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SSC CGL Tier 1 2005 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 190 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

190
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Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • General Awareness9952%
  • English Comprehension9148%
1General Awareness
Where is tata Hydroelectric project which is expected to generate 1020 mw power located?
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Answer: (B) Bhutan

Explanation

The Tala Hydroelectric Project is a 1,020 MW run-of-the-river power plant located on the Wangchu River in Bhutan. It was developed through a bilateral agreement between the Government of India and the Royal Government of Bhutan, with India providing the necessary financial and technical assistance. The project features a 92-meter-high concrete gravity dam and a 22-kilometer-long headrace tunnel that directs water to an underground powerhouse. With six generating units of 170 MW each, it was designed to significantly boost Bhutan's economy by exporting surplus electricity to the Indian power grid. As of 2005, the project was in the final stages of completion, representing the largest joint energy initiative between the two nations at that time.

2General Awareness
Who gifted statue of liberty standing off The New York port, to the United States of America on the first centenary of the US?
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Answer: (B) France

Explanation

The Statue of Liberty, officially titled Liberty Enlightening the World, was a gift from the people of France to the United States. It was intended to commemorate the centennial of the American Declaration of Independence in 1876 and to celebrate the historical alliance and friendship between the two nations. The copper statue was designed by French sculptor Frederic Auguste Bartholdi, while its internal iron framework was engineered by Gustave Eiffel. Although the project faced delays and was not officially dedicated until October 28, 1886, it was conceived as a centennial gift representing the shared Enlightenment ideals of liberty and democracy. The statue was constructed in France, disassembled into hundreds of individual pieces, and shipped across the Atlantic Ocean to be reassembled on its pedestal in New York Harbor.

3General Awareness
Where in India can you normally spot the Siberian Crane in winter?
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Answer: (D) Keoladeo Ghana Sanctuary

Explanation

The Keoladeo Ghana National Park, also known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary in Rajasthan, was historically the most famous wintering ground for the endangered Siberian Crane in India. The other listed parks are primarily known for different species, such as lions in Sasan Gir and tigers in Ranthambore.

4General Awareness
Which of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Saffron is produced in HP

Explanation

Saffron cultivation in India is geographically restricted almost exclusively to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. The crop requires specific agro-climatic conditions and thrives in the unique Karewa (highland) soils found in the Kashmir Valley, particularly in the Pampore region of Pulwama district. Himachal Pradesh does not have a commercial saffron industry, as its environmental conditions and traditional agricultural practices do not support the large-scale production of this spice.

5General Awareness
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
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Answer: (D) Sabarigiri Project - Gujarat

Explanation

The Sabarigiri Hydroelectric Project is located in the Pathanamthitta district of Kerala, not Gujarat. It is the second-largest hydroelectric project in Kerala and was commissioned in 1966 to harness the waters of the Pamba and Kakki rivers. The project consists of the Pamba and Kakki dams and a power station at Moozhiyar. It remains a critical component of the Kerala State Electricity Board power generation infrastructure. Because the project is situated in the Western Ghats of Kerala, its pairing with the state of Gujarat is incorrect.

6General Awareness
The energy emitted by the Sun is due to the ?
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Answer: (C) Nuclear Fusion

Explanation

The Sun generates its energy through nuclear fusion, primarily via the proton-proton chain reaction occurring in its core. At temperatures of approximately 1.5 × 10⁷ K and under immense gravitational pressure, hydrogen nuclei (protons) overcome their mutual electrostatic repulsion to fuse together. In this process, four hydrogen nuclei combine to form a single helium nucleus. The resulting helium nucleus has slightly less mass than the four original protons; this difference is known as the mass defect. This lost mass is converted into a vast amount of energy according to Einstein's mass-energy equivalence formula, E = mc², where E represents energy, m is the mass defect, and c is the speed of light. This energy is released in the form of gamma rays and kinetic energy, eventually reaching the solar surface and being emitted as the light and heat that sustain life on Earth.

7General Awareness
The animal which uses sounds as its eyes is ?
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Answer: (D) Bat

Explanation

Bats navigate and hunt using a biological sonar system known as echolocation. They emit high-frequency ultrasonic sound pulses that are generally beyond the range of human hearing. When these sound waves strike an object, they bounce back as echoes. By interpreting the time delay, intensity, and frequency shifts of the returning echoes, bats can determine the exact location, size, and movement of objects in their environment. This sophisticated auditory processing allows them to create a detailed mental map of their surroundings and fly with precision in total darkness, effectively using sound to perform the function of sight.

8General Awareness
The Sky appears blue because of ?
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Answer: (B) Scattering of light

Explanation

The blue appearance of the sky is caused by a physical phenomenon known as Rayleigh scattering. When sunlight enters the Earth's atmosphere, it collides with gas molecules and scatters in all directions. According to Rayleigh's law, the intensity of scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength, I ∝ 1/λ⁴. Since blue light has a shorter wavelength compared to other visible colors like red, it is scattered much more strongly by the oxygen and nitrogen molecules in the air. This scattered light reaches our eyes from all parts of the sky, resulting in the characteristic blue hue we observe during the day.

9General Awareness
Dynamo is device converting ?
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Answer: (B) Mechanical Energy into Electrical energy

Explanation

A dynamo is an electrical generator that produces direct current using a commutator. It operates on the principle of Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, which states that an electromotive force is induced in a conductor when it moves through a magnetic field. In a dynamo, a rotating coil of wire called the armature is spun within a magnetic field provided by magnets. The work done to rotate the armature against magnetic forces constitutes mechanical energy. As the coil rotates, the magnetic flux Φ passing through it changes over time, inducing a voltage according to the relation E = -N (dΦ)/(dt), which generates an electric current.

10General Awareness
Which of the following can be used for checking Inflation temporarily ?
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Answer: (B) Decrease in money supply

Explanation

Inflation is fundamentally a situation where too much money chases too few goods, leading to a persistent rise in the general price level. A decrease in the money supply is a primary tool of contractionary monetary policy used by central banks to check inflation. According to the Quantity Theory of Money, represented by the equation MV = PQ, where M is the money supply, V is the velocity of money, P is the price level, and Q is the real output, a reduction in M leads to a decrease in P, assuming V and Q remain constant in the short run. By restricting the availability of credit and currency in the economy, the overall aggregate demand is suppressed. This reduction in demand eases the pressure on prices, thereby serving as an effective mechanism to control inflationary trends temporarily until supply-side adjustments or long-term fiscal measures can take effect.

11General Awareness
The Ahmadabad Satyagraha of Gandhi was directed against ?
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Answer: (B) Indian Mill owners and Non government officials

Explanation

The Ahmedabad Satyagraha of 1918 was a labor dispute between the workers and the local cotton mill owners of Ahmedabad over the issue of wages and the discontinuation of the plague bonus. These mill owners, most notably Ambalal Sarabhai, were Indian, not British.

12General Awareness
The former Princely states Nahan is part of which state?
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Answer: (D) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

Nahan was the capital of the former princely state of Sirmur, also known as Sirmaur. It was founded in 1621 by Raja Karam Prakash. Following the independence of India and the subsequent merger of various hill states, the princely state of Sirmur joined the newly formed union of Himachal Pradesh on April 15, 1948. Nahan currently functions as the administrative headquarters of the Sirmaur district in the state of Himachal Pradesh, situated in the Shivalik hill range.

13General Awareness
D-Day is the day when
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Answer: (C) Allied troops landed in Normandy

Explanation

D-Day refers to June 6, 1944, the date when Allied forces launched Operation Overlord during World War II. It involved the largest seaborne invasion in history, with British, American, Canadian, and other Allied troops landing on the beaches of Normandy in German-occupied France. This strategic operation was a turning point in the war, as it established a critical foothold in Western Europe, allowing the Allies to begin the liberation of the continent from Nazi control.

14General Awareness
Correlate the UNESCO listed heritage sites/Monuments and other locations Cave paintings 1. Velha Goa Rock cut Shrines 2. Kornark Basilica of Bom Jesus 3. Ajanta Sun Temple 4. Ellora
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Answer: (C) 2 3 4 1

Explanation

The correct associations for the heritage sites and their locations are: Sun Temple is located in Konark (2), Cave paintings are famously found in Ajanta (3), Rock-cut shrines (specifically the Kailasa temple) are characteristic of Ellora (4), and the Basilica of Bom Jesus is located in Velha Goa (1). This sequence matches option C (2 3 4 1).

15General Awareness
'Anti semitism' to Adolf Hitler meant?
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Answer: (B) Anti Jewish Policy

Explanation

Antisemitism is defined as hostility, prejudice, or discrimination directed against Jewish people as a religious, ethnic, or racial group. For Adolf Hitler, this was a central pillar of National Socialist (Nazi) ideology, as outlined in his autobiographical manifesto, Mein Kampf. He promoted a pseudoscientific theory of a racial hierarchy where Jews were classified as an inferior race responsible for Germany's economic hardships and its defeat in World War I. This systemic hatred formed the basis for the state-sanctioned persecution of the Jewish population, leading to their disenfranchisement under the Nuremberg Laws and the systematic genocide known as the Holocaust.

16General Awareness
With whom is 'Junagarh Rock Inscription' is associated ?
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Answer: (A) Rudraman

Explanation

The Junagarh Rock Inscription, located at Girnar in Gujarat, is primarily associated with the Western Kshatrapa ruler Rudradaman I. Dated to approximately 150 CE, this inscription is remarkably significant for being one of the earliest and longest examples of an official record written in classical Sanskrit. It details the extensive repairs Rudradaman I commissioned for the Sudarshana Lake dam after it was severely damaged by a storm. The text emphasizes his administrative efficiency and benevolence, noting that he funded the restoration from his private treasury without imposing oppressive taxes or forced labor on his people. Furthermore, the inscription provides a historical chronology of the lake, mentioning its initial construction under the Mauryan ruler Chandragupta Maurya and subsequent improvements by Ashoka the Great.

17General Awareness
Nalanda University was great centre of learning especially ?
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Answer: (A) Buddhism

Explanation

Nalanda University, established in the 5th century CE during the Gupta period, was internationally renowned as a premier center for higher education and Buddhist studies. It was specifically famous for its focus on Mahayana Buddhism, attracting scholars and students from across Asia, including China, Korea, and Tibet. The university reached its zenith under the patronage of the Gupta emperors, Harshavardhana of Kanauj, and the Pala rulers. Renowned Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang spent many years studying and teaching at Nalanda, describing it as a place where thousands of monks dedicated themselves to the study of the Tripitaka and various Buddhist philosophies. The vast library of Nalanda, known as Dharmaganja, was the most celebrated repository of Buddhist knowledge in the ancient world.

18General Awareness
Lakh Baksh was title given to Ruler
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Answer: (D) Qutub -ud-din Aibak

Explanation

Qutub-ud-din Aibak was known as Lakh Baksh, which means Giver of Lakhs, due to his extreme generosity and the large amounts of money he distributed in charity. He was the founder of the Slave Dynasty and the first Sultan of Delhi.

19General Awareness
The Rathas of Mahabalipuram was built during the reign of the
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Answer: (D) Pallavas

Explanation

The Rathas of Mahabalipuram, specifically the Pancha Rathas, were constructed during the reign of the Pallava king Narasimhavarman I, also known as Mamalla, in the 7th century AD. These structures are unique examples of monolithic rock-cut architecture, where each temple was carved out of a single large granite boulder. Located at the Pallava port city of Mamallapuram, these monuments represent various styles of contemporary temple architecture and served as models for the later development of the Dravidian style. The site is a testament to the artistic patronage of the Pallava dynasty, which laid the foundation for South Indian temple building traditions.

20General Awareness
Generally what is the colour of the Emerald?
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Answer: (C) Deep Green

Explanation

Emerald is a gemstone and a variety of the mineral beryl, which has the chemical formula Be₃Al₂Si₆O₁₈. The characteristic deep green color of an emerald is primarily due to trace amounts of chromium and sometimes vanadium that replace aluminum atoms in the crystal lattice. These impurities absorb specific wavelengths of light in the yellow-red and blue-violet regions of the spectrum, causing the stone to reflect a rich, saturated green hue. This specific coloration is the defining characteristic of the gemstone, distinguishing it from other varieties of beryl.

21General Awareness
What is the element required for Solar Energy Conversion?
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Answer: (C) Silicon

Explanation

Silicon is the primary semiconductor material used in the manufacturing of photovoltaic cells, which are responsible for converting sunlight directly into electricity. It is preferred for solar energy conversion due to its electronic properties and its ability to facilitate the photovoltaic effect. When sunlight hits a silicon solar cell, the energy from the photons is absorbed by the semiconductor material, knocking electrons loose and allowing them to flow freely. This flow of electrons creates an electrical current. Silicon is highly effective for this process because its bandgap is well-matched to the solar spectrum, and it is abundant and chemically stable, making it the standard material for both monocrystalline and polycrystalline solar panels.

22General Awareness
On what basis has representation been accorded to state in Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (B) On the Basis of the population

Explanation

The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the various states and union territories. According to Article 80, the representation of states is determined primarily by their population. This approach differs from federal systems like that of the United States, where every state is granted equal representation regardless of size. In the Indian context, the number of seats assigned to a state is calculated based on its population as per the figures of the relevant census. While the ratio is not strictly linear—providing slightly higher relative representation to smaller states—the underlying criterion for the distribution of these seats remains the demographic strength of each state.

23General Awareness
Which of the following "writs of the High Court or the Supreme Court is sought to produce in court a Person suspected to be missing/In custody?
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Answer: (C) Habeas Corpus

Explanation

The writ of Habeas Corpus, a Latin term meaning to have the body, is a judicial order used to protect the fundamental right to individual liberty against unlawful detention. It is issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 or by High Courts under Article 226 to a person or authority who has detained another person, requiring them to produce the detainee before the court. The primary purpose is for the court to examine the legal justification for the detention. If the court determines that the detention is illegal, unauthorized, or lacks jurisdiction, it commands the immediate release of the individual. This writ is applicable against both public authorities and private individuals, serving as a critical constitutional safeguard against arbitrary executive action and illegal confinement.

24General Awareness
What is the Motto Inscribed Under our National Emblem?
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Answer: (C) Satyameva Jayate

Explanation

The national motto of India, Satyameva Jayate, is inscribed in Devanagari script below the abacus of the State Emblem of India. This phrase is a mantra from the Mundaka Upanishad, an ancient Indian scripture. The literal meaning of the motto is Truth Alone Triumphs. Following the adoption of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath as the national emblem on 26 January 1950, this motto was included to represent the philosophical and ethical foundation of the newly formed Republic of India. It features prominently on all Indian currency, national documents, and passports.

25General Awareness
A person Wants to visit the national park Ranthambore ,Gir, and Bandipur, located in three different states of India. To which one of the Following states he need to go ?
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Answer: (B) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh is not home to any of the three national parks mentioned in the itinerary. Ranthambore National Park is located in Rajasthan, Gir National Park is situated in Gujarat, and Bandipur National Park is in Karnataka. Since the traveler intends to visit these specific sites, they would need to travel to Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Karnataka, but they would have no requirement to visit Madhya Pradesh.

26General Awareness
Where are the saltora Ranges located ?
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Answer: (C) Part of the Karakoram Ranges

Explanation

The Saltoro Mountains are a subrange of the Karakoram Range, located in the heart of the Karakoram region within the Trans-Himalayan mountain system. They are situated to the southwest of the Siachen Glacier and effectively form the western wall of that glacier. The range includes several extremely high peaks, most notably Saltoro Kangri, which reaches an elevation of 7,742 meters. Geographically, these mountains serve as a major watershed and are of significant strategic importance as they roughly align with the Actual Ground Position Line between India and Pakistan in the northern part of Jammu and Kashmir.

27General Awareness
Sardar Sarovar Dam located in the is being built on the River ?
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Answer: (D) Narmada

Explanation

The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a massive gravity dam built on the Narmada River near Navagam in the state of Gujarat. It serves as the centerpiece of the Narmada Valley Project, a multi-purpose river valley development scheme intended to provide irrigation, drinking water, and hydroelectric power to the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra. The project was envisioned to harness the waters of the Narmada, which is the largest westward-flowing river in Peninsular India. By 2005, the dam had become a critical infrastructure project for providing water to the arid regions of Saurashtra and Kutch, with its height being progressively increased under the oversight of the Narmada Control Authority and the Supreme Court of India.

28General Awareness
Which of the following types of erosions is responsible for the formation of the Chambal Ravines ?
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Answer: (D) Gully

Explanation

The Chambal Ravines are a classic example of gully erosion, which occurs when runoff water accumulates and flows rapidly in narrow channels, carving deep trenches into the landscape. Over time, these gullies widen and deepen, cutting through the thick alluvial deposits of the Chambal River basin to create a rugged and highly dissected terrain known as badland topography. This type of erosion is particularly severe in areas with soft, non-cohesive soil and sparse vegetation, where surface runoff can easily remove large volumes of earth during heavy rainfall. The resulting network of deep ravines makes the land unsuitable for agriculture and difficult to traverse.

29General Awareness
Which town /city in India has got a tower named after Muhammad AN Jinnah ?
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Answer: (D) Guntur

Explanation

The Jinnah Tower is a prominent historical landmark located on Mahatma Gandhi Road in the city of Guntur, Andhra Pradesh. Built in the 1940s by a local representative named Judduha Lala Sayid Adambari, the tower was intended as a symbol of peace and harmony. It remains one of the few structures in India named after Muhammad Ali Jinnah, reflecting the pre-partition political landscape and the local leadership's regard for him during that era.

30General Awareness
Eminent Persons Thomas L Fried Man Zubin Mehta Isamt Chaughal Jamini Roy Activity 1 Literature 2 Journalism 3 Painting 4 Music
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Answer: (A) 2 4 13

Explanation

Thomas L. Friedman is a world-renowned American journalist and author, specifically known for his long-running column on foreign affairs in The New York Times and multiple Pulitzer Prizes. Zubin Mehta is an internationally acclaimed conductor of Western classical music who has led the New York Philharmonic and the Israel Philharmonic Orchestra for many years. Ismat Chughtai was a pioneering Indian Urdu novelist and short story writer whose works are pillars of modern Urdu literature and feminist thought. Jamini Roy was a distinguished Indian artist and a leading figure in the field of painting, celebrated for developing a unique style rooted in Bengali folk traditions.

31General Awareness
Which country is known as the cockpit of the Europe?
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Answer: (A) Belgium

Explanation

Belgium is known as the cockpit of Europe because it has been the site of more European battles than any other country. Its central geographical location between major powers like France, Germany, and the United Kingdom made it a strategic buffer zone and a natural theater of war. Throughout history, the flat terrain of the Low Countries facilitated the movement and engagement of large armies, leading to decisive conflicts such as the Battle of Waterloo in 1815. This pattern continued through the 20th century, as Belgium saw extensive and devastating combat during both World War I and World War II. The term cockpit refers to an arena for fighting, characterizing the nation's historical role as a frequent battleground for continental disputes.

32General Awareness
Who is the hailed as god of the of the Medicine?
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Answer: (C) Dhanwantari

Explanation

Dhanwantari is revered in Hindu mythology as the physician of the gods and the primordial deity of Ayurveda. According to the Puranas, he emerged from the cosmic ocean during the Samudra Manthan (the churning of the milk ocean) holding the kalasha containing Amrita, the nectar of immortality. As an avatar of Lord Vishnu, he is credited with transmitting the knowledge of medicine and surgery to the world to alleviate human suffering. His role as the divine patron of healing is celebrated annually on Dhanteras, which is observed as National Ayurveda Day, reflecting his status as the supreme god of medicine.

33General Awareness
In Greek Mythology Apollo is the god of what?
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Answer: (A) Prophecy

Explanation

Apollo is one of the most complex and multifaceted deities in Greek mythology, recognized as the god of the sun, light, music, poetry, and healing. He is most significantly identified as the god of prophecy and truth. His most famous cult site was the Oracle at Delphi, where the Pythia served as his priestess, delivering divine revelations and foretelling the future to those who sought his guidance. As the son of Zeus, Apollo acted as a mediator between gods and men, conveying the divine will through his oracular powers, which made him the central figure of divination in the ancient Greek world.

34General Awareness
In which part of the India Canal irrigation system is mostly com
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Answer: (D) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Uttar Pradesh possesses the largest area under canal irrigation in India due to its favorable geographical conditions. The state is situated in the vast Indo-Gangetic Plain, characterized by soft alluvial soil that makes the digging of canals relatively easy and cost-effective. Additionally, the region is traversed by perennial Himalayan rivers like the Ganga and Yamuna, which ensure a constant supply of water throughout the year. Major canal projects such as the Sharda Canal, the Upper Ganges Canal, and the Lower Ganges Canal form an extensive network that supports the state's intensive agricultural requirements.

35General Awareness
Which of the following type of coal has the lowest Proportion of volatile content?
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Answer: (D) Anthracite

Explanation

Anthracite is the highest grade of coal and has undergone the most extensive coalification process due to prolonged exposure to high pressure and temperature within the Earth's crust. This metamorphic transformation results in the removal of the majority of non-carbon constituents and moisture. As a result, anthracite possesses the highest fixed carbon concentration and the minimum proportion of volatile matter, typically measuring below 14 percent. This low volatile content characterizes it as a hard, dense fuel that burns slowly with a clean, smokeless flame and high energy density.

36General Awareness
Gujarat is the largest producer of the salt in India because
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Answer: (A) It has extensive dry coast

Explanation

Gujarat possesses the longest coastline in India, extending over 1,600 kilometers, which provides vast areas for salt cultivation. The primary reason for its leading position in salt production is its unique climatic condition characterized by an extensive dry coast. The coastal regions, especially in the Rann of Kutch and Saurashtra, experience high temperatures, low humidity, and minimal rainfall. These factors result in very high evaporation rates, which are essential for the solar evaporation process used to harvest salt from seawater and subsoil brine. The presence of large, flat, and arid coastal tracts allows for the creation of expansive salt pans where natural solar energy efficiently crystallizes the salt for commercial collection.

37General Awareness
Which of the following is main spice producer?
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Answer: (B) Malabar coast

Explanation

The Malabar coast, stretching along the southwestern part of the Indian peninsula, is historically and geographically renowned as the primary hub for spice production in India. The region's tropical climate, characterized by high annual rainfall and humid conditions, provides the ideal environment for cultivating premium spices such as black pepper, cardamom, ginger, and cloves. Kerala, which forms the core of the Malabar coast, has earned the title of the Spice Garden of India due to its vast plantations and its long-standing role in the global spice trade dating back to ancient times.

38General Awareness
Who is responsible for collecting Tax?
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Answer: (B) Central Excise Department

Explanation

In 2005, the Central Excise Department was the primary authority responsible for the administration and collection of Service Tax in India. Service Tax was governed by the provisions of the Finance Act, 1994, and the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC), functioning under the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance, was the apex body overseeing its implementation. The Central Excise Department was tasked with this responsibility because it possessed the established administrative framework and field formations necessary to manage indirect tax collection across the country. This arrangement continued until the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax in 2017.

39General Awareness
The basic Regulatory of the Mutual Funds and stock markets in India?
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Answer: (C) SEBI

Explanation

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the primary statutory body responsible for regulating the securities market and mutual funds in India. Established under the SEBI Act, 1992, its mandate includes protecting the interests of investors, promoting the development of the capital market, and regulating the business of stock exchanges. SEBI oversees the registration and functioning of various market intermediaries and ensures that mutual funds adhere to the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, which provide a comprehensive framework for their operation, investment patterns, and disclosure requirements to ensure transparency and stability in the financial system.

40General Awareness
Which is city is also known as Big Apple?
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Answer: (D) New York USA

Explanation

The nickname Big Apple became widely associated with New York City in the 1920s after John J. Fitz Gerald, a writer for the New York Morning Telegraph, used it to refer to the city horse racing circuit. He heard the term used by stable hands in New Orleans to describe the high rewards and significant prestige of racing in New York. The term later became a favorite among jazz musicians to signify the city as the premiere stage for performers. In 1971, the city officially adopted the slogan for a major tourism campaign designed to revitalize its international image, cementing its status as the city most synonymous with the phrase.

41General Awareness
The Prakash Utsav which sikhs celebrated on the 1st September 2004 marked what event?
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Answer: (C) Installation Guru Granth at the Golden temple

Explanation

The Prakash Utsav celebrated on September 1, 2004, marked the 400th anniversary of the installation of the Adi Granth in the Harmandir Sahib, commonly known as the Golden Temple, in Amritsar. The holy scripture was compiled by the fifth Sikh Guru, Guru Arjan Dev, who completed the task in 1604. He installed the volume in the sanctum sanctorum of the Golden Temple on August 30, 1604, and appointed Baba Buddha as the first head granthi. The 2004 celebrations were a global event signifying four centuries since the scripture was first enshrined as the spiritual guide for the Sikh community.

42General Awareness
What is the amount given to the Dronacharya awardee along with cash prize?
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Answer: (C) 3 lakh

Explanation

The Dronacharya Award, instituted in 1985 by the Government of India, is the highest recognition for excellence in sports coaching. As of 2005, the award comprises a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a scroll of honour, ceremonial dress, and a cash prize of ₹3 lakh. This cash prize amount was established following a revision in 2002, which increased the incentive from the earlier sum of ₹50,000 to ₹3 lakh to better honour the contribution of coaches in shaping international medalists. The award is conferred annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports on National Sports Day, which commemorates the birth anniversary of hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand.

43General Awareness
Who is the"Amicus Curiae?
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Answer: (B) A friend of the court

Explanation

The term amicus curiae is a Latin phrase meaning friend of the court. In legal practice, it refers to a person or organization that is not a party to a case but is permitted by the court to provide information, expertise, or insight regarding the issues being litigated. The primary role of an amicus curiae is to assist the court by offering a neutral perspective or specialized knowledge that might not be fully addressed by the parties involved in the dispute. Courts often seek or accept assistance from an amicus curiae in complex cases involving significant public interest, constitutional questions, or matters of law where the decision could have wide-reaching consequences. This helps ensure that the judiciary makes a well-informed decision based on a comprehensive understanding of the legal and social implications of the case.

44General Awareness
Of the various grounds below.which is the one criterion on the Which discrimination by the state is not Prohibited by the Article 15 of the Constitution?
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Answer: (C) Language

Explanation

Article 15(1) of the Constitution of India specifies that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. The inclusion of the word only in the constitutional text signifies that the prohibition is strictly limited to these five enumerated categories. Language is not mentioned in this list. Consequently, while the Constitution provides for linguistic rights and protections under other provisions, such as Article 29 for the protection of the interests of minorities, it does not prohibit the State from making distinctions based on language under the specific mandate of Article 15.

45General Awareness
Secular Stagnation refers to
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Answer: (A) A stagnant economy

Explanation

Secular stagnation describes a prolonged period of little or no economic growth within an economy. It refers to a long-term condition where the economy is stuck in a low-growth trap, as opposed to temporary cyclical fluctuations.

46General Awareness
The employment Guarantee Scheme which is now an important component of the NCMP, was first introduced in which state?
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Answer: (B) Maharashtra

Explanation

The Maharashtra Employment Guarantee Scheme (EGS) was initiated in 1972-73 as a response to severe drought conditions in the state. It was the first program in India to provide a legal guarantee for unskilled manual work to rural adults who were willing to work at the prevailing minimum wage. The scheme was formally institutionalized through the Maharashtra Employment Guarantee Act of 1977. This state-level initiative provided the blueprint for the national-level employment guarantee envisioned in the National Common Minimum Programme (NCMP) of 2004, eventually leading to the enactment of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) in 2005.

47General Awareness
Interest on public debts is a part of the ?
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Answer: (B) Transfer payments by the Government

Explanation

Interest on public debt refers to the interest payments made by the government to the creditors who have provided loans to the state. In national income accounting, these payments are classified as transfer payments by the government because the debt is typically used to finance government consumption, past deficits, or general administrative expenses rather than for current productive investment. Because these payments do not correspond to the production of any current goods or services or the provision of a factor service in the production process, they are excluded from the calculation of National Income. Instead, they are treated as a transfer of income from the government to the private sector and are included in the calculation of Personal Income.

48General Awareness
Identify the Navaratna company in the following?
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Answer: (C) HPCL Ltd

Explanation

Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) is a leading Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) that was granted Navaratna status by the Government of India in 1997. This category was introduced to provide greater financial and operational autonomy to high-performing public sector undertakings, allowing them to make capital expenditures and enter into joint ventures or subsidiaries without seeking specific government approval for investments up to a specified threshold. HPCL qualified for this status based on its performance across key financial indicators such as net profit, net worth, and total manpower cost, alongside its significant contribution to the domestic petroleum refining and marketing industry.

49General Awareness
The major aim of the devaluation is to ?
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Answer: (B) Encourage Exports

Explanation

Devaluation involves a deliberate downward adjustment of a country's official exchange rate relative to a foreign currency or a basket of currencies. When a currency is devalued, domestic goods and services become cheaper for foreign buyers because their stronger currency can purchase a larger quantity of the local currency. This increased price competitiveness in international markets stimulates foreign demand for the country's products. By making exports more attractive and affordable to the rest of the world, devaluation aims to increase the total volume and value of exports, which helps in narrowing trade deficits and improving the national balance of payments.

50General Awareness
Where is the "objective of Social Justice" in constitution in India?
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Answer: (D) Preamble

Explanation

The Preamble explicitly declares the objective to secure to all its citizens Justice: Social, Economic and Political. While Articles 14, 15, and 16 provide specific fundamental rights to achieve this, the overarching objective is formally stated in the Preamble.

51General Awareness
Judges of the supreme court and High Court can be removed ?
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Answer: (A) The President

Explanation

Under Articles 124(4) and 217(1)(b) of the Constitution of India, a judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court can be removed from office by an order of the President. This order is issued only after an address by each House of Parliament, supported by a special majority consisting of a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, has been presented to the President in the same session. The Constitution mandates that such removal can only occur on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. While the Parliament conducts the inquiry and passes the motion, the final constitutional authority to sign the warrant of removal is vested in the President.

52General Awareness
Who was the German general nicknamed "Desert fox" during the second world war ?
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Answer: (C) Rommel

Explanation

Field Marshal Erwin Rommel earned the nickname Desert Fox (Wustenfuchs) due to his brilliant tactical maneuvers and leadership of the German Afrika Korps during the North African Campaign of World War II. Between 1941 and 1943, he demonstrated exceptional skill in mechanized, mobile warfare within the challenging desert terrain. His ability to execute daring surprise attacks and outmaneuver technically superior or more numerous Allied forces gained him a reputation for being elusive and cunning. This moniker was used with a sense of respect by both his own troops and his British adversaries, who recognized his mastery of desert combat and his chivalrous conduct on the battlefield.

53General Awareness
Leonardo da Vinci represented the age of ?
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Answer: (B) Renaissance

Explanation

Leonardo da Vinci is the quintessential figure of the Renaissance, a transformative period of cultural and intellectual rebirth in Europe spanning the 14th to the 17th centuries. He epitomized the Renaissance Man through his extraordinary versatility and mastery across diverse fields including painting, anatomy, engineering, and mathematics. His work reflected the era's shift toward humanism and empirical observation, moving away from medieval dogmatism. By applying scientific principles to art, such as the use of linear perspective and sfumato, he pioneered the realistic representation of the human form and the natural world, defining the artistic and intellectual height of the period.

54General Awareness
Who wrote "Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab Hamare Dil mein hai"?
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Answer: (B) Ramprasad Bismil

Explanation

Ramprasad Bismil was a prominent Indian revolutionary and a leading figure in the Hindustan Republican Association who famously led the Kakori Conspiracy in 1925. He wrote the patriotic poem Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil mein hai to inspire his fellow revolutionaries in their struggle against British colonial rule. The verses became a legendary anthem for Indian freedom fighters, expressing a deep desire for independence and a readiness to sacrifice one's life for the motherland. Bismil recited this ghazal throughout his trial and imprisonment, and it has since become an enduring symbol of his literary talent and revolutionary legacy in India.

55General Awareness
Who wrote the play Uttararamacharitra ?
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Answer: (C) Bhavabhuti

Explanation

Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century Sanskrit scholar and dramatist who served in the court of King Yashovarman of Kannauj. He is renowned for his mastery of the Karuna Rasa, or the sentiment of pathos, which is most profoundly expressed in his masterpiece, Uttararamacharitra. This seven-act play is based on the Uttara Kanda of the Ramayana and chronicles the later life of Lord Rama, specifically focusing on the abandonment of Sita and Rama's subsequent grief. Bhavabhuti is noted for his complex poetic style and his departure from the original epic's tragic conclusion, choosing instead to end the play with a poignant reconciliation and reunion of Rama and Sita.

56General Awareness
Where was "tanchoi brocade" developed?
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Answer: (A) Varanasi

Explanation

Tanchoi brocade is a specialized weaving technique characterized by intricate patterns, often depicting floral or avian motifs, woven using multiple silk threads on a silk base. The craft was brought to India from China in the 19th century by three Parsi brothers named Choi. Although the brothers originally introduced the technique to Surat, it was in Varanasi that the craft was truly developed and refined into a major textile tradition. The weavers of Varanasi adapted the Chinese technique to the local handloom industry, creating dense, satin-textured fabrics where the patterns are integrated into the body of the silk itself rather than being embroidered or added with metallic zari. This fusion of Chinese methods with Banarasi weaving expertise established Varanasi as the premier historical center for Tanchoi development.

57General Awareness
In which Country is karbala, the holy city shias shia Muslims located?
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Answer: (B) Iraq

Explanation

Karbala is situated in central Iraq, approximately 100 kilometers southwest of Baghdad. It is revered as one of the holiest cities for Shia Muslims worldwide because it is the site of the Battle of Karbala, which took place in 680 AD. The city houses the Imam Husayn Shrine, the burial place of Husayn ibn Ali, the grandson of the Prophet Muhammad. Husayn's martyrdom during the battle is a foundational event in Shia Islam, making the city a primary destination for millions of pilgrims during the annual commemorations of Ashura and Arbaeen.

58General Awareness
Who won the first silver medal for an individual event in the India at the Olympics?
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Answer: (C) Major R.S Rathore

Explanation

Major Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore secured the silver medal in the Men Double Trap shooting event at the 2004 Athens Olympics. This achievement marked the first time an individual athlete from independent India won a silver medal at the Olympic Games. He finished the competition with a total score of 179 points to claim the second position. This success was a significant milestone in Indian sports history, as all previous individual Olympic medals won by Indians since independence had been bronze. His performance in Athens established a new benchmark for Indian athletes in individual disciplines at the international level.

59General Awareness
What was the space shuttle that landed man on Moon?
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Answer: (D) Apollo

Explanation

The Apollo program was the United States human spaceflight program carried out by NASA, which succeeded in landing the first humans on the Moon. This feat was first achieved during the Apollo 11 mission in July 1969, followed by five subsequent successful lunar landings ending in 1972. The Apollo spacecraft was designed to transport astronauts to lunar orbit and then facilitate a landing on the lunar surface. These missions utilized the Saturn V launch vehicle, which remains the most powerful rocket ever successfully flown. The program primary objective was to fulfill the national goal of landing a man on the Moon and returning him safely to Earth, a milestone that remains the only instance of humans traveling beyond low Earth orbit to another celestial body.

60General Awareness
The long term fiscal proposes to maintain the stability of?
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Answer: (A) Direct Tax

Explanation

The Long Term Fiscal Policy (LTFP), introduced in India in 1985, specifically aimed to provide a stable environment for economic growth by promising to keep direct tax rates (such as personal income tax and corporate tax) unchanged for a five-year period. This stability was intended to encourage long-term planning, investment, and better tax compliance among taxpayers. While the policy also aimed to improve the tax-to-GDP ratio over time, the specific promise of "stability" referred to the rates and structure of direct taxes.

61General Awareness
Main bearers of the burden of the Indirect tax are?
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Answer: (C) Consumes

Explanation

Indirect taxes are characterized by the shifting of the tax burden from the entity that pays the tax to the government to the final user of the good or service. While the legal responsibility to deposit the tax lies with the manufacturer or the seller, the economic incidence is transferred through the supply chain via increases in the market price. Since the consumer is the final link in this chain and does not resell the product to another party, they are unable to shift the tax further and must bear the ultimate financial burden as part of the total price paid for the commodity.

62General Awareness
A commercial bank law creates credit only if it has
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Answer: (C) Permission of RBI

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as the supreme monetary authority under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Commercial banks function within a strictly regulated environment where their capacity to create credit is governed by the rules and policy frameworks established by the central bank. The RBI controls the credit creation process using quantitative tools such as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), which determine the proportion of deposits that must be kept aside, and qualitative tools like selective credit controls. Because the legal and operational framework for lending is dictated by these central bank mandates, a commercial bank effectively requires the regulatory permission and oversight of the RBI to expand the money supply through its lending activities.

63General Awareness
Investment and savings are kept equal through a charge in the level of ?
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Answer: (D) Income

Explanation

According to Keynesian macroeconomic theory, equality between planned saving and planned investment is maintained through changes in the level of national income. When investment and saving are not equal, the resulting change in aggregate demand causes income to adjust until savings once again match investment.

64General Awareness
Which of the following is not required while computing GNP ?
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Answer: (C) Per capita Income of Citizen

Explanation

Per capita income is a derived statistical value obtained by dividing the total National Income (or GNP) of a country by its total population. It serves as an indicator of the average economic well-being of a citizen rather than a component or a requirement for the primary calculation of the Gross National Product itself. GNP is computed using the expenditure, income, or value-added methods, which utilize primary data such as private consumption, investment, government spending, and net factor income from abroad. Because per capita income is a result of the final GNP figure, it cannot be a prerequisite for calculating that very figure.

65General Awareness
Consumer sovereignty means
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Answer: (C) Consumers expenditure influences the allocation of resources

Explanation

Consumer sovereignty is an economic principle stating that the preferences of consumers determine the production of goods and services. In a market-based economy, consumers signal their needs and desires through their spending patterns, effectively acting as "voters" who decide which products succeed. Producers, driven by the profit motive, respond to these signals by shifting productive factors like labor, capital, and raw materials toward the industries that consumers support with their expenditure. Therefore, the pattern of consumer spending serves as the primary mechanism that dictates the allocation of scarce resources across various sectors of the economy.

66General Awareness
What is the chemical name for baking soda ?
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Answer: (B) Sodium bicarbonate

Explanation

Baking soda is the common name for sodium bicarbonate, which has the chemical formula NaHCO3. Sodium carbonate is known as washing soda.

67General Awareness
The working of quartz crystal in the watch is based on the ?
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Answer: (D) Piezoelectric effect

Explanation

The working of a quartz crystal in a watch is based on the piezoelectric effect, which is the property of certain materials to generate an electric charge when subjected to mechanical stress. In a quartz watch, the inverse piezoelectric effect is utilized: when an electric voltage from a battery is applied to the quartz crystal, it vibrates at a very precise and stable frequency, typically 32,768 Hz. These mechanical oscillations are then converted into electrical pulses by an integrated circuit to track time with high accuracy, as the vibration frequency of quartz remains remarkably constant across varying conditions.

68General Awareness
Why does a big fire in the open appear to be fanned by strong winds ?
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Answer: (C) Because the surrounding particles heated air rises and cool air rushes in to create a fanning feetc

Explanation

When a large fire burns in the open, it intensely heats the air directly above and around it. This heated air expands, becomes less dense, and rises rapidly due to buoyancy in a process known as convection. As the hot air ascends, it creates a localized area of low pressure at the base of the fire. To fill this void, cooler and denser air from the surrounding environment rushes inward toward the center of the fire. This rapid movement of incoming air provides a continuous and concentrated supply of oxygen to the combustion process, which intensifies the flames. This self-generated circulation of air creates a powerful fanning effect, making it appear as though the fire is being driven by strong external winds.

69General Awareness
Oil rises up to the wick in the lamp because?
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Answer: (D) Of the capillary action

Explanation

Capillary action is the physical phenomenon that allows a liquid to flow through narrow spaces against the force of gravity. A lamp wick is made of porous material like cotton, which consists of many fine, interwoven fibers that act as a network of tiny capillary tubes. The upward movement of the oil is driven by the surface tension of the liquid and the adhesive forces between the oil and the solid fibers of the wick. As the oil at the top of the wick is consumed by the flame, the pressure difference and molecular attraction continue to draw more oil from the reservoir below, ensuring a constant supply of fuel. This mechanism is described by Jurin's Law, h = (2γ cos θ)/(ρ gr), where h is the height the liquid rises. The formula demonstrates that the smaller the radius r of the pores in the wick, the higher the oil will climb.

70General Awareness
In Atmospheric ultraviolet rays are absorbed by the?
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Answer: (C) Ozen

Explanation

The ozone layer, situated primarily within the stratosphere at altitudes between 15 and 35 kilometers, serves as the Earth's primary shield against solar ultraviolet radiation. Ozone molecules (O₃) are uniquely structured to absorb high-energy ultraviolet rays, particularly UV-B and UV-C. When these rays strike an ozone molecule, the energy is absorbed and causes the molecule to split into an oxygen molecule (O₂) and a free oxygen atom (O). This continuous cycle of absorption and chemical dissociation effectively filters out the majority of harmful radiation before it can reach the troposphere, thereby protecting biological life on the surface from the damaging effects of excessive UV exposure.

71General Awareness
Saccharin is made up off?
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Answer: (A) Toulence

Explanation

Saccharin, chemically known as ortho-sulfobenzimide, is a well-known artificial sweetener synthesized starting from toluene. In the classic industrial production method known as the Remsen-Fahlberg process, toluene (C₆H₅CH₃) is reacted with chlorosulfonic acid to produce ortho-toluene sulfonyl chloride. This intermediate is then converted into ortho-toluene sulfonamide by reacting it with ammonia. The methyl group of the sulfonamide is subsequently oxidized, typically using an oxidizing agent like potassium permanganate (KMnO₄), to form ortho-sulfamoylbenzoic acid. This compound then undergoes cyclization via the loss of a water molecule to yield saccharin (C₇H₅NO₃S). Since toluene provides the necessary aromatic ring and the carbon skeleton for the functional groups, it is the fundamental raw material in the manufacturing process.

72General Awareness
Who among the following famous danseuses is not a example of the Odissi style of dance?
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Answer: (B) Padma Subrahmanyam

Explanation

Padma Subrahmanyam is a preeminent exponent of Bharatanatyam and is not associated with the Odissi dance form. She is widely recognized for her scholarly research into the Natya Shastra and for reconstructing the 108 Karanas (sculptural dance poses), which she integrated into her unique performance style known as Bharata Nrityam. Her artistic career and technical contributions have focused on the evolution and revitalization of the Tamil classical dance tradition and its ancient roots in Sanskrit dramaturgy.

73General Awareness
Who recently sold 125 of his/her paintings for Rs 100 crores?
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Answer: (C) M.F Hussain

Explanation

In late 2004, Maqbool Fida Husain signed a historic agreement with Guru Swarup Srivastava, the chairman of Swarup Group of Industries, for a deal valued at Rs 100 crore. Under the terms of this contract, the artist agreed to produce 125 paintings. This transaction was widely reported as the largest deal in the history of Indian contemporary art at that time, establishing a new benchmark for the commercial valuation of works by Indian masters in the global and domestic art markets.

74General Awareness
Who is considered as greatest of the all kings of Vijayanagara Rulers?
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Answer: (A) Krishnadevaraya

Explanation

Krishnadevaraya, who ruled from 1509 to 1529, is widely acclaimed as the greatest monarch of the Vijayanagara Empire. A member of the Tuluva dynasty, he led the empire to its zenith of military power and territorial expansion by successfully defeating the Bahmani Sultans and the Gajapatis of Odisha. Beyond his martial prowess, he was a legendary patron of art, architecture, and literature. His court was graced by the Ashtadiggajas, a group of eight celebrated Telugu poets. An accomplished scholar himself, he authored the Telugu epic Amuktamalyada and the Sanskrit play Jambavati Kalyanam. He also oversaw the construction of iconic structures like the Vittalaswamy and Hazara Rama temples at Hampi. His reign is often described as the golden age of South Indian history, characterized by religious tolerance, flourishing trade with the Portuguese, and administrative efficiency.

75General Awareness
Which was only Indus site with an artificial Brick dockyard?
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Answer: (A) Lothal

Explanation

Lothal, located in the Ahmedabad district of Gujarat, contains the most distinctive feature of the Indus Valley Civilization: a massive, rectangular basin made of kiln-burnt bricks identified as an artificial dockyard. Measuring approximately 218 meters in length and 37 meters in width, this structure was connected to the ancient course of the Sabarmati River via a canal. It allowed boats and ships to enter the city during high tides, facilitating maritime trade with distant regions like Mesopotamia. This sophisticated engineering feat underscores Lothal's role as a major port and industrial center of the ancient world.

76General Awareness
The American civil war saw the end of
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Answer: (A) Slavery

Explanation

The American Civil War, fought from 1861 to 1865, was primarily driven by the long-standing controversy over the enslavement of black people. During the conflict, President Abraham Lincoln issued the Emancipation Proclamation in 1863, which declared that all persons held as slaves within the rebellious states are and henceforward shall be free. The decisive Union victory led to the ratification of the 13th Amendment to the United States Constitution in December 1865, which formally abolished slavery and involuntary servitude in the entire country.

77General Awareness
Which variety of glass is heat resistant?
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Answer: (C) Pyrex Glass

Explanation

Pyrex glass is a variety of borosilicate glass that incorporates boron trioxide in its composition. The presence of boron significantly lowers the coefficient of thermal expansion of the material, meaning it does not expand or contract greatly when subjected to temperature changes. This property makes Pyrex highly resistant to thermal shock, allowing it to withstand rapid heating or cooling without cracking or shattering. Because of this heat resistance, it is the standard material used for laboratory apparatus, such as test tubes and flasks, as well as for high-quality ovenware and kitchen utensils.

78General Awareness
In which of the following cryogenic engines are used?
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Answer: (C) Rockets

Explanation

Cryogenic engines are specialized propulsion systems that utilize liquefied gases stored at extremely low temperatures, typically liquid oxygen at 90 K and liquid hydrogen at 20 K, as oxidizer and fuel respectively. These engines are primarily employed in the upper stages of space launch vehicles and rockets because they provide a significantly higher specific impulse compared to solid or earth-storable liquid propellants. This high efficiency allows rockets to carry heavier payloads into higher orbits, such as the Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). By 2005, this technology was a critical component of major space programs globally, including NASA's Space Shuttle and ISRO's Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) program.

79General Awareness
PVC is obtained by the polymerisation of?
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Answer: (B) Vinyl Chloride

Explanation

Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) is a synthetic plastic polymer produced through the addition polymerisation of vinyl chloride monomers. Vinyl chloride, also known as chloroethene, has the chemical formula CH₂=CHCl. During the polymerisation process, the double bonds between the carbon atoms in the vinyl chloride molecules break and reform as single bonds to link with adjacent monomers, creating long chains of [-CH₂-CHCl-]ₙ. This reaction typically occurs in the presence of an initiator like a peroxide to facilitate the formation of the polymer.

80General Awareness
Who is the competent to dissolve the parliament?
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Answer: (A) The President

Explanation

Under Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution of India, the President of India is vested with the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha. While the Parliament of India consists of the President, the Rajya Sabha, and the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. Therefore, the act of dissolving the Parliament specifically refers to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The President typically exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, leading to the end of the term of the current house and necessitating fresh general elections.

81General Awareness
According to the UN Convention of the rights of the Child which of the following is not a right?
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Answer: (D) Employment

Explanation

The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) defines a child as any person under the age of 18 and focuses on the developmental and protective needs of minors. Article 32 of the Convention specifically recognizes the right of the child to be protected from economic exploitation and from performing any work that is likely to be hazardous, interfere with the child's education, or be harmful to the child's health or physical, mental, spiritual, moral, or social development. Since the convention aims to safeguard childhood as a period of growth and learning rather than labor, employment is not recognized as a right for children. Instead, the legal framework emphasizes protecting children from the workforce to ensure their well-being and mandatory access to education.

82General Awareness
Potassium Permanganate is used for purifying drinking water because it ?
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Answer: (C) Is a oxidising agent

Explanation

Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) is a powerful oxidizing agent used in water treatment to remove soluble iron, manganese, and hydrogen sulfide. It functions by donating oxygen to these contaminants, converting them into insoluble precipitates such as manganese dioxide (MnO₂), which can then be easily removed from the water through filtration. This oxidation process also helps in controlling taste and odor issues by breaking down organic compounds and inhibiting the growth of biological organisms like algae and bacteria. Its effectiveness stems from the high oxidation state of manganese in the permanganate ion, which readily accepts electrons from various impurities.

83General Awareness
Which amidst the following is not a gemstone ?
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Answer: (A) Cat's eye

Explanation

Cat's eye is technically an optical phenomenon known as chatoyancy rather than a specific gemstone species or mineral. It is a luminous, narrow band of light that appears on the surface of a stone—most notably in varieties of chrysoberyl—due to the reflection of light from parallel needle-like inclusions or hollow channels within the crystal structure. Because the term describes a visual property that can be exhibited by many different minerals, including quartz and apatite, it is categorized as a physical effect rather than a distinct mineralogical substance or a unique chemical species.

84General Awareness
Who propounded the possibility of placing communication satellites in Geosynchronous orbit for the first time ?
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Answer: (C) Arthur C. Clarke

Explanation

Arthur C. Clarke formulated the concept of geostationary communication satellites in his 1945 article published in Wireless World, titled Extra-Terrestrial Relays: Can Rocket Stations Give Worldwide Radio Coverage?. He proposed that a satellite placed at an altitude where its orbital period matches the Earth's rotation, approximately 35,786 kilometers, would remain fixed over a specific point on the equator. This positioning allows the satellite to act as a permanent relay station for global radio and television signals. He demonstrated that three such satellites spaced 120 degrees apart could provide near-complete global coverage. In recognition of this pioneering vision, the geostationary orbit is often referred to as the Clarke Orbit.

85General Awareness
Which of the following chemicals is a neurotransmitter substance ?
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Answer: (A) Adrenaline

Explanation

Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is a catecholamine that functions as both a hormone and a neurotransmitter. While it is primarily synthesized and released by the adrenal medulla into the bloodstream to coordinate the systemic fight-or-flight response, it is also produced by specific neurons in the central nervous system. In the brain, adrenaline acts as a neurotransmitter by being released from presynaptic terminals into the synaptic cleft, where it binds to adrenergic receptors on postsynaptic neurons to transmit nerve impulses. It plays a critical role in regulating various autonomic functions, including heart rate, blood pressure, and the body's acute stress response.

86General Awareness
Which of the following is the function of Iodised salt in the Human Body ?
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Answer: (B) It controls the functions of the Thyroid glands

Explanation

Iodised salt provides the essential trace element iodine, which is necessary for the thyroid gland to synthesize thyroid hormones, specifically thyroxine (T₄) and triiodothyronine (T₃). These hormones play a fundamental role in regulating the body's basal metabolic rate, protein synthesis, and the development of the skeletal and nervous systems. The thyroid gland absorbs iodine from the bloodstream to produce these hormones; a lack of iodine leads to a decrease in hormone production, triggering the pituitary gland to release more thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). This process can lead to the enlargement of the thyroid gland, commonly known as a goiter. Consuming iodised salt ensures that the thyroid gland has a consistent supply of iodine to maintain normal hormonal balance and metabolic function.

87General Awareness
The city of Tashkent is located in?
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Answer: (A) Uzbekistan

Explanation

Tashkent is the capital and largest city of Uzbekistan, situated in the eastern part of the country in the Chirchiq River valley. It has served as the political and administrative center of the region for decades, having been designated as the capital of the Uzbek Soviet Socialist Republic in 1930 and subsequently continuing as the capital of independent Uzbekistan after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991. The city is the most populous in Central Asia and functions as a major industrial and cultural center for the Uzbek nation.

88General Awareness
Who was awarded two ICC awards 2004 for his achievement?
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Answer: (B) Rahul Dravid

Explanation

Rahul Dravid was the primary honoree at the inaugural ICC Awards ceremony held in London in September 2004. He secured two of the most prestigious individual titles: the Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for ICC Player of the Year and the ICC Test Player of the Year. During the qualifying period from September 2003 to July 2004, Dravid scored 1241 runs in nine Tests at an average of 95.46 and 935 runs in 30 One Day Internationals. His double century against Pakistan in the Rawalpindi Test was a highlight of the season, leading to his selection for both awards by an international panel of 50 experts.

89General Awareness
Where was hundreds of school children of Russia was taken Hostage by armed militants?
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Answer: (B) Beslan

Explanation

The Beslan school hostage crisis took place in September 2004 in the town of Beslan, North Ossetia, an autonomous republic in the North Caucasus region of Russia. A group of armed pro-Chechen militants seized School Number One on the first day of the new academic year, taking over 1,100 people hostage, including 777 children. The siege lasted for three days and ended tragically following explosions and a subsequent raid by Russian security forces. The event resulted in the deaths of at least 334 people, of whom 186 were children, making it one of the most significant terrorist incidents in Russian history.

90General Awareness
What is Apunba Lup?
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Answer: (A) The Apex body of the leading militants in Manipur

Explanation

Apunba Lup, which translates to United Organization in the Meitei language, is an umbrella organization based in Manipur that functions as an apex body representing a conglomerate of various social and civil groups. It rose to prominence during the 2004 and 2005 mass agitations in the state, which were triggered by the custodial death of Thangjam Manorama and directed against the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA). By unifying over thirty different organizations under a single coordinating committee, it served as the primary collective voice for the movement in Manipur. This apex structure allowed for the consolidation of various local factions to present a unified front in negotiations with the central government and in organizing state-wide protests against the security establishment.

91General Awareness
Which of the vegetables does not contain essential Fatty acids?
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Answer: (C) Coconut oil

Explanation

Essential fatty acids are polyunsaturated fatty acids, specifically linoleic acid and alpha-linolenic acid, which the human body cannot synthesize and must obtain through dietary sources. Coconut oil is unique among vegetable oils because it is composed of approximately 90 percent saturated fatty acids, primarily medium-chain triglycerides like lauric acid, myristic acid, and palmitic acid. Due to this extremely high concentration of saturated fats, it contains only negligible amounts of polyunsaturated fats, typically less than 2 percent, and is therefore not considered a source of essential fatty acids.

92General Awareness
Pregnant Women usually becomes deficiency in?
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Answer: (C) Calcium and iron

Explanation

During pregnancy, the maternal body undergoes significant physiological changes that sharply increase the demand for specific nutrients. Iron is required in much higher quantities to support the expansion of maternal red blood cell mass and the development of the placenta and fetus. Since the mother's blood volume increases by nearly fifty percent, iron is essential to produce the additional hemoglobin needed to transport oxygen. Calcium is equally critical as it is the primary mineral used for the formation of the fetal skeleton and teeth. If dietary intake is insufficient, the fetus will draw calcium from the mother's own skeletal stores, potentially compromising her bone health. Due to these high biological requirements, iron and calcium are the most common nutritional deficiencies encountered during pregnancy, making their supplementation a standard part of prenatal care.

93General Awareness
Which components of light are absorbed by the chlorophyll?
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Answer: (A) Violet and Red

Explanation

Chlorophyll, the primary pigment involved in photosynthesis, captures light energy most efficiently at specific wavelengths within the visible spectrum. The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a shows its maximum absorption peak in the violet region, typically around 430 nm. Its second major absorption peak occurs in the red region, centered at approximately 660 to 665 nm. Chlorophyll b also exhibits strong absorption in these violet-blue and red-orange segments. These specific components of light provide the energy required to excite electrons within the pigment molecules, initiating the photochemical reactions that convert solar energy into chemical energy. Because green light is not significantly absorbed and is instead reflected, plants possess their characteristic green appearance.

94General Awareness
Ginger is a stem and not a root because ?
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Answer: (C) It has nodes and Internodes

Explanation

The botanical identification of a plant part as a stem is based on its morphological characteristics, the most definitive of which is the presence of nodes and internodes. Ginger is a rhizome, a type of modified underground stem that grows horizontally. Nodes are the specific points on the stem where scale leaves and buds are attached, while internodes are the sections of the stem located between two consecutive nodes. Since true roots lack these structural features, the presence of nodes and internodes in ginger confirms its classification as a stem.

95General Awareness
Eyes of potato are useful for ?
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Answer: (D) Vegetative propagation

Explanation

The eyes of a potato tuber are nodes located on the modified underground stem. Each eye contains one or more axillary buds that remain dormant until conditions are favorable for growth. When a potato or a section of it containing an eye is planted, these buds sprout to form new shoots and roots, eventually developing into an independent plant. This process is a form of asexual reproduction known as vegetative propagation, as it allows for the multiplication of the plant using vegetative parts rather than seeds. This mechanism is the standard method for commercial potato cultivation, ensuring that the offspring are genetically identical to the parent.

96General Awareness
Taenia Solium lives as parasite in ?
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Answer: (C) Intestine of Man/Woman

Explanation

Taenia solium, commonly referred to as the pork tapeworm, is a zoonotic cestode that lives as an endoparasite in the small intestine of humans during its adult stage. Humans serve as the definitive host, where the parasite attaches itself to the intestinal wall using a specialized anterior organ called the scolex, which is equipped with suckers and hooks. In this environment, the worm absorbs pre-digested nutrients directly from the host's digestive tract across its body surface. The intestinal lumen provides the necessary anaerobic conditions and nutrient supply for the worm to grow, undergo strobilation, and reach sexual maturity to produce eggs.

97General Awareness
An ant can see the objects all around due to the presence of ?
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Answer: (D) Compound eyes

Explanation

Ants possess compound eyes, which are made up of numerous individual visual units called ommatidia. Each ommatidium functions as an independent light detector, capturing a small portion of the surrounding environment. Because these lenses are arranged in a convex or hemispherical pattern on the sides of the head, they provide the ant with an exceptionally wide field of view. This multifaceted structure allows the insect to detect movement and perceive objects from many directions simultaneously, effectively seeing all around its body.

98General Awareness
What is the Approximate time required for a heart beat?
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Answer: (B) 0.8 secs

Explanation

The duration of a single heart beat, referred to as the cardiac cycle, is determined by the heart rate of an individual. A healthy adult human has an average resting heart rate of approximately 72 beats per minute. The time required for one beat is calculated by dividing the total number of seconds in a minute by the number of beats:

Time = (60 seconds)/(72 beats per minute) ≈ 0.833 seconds

Physiologically, this 0.8 second interval is composed of three main stages. Atrial systole takes approximately 0.1 seconds, followed by ventricular systole which lasts about 0.3 seconds. The remaining 0.4 seconds is the period of joint diastole, where both the atria and ventricles are in a relaxed state. The sum of these phases (0.1 + 0.3 + 0.4 = 0.8) represents the standard approximate time for one complete cardiac cycle.

99General Awareness
Which from the following not a gland ?
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Answer: (A) Stomach

Explanation

The stomach is a hollow, muscular organ of the gastrointestinal tract primarily responsible for the storage and mechanical breakdown of food. While the internal mucosal lining of the stomach contains millions of microscopic gastric glands that secrete digestive enzymes and hydrochloric acid, the stomach itself is anatomically classified as a digestive organ rather than a gland. Glands are specialized organs or groups of cells whose primary function is the synthesis and release of substances such as hormones or enzymes directly into the bloodstream or into cavities inside the body. In biological hierarchy, the stomach serves as a chamber for digestion, whereas the liver and pancreas are defined by their extensive secretory and regulatory glandular functions.

100English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. In the technological systems of tomorrow- fast fluid and self- regulating- machines will deal with the flow of physical materials men with the flow of information and insight. Machines will increasingly perform tasks. Machines and men both instead of being concentrated in gigantic factories and factory cities will be scattered across the globe linked together by amazingly sensitive near- instantaneous communications. Human work will move out of the factory and mass office into the community and the home. Machines will be synchronized as some already are to the billionth of a second men will be synchronized. The factory whistle will vanish. Even the clock "the key machine of the modern industrial age" as Lewis Mumford called it a generation ago will lose some of its power over humans as distinct from purely technological affairs. Simultaneously the organisation needed to control technology shift from bureaucracy to Democracy from permanence to transience and from a concern with the present to a focus on the future. In such a world the most valued attributes of the industrial age become handicaps. The technology of tomorrow requires not millions of lightly lettered men ready to work in unison at endlessly repetitive jobs it requires not men who take orders in unblinking fashion aware that the price of bread is mechanical submission to authority but men who can make critical judgments who can weave their way through novel environments who are quick to spot new relationships in the rapidly changing reality. It requires men who in C.P. Snow's compelling terms "have the future in their bones" The technological system of tomorrow will be marked by?
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Answer: (C) Automation.

Explanation

The passage describes the technological systems of tomorrow as being fast, fluid, and self-regulating, where machines deal with the flow of physical materials and increasingly perform tasks. This reliance on self-regulating machinery that functions with extreme precision—synchronized to the billionth of a second—is the definition of automation. By shifting the burden of repetitive physical labor and mechanical tasks from humans to machines, the system allows technology to operate independently in the production and distribution of materials, which characterizes an automated environment.

101English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. In the technological systems of tomorrow- fast fluid and self- regulating- machines will deal with the flow of physical materials men with the flow of information and insight. Machines will increasingly perform tasks. Machines and men both instead of being concentrated in gigantic factories and factory cities will be scattered across the globe linked together by amazingly sensitive near- instantaneous communications. Human work will move out of the factory and mass office into the community and the home. Machines will be synchronized as some already are to the billionth of a second men will be synchronized. The factory whistle will vanish. Even the clock "the key machine of the modern industrial age" as Lewis Mumford called it a generation ago will lose some of its power over humans as distinct from purely technological affairs. Simultaneously the organisation needed to control technology shift from bureaucracy to Democracy from permanence to transience and from a concern with the present to a focus on the future. In such a world the most valued attributes of the industrial age become handicaps. The technology of tomorrow requires not millions of lightly lettered men ready to work in unison at endlessly repetitive jobs it requires not men who take orders in unblinking fashion aware that the price of bread is mechanical submission to authority but men who can make critical judgments who can weave their way through novel environments who are quick to spot new relationships in the rapidly changing reality. It requires men who in C.P. Snow's compelling terms "have the future in their bones" The future man according to this passage must be?
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Answer: (B) Most capable of dealing with the changing reality.

Explanation

The passage describes the future technological landscape as fast, fluid, and characterized by transience and rapid change. To succeed in this environment, the text specifies that society will no longer need workers who merely perform repetitive tasks or submit to authority. Instead, it explicitly calls for individuals who can weave their way through novel environments and are quick to spot new relationships in the rapidly changing reality. By requiring men who make critical judgments and have the future in their bones, the author emphasizes that the essential quality for the future human is the ability to navigate and manage the complexities of a constantly evolving world.

102English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. In the technological systems of tomorrow- fast fluid and self- regulating- machines will deal with the flow of physical materials men with the flow of information and insight. Machines will increasingly perform tasks. Machines and men both instead of being concentrated in gigantic factories and factory cities will be scattered across the globe linked together by amazingly sensitive near- instantaneous communications. Human work will move out of the factory and mass office into the community and the home. Machines will be synchronized as some already are to the billionth of a second men will be synchronized. The factory whistle will vanish. Even the clock "the key machine of the modern industrial age" as Lewis Mumford called it a generation ago will lose some of its power over humans as distinct from purely technological affairs. Simultaneously the organisation needed to control technology shift from bureaucracy to Democracy from permanence to transience and from a concern with the present to a focus on the future. In such a world the most valued attributes of the industrial age become handicaps. The technology of tomorrow requires not millions of lightly lettered men ready to work in unison at endlessly repetitive jobs it requires not men who take orders in unblinking fashion aware that the price of bread is mechanical submission to authority but men who can make critical judgments who can weave their way through novel environments who are quick to spot new relationships in the rapidly changing reality. It requires men who in C.P. Snow's compelling terms "have the future in their bones" Near-instantaneous communications may be regarded as a symbol of?
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Answer: (D) Synchronization

Explanation

The passage describes a future technological landscape where machines and humans, though scattered across the globe, are linked together by near-instantaneous communications. It explicitly states that machines and men will be synchronized, with machines already reaching precision levels of a billionth of a second. Near-instantaneous communication serves as the fundamental mechanism that enables this precise coordination and simultaneous operation across vast distances, acting as the primary symbol of synchronization in a fast-moving, self-regulating global system.

103English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. In the technological systems of tomorrow- fast fluid and self- regulating- machines will deal with the flow of physical materials men with the flow of information and insight. Machines will increasingly perform tasks. Machines and men both instead of being concentrated in gigantic factories and factory cities will be scattered across the globe linked together by amazingly sensitive near- instantaneous communications. Human work will move out of the factory and mass office into the community and the home. Machines will be synchronized as some already are to the billionth of a second men will be synchronized. The factory whistle will vanish. Even the clock "the key machine of the modern industrial age" as Lewis Mumford called it a generation ago will lose some of its power over humans as distinct from purely technological affairs. Simultaneously the organisation needed to control technology shift from bureaucracy to Democracy from permanence to transience and from a concern with the present to a focus on the future. In such a world the most valued attributes of the industrial age become handicaps. The technology of tomorrow requires not millions of lightly lettered men ready to work in unison at endlessly repetitive jobs it requires not men who take orders in unblinking fashion aware that the price of bread is mechanical submission to authority but men who can make critical judgments who can weave their way through novel environments who are quick to spot new relationships in the rapidly changing reality. It requires men who in C.P. Snow's compelling terms "have the future in their bones" If a person believes that the price of bread is mechanical submission to authority he is
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Answer: (C) A believer in doing what he is told right or wrong.

Explanation

The passage describes individuals who view mechanical submission to authority as the price of bread as those who take orders in an unblinking fashion. This indicates a state of blind obedience where a person follows instructions without critical judgment or questioning the validity of the command. By linking the necessity of earning a living to mechanical submission, the text portrays a person who prioritizes following orders over independent thought, essentially doing exactly what they are told regardless of whether the action is right or wrong.

104English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. In the technological systems of tomorrow- fast fluid and self- regulating- machines will deal with the flow of physical materials men with the flow of information and insight. Machines will increasingly perform tasks. Machines and men both instead of being concentrated in gigantic factories and factory cities will be scattered across the globe linked together by amazingly sensitive near- instantaneous communications. Human work will move out of the factory and mass office into the community and the home. Machines will be synchronized as some already are to the billionth of a second men will be synchronized. The factory whistle will vanish. Even the clock "the key machine of the modern industrial age" as Lewis Mumford called it a generation ago will lose some of its power over humans as distinct from purely technological affairs. Simultaneously the organisation needed to control technology shift from bureaucracy to Democracy from permanence to transience and from a concern with the present to a focus on the future. In such a world the most valued attributes of the industrial age become handicaps. The technology of tomorrow requires not millions of lightly lettered men ready to work in unison at endlessly repetitive jobs it requires not men who take orders in unblinking fashion aware that the price of bread is mechanical submission to authority but men who can make critical judgments who can weave their way through novel environments who are quick to spot new relationships in the rapidly changing reality. It requires men who in C.P. Snow's compelling terms "have the future in their bones" The type of society which the author has mentioned makes a plea for ?
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Answer: (B) A critical mind having insight into future.

Explanation

The author describes a transition toward a future-oriented society where the traditional mechanical submission of the industrial age is replaced by the need for information and insight. The passage explicitly states that tomorrow's technology requires individuals who can make critical judgments and weave their way through novel environments in a rapidly changing reality. By highlighting a shift from a concern with the present to a focus on the future, and concluding with C.P. Snow’s sentiment about men having the future in their bones, the author emphasizes the necessity of a mind that possesses both analytical depth and a visionary outlook toward upcoming changes.

105English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. A reason why people at school read books is to please their teacher. The teacher has said that this that or the other is a good book and that it is a sign of good taste to enjoy it. So a number of boys and girls anxious to please their teacher get the book and read it. Two or three of them may genuinely like it for their own sake and be grateful to the teacher for putting it in their way. But many will not honestly like it or will persuade themselves that they like it. And that does a great deal of harm. The people who cannot like the book run the risk of two things happening to them either they are put off the idea of the book- let us suppose the book was David Copperfield- either they are put off the idea of classical novels or they take a dislike to Dickens and decide firmly never to waste their time on anything of the sort again or they get a guilty conscience about the whole thing they feel that they do not like what they ought to like and that therefore there is something wrong with them. They are quite mistaken of course. There is nothing wrong with them. The mistake has all been on the teacher's side. What has happened is that they have been shoved up against a book before they were ready for it. It is like giving a young child food only suitable for an adult Result indigestion violent stomach- ache and a rooted dislike of that article of food evermore. The passage is about what ?
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Answer: (B) We should not do when we ask children to read.

Explanation

The passage highlights the negative consequences that occur when teachers pressure students to read books they are not yet ready for, specifically warning against this approach. Therefore, it focuses on what should not be done when encouraging children to read.

106English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. A reason why people at school read books is to please their teacher. The teacher has said that this that or the other is a good book and that it is a sign of good taste to enjoy it. So a number of boys and girls anxious to please their teacher get the book and read it. Two or three of them may genuinely like it for their own sake and be grateful to the teacher for putting it in their way. But many will not honestly like it or will persuade themselves that they like it. And that does a great deal of harm. The people who cannot like the book run the risk of two things happening to them either they are put off the idea of the book- let us suppose the book was David Copperfield- either they are put off the idea of classical novels or they take a dislike to Dickens and decide firmly never to waste their time on anything of the sort again or they get a guilty conscience about the whole thing they feel that they do not like what they ought to like and that therefore there is something wrong with them. They are quite mistaken of course. There is nothing wrong with them. The mistake has all been on the teacher's side. What has happened is that they have been shoved up against a book before they were ready for it. It is like giving a young child food only suitable for an adult Result indigestion violent stomach- ache and a rooted dislike of that article of food evermore. The writer says that teachers should?
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Answer: (C) Stop compelling children to read books recommended by them.

Explanation

The passage emphasizes that when teachers pressure students to read specific books to demonstrate good taste, it often results in psychological harm and a lifelong aversion to literature. The author notes that being shoved up against a book before one is ready leads to a rooted dislike of that material, much like physical indigestion from unsuitable food. By identifying the teacher's insistence as the mistake, the text suggests that teachers should refrain from forcing their own book recommendations on students, as this compulsion prevents genuine appreciation and creates a guilty conscience in those who are not yet prepared for such works.

107English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. A reason why people at school read books is to please their teacher. The teacher has said that this that or the other is a good book and that it is a sign of good taste to enjoy it. So a number of boys and girls anxious to please their teacher get the book and read it. Two or three of them may genuinely like it for their own sake and be grateful to the teacher for putting it in their way. But many will not honestly like it or will persuade themselves that they like it. And that does a great deal of harm. The people who cannot like the book run the risk of two things happening to them either they are put off the idea of the book- let us suppose the book was David Copperfield- either they are put off the idea of classical novels or they take a dislike to Dickens and decide firmly never to waste their time on anything of the sort again or they get a guilty conscience about the whole thing they feel that they do not like what they ought to like and that therefore there is something wrong with them. They are quite mistaken of course. There is nothing wrong with them. The mistake has all been on the teacher's side. What has happened is that they have been shoved up against a book before they were ready for it. It is like giving a young child food only suitable for an adult Result indigestion violent stomach- ache and a rooted dislike of that article of food evermore. According to the author many boys and girls read books to?
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Answer: (A) Win the favour of their teachers.

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that a primary reason students read specific books at school is to please their teacher. The author notes that many boys and girls are anxious to satisfy their teacher's expectations after being told that reading a particular book is a sign of good taste. This motivation to gain approval or meet the teacher's standards is synonymous with seeking to win the favour of their teachers.

108English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. A reason why people at school read books is to please their teacher. The teacher has said that this that or the other is a good book and that it is a sign of good taste to enjoy it. So a number of boys and girls anxious to please their teacher get the book and read it. Two or three of them may genuinely like it for their own sake and be grateful to the teacher for putting it in their way. But many will not honestly like it or will persuade themselves that they like it. And that does a great deal of harm. The people who cannot like the book run the risk of two things happening to them either they are put off the idea of the book- let us suppose the book was David Copperfield- either they are put off the idea of classical novels or they take a dislike to Dickens and decide firmly never to waste their time on anything of the sort again or they get a guilty conscience about the whole thing they feel that they do not like what they ought to like and that therefore there is something wrong with them. They are quite mistaken of course. There is nothing wrong with them. The mistake has all been on the teacher's side. What has happened is that they have been shoved up against a book before they were ready for it. It is like giving a young child food only suitable for an adult Result indigestion violent stomach- ache and a rooted dislike of that article of food evermore. The mistake has been on the teacher's side. Here the mistake refers to
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Answer: (D) Recommending them the books intended for adults.

Explanation

The author explains that the mistake on the teacher's side involves pushing students to read literature for which they are not yet intellectually or emotionally mature. This is explicitly compared to the act of giving a young child food that is only suitable for an adult. By recommending complex classical novels before a student is ready for them, the teacher causes the student to develop a rooted dislike for the material, much like the physical indigestion and stomach-ache caused by eating unsuitable food. The error lies in the mismatch between the level of the book and the developmental stage of the reader.

109English Comprehension
READ THE PASSAGE CAREFULLY AND CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER OUT OF THE FOUR ALTERNATIVES. A reason why people at school read books is to please their teacher. The teacher has said that this that or the other is a good book and that it is a sign of good taste to enjoy it. So a number of boys and girls anxious to please their teacher get the book and read it. Two or three of them may genuinely like it for their own sake and be grateful to the teacher for putting it in their way. But many will not honestly like it or will persuade themselves that they like it. And that does a great deal of harm. The people who cannot like the book run the risk of two things happening to them either they are put off the idea of the book- let us suppose the book was David Copperfield- either they are put off the idea of classical novels or they take a dislike to Dickens and decide firmly never to waste their time on anything of the sort again or they get a guilty conscience about the whole thing they feel that they do not like what they ought to like and that therefore there is something wrong with them. They are quite mistaken of course. There is nothing wrong with them. The mistake has all been on the teacher's side. What has happened is that they have been shoved up against a book before they were ready for it. It is like giving a young child food only suitable for an adult Result indigestion violent stomach- ache and a rooted dislike of that article of food evermore. Indigestion and violent stomach-ache will be the result if the child
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Answer: (A) Reads books not suitable for his age

Explanation

The author uses a simile to illustrate the negative consequences of forcing students to read literature for which they are not yet intellectually or emotionally prepared. By comparing the act of reading an unsuitable book to a child eating food meant for adults, the author identifies indigestion and violent stomach-ache as the metaphorical results of this mismatch. In the context of the passage, these physical ailments represent the mental distress and the lasting dislike for literature that occurs when a child reads books not suitable for their age or readiness.

110English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" We had a lot of difficulty
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Answer: (A) / in finding

Explanation

The idiomatic construction have difficulty is followed directly by a gerund (the -ing form of a verb) without the use of a preposition. In the phrase provided, the preposition in is considered redundant. While difficulty in finding is common in casual English, prescriptive grammar standards used in competitive examinations require the noun difficulty to be followed immediately by the gerund. This follows the same pattern as similar expressions such as have trouble or have a hard time, where the action is expressed directly as a gerund to show what was difficult to do.

111English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" patience as well as perseverance (a) / are necessary (b) / Tor success (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (B) b

Explanation

In English grammar, when two nouns or pronouns are joined by the phrase as well as, the verb must agree in number with the first subject mentioned. In this sentence, the first subject is patience, which is an uncountable singular noun. Consequently, the plural verb are is grammatically incorrect and should be replaced by the singular verb is to maintain proper subject-verb agreement. The addition of the second subject, perseverance, through the use of as well as does not make the subject plural for the purpose of verb conjugation.

112English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" The passer-by told us (a) / where was the marriage hall (b) and even led us to it. (c)/ No error (d)
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Answer: (B) b

Explanation

The error in part b involves the word order of an indirect question. In English grammar, when a question word such as where introduces a subordinate clause within a statement, the clause must follow the assertive word order of Subject + Verb rather than the interrogative order of Verb + Subject. Since the clause functions as the object of the verb told, the subject the marriage hall must precede the verb was. The inversion where was is only used in direct questions. Consequently, the correct construction is where the marriage hall was.

113English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" The increase in consumption is directly (a) / proportional to the increase (b)/in income, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (D) d

Explanation

The sentence is grammatically accurate and follows standard English syntax. The singular subject, The increase, correctly corresponds with the singular verb, is, ensuring proper subject-verb agreement. The phrase directly proportional to is the standard idiomatic expression used to describe a relationship where two variables change in tandem. Additionally, the prepositions are used correctly; the word in appropriately follows increase to define the scope of the change, while the word to is the required preposition to follow the adjective proportional. As the sentence contains no errors in structure, tense, or idiom, it is completely correct.

114English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" In Singapore (a) / my brother - in - law with his wife (b) / were present at the function, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (C) c

Explanation

When a singular subject is joined to another noun or pronoun by phrases such as with, along with, together with, as well as, or accompanied by, the verb must agree with the first subject. In this sentence, the principal subject is my brother-in-law, which is singular. The addition of the phrase with his wife does not change the number of the subject for grammatical purposes. Consequently, the plural verb were is grammatically incorrect and should be replaced by the singular verb was to ensure proper subject-verb agreement.

115English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" Scarcely had (a) / I arrived than (b) / the train left, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (B) b

Explanation

In English grammar, the negative adverbs scarcely, hardly, and barely are part of a correlative conjunction pair and must be followed by when or before to introduce the succeeding event. The word than is exclusively used as a correlative conjunction with no sooner. In this sentence, since the first part begins with scarcely, the use of than in part (b) is grammatically incorrect and should be replaced with when to properly connect the two clauses.

116English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" The reason why (a) / he was rejected (b) / was because he was too young, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (C) c

Explanation

The sentence structure starting with the reason why is a formal way of introducing a cause. In standard English grammar, it is considered redundant to use because immediately following the reason why or the reason is, as both expressions serve the same purpose of indicating causality. This error is known as a tautology. To maintain grammatical correctness and avoid redundancy, the word that should be used instead of because to link the reason to the explanation. Consequently, the clause should properly be phrased as was that he was too young.

117English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" Teachers of various schools (a) / met to discuss about (b) / how to improve the standard of English (c) /No error (d)
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Answer: (B) b

Explanation

The error lies in the use of the preposition about after the verb discuss. In English grammar, discuss is a transitive verb, meaning it directly acts upon an object without the requirement of a preposition. Adding about creates a redundancy that is grammatically incorrect. One discusses a topic, a problem, or a situation directly. Therefore, the phrase should simply be met to discuss how to improve the standard of English. The word about must be omitted to maintain standard grammatical rules.

118English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" His tradition – bound attitude
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Answer: (D) .

Explanation

The sentence His tradition-bound attitude had to be a constant source of dissatisfaction among the younger members of the family is grammatically sound and free of errors. The term tradition-bound functions correctly as a compound adjective modifying the noun attitude. The verbal construction had to be appropriately expresses a logical necessity or an inevitable consequence in a past context. Furthermore, the preposition among is used accurately to denote a distribution or relationship involving more than two individuals, specifically the younger members of the family. Each segment of the sentence maintains proper syntax and follows standard rules of English usage.

119English Comprehension
In the following sentence we need to find out which part of the sentence has error. If no error is there in the sentence give answer as "d" The two first to arrive
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Answer: (A) / were the lucky recipients

Explanation

In English grammar, when an ordinal number (such as first, second, or third) and a cardinal number (such as one, two, or three) are used together to qualify a noun, the ordinal number must always be placed before the cardinal number. This is known as the Ordinal-Cardinal (OC) word order rule. In the phrase The two first to arrive, the cardinal number two is incorrectly placed before the ordinal number first. The grammatically correct construction is The first two to arrive.

120English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. A person who _____ on his own effort has the best chance to win.
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Answer: (C) Relies

Explanation

The verb rely is idiomatically followed by the preposition on to mean depending on or putting trust in something. In this context, relying on one's own effort expresses the concept of self-reliance, suggesting that a person who trusts in their own capabilities and hard work rather than external factors has the highest probability of succeeding or winning.

121English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. When he died, Ramanujan _____ behind 3 notebooks.
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Answer: (B) Had left

Explanation

The Past Perfect tense is used to describe an action that was completed before another action or a specific time in the past. In this sentence, the act of leaving behind the notebooks is a completed state that existed at the moment Ramanujan died. By using had left, the sentence clearly indicates the sequence of events where the notebooks were already prepared and remained as his legacy prior to or at the exact point of his passing. This tense emphasizes the completion and the resulting state of the action in relation to the past event of his death.

122English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. For all his _____ he is a _____.
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Answer: (A) Wealth, miser

Explanation

The phrase "For all his..." is a concessive expression meaning "Despite all his...", which requires a contrast between the two qualities mentioned. Option A provides this contrast because it is ironic for someone with great wealth to live like a miser, whereas the other options are either redundant or lack a logical connection.

123English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. In a classroom students are to be trained to love ____
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Answer: (C) One another

Explanation

The sentence requires the use of a reciprocal pronoun to indicate a mutual relationship among the members of a group. In traditional English grammar, the pronoun one another is specifically used when referring to a group of more than two people. Because a classroom is a collective environment typically consisting of many students, one another is the grammatically appropriate choice to express the mutual love and cooperation intended within the entire group.

124English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. Mr. Amar put his whole life____ the work.
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Answer: (B) In

Explanation

The preposition in is used in this context to denote the investment or dedication of a resource—in this case, one's life—within a particular activity or endeavor. When used with the verb put, it signifies that the subject has committed his time, energy, and existence to the work, treating the work as the sphere or container for his life's efforts. This usage is common in phrasal constructions where someone is said to put effort or time in a task to show deep and continuous involvement.

125English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. All decisions____ are likely to be taken by consensus
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Answer: (D) However

Explanation

The word however functions as a conjunctive adverb or transition word used to introduce a contrast, qualification, or logical transition in relation to a preceding idea. When inserted into the middle of a sentence, it serves to refine the statement, indicating that the move toward consensus is a specific condition or result that stands in contrast to other possibilities or previous discussion. This usage ensures the sentence flows logically as part of a larger discourse, providing a complete and nuanced meaning to the decision-making process described.

126English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. Kumar____ boy swim across the sea for safety English
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Answer: (B) A 17 year old

Explanation

When a measurement or age is used as a compound adjective to modify a noun, the unit of measurement must be in its singular form. In this sentence, the phrase 17 year old acts as an adjective describing the noun boy. According to standard English grammar, when such a phrase precedes the noun it modifies, the plural suffix -s is dropped from the unit of time, making year the correct choice over years. The indefinite article a is used because the number 17 begins with a consonant sound (seventeen), and the phrase serves to provide a descriptive classification of the subject.

127English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. She is beautiful____ brave
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Answer: (B) But

Explanation

The coordinating conjunction but is employed to link two ideas that express a contrast or a surprising addition. In the sentence provided, beautiful and brave are treated as opposing or distinct qualities. While beauty is often traditionally associated with softness or physical appearance, bravery is associated with internal strength and valor. The use of but serves to emphasize that the individual possesses both traits, suggesting that being brave is a significant or perhaps unexpected accompaniment to being beautiful, thereby providing a specific rhetorical nuance to the description.

128English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. Gandhiji will____ in history as one of greatest man men, that ever live
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Answer: (C) Go down

Explanation

The phrasal verb go down is used idiomatically in the expression go down in history to mean being remembered, recorded, or celebrated by future generations for one's actions or importance. In this context, it signifies that Mahatma Gandhi's legacy and contributions are so significant that he will be permanently recognized and honored in historical records as one of the most influential figures to have ever lived.

129English Comprehension
Choose the correct option from given four alternatives which gives complete meaning to the sentence. All the applicants____ and the results will be announced next week
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Answer: (C) Are to be ranked

Explanation

The sentence requires a passive construction because the subject, All the applicants, is the recipient of the action rather than the performer. In formal English, the structure are to be followed by a past participle is used to indicate a scheduled arrangement or an official requirement for the future. Therefore, are to be ranked correctly conveys that the process of evaluating the applicants is a planned action that will precede the announcement of results next week.

130English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Successive
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Answer: (D) Consecutive

Explanation

The word successive refers to things following one another in an uninterrupted sequence or a continuous order. Consecutive is its direct synonym, as it describes following each other in an unbroken string without any gaps. Both terms are used to characterize events or items that occur one after the other in a chronological or logical series.

131English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Ravage
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Answer: (A) Destroy

Explanation

The word ravage means to cause extensive and severe damage or to lay waste to something, often resulting in total ruin. It implies a process of violent destruction or devastation, frequently applied to landscapes, cities, or objects during war or natural catastrophes. Destroy is the most accurate synonym because it describes the act of damaging something so severely that it ceases to exist or function, capturing the same intensity and outcome of being ravaged.

132English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Superstitious
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Answer: (C) Irrational

Explanation

The word superstitious refers to a belief or practice resulting from ignorance, fear of the unknown, or a false conception of causation. Such beliefs are not based on reason, logic, or scientific knowledge. Consequently, they are characterized as irrational because they lack a sound or logical basis. In linguistics and psychology, superstition is defined by the attribution of supernatural or magical significance to events without any empirical evidence to support the connection.

133English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Mentor
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Answer: (A) Guide

Explanation

The word mentor refers to an experienced and trusted adviser who trains and counsels a less experienced person. It originates from Greek mythology, where Mentor was the loyal friend and advisor of Odysseus. In modern English usage, a mentor acts as a source of wisdom and direction, providing support and advice to help another person develop their skills or character. This role is synonymous with a guide, as both terms describe an individual who leads, directs, or provides instructions and counsel to help someone navigate through a process or phase of learning.

134English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Garnish
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Answer: (B) Adorn

Explanation

The word garnish means to decorate or embellish something, typically food, to enhance its appearance. Similarly, the word adorn means to make something more beautiful or attractive by adding ornaments or decorative elements. Both terms are used in contexts where the primary objective is to improve the aesthetic quality of an object or person through the addition of supplementary features.

135English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Infructuous
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Answer: (D) Fruitless

Explanation

The word infructuous is derived from the Latin roots in- meaning not and fructus meaning fruit. It describes something that is unproductive, unprofitable, or failing to achieve the desired results despite the effort put in. In formal and legal contexts, it specifically refers to an action, petition, or endeavor that has become useless or ineffective. The term fruitless is its direct synonym as it also characterizes an attempt or situation that yields no positive outcome or remains unsuccessful.

136English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Fidelity
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Answer: (D) Loyalty

Explanation

Fidelity is derived from the Latin word fidelitas, meaning faithfulness. It refers to the quality of being faithful or devoted to a person, cause, or belief, characterized by constant support and the strict observance of promises or duties. This steadfastness in a relationship or commitment is most accurately defined by the term loyalty. In general English usage, particularly regarding personal or professional relationships, fidelity and loyalty are used interchangeably to describe the state of being true to one's word or obligations.

137English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Gruff
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Answer: (B) Rough

Explanation

The word gruff describes something that is low, harsh, or hoarse in sound, or someone who is blunt, surly, and abrupt in manner. In a linguistic context, it signifies a lack of smoothness or gentleness. The term rough serves as a direct synonym because it characterizes a voice that is discordant and harsh-sounding, as well as a temperament or behavior that is coarse, unrefined, or lacking in polish. Both words convey a sense of abrasive texture or tone whether applied to physical surfaces, auditory qualities, or personal disposition.

138English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Doleful
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Answer: (A) Mournful

Explanation

The word doleful is derived from the Latin root dolere, meaning to suffer or grieve. It describes a state of being full of grief, expressing deep sorrow, or appearing melancholy. Mournful is the most appropriate synonym because it specifically characterizes the feeling or expression of intense sadness and grief, capturing the exact essence of being doleful.

139English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given Word Fatal
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Answer: (B) Deadly

Explanation

The word fatal is an adjective that describes something capable of causing death or leading to a lethal outcome. It is often used in the context of accidents, illnesses, or injuries that result in a loss of life. The term deadly is a direct synonym because it specifically refers to something that is lethal or likely to cause death. Both words characterize an agent or event by its capacity to terminate life, making them interchangeable in sentences describing mortal consequences. Whether referring to a blow, a disease, or a weapon, both terms emphasize the inevitable or potential fatality associated with the subject.

140English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given word Candid
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Answer: (B) Frank

Explanation

The word candid means being truthful, straightforward, and honest. Frank is its most accurate synonym as it also describes someone who is open and direct in speech.

141English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given word Facilitate
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Answer: (A) Help

Explanation

Facilitate means to make an action or process easier, which is synonymous with help or assist. Option C is its antonym, meaning to obstruct or delay.

142English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the SAME meaning of the given word Criticise
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Answer: (C) Criticise

Explanation

The word criticise means to express disapproval of someone or something based on perceived faults or mistakes. It involves the act of evaluating or judging the merits and faults of a work or person. Since option c is the identical word, it perfectly expresses the same meaning and captures the specific semantic essence of the term. In the context of finding a synonym or a word with the same meaning, a word serves as its own exact equivalent.

143English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (C) Misdemour

Explanation

The word Misdemour is spelled incorrectly. The standard correct spelling is Misdemeanour in British English or Misdemeanor in American English. It refers to a minor wrongdoing or a criminal offense that is less serious than a felony. The spelling error in the option is the omission of the letters e, a, and n before the suffix. The word is derived from the prefix mis-, meaning badly, and demeanour, referring to outward behavior or conduct.

144English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (A) Harasment

Explanation

The word harassment is correctly spelled with a single r and a double s. It originates from the French verb harasser, and the standard English spelling maintains the double s ending of the root word harass before the addition of the suffix ment. The spelling provided in the option is incorrect because it lacks the second s required to form the correct consonant cluster.

145English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (D) Dalicious

Explanation

The word delicious is incorrectly spelled as dalicious in option D. The words auspicious (B) and fallacious (C) are spelled correctly. Option A, although appearing as caparacious due to a transcription error, is meant to be the correctly spelled word capacious.

146English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (C) Infaible

Explanation

The correct spelling of the word is Infallible. It is derived from the Latin term infallibilis, which combines the negative prefix in- with fallere, meaning to deceive or fail. In English, the root word fallible retains its double l structure. The spelling Infaible is incorrect because it fails to include the necessary double l consonants that connect the first syllable to the suffix -ible. This term is used to describe a person or thing that is incapable of making mistakes or is absolutely certain to be effective.

147English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (C) Mileu

Explanation

The word milieu is derived from the French words mi (middle) and lieu (place), referring to a person's social environment or surroundings. The correct spelling of the word requires an i after the l and another i before the u, resulting in the sequence m-i-l-i-e-u. The spelling provided in the option is incorrect because it omits the second i.

148English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (A) Existnce

Explanation

The word existence is derived from the Latin verb existere and follows the standard English pattern for words ending in the suffix -ence. The correct spelling is existence, which requires the letter e to be placed between the t and the n. The spelling provided, existnce, is incorrect because it omits this middle vowel.

149English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (C) Subservent

Explanation

The word Subservent is misspelled. The correct spelling of the word is subservient, which includes an i after the v. It is an adjective derived from the Latin root subservire, meaning to serve under. In English, the suffix -ient is used to form adjectives that indicate a state or condition, similar to words like obedient or lenient. Thus, the correct sequence of letters is s-u-b-s-e-r-v-i-e-n-t.

150English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (B) Frolcked

Explanation

The word frolicked is the past tense of the verb frolic. According to standard English spelling rules, when a suffix beginning with e, i, or y is added to a word ending in the letter c, a k must be inserted after the c to preserve the hard k sound. This prevents the c from being mispronounced as a soft s sound before the vowel. The spelling frolcked is incorrect because it omits the necessary vowel i from the root word and fails to correctly apply the k insertion rule following the letter c.

151English Comprehension
In each Group one word is not correctly spelt .Find out the not correctly spelt word.
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Answer: (D) Hestancy

Explanation

The word Hestancy is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is Hesitancy, which requires an i between the t and the a. This noun is derived from the verb hesitate and the suffix -ancy, which is used to denote a state, quality, or capacity. The spelling follows its etymological roots in the Latin verb haesitare, maintaining the vowel structure in the transition to the English noun form.

152English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. He didn't tell me directly, but "reading between lines". I think he is not happy with them
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Answer: (B) Understanding sense rather than actual words

Explanation

The idiom reading between the lines refers to the process of discovering a meaning that is not openly stated or is hidden within a communication. It involves looking beyond the literal or surface-level interpretation of words to understand the underlying message, subtext, or the true feelings of the speaker. By interpreting subtle clues, tone, and context, one gains a deeper understanding of the actual intent or sense of the message, even when it has not been expressed directly.

153English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. Gopi Works by "fits and starts"?
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Answer: (B) Irregularly

Explanation

The idiom by fits and starts refers to an activity that occurs in short, inconsistent bursts rather than in a steady or continuous manner. The word fit in this context implies a sudden, temporary period of activity or impulse, while start refers to a quick or abrupt beginning. When someone works by fits and starts, their progress is interrupted by frequent pauses and lack of a sustained rhythm, which characterizes the action as being performed irregularly. This expression has been used since the 17th century to describe sporadic effort or erratic patterns of behavior in various tasks.

154English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. I cannot "put up with" your misconducts any longer
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Answer: (D) tolerate

Explanation

The phrasal verb put up with means to endure, bear, or accept someone or something that is unpleasant, annoying, or difficult without complaining. In the context of the sentence provided, it signifies the speaker's inability to continue enduring or permitting the misconduct of the other person. Tolerate is the precise synonym for this idiom as it conveys the act of allowing or enduring something that one does not necessarily like or approve of.

155English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. I did not mind what he was saying, he was only "talking through his cat?"
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Answer: (A) Talking nonsense

Explanation

The expression talking through his cat is a variation of the established English idiom talking through one's hat. This idiom is used to describe a person who is speaking about a subject they know very little about or who is making statements that are foolish, unfounded, and lack any real substance. When someone is said to be talking through their hat, they are essentially speaking without logic or truth, which is synonymous with talking nonsense. The context of the sentence, where the speaker mentions not minding the remarks, confirms that the words being spoken were considered rubbish or not worth taking seriously.

156English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. He is so furious that he would "go through fire and water" to revenge himself on his foe
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Answer: (D) Undergo any risk

Explanation

The idiom "go through fire and water" means to experience or face any number of dangers, hardships, or risks in order to achieve a specific goal. It implies a person's total commitment and willingness to endure the most extreme conditions or perils. The phrase likely originates from ancient trials by ordeal, such as the ordeal of fire and the ordeal of water, where individuals had to survive dangerous physical tests to prove their innocence or resolve. In the given sentence, it highlights the subject's extreme determination to seek revenge despite any personal danger involved.

157English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. The watch dogs were asleep when bulls "ran riot"?
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Answer: (B) Acted without restraint

Explanation

The idiom run riot describes a situation where individuals or groups behave in a wild, violent, or uncontrolled manner, often leading to chaos or disorder. It signifies a complete lack of discipline or control, where actions are taken without any supervision or inhibition. In this context, the phrase indicates that the bulls acted with total freedom and lack of restraint because their movements were not being monitored or checked by the watch dogs.

158English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. In spite of the immense pressure exerted by the militants, the Government, has decided not to "give in."
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Answer: (B) Yield

Explanation

The phrasal verb give in means to cease resistance, surrender, or submit to pressure or demands after initially opposing them. In the context of the sentence, the government is facing intense pressure from militants but maintains its stance by refusing to surrender. The term yield directly corresponds to this meaning, as it signifies the act of giving way to arguments, demands, or pressure. It describes a situation where one party stops resisting the force or will of another, making it the most accurate synonym for the idiom used in this political and conflict-related context.

159English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. The younger and the old sat "cheek by jowl" in the large audience?
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Answer: (A) Very near

Explanation

The idiom cheek by jowl describes a state of being in close physical proximity or side by side. It is derived from the anatomical terms cheek and jowl, which refers to the lower part of the cheek or jaw, implying that individuals are so close that these parts of their faces are nearly touching. When used to describe a large audience, it indicates that people are sitting very near to one another, typically in a crowded or densely packed setting where there is minimal space between individuals.

160English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. We wanted to keep the gift as a surprise for mother but my sister "gave the game away."
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Answer: (B) Gave out the secret

Explanation

The idiom give the game away means to reveal a secret, a plan, or a trick, often unintentionally, such that the element of surprise is destroyed. In the context of the sentence, the gift was meant to be a surprise, but the sister's actions or words disclosed the secret to the mother. Therefore, the phrase is used when someone makes a concealment known to others.

161English Comprehension
In the given four alternatives choose one which gives the correct meaning to the quoted idiom/phrase in the sentence. I don't think law will interfere with us as we are just trying to "turn an honest penny".
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Answer: (A) Make a legitimate living

Explanation

The idiom turn an honest penny means to earn money through legal, fair, and legitimate means. It typically refers to making a living or gaining a profit by working hard or conducting business in an upright and honorable way, without resorting to deceit or unlawful activities. In the sentence provided, the expression indicates that the individuals are pursuing a lawful livelihood, which is why they do not expect any interference from legal authorities.

162English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives given below choose one word which can be substituted for the given word or sentence. One who collects coins
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Answer: (B) Numismatist

Explanation

A numismatist is a person who specializes in the study or collection of currency, including coins, tokens, paper money, and related objects. The term is derived from the Latin word numisma, meaning coin, and the Greek word nomisma, which refers to anything sanctioned by usage or custom, specifically currency. Collectors in this field often focus on the historical, artistic, and economic significance of coinage throughout different eras and civilizations.

163English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives given below choose one word which can be substituted for the given word or sentence. A system of government in which only one political party is allowed to function?
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Answer: (C) Totalitarianism

Explanation

Totalitarianism refers to a form of government that prohibits all opposition parties and exercises an extremely high degree of control over public and private life. It is characterized by the presence of a single political party that maintains absolute authority over the state apparatus. Under this system, the ruling party serves as the sole legitimate political entity, effectively outlawing the formation or functioning of any alternative political organizations. This centralization of power allows the state to enforce a specific ideology and demand total subservience from its citizens, ensuring that no competing political interests can challenge the established order.

164English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives given below choose one word which can be substituted for the given word or sentence. Customs and Traditions of a particular group?
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Answer: (A) Mores

Explanation

Mores are the essential or characteristic customs and conventions of a community or social group. The term refers to the collective social norms and moral standards that are accepted and practiced by a particular group as being fundamental to its welfare and social structure. These customs often carry significant moral weight and define the acceptable behaviors and traditional values that distinguish one specific group or society from another.

165English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives given below choose one word which can be substituted for the given word or sentence. A body of persons appointed to hear evidence and to give their Judgement
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Answer: (D) Jury

Explanation

A jury is a sworn body of people convened to render an impartial verdict officially submitted to them by a court. In legal proceedings, the members of a jury are specifically appointed to listen to the evidence presented by both parties, evaluate the facts of the case, and provide a formal judgment or verdict based on those facts and the instructions provided by a judge.

166English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives given below choose one word which can be substituted for the given word or sentence. Indifference to pleasure or pain
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Answer: (C) Stoicism

Explanation

Stoicism refers to the ability to endure pain or hardship without showing feelings or complaining. Derived from the ancient Greek school of philosophy founded by Zeno of Citium, the term characterizes an individual who remains unmoved by external events. It signifies a state of emotional detachment where one maintains a calm and rational mindset regardless of whether they are experiencing pleasure or suffering, effectively practicing self-control and fortitude in the face of all circumstances.

167English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. A lion does not eat grass, however hungry he may be
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Answer: (A) Grass is not eaten by a lion, however hungry he may be.

Explanation

The sentence follows the simple present tense structure in the active voice: Subject (A lion) + does not + Verb (eat) + Object (grass). To convert this into the passive voice, the object (grass) becomes the new subject, followed by the appropriate form of the verb to be (is) and the past participle of the main verb (eaten). The formula for the passive voice in simple present tense is Subject + is/am/are + not + V3 + by + Agent. Since grass is an uncountable singular noun, it takes is not eaten, and the agent a lion is introduced by the preposition by. The subordinate clause however hungry he may be remains unchanged as it functions as an adverbial modifier.

168English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. Someone saw him picking up a gun.
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Answer: (B) He was seen picking up a gun by someone

Explanation

The active voice sentence Someone saw him picking up a gun follows the structure of Subject + Verb (Past Tense) + Object + Present Participle Phrase. To convert this into the passive voice, the object him becomes the grammatical subject He. The simple past verb saw is transformed into the passive form was seen. The present participle phrase picking up a gun functions as an object complement and remains unchanged, following the main verb directly. Finally, the original subject someone is placed at the end of the sentence preceded by the preposition by to denote the agent. Thus, the passive construction is He was seen picking up a gun by someone.

169English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. He was obliged to resign.
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Answer: (C) Circumstances obliged him to resign.

Explanation

The original sentence is in the passive voice, and option C correctly converts it to the active voice by providing a logical subject, circumstances, to perform the action. Option B changes the grammatical structure into a statement about an obligation rather than a voice transformation.

170English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. Why did you not agree to my proposal?
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Answer: (D) Why was my proposal not agreed to by you?

Explanation

The original sentence is an interrogative sentence in the Simple Past tense, indicated by the auxiliary verb did. When converting a Simple Past interrogative sentence into passive voice, the structure follows the pattern Wh-word + was/were + new subject + not + past participle (V3) + preposition + by + agent. The verb agree is a prepositional verb that takes the preposition to in this context. In passive transformations, fixed prepositions must remain attached to the verb. Here, the object my proposal becomes the subject, the auxiliary was is used for a singular subject, and the preposition to is placed immediately after agreed. This results in the correct passive form: Why was my proposal not agreed to by you?

171English Comprehension
Find out the phrase which can correctly substitute the quoted of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required' or 'No improvement'. The driver was "dazzled" by the bright light of approaching car.
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Answer: (D) No improvement

Explanation

The verb dazzle is precisely used to describe the effect of a very bright light that causes a person to be unable to see clearly for a short time. In the context of road safety and driving, it is the standard term used when a driver's vision is temporarily impaired by the glare of headlights from an oncoming vehicle. Since the sentence accurately describes a common occurrence where intense light overwhelms the eyes, the word is used correctly both in meaning and in its grammatical passive form.

172English Comprehension
Find out the phrase which can correctly substitute the quoted of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required' or 'No improvement'. "What does it matter most" is the quality of the goods that we require.
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Answer: (C) what matters most

Explanation

In this sentence, the phrase starting with what functions as a noun clause serving as the subject of the main verb is. Noun clauses used as subjects follow assertive word order rather than interrogative word order. The auxiliary verb does is used for asking direct questions, but in a relative or nominal clause acting as a subject, the relative pronoun what itself acts as the subject of the subordinate verb matters. Therefore, the correct construction is what matters most, which properly introduces the subject of the sentence without the unnecessary auxiliary verb or the redundant pronoun it.

173English Comprehension
Find out the phrase which can correctly substitute the quoted of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required' or 'No improvement'. You called on me when I was not at home, "don't you?"
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Answer: (B) Didn't you?

Explanation

The sentence follows the rules of question tags. In English grammar, if the main clause is affirmative, the question tag must be negative. The main clause You called on me is in the simple past tense. For sentences in the simple past tense without an auxiliary verb, the auxiliary did is used to form the tag. Combining the negative particle and the auxiliary results in didn't. The subject pronoun of the tag must match the subject of the main clause, which is you. Therefore, the correct tag is didn't you.

174English Comprehension
Find out the phrase which can correctly substitute the quoted of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required' or 'No improvement'. He paid the caretaker for his "board" and lodging.
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Answer: (C) Boarding

Explanation

The phrase boarding and lodging is an idiomatic expression used to refer to the provision of both food and accommodation. Using boarding creates a parallel grammatical structure with the word lodging, as both terms function as gerunds within the sentence. This combined phrase is a standard way to describe a comprehensive living arrangement where a caretaker or landlord provides all necessary meals alongside a place to stay.

175English Comprehension
Find out the phrase which can correctly substitute the quoted of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required' or 'No improvement'. Can this machine be adopted "in" farm work.
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Answer: (B) Into

Explanation

The preposition into is used with the verb adopt to signify the incorporation or introduction of something into a specific environment, system, or field of activity. In this context, the sentence refers to the integration of a machine into the existing framework of agricultural operations. This usage indicates that the machine is being brought into the sphere of farm work to become a functional part of its processes, emphasizing the transition from an external tool to an internal component of the farming system.

176English Comprehension
In the question the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. 1. One of the most widely spread of bad habits P. which is now smoked of chewed by men Q. and even by children R. often by women S. is the use of tobacco 6. Almost all over the world.
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Answer: (A) SPRQ

Explanation

The introductory segment establishes the subject as a widespread bad habit, which necessitates a verb to complete the main clause. Part S provides this verb with the phrase is the use of tobacco, identifying the specific habit. Part P follows as a relative clause modifying tobacco, explaining that it is smoked or chewed by men. The sentence then logically expands on the users of tobacco by adding part R, which mentions it is used often by women, and finally part Q, which adds and even by children. This arrangement creates a cohesive list of consumers—men, women, and children—before concluding with the geographical context in part 6, which notes the global extent of the habit.

177English Comprehension
In the question the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. 1. The landscape p. with Nature displaying Q. here is awesome R. that, are seldom S. a range of delights 6. seen together
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Answer: (B) QPSR

Explanation

The sentence follows a logical grammatical progression beginning with the subject and its immediate predicate. The landscape (1) is qualified by the phrase here is awesome (Q), establishing the primary statement. This is followed by an explanatory phrase starting with the preposition with Nature displaying (P), which describes the condition of the landscape. The transitive participle displaying requires an object, which is supplied by a range of delights (S). This noun phrase is then modified by a relative clause beginning with the pronoun that, are seldom (R), where the plural verb are agrees with the plural noun delights. The sequence concludes naturally with the participle seen together (6), completing the passive construction. The full coherent sentence reads: The landscape here is awesome with Nature displaying a range of delights that, are seldom seen together.

178English Comprehension
In the question the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. 1. Smoke billowed up between the plants. P. Passengers were told to be, ready to quit the ship. Q. The rising gale fanned the shouldering fire. R. Everyone now knew there was a fire on board. S. Flames broke out here and there. 6. Most people bore the shock bravely.
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Answer: (D) QSRP

Explanation

The narrative follows a chronological progression from the first sign of danger to the emergency response. Statement 1 introduces the initial discovery of smoke. Part Q follows by explaining that the rising gale fanned the smouldering fire, which accounts for the transition from smoke to an active blaze. Part S describes the immediate result of the wind fanning the fire, as flames broke out in different places. Once the flames became visible, part R logically indicates that everyone on the ship became aware of the emergency. This general realization leads to part P, where the official instruction is given for passengers to prepare to evacuate. Finally, statement 6 concludes the sequence by describing how the passengers reacted to the shock of the fire and the subsequent evacuation order.

179English Comprehension
In the question the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. 1. It is far better to live for short time P. Contribution to the world Q. and make some some significant R. That is just ideal way S. then spend long time 6. In gossiping and playing
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Answer: (C) QPSR

Explanation

The sentence follows a comparative structure using the "better... than" (written as "then" in part S) format to contrast two lifestyles. The first half of the comparison is formed by 1, Q, and P, which states that it is better to live for a short time and make a significant contribution to the world.

The second half of the comparison begins with part S, which introduces the alternative of spending a long time. Parts R and 6 complete the sentence by describing that long duration as being spent in gossiping and playing. By following the sequence Q-P-S-R, the sentence logically groups the positive actions of living and contributing before contrasting them with the idle activities described in the latter portion. This arrangement ensures that the conjunction connects the two main clauses of the comparison effectively.

180English Comprehension
In the question the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. 1. The simon fish pushed themselves P. to return to their spawning grounds Q. and fertilised them R. But once they laid their eggs S. to their limits 6. They died
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Answer: (C) SPRQ

Explanation

The sentence structure follows a logical and chronological sequence of the salmon's life cycle. Part 1 "The simon fish pushed themselves" is naturally followed by part S "to their limits," completing the idiomatic phrase for extreme physical exertion. This effort is then explained by part P "to return to their spawning grounds," which provides the objective of their journey. Part R "But once they laid their eggs" transitions the narrative to the final stage of their migration, which is immediately followed by part Q "and fertilised them" to complete the biological process. This entire sequence leads logically to the finality of part 6 "They died," describing the post-spawning mortality characteristic of these fish.

181English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (1)
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Answer: (D) Huge

Explanation

Pythons are biologically characterized as some of the largest species of snakes in the world, with certain species like the Reticulated Python reaching lengths of over 20 feet. In a descriptive passage detailing their physical features and primitive evolutionary traits, the adjective huge accurately reflects their significant physical scale and mass compared to most other snake families. This size is a defining characteristic of the Boidae and Pythonidae families, which rely on their immense physical strength and constriction to subdue prey.

182English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (2)
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Answer: (A) Mostly

Explanation

The adverb mostly is used to describe the primary or usual habitat where pythons are located. Pythons are semi-aquatic reptiles that are predominantly found in humid environments such as marshes, swamps, and damp areas. In the context of the passage, which describes the general characteristics and typical living conditions of the species, mostly serves to indicate that these specific locations represent their standard and most frequent distribution in the wild. This word choice aligns with the factual nature of the text by highlighting the common environmental preferences of the snake.

183English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (3)
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Answer: (B) Jungles

Explanation

The passage describes the natural habitats where pythons are typically found. Biologically, pythons are native to the tropical and subtropical regions of Africa and Asia, where they predominantly inhabit dense forests and tropical rainforests. These environments, often referred to as jungles, provide the essential moisture, cover, and abundant prey necessary for their survival. The sentence structure lists marshes and damp places as primary habitats, which aligns with the ecological characteristics of a jungle ecosystem. Pythons are semi-aquatic to terrestrial snakes that favor areas with high humidity and thick vegetation to facilitate their ambush hunting style and to maintain their body temperature.

184English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (4)
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Answer: (C) Among

Explanation

The preposition among is used when referring to a position, status, or inclusion within a group or a collective set of more than two entities. In the context of this sentence, pythons are being categorized relative to the entire group of living snakes. Therefore, among is the grammatically correct choice to indicate that pythons are considered the most primitive members within that specific biological classification.

185English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (5)
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Answer: (B) Because

Explanation

The sentence establishes a causal relationship between the classification of pythons as primitive and their anatomical features. The clause following the blank provides the specific evidence for why they are considered the most primitive of living snakes, which is the retention of vestigial hind limbs from an earlier evolutionary stage. In English grammar, the subordinating conjunction because is used to introduce a statement that explains the reason for the preceding assertion. Therefore, it is the appropriate choice to link the evolutionary claim to its supporting biological fact.

186English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (6)
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Answer: (A) By gone

Explanation

The word bygone refers to something that belongs to an earlier time or a past age. In the context of biology and evolution, pythons are described as primitive because they retain vestigial structures, such as hind limbs, that are remnants of their evolutionary ancestors. The phrase bygone era is a standard idiomatic expression used to describe a period of time that has passed, making it the most appropriate choice to characterize the historical period from which these primitive traits originate.

187English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (7)
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Answer: (D) Of

Explanation

The preposition of is used to complete the standard idiomatic expression in the form of. This phrase is used to specify the particular shape, character, or manifestation that something takes. In the context of the passage, it links the noun form with the specific physical structures, horny claw-like spurs, indicating that these spurs are the actual substance or appearance of the retained hind limbs. This grammatical construction is standard for identifying the content or identity of a preceding noun.

188English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (8)
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Answer: (C) On

Explanation

The preposition on is the standard idiomatic usage when referring to positions relative to a central point or line, as in the phrase on either side of. In anatomical descriptions, structures located to the left and right of a specific organ or opening are described as being on either side to indicate their physical placement and contact with the body surface.

189English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (9)
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Answer: (A) The

Explanation

The word anus refers to a specific anatomical part of the python mentioned in the text. In English grammar, the definite article the is used before nouns that refer to specific body parts or unique physiological structures within a biological description. This identifies the particular organ belonging to the subject under discussion, making the definite article the grammatically correct choice for providing the necessary specificity in this context.

190English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. Python are (1) non- venomous snakes found (2) in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in (3) They are considered to be the most primitive (4) the living snakes, (5) they retain the hind limbs of a (6) era in the form (7) horny claw- like spurs, which are present (8) either side of (9) anus. These hind limbs are function less (10) female pythons. (10)
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Answer: (D) In

Explanation

The preposition in is used to denote inclusion within a specific group or category. In the context of biological descriptions, it indicates that a particular trait or condition exists within a specific class of organisms. Therefore, stating that hind limbs are functionless in female pythons correctly identifies the group where this physical characteristic is observed.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2B
  3. 3D
  4. 4D
  5. 5D
  6. 6C
  7. 7D
  8. 8B
  9. 9B
  10. 10B
  11. 11B
  12. 12D
  13. 13C
  14. 14C
  15. 15B
  16. 16A
  17. 17A
  18. 18D
  19. 19D
  20. 20C
  21. 21C
  22. 22B
  23. 23C
  24. 24C
  25. 25B
  26. 26C
  27. 27D
  28. 28D
  29. 29D
  30. 30A
  31. 31A
  32. 32C
  33. 33A
  34. 34D
  35. 35D
  36. 36A
  37. 37B
  38. 38B
  39. 39C
  40. 40D
  41. 41C
  42. 42C
  43. 43B
  44. 44C
  45. 45A
  46. 46B
  47. 47B
  48. 48C
  49. 49B
  50. 50D
  51. 51A
  52. 52C
  53. 53B
  54. 54B
  55. 55C
  56. 56A
  57. 57B
  58. 58C
  59. 59D
  60. 60A
  61. 61C
  62. 62C
  63. 63D
  64. 64C
  65. 65C
  66. 66B
  67. 67D
  68. 68C
  69. 69D
  70. 70C
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73C
  74. 74A
  75. 75A
  76. 76A
  77. 77C
  78. 78C
  79. 79B
  80. 80A
  81. 81D
  82. 82C
  83. 83A
  84. 84C
  85. 85A
  86. 86B
  87. 87A
  88. 88B
  89. 89B
  90. 90A
  91. 91C
  92. 92C
  93. 93A
  94. 94C
  95. 95D
  96. 96C
  97. 97D
  98. 98B
  99. 99A
  100. 100C
  101. 101B
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104B
  105. 105B
  106. 106C
  107. 107A
  108. 108D
  109. 109A
  110. 110A
  111. 111B
  112. 112B
  113. 113D
  114. 114C
  115. 115B
  116. 116C
  117. 117B
  118. 118D
  119. 119A
  120. 120C
  121. 121B
  122. 122A
  123. 123C
  124. 124B
  125. 125D
  126. 126B
  127. 127B
  128. 128C
  129. 129C
  130. 130D
  131. 131A
  132. 132C
  133. 133A
  134. 134B
  135. 135D
  136. 136D
  137. 137B
  138. 138A
  139. 139B
  140. 140B
  141. 141A
  142. 142C
  143. 143C
  144. 144A
  145. 145D
  146. 146C
  147. 147C
  148. 148A
  149. 149C
  150. 150B
  151. 151D
  152. 152B
  153. 153B
  154. 154D
  155. 155A
  156. 156D
  157. 157B
  158. 158B
  159. 159A
  160. 160B
  161. 161A
  162. 162B
  163. 163C
  164. 164A
  165. 165D
  166. 166C
  167. 167A
  168. 168B
  169. 169C
  170. 170D
  171. 171D
  172. 172C
  173. 173B
  174. 174C
  175. 175B
  176. 176A
  177. 177B
  178. 178D
  179. 179C
  180. 180C
  181. 181D
  182. 182A
  183. 183B
  184. 184C
  185. 185B
  186. 186A
  187. 187D
  188. 188C
  189. 189A
  190. 190D

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