic therapeutic approach. Unlike the symptom-targeting methods of modern medicine, Ayurveda seeks to harmonize the body’s interconnected energies and rhythms to maintain holistic health.

191English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplinessuch as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents a complex synthesis of philosophy, biology, and metaphysics. Far from being static relics of the past, these systems have exhibited an evolving dynamism, continuously negotiating their space within both indigenous frameworks and global health discourses. At the heart of this healing ethos lies the idea that the human body is not an isolated physiological entity but a site of interconnected energies and rhythms. Yoga, as codified in the Yoga Sutras of Patanjali, is not merely a physical regimen but a holistic path aimed at harmonising the body, mind and spirit, In the modern era, however, it has undergone commodification, particularly in the West, where its philosophical moorings are often diluted into mere physical exercise or stress-reduction techniques. This recontextualization, while facilitating global popularity, raises questions about cultural appropriation and epistemic erosion. Traditional medicine systems such as Ayurveda view disease as an imbalance in the tridosha—vata, pitta, and kapha—principles that regulate bodily function. These systems emphasise prakriti (constitution), ahara (diet), and dinacharya (daily routine) as central to preventive healthcare. Unlike allopathy’s symptom-targeting approach, traditional Indian medicine is premised on restoring equilibrium in the body’s internal ecology. This integrative vision aligns with contemporary calls for personalised and preventive medicine, though methodological differences continue to stoke skepticism in the biomedical community. State patronage of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga | Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) underlines a renewed institutional interest in traditional systems. However, critics caution against uncritical endorsement, citing the lack of standardised clinical trials, variability in diagnostic models, and challenges in evidence-based validation. Furthermore, pharmaceutical commercialisation of Ayurvedic formulations often sidelines traditional knowledge holders, reducing centuries-old practices to marketable commodities. The interface between Yoga and traditional medicine with modem healthcare is therefore both promising and fraught. While integrative models are being explored—especially in palliative care, mental health, and chronic disease management—they require epistemic humility and regulatory rigor. The danger lies in either romanticising these systems as panaceas or discarding them as pre-scientific relics. Ultimately, the relevance of Yoga and traditional medicine in contemporary India will depend on the country’s ability to safeguard their philosophical depth while subjecting them to transparent, rigorous scrutiny. Neither dogmatic revivalism nor dismissive scientism will suffice. What is needed is a dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve—not in opposition, but in mutual enrichment. What is a potential danger of state patronage of AYUSH systems, as per the passage?
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Answer: (C) Marginalization of traditional knowledge holders

Explanation

The passage identifies that the institutional interest and state patronage of AYUSH systems are accompanied by risks related to commercialization. It specifically notes that the pharmaceutical commercialization of Ayurvedic formulations often sidelines traditional knowledge holders. By transforming centuries-old practices into marketable commodities, the traditional custodians of this knowledge are marginalized, leading to a loss of the original philosophical depth and the displacement of those who have historically maintained these healing traditions.

192English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplinessuch as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents a complex synthesis of philosophy, biology, and metaphysics. Far from being static relics of the past, these systems have exhibited an evolving dynamism, continuously negotiating their space within both indigenous frameworks and global health discourses. At the heart of this healing ethos lies the idea that the human body is not an isolated physiological entity but a site of interconnected energies and rhythms. Yoga, as codified in the Yoga Sutras of Patanjali, is not merely a physical regimen but a holistic path aimed at harmonising the body, mind and spirit, In the modern era, however, it has undergone commodification, particularly in the West, where its philosophical moorings are often diluted into mere physical exercise or stress-reduction techniques. This recontextualization, while facilitating global popularity, raises questions about cultural appropriation and epistemic erosion. Traditional medicine systems such as Ayurveda view disease as an imbalance in the tridosha—vata, pitta, and kapha—principles that regulate bodily function. These systems emphasise prakriti (constitution), ahara (diet), and dinacharya (daily routine) as central to preventive healthcare. Unlike allopathy’s symptom-targeting approach, traditional Indian medicine is premised on restoring equilibrium in the body’s internal ecology. This integrative vision aligns with contemporary calls for personalised and preventive medicine, though methodological differences continue to stoke skepticism in the biomedical community. State patronage of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga | Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) underlines a renewed institutional interest in traditional systems. However, critics caution against uncritical endorsement, citing the lack of standardised clinical trials, variability in diagnostic models, and challenges in evidence-based validation. Furthermore, pharmaceutical commercialisation of Ayurvedic formulations often sidelines traditional knowledge holders, reducing centuries-old practices to marketable commodities. The interface between Yoga and traditional medicine with modem healthcare is therefore both promising and fraught. While integrative models are being explored—especially in palliative care, mental health, and chronic disease management—they require epistemic humility and regulatory rigor. The danger lies in either romanticising these systems as panaceas or discarding them as pre-scientific relics. Ultimately, the relevance of Yoga and traditional medicine in contemporary India will depend on the country’s ability to safeguard their philosophical depth while subjecting them to transparent, rigorous scrutiny. Neither dogmatic revivalism nor dismissive scientism will suffice. What is needed is a dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve—not in opposition, but in mutual enrichment. What stance does the author take on integrating traditional medicine with modern healthcare?
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Answer: (C) Integration is possible with humility and standards

Explanation

The author advocates for a balanced approach to healthcare that avoids the extremes of blind romanticization and total dismissal. According to the text, while the interface between traditional practices and modern healthcare is promising, it necessitates epistemic humility and regulatory rigor to ensure scientific validity. The passage suggests that for these systems to be effectively integrated, they must be subjected to transparent and rigorous scrutiny while preserving their unique philosophical foundations. This synthesis is envisioned as a dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve through mutual enrichment rather than remaining in opposition. Thus, the author supports an integrative model grounded in clinical standards and mutual respect between different medical epistemologies.

193English Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions on the passage: India’s legacy of healing practices—embodied in disciplinessuch as Yoga, Ayurveda, Siddha, and Unani—presents a complex synthesis of philosophy, biology, and metaphysics. Far from being static relics of the past, these systems have exhibited an evolving dynamism, continuously negotiating their space within both indigenous frameworks and global health discourses. At the heart of this healing ethos lies the idea that the human body is not an isolated physiological entity but a site of interconnected energies and rhythms. Yoga, as codified in the Yoga Sutras of Patanjali, is not merely a physical regimen but a holistic path aimed at harmonising the body, mind and spirit, In the modern era, however, it has undergone commodification, particularly in the West, where its philosophical moorings are often diluted into mere physical exercise or stress-reduction techniques. This recontextualization, while facilitating global popularity, raises questions about cultural appropriation and epistemic erosion. Traditional medicine systems such as Ayurveda view disease as an imbalance in the tridosha—vata, pitta, and kapha—principles that regulate bodily function. These systems emphasise prakriti (constitution), ahara (diet), and dinacharya (daily routine) as central to preventive healthcare. Unlike allopathy’s symptom-targeting approach, traditional Indian medicine is premised on restoring equilibrium in the body’s internal ecology. This integrative vision aligns with contemporary calls for personalised and preventive medicine, though methodological differences continue to stoke skepticism in the biomedical community. State patronage of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga | Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homeopathy) underlines a renewed institutional interest in traditional systems. However, critics caution against uncritical endorsement, citing the lack of standardised clinical trials, variability in diagnostic models, and challenges in evidence-based validation. Furthermore, pharmaceutical commercialisation of Ayurvedic formulations often sidelines traditional knowledge holders, reducing centuries-old practices to marketable commodities. The interface between Yoga and traditional medicine with modem healthcare is therefore both promising and fraught. While integrative models are being explored—especially in palliative care, mental health, and chronic disease management—they require epistemic humility and regulatory rigor. The danger lies in either romanticising these systems as panaceas or discarding them as pre-scientific relics. Ultimately, the relevance of Yoga and traditional medicine in contemporary India will depend on the country’s ability to safeguard their philosophical depth while subjecting them to transparent, rigorous scrutiny. Neither dogmatic revivalism nor dismissive scientism will suffice. What is needed is a dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve—not in opposition, but in mutual enrichment. According to the passage, what is required for the survival and relevance of Yoga and traditional medicine in modern India?
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Answer: (C) Dialogical integration of ancient and modern systems

Explanation

The passage explicitly concludes that the relevance of Yoga and traditional medicine in contemporary India depends on creating a dialogical framework where tradition and modernity co-evolve. This approach requires balancing the preservation of philosophical depth with transparent, rigorous scrutiny. By moving past both dogmatic revivalism and dismissive scientism, the text advocates for an integrative model of mutual enrichment. This synthesis ensures that ancient healing practices are validated through modern regulatory rigor and epistemic humility without losing their foundational holistic principles.

194English Comprehension
A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said to me, "You should work harder."
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Answer: (B) He told me that I should work harder.

Explanation

When converting direct speech into indirect speech, the reporting verb said to followed by an object is changed to told. The conjunction that is used to introduce the reported clause. The second-person pronoun You in the direct speech changes to the first-person pronoun I because it must agree with the object of the reporting verb, which is me. The modal verb should remains unchanged as it already expresses a recommendation or duty in the appropriate form for reported speech. Thus, the structure follows the standard rules of narration for assertive sentences.

195English Comprehension
A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. The scientist said, "We have been working on this project for months."
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Answer: (A) The scientist said they had been working on that project for months.

Explanation

In the conversion from direct to indirect speech, the tense of the reported clause must shift when the reporting verb is in the past tense (said). The present perfect continuous tense (have been working) transitions to the past perfect continuous tense (had been working). The first-person pronoun (we) changes to the third-person (they) to reflect the reporter's perspective. Additionally, the demonstrative (this) changes to (that) to indicate the shift in time and space from the original context. These modifications ensure the sentence correctly conveys the original meaning in a reported format.

196English Comprehension
A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four options given, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The diplomat said that only after the ceasefire would negotiations begin.
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Answer: (C) "Only after the ceasefire will negotiations begin," said the diplomat.

Explanation

The transformation from indirect to direct speech involves reversing the backshift of tenses and restoring the original sentence structure. In the indirect statement, the use of would indicates that the original utterance used the future modal will. Furthermore, when a sentence starts with a restrictive prepositional phrase like only after the ceasefire, formal English grammar requires subject-auxiliary inversion in direct speech. This results in the auxiliary will preceding the subject negotiations. Consequently, the direct speech form must use will and the inverted word order to accurately reflect the reported statement.

197English Comprehension
Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage. (a) The blueprint is finalized after approval from stakeholders. (b) First, a basic framework is proposed. (c) Then revisions are made after discussions. (d) Finally, execution begins as per plan.
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Answer: (A) (b), (c), (a), (d)

Explanation

The passage follows a logical chronological sequence used in project planning and implementation. It begins with sentence (b), which introduces the start of the process by proposing a basic framework. Sentence (c) follows, describing the iterative stage where revisions are made based on subsequent discussions. Once the framework is refined, sentence (a) indicates that the blueprint is finalized after obtaining the necessary approvals from stakeholders. The sequence concludes with sentence (d), which uses the transition word Finally to signal the transition from the planning phase to the actual execution of the plan.

198English Comprehension
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: (a) A central tenet of this approach is the concept of a "class," which acts as a blueprint for creating objects. (b) Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) is a programming paradigm based on the concept of "objects," which can contain data and code. (c) This allows a programmer to specify the structure and behavior of an object-oriented program. (d) The key advantage of this approach is that it models real-world entities, making complex systems easier to manage and debug,
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Answer: (A) (b), (a), (c), (d)

Explanation

Sentence (b) serves as the logical opening by introducing and defining the primary subject, Object-Oriented Programming (OOP), and its fundamental component, objects. Sentence (a) naturally follows by using the phrase this approach to refer back to the paradigm defined in (b) while introducing the concept of a class as the blueprint for those objects. Sentence (c) then uses the pronoun this to explain the functional result of using classes, which is the ability to specify the structure and behavior of the program. Finally, sentence (d) provides a concluding summary by highlighting the key advantage of the entire approach, which is its capacity to model real-world entities for better management of complex systems.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2B
  3. 3C
  4. 4C
  5. 5D
  6. 6C
  7. 7C
  8. 8B
  9. 9B
  10. 10C
  11. 11A
  12. 12B
  13. 13A
  14. 14A
  15. 15A
  16. 16C
  17. 17C
  18. 18C
  19. 19A
  20. 20D
  21. 21D
  22. 22A
  23. 23C
  24. 24B
  25. 25C
  26. 26B
  27. 27A
  28. 28C
  29. 29A
  30. 30B
  31. 31C
  32. 32B
  33. 33A
  34. 34C
  35. 35B
  36. 36A
  37. 37C
  38. 38C
  39. 39A
  40. 40C
  41. 41B
  42. 42C
  43. 43A
  44. 44A
  45. 45C
  46. 46C
  47. 47C
  48. 48C
  49. 49A
  50. 50C
  51. 51B
  52. 52A
  53. 53D
  54. 54D
  55. 55A
  56. 56A
  57. 57C
  58. 58A
  59. 59C
  60. 60B
  61. 61A
  62. 62C
  63. 63B
  64. 64C
  65. 65C
  66. 66A
  67. 67C
  68. 68A
  69. 69B
  70. 70A
  71. 71B
  72. 72C
  73. 73B
  74. 74C
  75. 75C
  76. 76C
  77. 77D
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80A
  81. 81D
  82. 82B
  83. 83B
  84. 84B
  85. 85D
  86. 86B
  87. 87A
  88. 88C
  89. 89B
  90. 90B
  91. 91D
  92. 92C
  93. 93B
  94. 94C
  95. 95A
  96. 96A
  97. 97A
  98. 98A
  99. 99A
  100. 100B
  101. 101B
  102. 102D
  103. 103B
  104. 104C
  105. 105B
  106. 106A
  107. 107A
  108. 108A
  109. 109A
  110. 110B
  111. 111C
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114A
  115. 115D
  116. 116B
  117. 117B
  118. 118D
  119. 119C
  120. 120C
  121. 121A
  122. 122B
  123. 123D
  124. 124C
  125. 125B
  126. 126C
  127. 127B
  128. 128B
  129. 129B
  130. 130A
  131. 131A
  132. 132B
  133. 133A
  134. 134C
  135. 135A
  136. 136A
  137. 137B
  138. 138A
  139. 139C
  140. 140A
  141. 141B
  142. 142B
  143. 143B
  144. 144D
  145. 145A
  146. 146A
  147. 147B
  148. 148D
  149. 149A
  150. 150A
  151. 151A
  152. 152C
  153. 153A
  154. 154B
  155. 155B
  156. 156A
  157. 157C
  158. 158A
  159. 159A
  160. 160B
  161. 161B
  162. 162C
  163. 163A
  164. 164A
  165. 165C
  166. 166C
  167. 167A
  168. 168C
  169. 169A
  170. 170D
  171. 171C
  172. 172A
  173. 173C
  174. 174D
  175. 175A
  176. 176C
  177. 177C
  178. 178B
  179. 179A
  180. 180C
  181. 181C
  182. 182A
  183. 183D
  184. 184C
  185. 185A
  186. 186C
  187. 187C
  188. 188C
  189. 189B
  190. 190C
  191. 191C
  192. 192C
  193. 193C
  194. 194B
  195. 195A
  196. 196C
  197. 197A
  198. 198A

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