Who is the athlete who set the maximum number (6) of the world records in span of 45 minutes?
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Answer: (B) Jesse Owens
Explanation
On May 25, 1935, Jesse Owens set three world records and tied a fourth within 45 minutes at the Big Ten Championships in Ann Arbor, Michigan. Because his records in the 220-yard dash and 220-yard low hurdles were also accepted for the 200-meter distances, he is often credited with establishing six world records during that brief period.
2General Awareness
Which of the following gases is present under pressure in soft drinks?
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Answer: (C) Carbon Dioxide
Explanation
Soft drinks are manufactured by dissolving carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas into the beverage under high pressure. This process follows Henry's Law, which states that the amount of dissolved gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the liquid. Under high pressure, the CO₂ reacts slightly with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which imparts a distinct sharp taste and acidic bite to the drink. Carbon dioxide is the preferred choice for carbonation because it is highly soluble in water, non-toxic, and creates the characteristic fizz and bubbles when the pressure is released upon opening the container.
3General Awareness
Who is the goal-keeper who played in five Football World Cup tournaments?
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Answer: (A) Antonio carbajal
Explanation
Antonio Carbajal, the legendary Mexican goalkeeper nicknamed El Cinco Copas, was the first player in football history to appear in five different FIFA World Cup tournaments. His record-setting career saw him represent Mexico in the 1950, 1954, 1958, 1962, and 1966 editions of the tournament. Carbajal maintained his position as the primary choice for the Mexican national team for sixteen years, showcasing remarkable longevity and consistency. While other players eventually reached the milestone of five World Cup appearances by the turn of the century, Carbajal remained the only goalkeeper to have achieved this feat within that timeframe.
4General Awareness
Typhoid fever is caused by?
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Answer: (B) Bacteria
Explanation
Typhoid fever is a systemic infection caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi. This pathogenic microorganism is typically transmitted via the fecal-oral route, occurring when an individual consumes food or water contaminated by the waste of an infected person or a chronic carrier. Upon entering the gastrointestinal tract, the bacteria invade the intestinal mucosa and enter the bloodstream, leading to symptoms such as sustained high fever, malaise, and abdominal pain. The identification of Salmonella Typhi as the causative agent allowed for the development of targeted antibiotic treatments and preventative measures such as improved sanitation and vaccination programs.
5General Awareness
Which of the following rivers flow in Germany?
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Answer: (C) Danube
Explanation
The Danube is the second-longest river in Europe and has its source in the Black Forest region of Germany. It is formed by the confluence of the Brigach and Breg rivers near Donaueschingen in the state of Baden-Wuerttemberg. The river flows eastward through southern Germany for approximately 687 kilometers, passing through major cities such as Ulm, Ingolstadt, Regensburg, and Passau. At Passau, it is joined by the Inn and Ilz rivers before it leaves German territory and enters Austria. It serves as a critical international waterway and a major geographical feature of the German landscape.
6General Awareness
The presence of a lion in the forest is essential in order to?
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Answer: (C) Save the Pastures from being over grazed
Explanation
The lion acts as an apex predator at the top of the food chain, playing a crucial role in maintaining ecological balance through top-down regulation. By preying on herbivores such as deer and other ungulates, lions keep herbivore populations within the carrying capacity of the environment. In the absence of such predators, herbivore populations would grow unchecked, leading to the rapid depletion of vegetation. This regulation prevents the exhaustion of plant resources and ensures that pastures and forest undergrowth are not destroyed by overgrazing, thereby preserving the health and sustainability of the entire ecosystem.
7General Awareness
The West to east extension of the Himalayas is from?
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Answer: (A) Indus George to Dhihanf George
Explanation
The Himalayan mountain system extends in a massive arc from the west to the east, bounded by two significant river gorges that mark its geological limits. In the west, the range starts at the Indus Gorge, where the Indus River cuts through the crust near the Nanga Parbat peak. In the east, the range ends at the Dihang Gorge, where the Brahmaputra River carves a deep valley as it turns sharply southward into the Indian plains. These two gorges represent the syntaxial bends of the Himalayas, where the mountain ranges undergo an abrupt change in strike from an east-west orientation to a north-south orientation. This extension covers a distance of approximately 2,400 kilometers across the northern part of the Indian subcontinent.
8General Awareness
Where is the Bandipur National Park?
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Answer: (C) Karnataka
Explanation
Bandipur National Park is situated in the Chamarajanagar district of the southern state of Karnataka. Established in 1974 under Project Tiger, it spans an area of approximately 874 square kilometers. It forms a crucial part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, which was the first biosphere reserve designated in India. The park is renowned for its diverse wildlife, including significant populations of Indian tigers, Asian elephants, and gaurs. It is physically contiguous with the Nagarhole National Park to the northwest, the Mudumalai National Park of Tamil Nadu to the south, and the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary of Kerala to the southwest, making it a vital corridor for migratory wildlife in the Western Ghats region.
9General Awareness
Most of the devastating earthquakes are usually caused by?
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Answer: (C) Collision Movement
Explanation
Collision movement refers to the tectonic interactions occurring at convergent plate boundaries where two lithospheric plates move toward each other. These zones are characterized by intense compressional forces that lead to the accumulation of massive amounts of elastic strain energy within the Earth's crust. When the stress along the fault planes or subduction zones overcomes the frictional resistance holding the plates in place, a sudden rupture occurs, releasing energy in the form of seismic waves. The most powerful seismic events, known as megathrust earthquakes, occur at these collision sites, such as the Himalayan belt and the subduction zones along the Pacific Ring of Fire. These tectonic movements are responsible for the vast majority of the world's highest-magnitude and most destructive earthquakes due to the sheer scale of the crustal displacement and energy release involved.
10General Awareness
Which one of the following has the highest wind velocity?
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Answer: (D) Tornado
Explanation
Tornadoes are characterized by the most intense and concentrated wind velocities of any atmospheric phenomenon. These small-scale, violent atmospheric vortices consist of a column of air rotating rapidly around a center of extremely low pressure. While their physical diameter is relatively small compared to larger storm systems, the pressure gradient within the vortex is incredibly steep. This allows tornadoes to generate wind speeds that can exceed 480 kilometers per hour in the most severe cases. These velocities are measured and categorized using the Fujita scale, where higher ratings represent the upper limits of wind speed achievable in the natural environment.
11General Awareness
The substance which does not expand on going from liquid state to solid state is?
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Answer: (C) Aluminium
Explanation
Most substances, including aluminium, contract when they solidify from a liquid state. In contrast, water, cast iron, and type metal (due to its antimony content) are known to expand upon freezing or solidification.
12General Awareness
A person standing on a railway platform listens to the whistles of arriving and departing trains. The whistle heard is
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Answer: (C) Of higher Pitch when trains arrives
Explanation
The Doppler effect describes the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer moving relative to the wave source. For a stationary observer and a source moving toward them at velocity vₛ, the observed frequency f' is calculated using the formula f' = f × (v)/(v - vₛ), where f is the emitted frequency and v is the speed of sound in the medium. Because the denominator v - vₛ is smaller than v, the perceived frequency f' is higher than the actual frequency produced by the train whistle. Since the pitch of a sound is directly determined by its frequency, the observer perceives a higher pitch as the train arrives. As the train passes and begins to depart, the relative motion changes direction, the formula shifts to f' = f × (v)/(v + vₛ), and the perceived frequency and pitch decrease.
13General Awareness
George Bernard Shaw, the great dramatist, was?
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Answer: (A) An irisin Man
Explanation
George Bernard Shaw was born on July 26, 1856, in Dublin, Ireland. Although he moved to London at the age of twenty to pursue his career as a writer and critic, he remained deeply connected to his Irish roots throughout his life. As a playwright, he became one of the most significant figures in 20th-century literature, winning the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1925. His upbringing in Dublin and his distinct perspective on British society often reflected his identity as an Irishman living in England.
14General Awareness
Holography is a technique of?
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Answer: (B) Recording a permanent, three dimensional multi color photograph
Explanation
Holography is a technique that records the light field of an object to reconstruct a three-dimensional image. Unlike standard photography, which captures a two-dimensional representation, holography preserves both intensity and phase information to provide a 3D view.
15General Awareness
The Bahmani kingdom was founded by?
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Answer: (B) Alauddin Hassan
Explanation
Alauddin Hassan Bahman Shah, originally known as Zafar Khan, founded the Bahmani kingdom in 1347. He was a military commander who led a successful revolt against the authority of Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq of Delhi in the Deccan. Upon his coronation, he adopted the title Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah and established his capital at Gulbarga. His reign initiated the first independent Islamic state in Southern India, which remained a dominant power in the Deccan for nearly two centuries. He is credited with consolidating the administration by dividing the kingdom into four distinct provinces called tarafs, each governed by a loyal noble.
16General Awareness
The Dilwara temple at Mount Abu in Rajasthan were built by the followers of?
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Answer: (B) Jainism
Explanation
The Dilwara temples are a group of five world-famous marble structures located near Mount Abu in Rajasthan, constructed between the 11th and 13th centuries AD. These temples were commissioned by the Solanki rulers and their ministers, notably Vimal Shah and the brothers Vastupal and Tejpal. Each of the five shrines is dedicated to a specific Tirthankara, such as the Vimal Vasahi temple dedicated to Lord Rishabhanatha and the Luna Vasahi temple dedicated to Lord Neminatha. The site is renowned for its exceptional architectural beauty and delicate marble carvings on the ceilings, doorways, and pillars, representing the pinnacle of Maru-Gurjara architecture and serving as a major pilgrimage destination for the Jain community.
17General Awareness
In the third Battle of Panipat, the Marathas were defeated by
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Answer: (A) The Afghans
Explanation
The Third Battle of Panipat was fought on 14 January 1761 between the Maratha Empire and the invading Afghan forces led by Ahmad Shah Durrani, also known as Ahmad Shah Abdali. The Afghan army was supported by regional allies including the Rohilla Afghans and the Nawab of Awadh. The Maratha forces, commanded by Sadashivrao Bhau, suffered a decisive defeat due to several factors, including the Afghans superior artillery and the effective use of camel-mounted swivel guns known as zamburaks. This major military engagement resulted in heavy casualties on both sides and effectively halted the northward expansion of the Maratha Empire, significantly altering the political trajectory of the Indian subcontinent during the 18th century.
18General Awareness
Sati was prohibited by?
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Answer: (C) Lord William Bentinck
Explanation
Lord William Bentinck, serving as the Governor-General of India, enacted the Bengal Sati Regulation (Regulation XVII) on December 4, 1829. This law formally abolished the practice of Sati across all jurisdictions of the East India Company, declaring the burning or burying alive of Hindu widows to be illegal and punishable by criminal courts as culpable homicide. Bentinck took this decisive step after being heavily influenced by the persistent campaigning of Indian social reformers, most notably Raja Ram Mohan Roy, who argued that the practice had no Vedic sanction. The regulation was initially applicable to the Bengal Presidency and was extended to the Madras and Bombay Presidencies in 1830, marking a major milestone in the social reform movement of 19th-century India.
19General Awareness
What amidst the following is not true of the general electoral roll prepared through the agency of the Election Commission? It is to be used for elections to the?
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Answer: (D) State Legislative councils
Explanation
The general electoral roll is prepared under the superintendence, direction, and control of the Election Commission of India primarily for elections based on universal adult suffrage as stipulated in Article 326 of the Constitution. This roll is utilized for direct elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies. For local body elections, including Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalika institutions, the State Election Commissions typically adopt the general electoral roll prepared by the Election Commission of India to avoid duplication of administrative efforts. However, the State Legislative Councils are elected through specialized electoral colleges as defined under Article 171. These elections involve specific categories of voters, such as graduates, teachers, and members of local authorities, which require the preparation of distinct and separate electoral rolls tailored to those specific qualifications rather than the use of the general electoral roll.
20General Awareness
Which of the following categories of citizens of the prescribed age may be registered as a voter?
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Answer: (A) Bankrupt
Explanation
Under the Constitution of India (Article 326) and the Representation of the People Act, 1950 (Section 16), a citizen is disqualified from being a voter only on grounds of unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt and illegal practices. Bankruptcy (insolvency) is a disqualification for becoming a Member of Parliament or a State Legislature (under Articles 102 and 191), but it does not disqualify a citizen from being registered as a voter. Non-resident citizens (NRIs) were not eligible to register as voters until the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2010.
21General Awareness
What is 'Barak'?
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Answer: (C) A ship based missile system
Explanation
Barak is an Israeli-developed surface-to-air missile system designed specifically for naval use as a point-defense shield. Developed by Israel Aerospace Industries and Rafael, the Barak-1 system was acquired by the Indian Navy around 2000-2001 to protect its frontline warships, including the aircraft carrier INS Viraat and various frigates, from incoming sea-skimming anti-ship missiles and aerial threats. It utilizes a vertical launch system and a command-to-line-of-sight radar guidance mechanism to intercept targets at short ranges, providing a critical layer of defense for naval assets.
22General Awareness
Who is the latest 'Bharat Ratna' award among the following who had performed at the historic function at the Red Fort on the 15th August, 1947?
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Answer: (B) Ustad Bismillah Khan
Explanation
Ustad Bismillah Khan was the legendary Shehnai maestro who performed at the Red Fort on August 15, 1947, following an invitation from Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to herald India's independence. He played Raag Kafi from the ramparts of the fort, a performance that became a symbolic part of the first Independence Day celebrations. He was awarded India's highest civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna, in 2001, which distinguished him as the most recent recipient of the award among the individuals who performed at that specific historic function.
23General Awareness
Who is the Chairperson of the United Nations Human Rights Committee?
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Answer: (C) P.N. Bhagwat
Explanation
Justice P.N. Bhagwati was elected as the Chairperson of the United Nations Human Rights Committee in 2001, serving until 2003. While Mary Robinson was a prominent figure at the time, she held the position of UN High Commissioner for Human Rights, which is a separate role from the Chairperson of the Committee.
24General Awareness
What is "NMD"?
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Answer: (C) Space Based missile system by USA
Explanation
NMD stands for National Missile Defense, which was a high-profile military program in the United States around 2001 designed to protect the country from ballistic missile attacks using ground-based and space-based technologies. This defense initiative was a major topic in international relations and security during that period.
25General Awareness
Under which Act/Policy was the BIFR established?
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Answer: (C) Sick Industries Act
Explanation
The Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) was established in January 1987 under the provisions of the Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provisions) Act, 1985 (SICA). This legislation was enacted to identify sick and potentially sick industrial companies and to ensure the timely detection of industrial sickness. The BIFR served as a quasi-judicial body responsible for examining the viability of such companies and providing necessary measures for their revival and rehabilitation through financial restructuring, management changes, or mergers. In cases where a company was deemed beyond recovery, the BIFR had the authority to recommend its closure or liquidation to the concerned High Court.
26General Awareness
The theory of distribution relates to which of the following?
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Answer: (C) The distribution of factor payments
Explanation
The theory of distribution in economics, specifically known as functional distribution, refers to how national income is divided among the various factors of production—land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship—in the form of rent, wages, interest, and profit. Therefore, it is directly concerned with the determination of factor payments.
27General Awareness
If an industry is characterised by economies of scale then?
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Answer: (B) Long run units costs of products decreases as the quantity the firm produces increases
Explanation
Economies of scale refer to the cost advantages that a business obtains due to its scale of operation, where the cost per unit of output generally decreases with increasing scale as fixed costs are spread out over more units of output. This relationship is reflected in the downward-sloping portion of the long-run average cost (LRAC) curve. Mathematically, if TC represents total cost and Q represents the quantity of output, the average cost AC = TC/Q decreases as Q increases. These efficiencies typically arise from factors such as increased specialization of labor, technical improvements in large-scale machinery, and the ability to negotiate lower prices for bulk purchases of raw materials. As the firm expands its capacity and production volume in the long run, the resultant efficiency gains lead to a reduction in the per-unit cost of production.
28General Awareness
Say's Law of Market holds that?
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Answer: (B) Supply creates its own supply
Explanation
Say's Law of Markets is a fundamental principle of classical economics formulated by Jean-Baptiste Say. It posits that the act of producing goods and services generates an equivalent amount of income for the factors of production involved, such as wages for labor, rent for land, and profit for entrepreneurs. This income, in turn, provides the necessary purchasing power to buy the products that have been brought to the market. Consequently, the total supply in an economy constitutes the source of its own aggregate demand. Under this law, a general glut or overproduction is considered impossible in the long run because every increase in supply naturally leads to a corresponding increase in demand, ensuring that the circular flow of income remains balanced.
29General Awareness
Movement along the same demand curve is known as?
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Answer: (A) Extension and contraction of Demand
Explanation
Movement along the same demand curve occurs due to a change in the price of the commodity itself, which is termed as extension or contraction of demand. In contrast, an increase or decrease in demand refers to a shift of the entire demand curve caused by factors other than price.
30General Awareness
Speed of wind is measured by?
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Answer: (D) Anemometer
Explanation
An anemometer is a meteorological instrument specifically designed to measure wind speed and pressure. The name is derived from the Greek word anemos, which means wind. The most common type is the cup anemometer, which consists of several hemispherical cups mounted on horizontal arms attached to a vertical shaft. When wind blows, it exerts pressure on the cups, causing the shaft to rotate at a rate directly proportional to the wind velocity. This mechanical rotation is then translated into a speed reading, such as knots or kilometers per hour, providing essential data for weather forecasting and navigation.
31General Awareness
Which one is not a non-conventional energy source?
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Answer: (A) Nuclear Energy
Explanation
Nuclear energy is classified as a conventional energy source because it relies on the fission of finite mineral resources such as uranium and thorium, which are non-renewable. Unlike non-conventional sources that are generally renewable and inexhaustible, nuclear power utilizes established industrial technology and has been part of the large-scale commercial energy grid for several decades. Conventional energy sources are defined as those that have been in common use for a long period and are based on depletable stocks, whereas non-conventional sources refer to alternative and renewable energies like solar, wind, and tidal power that were developed later as sustainable substitutes.
32General Awareness
Which of the following blood group is a universal recipients?
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Answer: (C) AB
Explanation
Blood group AB is characterized by the presence of both A and B antigens on the surface of red blood cells and the total absence of anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the blood plasma. Because these individuals lack the antibodies that would typically attack foreign A or B antigens, their immune system does not initiate a defensive response against transfused red blood cells from any other group in the ABO system. This lack of reactive antibodies prevents agglutination, allowing individuals with type AB blood to safely receive blood transfusions from any donor.
33General Awareness
Where are the 'Todas' found?
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Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu
Explanation
The Toda people are a small pastoral tribal community who have inhabited the Nilgiri plateau in the state of Tamil Nadu for centuries. They are traditionally known for their buffalo-centered culture, where the care of sacred herds and the management of dairies form the core of their social and religious life. Their unique settlements, known as munds, consist of distinctive barrel-vaulted houses made of cane and bamboo. The Todas speak a Dravidian language and are well-known for their intricate red and black embroidery on white unstitched shawls, a craft that is indigenous to their community in the Nilgiri Hills.
34General Awareness
A special type of well in which water rises automatically under the pressure of a column of water to the ground surface through a hole is known as?
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Answer: (A) Artesian well
Explanation
An artesian well is formed when a well is drilled into a confined aquifer where the hydrostatic pressure from the water column causes the water to rise to the surface naturally without pumping. This differs from geysers or hot springs, which are driven by geothermal heat and steam pressure.
35General Awareness
The soil water which is of the greatest importance to the plant life is?
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Answer: (B) Capillary water
Explanation
Capillary water is the primary source of water for plants because it is held in soil pores against the force of gravity and is easily absorbed by plant roots. Gravitational water drains away too quickly, while hygroscopic and combined water are held too tightly by soil particles for plants to access.
36General Awareness
Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English alphabet S?
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Answer: (C) Atlantic ocean
Explanation
The Atlantic Ocean is widely recognized for its distinctive S-shape, which is formed by the parallel coastlines of the surrounding continents. Its longitudinal basin is bounded to the west by the Americas and to the east by Europe and Africa, creating a curved, sigmoidal profile that stretches from the Arctic in the north to the Southern Ocean in the south. This shape is a direct consequence of plate tectonics and the rifting process that began with the fragmentation of the supercontinent Pangea. As the continents drifted apart, the resulting ocean floor mirrored the jagged and curved lines of the continental margins, a feature further reinforced by the path of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
37General Awareness
Rod shaped bacteria is called?
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Answer: (A) Ballicus
Explanation
The term Bacillus, represented in the options as Ballicus, refers to a category of bacteria characterized by their rod-like or cylindrical morphology. This classification is based on the microscopic appearance of the cell. These organisms are elongated and stick-shaped, often found as single cells, in pairs, or in long chains. They represent one of the primary morphological groups in microbiology, with well-known examples including the genus Bacillus and Escherichia coli.
38General Awareness
The Montreal Protocol 1987 refers to?
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Answer: (D) Saving Ozone layer from its destruction
Explanation
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is an international treaty adopted on September 16, 1987, designed to protect the Earth's stratospheric ozone layer. It focuses on the mandatory phase-out of the production and consumption of various ozone-depleting substances, most notably chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons. These chemicals, when released into the atmosphere, undergo photodissociation to release chlorine and bromine atoms that catalyze the destruction of ozone molecules. By limiting these emissions, the protocol aims to prevent the thinning of the ozone shield, which serves as a vital filter against harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. It was established as a follow-up to the 1985 Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and is widely regarded as one of the most successful international environmental agreements.
39General Awareness
The colour of loamy soil is?
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Answer: (C) Yellowish brown
Explanation
Loamy soil is a balanced mixture of sand, silt, and clay that typically exhibits a yellowish-brown color due to its mineralogical composition and drainage properties. The specific hue is largely influenced by the presence of iron oxides, particularly goethite (FeO(OH)), which develops in well-aerated environments where oxygen is readily available. This coloration serves as an indicator of a well-drained soil profile that is rich in nutrients and organic matter, providing an ideal environment for plant growth. In agricultural science, this yellowish-brown appearance distinguishes healthy loams from soils with poor drainage or different mineral concentrations.
40General Awareness
The animal which has become extinct recently in India happens to be?
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Answer: (B) cheetah
Explanation
The Asiatic Cheetah was officially declared extinct in India in 1952, whereas the other animals listed in the options still exist in various parts of the country. At the time of the 2001 exam, the Cheetah was the most prominent example of a recently extinct large mammal in India.
41General Awareness
The production of Onion is highest in?
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Answer: (C) Maharashtra
Explanation
Maharashtra has consistently been the leading producer of onions in India, maintaining the top rank for several decades including the period around 2001. The state possesses ideal agro-climatic conditions for onion cultivation, particularly in the western and northern belts. Key districts such as Nashik, Ahmednagar, Pune, and Solapur contribute the bulk of the production. Nashik, in particular, is known as the onion capital of India due to its massive output and the presence of the Lasalgaon market, which is one of the largest onion markets in Asia. By the year 2001, Maharashtra accounted for a significant portion of the total national onion production, making it the primary supplier for both domestic consumption and international exports.
42General Awareness
All the progeny obtained from a single plant by vegetative propagation are called?
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Answer: (A) Clones
Explanation
Progeny obtained from a single plant through vegetative propagation are genetically identical to the parent and are known as clones. Other terms like pure lines or inbred lines involve sexual reproduction and selfing to achieve genetic uniformity.
43General Awareness
The maximum permissible gap between two sessions of the Parliament is?
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Answer: (D) 6 Months
Explanation
Article 85(1) of the Constitution of India stipulates that the President shall summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit. The constitutional provision further mandates that six months shall not intervene between the last sitting of the Parliament in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. This requirement ensures that the Parliament meets at least twice a year to fulfill its legislative and deliberative functions, maintaining regular parliamentary oversight over the government.
44General Awareness
The system of judicial review originated in?
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Answer: (D) USA
Explanation
The system of judicial review originated in the United States of America. It was first established by the US Supreme Court in the landmark case of Marbury v. Madison in 1803. Chief Justice John Marshall ruled that the judiciary has the power to review the constitutionality of legislative acts and to strike down laws that are inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution. This principle is rooted in the concept of a written constitution being the supreme law of the land, as suggested by the Supremacy Clause in Article VI of the US Constitution. While the Constitution does not explicitly use the term judicial review, the Marbury v. Madison decision solidified the judiciary's role as the protector of the Constitution and the final arbiter of legal validity.
45General Awareness
Right to vote is mentioned in the parts of the Constitutional relating to?
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Answer: (D) Election
Explanation
The right to vote in India is established by Article 326 of the Constitution, which is located within Part XV, titled Elections. This article specifies that elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies shall be conducted on the basis of adult suffrage. It grants every citizen who is at least 18 years of age the entitlement to be registered as a voter, provided they are not disqualified by law on grounds such as non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime, or corrupt practices. The voting age was notably reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988. Because the explicit constitutional provision creating the mandate for adult suffrage is housed within the section dedicated to the conduct and regulation of the electoral process, the right to vote is intrinsically linked to the constitutional part relating to Elections.
46General Awareness
A law can be enacted, or executive order issued, even contrary to Article 19 during proclamation of emergency?
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Answer: (A) Caused by war or external aggression
Explanation
Article 358 of the Indian Constitution provides for the automatic suspension of the fundamental rights guaranteed by Article 19 when a Proclamation of Emergency is made under Article 352. However, following the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, this suspension is specifically limited to cases where the National Emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression, categorized as an external emergency. During such a period, the State is empowered to enact any law or take any executive action that may be inconsistent with the freedoms granted by Article 19. Such laws or orders cannot be challenged in a court of law on the ground that they violate Article 19 for the duration of the emergency.
47General Awareness
Boyle's Law holds good for any gas at?
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Answer: (A) High temperature and low pressures
Explanation
Boyle's Law applies to ideal gases, and real gases behave most ideally at high temperatures and low pressures. Under these conditions, intermolecular forces are negligible and the gas particles occupy a volume that is small relative to the container.
48General Awareness
An ice block with a piece of lead embedded in it floats in water. If ice melts the water level?
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Answer: (B) Falls
Explanation
When the ice block floats, it displaces a volume of water equal to the combined weight of the ice and the lead piece. Once the ice melts, the lead sinks because its density is greater than that of water, displacing only its actual volume rather than a volume proportional to its weight; since the volume of lead is less than the volume of water equivalent to its weight, the total water level falls.
49General Awareness
The velocity of heat radiation in vacuum is?
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Answer: (A) Equal to the light
Explanation
Heat radiation, often referred to as thermal radiation, is a type of electromagnetic radiation primarily situated in the infrared portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. According to the principles of classical electrodynamics, all electromagnetic waves propagate through a vacuum at a constant speed, regardless of their frequency or wavelength. This universal constant is the speed of light, denoted as c, which is approximately 299,792,458 meters per second. Since visible light and heat radiation are both manifestations of the same physical phenomenon—electromagnetic waves—they travel at the exact same velocity in a vacuum.
50General Awareness
Trade winds are due to?
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Answer: (B) Convection
Explanation
Trade winds are a result of atmospheric convection, which is the transfer of heat through the bulk movement of air. Intense solar radiation at the equator heats the Earth's surface, causing the overlying air to warm, expand, and rise, creating a region of low pressure known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone. As this air rises, it moves toward the poles in the upper atmosphere, eventually cooling and sinking at approximately 30 degrees latitude to form subtropical high-pressure belts. The air then flows along the surface from these high-pressure regions back toward the equatorial low-pressure zone to replace the rising air. This large-scale vertical and horizontal circulation of air, driven by temperature-induced density differences, constitutes a convective cell called the Hadley Cell, and the surface component of this cell forms the trade winds.
51General Awareness
What inspired the paintings of Ajanta?
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Answer: (A) Compassionate Buddha
Explanation
The Ajanta Caves are a collection of rock-cut Buddhist monuments dating from approximately the 2nd century BCE to the 5th century CE. The mural paintings and sculptures found within these caves are primarily dedicated to the life and teachings of Gautama Buddha. They depict various episodes from the Buddha's life as well as the Jataka tales, which describe his previous incarnations. The art reflects the Mahayana Buddhist tradition, emphasizing the ideals of compassion and the role of Bodhisattvas, such as Padmapani and Vajrapani, who represent mercy and spiritual power. These paintings were created to serve as visual aids for meditation and to convey the virtues of the Buddha, making his compassionate nature the central inspiration for the entire artistic complex.
52General Awareness
The Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is located in?
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Answer: (D) Jammu Kashmir
Explanation
The Jawahar Tunnel, also known as the Banihal Tunnel, is situated in the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Constructed between 1954 and 1956, it serves as a critical infrastructure link on National Highway 1A, connecting the Jammu region with the Kashmir Valley across the Pir Panjal Range. The tunnel was designed to bypass the snow-bound Banihal Pass, ensuring all-weather connectivity throughout the year. At the time of its completion and for several decades including 2001, it was considered India's largest and longest road tunnel, measuring approximately 2.85 kilometers in length.
53General Awareness
Ozone-hole in the atmosphere is largely caused by the presence of?
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Answer: (C) Chlorofluorocarbon
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are highly stable compounds consisting of chlorine, fluorine, and carbon. When these chemicals are released into the atmosphere, they eventually drift into the stratosphere, where they are dissociated by intense ultraviolet radiation. This process releases free chlorine atoms that act as catalysts in the destruction of ozone (O₃). A single chlorine atom can react with an ozone molecule to form chlorine monoxide and molecular oxygen (O₂), and through subsequent reactions, the chlorine atom is regenerated to repeat the cycle. This catalytic chain reaction allows one chlorine atom to destroy thousands of ozone molecules, leading to the significant thinning of the ozone layer known as the ozone hole.
54General Awareness
What is USP in marketing field?
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Answer: (D) Exclusive marketing features
Explanation
USP stands for Unique Selling Proposition, which refers to the specific and unique features of a product that differentiate it from competitors. It is a marketing strategy used to highlight why a product is better than others in the same category.
55General Awareness
What is the maximum amount of investment in the shares of debentures of notified companies like the ICICI, the IDBI etc. That will entitle a rebate in income tax up to 20% of the amount invested?
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Answer: (A) 80000
Explanation
Under Section 88 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, as it stood for the assessment year 2001-02, taxpayers were eligible for a tax rebate on investments made in specified instruments. The overall ceiling for investment that qualified for this rebate was ₹80,000. This maximum limit was structured to include a general investment limit of ₹60,000 for standard savings like the Public Provident Fund (PPF) and Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) premiums, supplemented by an additional dedicated limit of ₹20,000 for investments in infrastructure bonds, or the shares and debentures of notified public financial institutions like ICICI and IDBI. Because these notified infrastructure investments were also eligible under the general investment category, an individual could utilize the entire ₹80,000 limit through these specific instruments to receive a rebate of 20% on the total invested amount, provided their taxable income did not exceed the thresholds requiring a lower rebate rate.
56General Awareness
Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated fund of India?
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Answer: (C) Finance Commission
Explanation
Article 280 of the Constitution of India mandates the constitution of a Finance Commission by the President every five years or earlier. According to Article 280(3)(b), it is the specific duty of the Finance Commission to make recommendations to the President regarding the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India. These grants are provided under Article 275 to those States which are in need of assistance, and the Commission determines the eligibility and the quantum of such assistance based on its assessment of the fiscal requirements of the states.
57General Awareness
RBI does not transact the business of which of the following state governments?
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Answer: (C) J | K
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India serves as the banker to the State Governments under the provisions of Section 21A of the RBI Act, 1934, which requires a formal agreement between the bank and the respective state. In 2001, Jammu and Kashmir was the state that had not entered into such an agreement for its general banking business. Due to the special autonomous status granted to the state under Article 370 of the Constitution of India, the Jammu and Kashmir Bank Limited acted as the designated agent for the state government financial transactions, including the custody of cash balances and the management of public debt. The transition to the RBI conducting the state banking business only occurred much later, in April 2011.
58General Awareness
What is the longest mountain range in the world above sea level?
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Answer: (A) Andes Mountains
Explanation
The Andes Mountains, stretching approximately 7,000 kilometers along the western coast of South America, is the longest continental mountain range in the world. While the Himalayas are the highest mountain range, they are significantly shorter in total length at about 2,400 kilometers.
59General Awareness
Which of the following rivers makes an estuary?
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Answer: (D) Narmada
Explanation
Narmada is a west-flowing river that flows through a rift valley and empties into the Arabian Sea, forming an estuary rather than a delta. In contrast, the Krishna, Mahanadi, and Godavari rivers flow eastward and form large deltas along the Bay of Bengal coast.
60General Awareness
The term Roaring forties is related to the?
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Answer: (C) Wester lines
Explanation
The Roaring Forties are strong, persistent winds found in the Southern Hemisphere, typically between the latitudes of 40° S and 50° S. These winds are a major component of the global atmospheric circulation belt known as the Westerlies. In the Southern Hemisphere, the absence of large continental landmasses at these latitudes results in minimal surface friction, allowing the winds to attain great speeds and consistency compared to their Northern Hemisphere counterparts. During the Age of Sail, these winds were vital for ships traveling the Brouwer Route and the Clipper Route, providing the necessary force to propel vessels rapidly across the Southern Ocean toward the East Indies and Australasia.
61General Awareness
Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?
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Answer: (A) Attorney General of India
Explanation
Under Article 88 of the Indian Constitution, the Attorney General of India has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which they may be named a member. As the highest law officer in the country, the Attorney General provides legal counsel to the government and assists the legislature in understanding complex legal implications of proposed bills. While the Attorney General is not a member of Parliament, this constitutional provision grants them the same privileges and immunities as a Member of Parliament during these proceedings, with the specific exception that they do not have the right to vote.
62General Awareness
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was for the first time amended by the?
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Answer: (B) 42nd amendment
Explanation
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended only once since its inception. This occurred through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, passed during the Internal Emergency under the Indira Gandhi government. This amendment introduced three new words to the Preamble: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. Specifically, it transformed the description of India from a Sovereign Democratic Republic to a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and changed the phrase unity of the nation to unity and integrity of the nation. The Supreme Court had earlier affirmed in the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973 that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, provided the basic structure remains intact.
63General Awareness
Who regulates the slots where the geosynchronous satellites should be placed?
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Answer: (B) International Telecommunication Union
Explanation
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is the specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international cooperation in the use of the radio-frequency spectrum and the management of satellite orbits. Because the geostationary orbit is a finite natural resource, the ITU coordinates the allocation of specific orbital slots and radio frequencies to prevent signal interference and physical congestion. This regulatory framework is established through the ITU Radio Regulations, which are international treaties that ensure equitable access to space and telecommunications for all member nations. Satellites must be registered with the ITU Radiocommunication Sector to secure international recognition and protection of their orbital positions.
64General Awareness
What is the implication of the Central Government granting "Special Status" to a State?
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Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Special Category Status was introduced in 1969 on the recommendation of the Fifth Finance Commission to support states with geographical and socio-economic disadvantages, such as hilly terrain, strategic international borders, or economic backwardness. According to the Gadgil-Mukherjee formula used for the allocation of central assistance, states with this status received a highly favorable funding pattern. Specifically, 90 percent of the Normal Central Assistance provided to these states was in the form of grants, while only 10 percent was provided as a loan. For non-special category states, this ratio was typically 30 percent grant and 70 percent loan. This mechanism ensured that these states received substantial financial support for their development plans without accumulating a heavy debt burden, effectively addressing their limited resource mobilization capacity.
65General Awareness
What is Sponge?
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Answer: (D) Animal
Explanation
Sponges are multicellular organisms belonging to the phylum Porifera within the kingdom Animalia. They are classified as animals because they are heterotrophic, meaning they must consume organic material for energy rather than producing it through photosynthesis. At a cellular level, sponges lack the rigid cell walls found in plants and fungi, a primary characteristic of animal cells. They possess specialized cells that allow them to filter food particles from water through a system of pores and channels. Despite being sessile and lacking true tissues or organs, their reproductive methods, embryonic development, and genetic markers align with the fundamental criteria of the animal kingdom.
66General Awareness
The radio-active element used in heart pacemakers is?
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Answer: (C) Plutonium
Explanation
Plutonium-238 is the specific isotope used as a power source in radioactive heart pacemakers because it provides a reliable, long-term energy supply through heat generation. While most modern pacemakers use lithium batteries, Plutonium-238 was the standard radioactive material for long-lived implants.
67General Awareness
The chemical that is used in making artificial rain is?
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Answer: (B) Silver Iodide
Explanation
Silver Iodide is the most common chemical used in cloud seeding to produce artificial rain because its crystalline structure is very similar to that of natural ice, making it an effective nucleating agent. It facilitates the condensation of water vapor in clouds into rain droplets.
68General Awareness
The element which is commonly used in nuclear for producing electricity by nuclear fission is?
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Answer: (C) Uranium
Explanation
Uranium is the primary element used as fuel in nuclear power plants for the commercial production of electricity. The specific isotope ²³⁵U is fissile, allowing it to undergo a controlled nuclear chain reaction. In a nuclear reactor, the fission of uranium nuclei releases a massive amount of energy in the form of heat. This thermal energy is used to heat water and produce high-pressure steam, which then rotates a turbine connected to an electrical generator. Because ²³⁵U is the only naturally occurring isotope capable of sustaining fission with thermal neutrons, it serves as the fundamental energy source for the majority of the world's nuclear fleet. Commercial reactors typically use uranium that has been enriched to increase the concentration of ²³⁵U to between 3 and 5 percent.
69General Awareness
Which of the following blood groups may be present in the children of a couple having blood groups A and B, respectively?
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Answer: (C) A,B,AB,O
Explanation
If both parents are heterozygous (genotypes AO and BO), they can pass on any combination of the A, B, and O alleles to their children. This allows for offspring with any of the four blood groups: A, B, AB, or O.
70General Awareness
The writer who refused the Novel Prize for literature was?
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Answer: (C) Boris Pasternak
Explanation
Boris Pasternak was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1958 for his significant contributions to lyrical poetry and for his epic novel Doctor Zhivago. Although he initially sent a telegram to the Swedish Academy expressing his gratitude and acceptance, he was immediately subjected to intense political pressure and public condemnation by the Soviet government. The Soviet authorities viewed his novel as anti-revolutionary and threatened him with exile and the loss of his citizenship. Consequently, Pasternak was forced to decline the prize, sending a second telegram stating that he must refuse the honor because of the meaning attributed to it in the society to which he belonged.
71General Awareness
Le Corbusier, the architecture of Chandigarh was a national of?
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Answer: (D) France
Explanation
Le Corbusier, born Charles-Édouard Jeanneret-Gris in Switzerland, was a pioneering Swiss-French architect and urban planner. He became a naturalized French citizen in 1930 and maintained his professional base in Paris for most of his career. In the 1950s, he was commissioned by the Indian government to design the master plan for Chandigarh, where he also designed several landmark buildings in the Capitol Complex, including the Legislative Assembly, the Secretariat, and the High Court. His French nationality is the primary identification associated with his professional legacy and his work on the Chandigarh project.
72General Awareness
Alberuni came to India with?
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Answer: (A) Mahmud of Ghazni
Explanation
Al-Biruni was a celebrated Persian scholar and polymath who accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni during his various invasions of the Indian subcontinent in the early 11th century. Originally from Khwarizm, he was brought to Ghazni as a prisoner of war and subsequently became a court astronomer and scholar. During his time in India, he studied Sanskrit and Indian sciences extensively, culminating in his famous work Kitab-ul-Hind. This treatise serves as a comprehensive account of Indian philosophy, religion, social organization, and scientific achievements during the medieval period.
73General Awareness
Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money bill or not?
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Answer: (B) Speaker of Lok sabha
Explanation
Under Article 110(3) of the Constitution of India, if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. This constitutional provision ensures that the Lok Sabha maintains primacy over financial matters. Furthermore, Article 110(4) mandates that when a Money Bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha or presented to the President for assent, it must carry an endorsement signed by the Speaker certifying it as such. The Speaker's decision in this regard cannot be questioned in any court of law, in either House of Parliament, or by the President.
74General Awareness
The Trade Union Affiliated with the Congress Party is?
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Answer: (B) Indian National Trade Union
Explanation
The Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) was established on May 3, 1947, as the labor wing of the Indian National Congress. It was founded under the guidance of prominent Congress leaders such as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, J.B. Kripalani, and Gulzarilal Nanda to organize workers based on the principles of truth and non-violence advocated by Mahatma Gandhi. The primary objective was to ensure a constructive approach to industrial relations that aligned with the democratic and socialistic goals of the Congress Party, providing an alternative to unions influenced by communist ideologies. Since its inception, INTUC has functioned as the primary affiliate of the Congress Party in the labor sector, representing its policy interests in national industrial disputes and international labor forums.
75General Awareness
The following article of the Indian Constitution abolished the practice of untouchability?
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Answer: (C) Article 17
Explanation
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution specifically addresses the historical social evil of untouchability by declaring it abolished and forbidding its practice in any form. It is a crucial part of the Right to Equality and ensures that the enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability is a legal offense. This article is absolute in nature and is enforceable against both the state and private individuals. To give effect to this constitutional provision, the Parliament enacted the Untouchability (Offences) Act in 1955, which was later amended and renamed the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, providing for stringent punishment for those practicing or promoting untouchability.
76General Awareness
One of the following is an odd combination. Which is that?
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Answer: (B) Individualism-State Control
Explanation
Individualism and State Control represent diametrically opposed political and social philosophies. Individualism is a doctrine that emphasizes the moral worth and autonomy of the individual, advocating for personal liberty, self-reliance, and the protection of individual rights against collective or governmental encroachment. It fundamentally promotes a limited role for the state in the private and economic lives of citizens. Conversely, State Control involves the centralization of authority and the regulation of social and economic activities by the government, which inherently restricts individual choice and independence to serve collective or national objectives. Since individualism seeks to minimize the power of the state and state control seeks to maximize it, the two concepts are logically inconsistent and form a contradictory pair.
77General Awareness
The Simon Commission was formed to review?
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Answer: (D) A constitution for India
Explanation
The Simon Commission, officially known as the Indian Statutory Commission, was appointed in 1927 to examine the functioning of the Government of India Act 1919 and suggest the future constitutional framework for the country. Under the provisions of the 1919 Act, a statutory commission was mandated to be formed every ten years to review the political situation and evaluate the progress of responsible government in India. The commission was tasked with investigating the existing constitutional arrangements and recommending the necessary modifications or the creation of a new constitutional structure. Its final report and the subsequent deliberations at the Round Table Conferences provided the foundational material for the drafting of the Government of India Act 1935, which served as a comprehensive constitution for British India.
78General Awareness
The Upper House of the Legislature is more powerful than the Lower house in?
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Answer: (D) United states of America
Explanation
In the United States of America, the Senate is widely considered the most powerful upper house in the world because it possesses exclusive powers such as the authority to ratify treaties and confirm presidential appointments, and it stands as an equal partner to the House of Representatives in the legislative process. In contrast, the upper houses in countries like Britain and France are significantly weaker than their lower houses.
79General Awareness
Where did Aurangzeb die?
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Answer: (A) Ahmed Nagar
Explanation
Aurangzeb died at his military headquarters in Ahmednagar on February 20, 1707, at the age of 88. While he was later buried in Khuldabad near Aurangabad, the physical location of his death was Ahmednagar.
80General Awareness
Where are the mortal remains of St. Francis Xavier housed?
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Answer: (C) Basilica of Bom Jesus, Goa
Explanation
The mortal remains of St. Francis Xavier are enshrined in the Basilica of Bom Jesus, located in Old Goa. After his death in 1552 on Shangchuan Island, China, his body was moved to Malacca and eventually brought to Goa in 1554. The remains are preserved in a silver casket, which was crafted by Goan silversmiths between 1636 and 1637, and are housed within a magnificent mausoleum designed by Giovanni Battista Foggini in the 17th century. This Jesuit church, completed in 1605, is a UNESCO World Heritage site and is renowned for its baroque architecture and its historical significance as a major pilgrimage destination where the saint's body is periodically displayed for public veneration during the Exposition of St. Francis Xavier.
81General Awareness
Who was the first Caliph?
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Answer: (B) Abu Bakar
Explanation
Abu Bakr was a close companion and the father-in-law of the Prophet Muhammad. Following the death of the Prophet in 632 CE, he was chosen by the Muslim community at Saqifah as the first leader of the Islamic state, assuming the title of Khalifat Rasul Allah, or Successor of the Messenger of God. His selection established the Rashidun Caliphate. During his reign from 632 to 634 CE, he successfully navigated the Ridda Wars to unify the Arabian Peninsula and launched the initial military expeditions into the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires, laying the foundation for the expansion of the Islamic world.
82General Awareness
Who among the following was the first to invade India?
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Answer: (C) Darius -1
Explanation
Darius I, the third ruler of the Achaemenid Empire of Persia, led a military expedition into the northwestern region of the Indian subcontinent around 518 BCE. He successfully conquered the territories of the Indus Valley and Gandhara, incorporating them into the Persian Empire as its twentieth satrapy. This administrative region was considered the wealthiest and most populous province under his control, as evidenced by the Behistun and Persepolis inscriptions. His invasion established the first major recorded instance of a foreign power exercising sustained political and military authority over parts of ancient India.
83General Awareness
Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus
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Answer: (A) Poliomyelitis
Explanation
Poliomyelitis, commonly known as polio, is a highly infectious disease caused by the poliovirus. This virus belongs to the genus Enterovirus and the family Picornaviridae. It consists of a single-stranded RNA genome enclosed in a protein capsid. The virus primarily enters the human body through the fecal-oral route, usually via contaminated food or water, and replicates in the gastrointestinal tract. From there, it can enter the bloodstream and potentially infect the central nervous system, leading to the destruction of motor neurons and resulting in muscle weakness or paralysis.
84General Awareness
Which of the following is known as Vitamin B1?
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Answer: (B) Thiamine
Explanation
Thiamine is a water-soluble vitamin that acts as a vital coenzyme in the metabolism of carbohydrates and branched-chain amino acids. It is converted in the body into its active form, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), which is necessary for the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, a key step in the Krebs cycle for energy production. Beyond energy synthesis, thiamine is essential for the maintenance of healthy nervous system functions and cardiovascular health. Deficiency of thiamine is well-documented to cause Beriberi, a condition characterized by neurological and cardiovascular complications.
85General Awareness
Which of the following is true?
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Answer: (A) DNA is the genetic material in the most of the Organism
Explanation
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is the primary molecule used for the storage and transmission of genetic information in the vast majority of living entities. This includes all known cellular life forms such as eukaryotes, which comprise plants, animals, and fungi, as well as prokaryotes like bacteria. DNA provides a stable, double-stranded structure that is well-suited for long-term information storage and high-fidelity replication. Although certain viruses use RNA as their genetic material, they are often categorized as biological entities rather than complete organisms. Since DNA is the universal genetic template for all independent, cellular life forms, it is correctly identified as the genetic material in most organisms.
86General Awareness
Pathogenic bacteria secrete?
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Answer: (A) Antigens
Explanation
Pathogenic bacteria secrete various metabolic byproducts, enzymes, and toxins, most notably exotoxins, which function as antigens within the host organism. These secreted substances are proteinaceous or polysaccharide molecules that are recognized as foreign by the host's immune system. Once these antigens are detected, they trigger a specific immune response, leading to the production of antibodies by the host's B-lymphocytes. In the context of bacterial pathogenesis, these secreted antigens are often the primary factors responsible for the symptoms and tissue damage associated with an infection.
87General Awareness
Table salt gets moist during rainy season because?
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Answer: (D) Sodium Chloride contains hygroscopic impurities like Magnesium chloride
Explanation
Pure sodium chloride (NaCl) is not inherently hygroscopic and does not readily absorb moisture from the atmosphere. The reason table salt becomes moist during the rainy season is the presence of small amounts of impurities, most notably magnesium chloride (MgCl₂) and calcium chloride (CaCl₂). These impurities are highly hygroscopic and deliquescent, meaning they have a strong affinity for water and can absorb significant amounts of water vapor from the humid air. When the atmospheric humidity increases during the rainy season, these magnesium and calcium salts attract moisture, which then coats the sodium chloride crystals and causes the salt to become damp and sticky.
88General Awareness
A tax is characterised by horizontal equity if its liability is?
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Answer: (B) Similar to taxpayers in similar circumstances
Explanation
Horizontal equity is the principle that individuals in similar economic circumstances should be subject to the same tax burden. It ensures that taxpayers with equal ability to pay contribute an equal amount to the government.
89General Awareness
What a leasing company provide?
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Answer: (A) Machinery and capital equipment on hiring
Explanation
A leasing company functions as a financial intermediary that purchases capital assets such as machinery, equipment, or vehicles and provides them to another party, known as the lessee, for use over a predetermined period. This contractual arrangement, called a lease, allows the lessee to utilize expensive industrial or commercial assets in exchange for periodic rental payments without the requirement of an upfront capital outlay for purchase. The leasing company retains legal ownership of the assets while the lessee gains full operational possession and use, making it a significant method of asset-based financing for businesses looking to preserve liquidity and manage capital expenditure.
90General Awareness
When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is?
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Answer: (B) Inflation
Explanation
This classic definition refers to demand-pull inflation, a phenomenon where the aggregate demand in an economy outpaces the aggregate supply. When there is an expansionary monetary policy or high consumer confidence, the circulating money supply increases significantly. Since the production of goods and services cannot scale up instantly to match this increased purchasing power, the competition among buyers for the limited supply drives prices upward. This sustained increase in the general price level is the hallmark of inflation. The relationship is often explained through the Quantity Theory of Money equation, MV = PY, where an increase in the money supply M, assuming velocity V and real output Y are relatively stable, directly results in a rise in the price level P.
91General Awareness
When there is a change in demand leading to a shift of the Demand Curve to the right, at the same price as before, the quantity demanded will?
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Answer: (B) Increase
Explanation
A rightward shift of the demand curve represents an increase in demand, which occurs due to changes in non-price determinants such as an increase in consumer income, a rise in the price of substitute goods, or a shift in consumer preferences toward the product. In economic theory, such a shift means that consumers are willing and able to purchase more of the good at every possible price level. When the demand curve moves to the right, the new equilibrium point for any given price corresponds to a higher value on the horizontal quantity axis. Therefore, at the same price as before the shift, the quantity demanded by the market is higher than the original level.
92General Awareness
The income elasticity of demand being greater than once, the commodity must be?
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Answer: (B) Luxury
Explanation
Income elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a commodity to a change in the income of consumers, expressed by the formula e_y = (% change in quantity demanded)/(% change in income). When this value is greater than one, it indicates that the percentage increase in demand is higher than the percentage increase in consumer income. This relationship is characteristic of a luxury good, where consumers disproportionately increase their spending on such items as their purchasing power grows. Because these goods are not essential for basic survival, their consumption expands significantly only after necessary needs are met, leading to a coefficient of income elasticity that exceeds unity.
93General Awareness
'Marginal efficiency of capital is?
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Answer: (A) Expected rate of return on new Investment
Explanation
Marginal Efficiency of Capital (MEC) is the highest rate of return expected from an additional unit of a capital asset. Introduced by John Maynard Keynes in his General Theory, it represents the ratio between the prospective yield of a new capital asset and its supply price or replacement cost. Specifically, it is the discount rate r that equates the present value of the series of expected future returns to the current cost of the investment, as shown in the formula C = (R₁)/((1+r)) + (R₂)/((1+r)²) + … + (Rₙ)/((1+r)ⁿ), where C is the supply price and R represents the annual prospective yields. Because MEC relates to the profitability of increments to the capital stock, it serves as a critical determinant of the demand for new investment. An investment is considered viable only when the MEC is greater than the prevailing market rate of interest.
94General Awareness
Buoyancy of a tax is defined as?
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Answer: (A) Percentage increase in Tax revenue / Percentage increase in Tax base
Explanation
Tax buoyancy measures the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in the tax base or GDP, expressed as the ratio of the percentage change in tax revenue to the percentage change in the tax base. Option A correctly represents this formula, whereas option C calculates a simple ratio of absolute changes rather than an elasticity.
95General Awareness
Which of the following is used as a lubricant in heavy machines?
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Answer: (D) Graphite
Explanation
Graphite is used as a lubricant in heavy machinery because of its layered crystalline structure. It consists of carbon atoms arranged in hexagonal sheets where the atoms within each sheet are held by strong covalent bonds, but the sheets themselves are linked by weak Van der Waals forces. These weak inter-layer forces allow the sheets to slide over one another with ease, giving graphite a slippery, greasy texture. This property makes it an excellent dry lubricant, particularly in industrial settings where high temperatures or heavy loads would cause liquid oils or greases to decompose or be squeezed out.
96General Awareness
The plastic material commonly used for making gear wheels is
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Answer: (B) Nylons
Explanation
Nylon is the most common plastic used for making gear wheels because of its high mechanical strength, self-lubricating properties, and excellent wear resistance. It effectively reduces noise and handles the friction associated with moving mechanical parts better than the other options.
97General Awareness
The anode in a dry cell consists of?
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Answer: (B) Zinc
Explanation
In a standard dry cell, such as a Leclanche cell, the zinc container serves as the anode where oxidation occurs. The graphite rod in the center acts as the cathode.
98General Awareness
Ultra violet radiations of the Sun do not reach the earth because, earth's atmosphere is surrounded by?
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Answer: (D) Ozone
Explanation
The stratosphere contains a layer of ozone (O₃) gas that acts as a protective shield for the planet. This layer absorbs approximately 97 to 99 percent of the Sun's high-frequency ultraviolet light, particularly UV-B and UV-C rays. When ultraviolet radiation hits ozone molecules, the energy is absorbed to break the chemical bonds, splitting O₃ into an oxygen molecule (O₂) and a free oxygen atom (O). This continuous cycle of absorption and reformation prevents the most harmful wavelengths of solar radiation from penetrating the lower atmosphere and reaching the Earth's surface.
99General Awareness
Which state has the lowest area under forests?
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Answer: (D) Haryana
Explanation
According to the State of Forest Report (SFR) issued by the Forest Survey of India around 2001, Haryana had the lowest forest cover among the states listed. The state is primarily dominated by intensive agricultural activities in the Indo-Gangetic plains, which has resulted in a very small percentage of land being reserved for forests. In the 1999 assessment, Haryana's forest cover was recorded at approximately 1.67 percent of its total geographical area, making it the state with the most limited forest resources among the given choices.
100English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(1)
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Answer: (B) News
Explanation
Mass communication is defined as the process of transmitting information to a large and diverse audience through various media channels. In the context of the passage, the delivery of news represents the informative function of mass media, complementing the dissemination of ideas and entertainment. News serves as the factual foundation of communication, providing the public with timely reports on current events, which is essential for the simultaneous impact on thousands or millions of individuals as described in the text.
101English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(2)
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Answer: (A) People
Explanation
Mass communication is defined as the process by which a person, group of people, or organization creates a message and transmits it through some type of medium to a large, anonymous, and heterogeneous audience. The quantifier thousands or millions identifies the scale of this audience, which consists of individual human beings. Therefore, people is the logically appropriate term to describe the vast number of recipients who receive information, ideas, and entertainment simultaneously through mass media channels.
102English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(3)
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Answer: (B) Impact
Explanation
The sentence identifies mass communication as a powerful force and seeks to describe the magnitude of its influence on the global stage. The term impact is the most appropriate choice as it refers to the powerful effect or consequence that one entity has on another. In English usage, the noun impact is frequently followed by the preposition on, making it the grammatically and contextually correct fit for the phrase incalculable impact on today's world. This choice effectively conveys how mass media shapes societal structures, public opinion, and cultural norms.
103English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(4)
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Answer: (C) Success
Explanation
The term success fits the context of the sentence as it refers to the achievement of a desired outcome or effectiveness in reaching a goal. The passage describes how mass communication relies on the proficiency of the communicator to influence the audience's thoughts and emotions. By stating that the success of mass communication rests upon these skills, the sentence establishes that the overall efficacy and the attainment of the intended impact on a large scale are directly contingent on the communicator's ability to engage and persuade the recipients.
104English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(5)
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Answer: (D) Upon
Explanation
The verb rest is idiomatically paired with the prepositions on or upon when expressing that something depends on or is based on a particular factor. In this context, the sentence describes how the effectiveness or foundation of mass communication is contingent on the abilities of the person delivering the message. The phrase rests upon signifies this relationship of dependency, indicating that the skills of the communicator serve as the essential base for the process to function. Using upon instead of on often occurs in formal or literary writing to provide a more sophisticated tone, fitting the analytical nature of the passage regarding mass media and human intelligence.
105English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(6)
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Answer: (A) Stimulate
Explanation
The context of mass communication involves a communicator using specific skills to engage or provoke a response from an audience. To stimulate the recipient's thinking means to activate their cognitive processes, encourage mental engagement, or prompt them to consider new ideas. This serves as the initial step in the communication process described in the passage, preceding the goals of stirring emotions and influencing behavior. By stimulating thought, the communicator ensures that the message is actively processed by the human intelligence of the receiver.
106English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(7)
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Answer: (B) To
Explanation
The sentence describes the various objectives a communicator aims to achieve through mass communication. These objectives are presented in a parallel structure using infinitive phrases. The communicator uses skills to influence the recipient's thinking and to stir emotions. The use of the word to before the verb stir completes the infinitive form, maintaining grammatical consistency with the surrounding phrases such as to influence and to prompt. This structure effectively lists the sequential or simultaneous goals of the communication process.
107English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(8)
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Answer: (A) Encourage
Explanation
In the context of mass communication, the goal is to motivate or stimulate the audience toward a specific response. The term encourage fits the sequence of influencing thoughts and stirring emotions, representing the communicator's effort to inspire the recipient to proceed toward a desired action or behavior. This reflects the functional purpose of media in driving social or individual engagement.
108English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(9)
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Answer: (C) Action
Explanation
The passage describes the functional objectives of mass communication, moving through a logical progression of psychological influence. It begins with influencing the cognitive domain by affecting the recipient's thinking and the affective domain by stirring emotions. The final stage of this persuasive process is the conative or behavioral stage, where the communicator aims to move the individual toward a specific response. The term action represents this final goal of the communication process, where the thoughts and emotions triggered by the message culminate in the recipient performing a deed or adopting a specific behavior. This structure reflects the standard communicative intent to not only inform or move an audience but to ultimately prompt them to act.
109English Comprehension
In the following passage some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.
Mass communication is the delivery of...(1)..., ideas and entertainment to thousands or millions of...... (2)...... simultaneously; it is a force with incalculable...... (3)....on today's world. The ...(4)...... of mass communication rests...... (5)...... the skills of the communicator to...... (6)...... the recipient's thinking....(7)...... stir emotions, to...... (8)...... him or her to...... (9)...... Mass communication is the one-to-one impact of one human intelligence upon ......(10)...... carried on thousand fold simultaneously among individuals who have no direct personal contact.
(10)
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Answer: (A) Another
Explanation
The sentence describes the conceptual mechanism of mass communication as a singular interaction scaled up to a massive level. The phrase one human intelligence upon another uses the pronoun another to refer back to the singular noun intelligence. This grammatical structure establishes a direct correspondence between one individual source and one individual recipient, which is then multiplied a thousand fold. In English grammar, the distributive expression one upon another is the standard way to denote the impact of one unit of a particular kind onto another unit of the same kind.
110English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
He was congratulated by his teacher on his brilliant success in the recent examination.
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Answer: (A) His teacher congratulated him on his brilliant success in the recent examination
Explanation
The given sentence is in the Passive Voice of the Simple Past tense, as indicated by the structure was followed by the past participle congratulated. To convert this to the Active Voice, the agent following the preposition by (his teacher) must become the subject of the sentence. The verb then changes to its simple past active form, congratulated, and the original subject (He) becomes the object (him). This option accurately carries out these grammatical shifts while preserving the complete descriptive phrase on his brilliant success in the recent examination, which is essential to maintaining the full meaning of the original statement.
111English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
People speak English all over the world.
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Answer: (A) English is spoken all over the world
Explanation
The active sentence is in the Simple Present tense, following the structure: Subject (People) + Verb (speak) + Object (English). To convert this into the Passive voice, the object becomes the subject, and the verb is changed to the form: is/am/are + Past Participle (V3). Since English is a singular noun, it takes the auxiliary verb is followed by the past participle spoken. In passive constructions where the agent is vague, general, or obvious, such as people, it is standard practice to omit the by-phrase to maintain conciseness and focus on the action. Therefore, the phrase all over the world is appended to the verb phrase to complete the sentence.
112English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
Who gave you permission to enter?
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Answer: (A) By whom were you given permission to enter?
Explanation
The given sentence is in the Active Voice and Simple Past tense. To convert an interrogative sentence beginning with Who into the Passive Voice, the pronoun Who is replaced by By whom. The standard structure for this transformation is By whom + was/were + object + past participle (V3). In this sentence, the indirect object you becomes the subject in the passive construction. Since you always takes the auxiliary verb were in the past tense, the auxiliary must precede the subject to maintain the interrogative form. Therefore, the verb gave transforms into were given, leading to the construction: By whom were you given permission to enter.
113English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
The Principal has granted him a scholarship.
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Answer: (B) He has been granted a scholarship by the Principal
Explanation
The given sentence is in the Active Voice and the Present Perfect Tense, following the structure: Subject + has/have + past participle (V3) + object. To convert a Present Perfect sentence into the Passive Voice, the structure used is: Subject (original object) + has/have + been + past participle (V3) + by + agent (original subject).
In this sentence, the indirect object him becomes the subject He in the passive form. Following the rule for Present Perfect passive, the auxiliary verb has is followed by been and the past participle granted. The complete transformation results in the sentence: He has been granted a scholarship by the Principal.
114English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
Before festivals the shops are thronged with men, women and children making various purchases.
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Answer: (B) Men, women and children throng the shops before festivals making various purchases
Explanation
The original sentence is in the passive voice, structured as [Object] + [am/is/are + past participle] + [Agent]. To convert this into the active voice, the agent men, women and children must be moved to the subject position. The passive verb form are thronged is converted to the active simple present tense throng to match the original tense. The original subject the shops then functions as the direct object. The phrases before festivals and making various purchases are retained to ensure that the active construction conveys the exact same information and context as the passive original.
115English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Succession of rulers belonging to one family
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Answer: (A) Dynasty
Explanation
A dynasty is defined as a sequence of hereditary rulers or leaders who belong to the same family and maintain power over a country or region for a significant period. The term specifically denotes the continuous line of authority passed down through generations within a single kinship group, often defining a specific era in a nation's history through their collective governance.
116English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
To cut something into two pieces
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Answer: (B) Sever
Explanation
The verb sever means to divide or separate a whole into two or more parts by cutting. It originates from the Latin word separare, which means to pull apart or separate. In practical usage, it refers to the act of using a sharp tool or force to slice through an object so that it is no longer connected. This term is commonly used in both physical contexts, such as severing a rope or a limb, and metaphorical contexts, such as severing ties or a relationship, indicating a complete and final break.
117English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Flat metal or Porcelain plate fixed on a wall as an ornament or memorial
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Answer: (D) Plaque
Explanation
A plaque is a flat, thin piece of metal, porcelain, stone, or wood that is attached to a wall or another surface. It typically serves as a commemorative marker for a historical event, a memorial to a person, or an ornamental decoration. These plates are often inscribed with text or images to provide information or honor an individual or achievement in a permanent and formal manner.
118English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Act of deceiving somebody in order to make money
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Answer: (A) Fraud
Explanation
Fraud is defined as the intentional use of deceit, trickery, or perversion of truth to induce another person to part with something of value or to surrender a legal right. In a legal and criminal context, it specifically refers to the act of misrepresenting facts or using dishonest methods to obtain money or property from a victim who relies on those false pretenses.
119English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
A short poem or speech addressed to the spectators after the conclusion of a drama
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Answer: (C) Epilogue
Explanation
An epilogue is a concluding section of a literary work or a drama. In theatrical performances, it specifically refers to a short speech or poem delivered by one of the actors directly to the audience after the play has ended. It serves to provide a final commentary, offer a moral lesson, or request the spectators' favor and applause, marking the definitive closure of the performance.
120English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Capable of being understood in either of two or more possible senses, and therefore not definite
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Answer: (B) Ambiguous
Explanation
The term ambiguous describes a statement, word, or situation that is open to more than one interpretation and is not clearly defined. It is derived from the Latin word ambiguus, which means having double meaning or shifting. The prefix ambi- denotes two or both, reflecting the characteristic of being understood in multiple ways, which results in a lack of certainty or precision in communication.
121English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
A person who is unable to pay his debts
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Answer: (C) Insolvent
Explanation
Insolvent refers to a state of financial distress where an individual or entity is unable to fulfill their financial obligations or pay back debts to creditors as they become due. This condition typically arises when a person's total liabilities exceed their total assets, or when they lack the liquid cash flow required to meet immediate payment demands. In legal and commercial terminology, insolvency is the standard term used to describe this specific economic status, often serving as the primary condition for initiating bankruptcy proceedings.
122English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Anything which is no longer in use
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Answer: (B) Obsolete
Explanation
The word obsolete refers to something that is no longer produced or used because it has become out of date. It typically describes objects, technologies, or practices that have been superseded by newer, more efficient, or more modern versions, rendering the older ones unnecessary or irrelevant in current times.
123English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
A person coming to a foreign land to settle there
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Answer: (A) Immigrant
Explanation
An immigrant is a person who leaves their own country to come to a foreign land for the purpose of permanent residence. The term is derived from the Latin word immigrare, where the prefix im- means into, denoting the act of moving into a new country to settle there. It specifically describes the status of the individual from the perspective of the country they are entering.
124English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
Something capable of being done
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Answer: (B) Feasible
Explanation
The word feasible refers to something that is capable of being done, accomplished, or put into effect. It denotes that a plan, project, or action is practically possible and can be carried out successfully within the given constraints or circumstances. It originates from the Old French word faisible, which is derived from the verb faire, meaning to do or to make.
125English Comprehension
The achievement of science in the twentieth century has been very great. Its influence can be felt in every sphere of life. From the small pins and needles to the huge iron sheets and joints, most of the things we require for our everyday use, come out of factories where scientific principles are utilized for practical ends. Science has enabled man to bring forces of nature under control and to use them for his own advantage. It has brought the distant parts of the world close together. Our knowledge of the universe has been much widened on account of the untiring efforts of the astronomers like Jeans and Erdington. Remarkable cures of human diseases have been possible owing to the discovery of some wonderful medicines.
The main idea of the passage is
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Answer: (A) The impact of science can be felt in every sphere of life
Explanation
The passage emphasizes the pervasive role of science by explicitly stating that its influence can be felt in every sphere of life. It supports this central theme by detailing various applications, ranging from the production of everyday items like pins and needles in factories to the large-scale engineering of iron sheets. Furthermore, it highlights how science has allowed humanity to harness the forces of nature, bridge geographical distances, expand astronomical knowledge of the universe through the work of scientists like Jeans and Eddington, and achieve significant breakthroughs in medical science for curing diseases. This comprehensive coverage across industry, nature, communication, space, and health reinforces the idea that science impacts nearly every facet of modern human existence.
126English Comprehension
The achievement of science in the twentieth century has been very great. Its influence can be felt in every sphere of life. From the small pins and needles to the huge iron sheets and joints, most of the things we require for our everyday use, come out of factories where scientific principles are utilized for practical ends. Science has enabled man to bring forces of nature under control and to use them for his own advantage. It has brought the distant parts of the world close together. Our knowledge of the universe has been much widened on account of the untiring efforts of the astronomers like Jeans and Erdington. Remarkable cures of human diseases have been possible owing to the discovery of some wonderful medicines.
The mode of approach is
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Answer: (D) Expository
Explanation
The passage adopts an expository mode because it aims to explain, inform, and clarify the impact of science on human life through factual evidence and examples. It methodically sets out the various ways in which scientific principles have been applied to industrial production, the mastery of nature, global connectivity, and breakthroughs in astronomy and medicine. The objective is to provide a comprehensive explanation of a subject to increase the reader's knowledge, which is the hallmark of expository writing. This style focuses on presenting information in a clear and structured manner to define the significance of a topic.
127English Comprehension
The achievement of science in the twentieth century has been very great. Its influence can be felt in every sphere of life. From the small pins and needles to the huge iron sheets and joints, most of the things we require for our everyday use, come out of factories where scientific principles are utilized for practical ends. Science has enabled man to bring forces of nature under control and to use them for his own advantage. It has brought the distant parts of the world close together. Our knowledge of the universe has been much widened on account of the untiring efforts of the astronomers like Jeans and Erdington. Remarkable cures of human diseases have been possible owing to the discovery of some wonderful medicines.
The most appropriate title for the passage will be
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Answer: (C) Achievements of science
Explanation
The passage begins by stating that the achievement of science in the twentieth century has been very great and proceeds to list specific examples across various fields. Therefore, Achievements of science is the most direct and comprehensive title for the text.
128English Comprehension
The achievement of science in the twentieth century has been very great. Its influence can be felt in every sphere of life. From the small pins and needles to the huge iron sheets and joints, most of the things we require for our everyday use, come out of factories where scientific principles are utilized for practical ends. Science has enabled man to bring forces of nature under control and to use them for his own advantage. It has brought the distant parts of the world close together. Our knowledge of the universe has been much widened on account of the untiring efforts of the astronomers like Jeans and Erdington. Remarkable cures of human diseases have been possible owing to the discovery of some wonderful medicines.
Science has proved a great boon for
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Answer: (D) Mankind
Explanation
The passage describes how science has influenced every sphere of life, provided items for everyday use, and cured human diseases, all of which demonstrate that it is a boon for mankind. While specific groups like scientists or astronomers are mentioned, the overall benefits described apply to humanity as a whole.
129English Comprehension
"Science cannot reduce the magic of a sunset to arithmetic, nor can it express friendship with a formula" observed the eminent medical researcher, Dr. Lous Orr. He added, "also beyond science's mastery of nature are love and laughter, pain and loneliness and insights into truth and beauty". This distancing of science from the human condition perhaps explains why most foreign tourists visiting Britain flock predictably to see the hallowed homes of playwrights, writers and poets, but choose to ignore the habitations where its eminent scientists lived and worked.
Why is it that science cannot express friendship with a formula?
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Answer: (C) Friendship is beyond science's mastery
Explanation
The passage highlights the limitations of the scientific method in addressing qualitative human experiences and emotions. By citing Dr. Louis Orr, the text explicitly positions friendship alongside love, laughter, pain, and beauty as elements that are beyond science's mastery of nature. Because science relies on arithmetic, formulas, and empirical data to explain the physical world, it lacks the necessary tools to quantify or capture the subjective essence of human relationships. The inability to express friendship with a formula stems from the fact that such emotional and social bonds fall outside the scope of scientific control and measurement.
130English Comprehension
"Science cannot reduce the magic of a sunset to arithmetic, nor can it express friendship with a formula" observed the eminent medical researcher, Dr. Lous Orr. He added, "also beyond science's mastery of nature are love and laughter, pain and loneliness and insights into truth and beauty". This distancing of science from the human condition perhaps explains why most foreign tourists visiting Britain flock predictably to see the hallowed homes of playwrights, writers and poets, but choose to ignore the habitations where its eminent scientists lived and worked.
The word "magic" refers to
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Answer: (D) Setting of the sun with all its beauty
Explanation
In the context of the passage, the word magic signifies the aesthetic and emotional splendor associated with the setting sun. Dr. Louis Orr uses this term to highlight the qualitative aspects of natural phenomena that transcend quantitative scientific description or mathematical reduction. By pairing magic with a sunset and later mentioning insights into beauty, the text indicates that this refers to the enchanting and awe-inspiring visual experience of the sun as it goes down, which evokes a sense of wonder that arithmetic cannot capture.
131English Comprehension
"Science cannot reduce the magic of a sunset to arithmetic, nor can it express friendship with a formula" observed the eminent medical researcher, Dr. Lous Orr. He added, "also beyond science's mastery of nature are love and laughter, pain and loneliness and insights into truth and beauty". This distancing of science from the human condition perhaps explains why most foreign tourists visiting Britain flock predictably to see the hallowed homes of playwrights, writers and poets, but choose to ignore the habitations where its eminent scientists lived and worked.
Which of the following are beyond science's reach, according to the passage?
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Answer: (A) Love and laughter, pain and loneliness
Explanation
The passage explicitly quotes Dr. Louis Orr, who identifies specific human emotions and experiences that are beyond the reach of scientific quantification. According to the text, science lacks the mastery to address love and laughter, pain and loneliness, or insights into truth and beauty. These elements are described as being distinct from the arithmetic and formulas that science uses to explain the natural world, suggesting a fundamental distance between scientific inquiry and the internal complexities of the human condition.
132English Comprehension
"Science cannot reduce the magic of a sunset to arithmetic, nor can it express friendship with a formula" observed the eminent medical researcher, Dr. Lous Orr. He added, "also beyond science's mastery of nature are love and laughter, pain and loneliness and insights into truth and beauty". This distancing of science from the human condition perhaps explains why most foreign tourists visiting Britain flock predictably to see the hallowed homes of playwrights, writers and poets, but choose to ignore the habitations where its eminent scientists lived and worked.
The verb 'flock' refers to
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Answer: (C) Large number of foreign tourists visiting homes of playwrights, writers, poets
Explanation
The verb flock denotes the movement or gathering of a large group of people in a synchronized or collective manner. In the excerpt, the author uses this term to describe the habitual and predictable behavior of foreign tourists in Britain. It specifically characterizes how these travelers congregate in significant numbers to visit the historic residences associated with playwrights, writers, and poets, illustrating a mass preference for sites of humanistic and artistic value over those of scientific history.
133English Comprehension
"Science cannot reduce the magic of a sunset to arithmetic, nor can it express friendship with a formula" observed the eminent medical researcher, Dr. Lous Orr. He added, "also beyond science's mastery of nature are love and laughter, pain and loneliness and insights into truth and beauty". This distancing of science from the human condition perhaps explains why most foreign tourists visiting Britain flock predictably to see the hallowed homes of playwrights, writers and poets, but choose to ignore the habitations where its eminent scientists lived and worked.
Why according to the author do tourists prefer to visit hallowed homes of playwrights, writers and poets rather than visiting the habitation of eminent scientists?
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Answer: (B) Science cannot explain human emotions hence people have a soft corner for those who produce a splendid display of emotions in their work.
Explanation
The author links the travel preferences of tourists to the inherent limitations of science in addressing the human experience. According to the passage, science is unable to master or express complex human emotions and subjective values such as love, laughter, friendship, and beauty through formulas or arithmetic. In contrast, playwrights, writers, and poets focus their work on these very aspects of the human condition. Because people find more personal meaning and emotional resonance in the works of literary figures than in the detached, quantifiable world of scientific research, they develop a preference for visiting the sites associated with those who capture the essence of human feelings and insights into truth.
134English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
When shall we (a) / arrive (b) / to our destination? (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (C) c
Explanation
The error lies in the use of the preposition to following the verb arrive. In standard English grammar, the verb arrive is typically followed by the preposition at when referring to a specific place or a point of destination, such as a station, a building, or a specific coordinate. It is followed by in when referring to a city, country, or large geographic area. While verbs of motion like go or travel take the preposition to to indicate direction toward a goal, arrive signifies the completion of a journey at a point. Consequently, the correct construction for this sentence is arrive at our destination.
135English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
Based on the newspaper reports, (a) / we can conclude that (b) / many accidents caused by reckless driving, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (C) c
Explanation
The error in part (c) is the omission of a finite verb required to complete the subordinate clause introduced by the conjunction that in part (b). In the phrase many accidents caused by reckless driving, the word caused acts as a past participle modifying the noun accidents rather than serving as the main verb of the clause. To make the sentence grammatically correct, an auxiliary verb such as are or were must be added before caused to form the passive voice, or the structure must be changed to include a finite verb. Without this addition, the subject many accidents lacks a predicate, leaving the thought incomplete.
136English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
Females (a) / are not appointed (b) / in our college, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (D) d
Explanation
The sentence is grammatically sound as it adheres to the standard rules of subject-verb agreement and syntax. The plural noun Females acts as the subject and correctly agrees with the plural auxiliary verb are. The use of the passive voice in are not appointed is appropriate for describing an institutional policy or a general state of affairs regarding the hiring process. Furthermore, the prepositional phrase in our college correctly identifies the location or context of the action. There are no errors in word choice, tense, or structural composition within the given parts.
137English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
The officer (a) / is angry on the clerk (b) / for not attending to the work, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (B) b
Explanation
The adjective angry requires specific prepositions depending on the object of the anger. When expressing anger toward a person, the standard preposition is with. The phrase should correctly read as angry with the clerk. The preposition on is grammatically incorrect in this context as it does not denote the relationship between the emotion and the individual who is the target of that emotion. While at is sometimes used for situations or behaviors, with remains the standard choice for people in formal English.
138English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
No sooner (a) /1 had spoken, (b) / than he left, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (B) b
Explanation
The sentence begins with the negative expression no sooner, which requires the use of inversion in the main clause. Inversion means that the auxiliary verb must be placed before the subject. In part (b), the word order I had spoken is a standard declarative structure rather than an inverted one. To make the sentence grammatically correct, the auxiliary verb had should precede the subject I, resulting in the construction had I spoken. This rule of inversion is strictly followed when negative or restrictive adverbs like no sooner, hardly, or scarcely are placed at the start of a sentence for emphasis.
139English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
Computer education (a) / in universities and colleges today (b) / leaves much to be desired, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (D) d
Explanation
The sentence is grammatically correct as the singular subject computer education agrees with the singular verb leaves, and the idiom leaves much to be desired is used correctly to mean that something is unsatisfactory. There are no errors in syntax, preposition usage, or tense.
140English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
You will be persecuted (a) / for bringing seeds (b) / into Australia, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (A) a
Explanation
The word persecuted is used incorrectly in this context as it refers to harassment or ill-treatment based on race or religion. The correct term for legal action taken against someone for breaking a law is prosecuted.
141English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
You must either tell me (a) / the whole story or at least, (b) / the first half of it. (c) / No error(d)
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Answer: (A) a
Explanation
The correlative conjunctions either... or require parallel grammatical structures to be used for the elements they connect. This means that if or is followed by a noun phrase, either must also be followed by a noun phrase. In the given sentence, either precedes the verb phrase tell me, while or precedes the noun phrase at least the first half of it. To achieve correct parallelism, the word either must be placed after the verb tell me. This ensures that both either and or are followed by noun phrases, specifically the whole story and at least the first half of it. The misplaced position of either in the first part of the sentence creates the grammatical error.
142English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
Our new neighbours (a) / had been living in Arizona (b) / since ten years before moving to their present house, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (C) c
Explanation
The error lies in the use of the preposition since. In English grammar, since is used to indicate a specific point in time when an action started, such as since 1995 or since Monday. For is used to denote a duration or a period of time, such as for two hours or for ten years. Because ten years represents a span of time rather than a specific starting point, the correct preposition to use in this context is for.
143English Comprehension
Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle corresponding to the appropriate letter (a, b, c). If there is no error, choose (d).
The patient (a) / was accompanied (b) / with his friend, (c) / No error (d)
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Answer: (C) c
Explanation
The error in part (c) lies in the incorrect choice of preposition following the verb accompanied in the passive voice. When a person is mentioned as a companion, the verb accompany must be followed by the preposition by rather than with. The preposition with is typically used when referring to inanimate objects or symptoms that occur together. Since a friend is a person, the sentence requires the use of by to correctly denote companionship. The grammatically accurate construction is was accompanied by his friend.
144English Comprehension
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
CONCILIATION
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Answer: (D) Confrontation
Explanation
Conciliation refers to the process of stopping someone from being angry or the act of mediating between two disputing parties to reach an amicable agreement. It is characterized by peace-making, harmony, and the restoration of friendly relations. Confrontation is the direct opposite as it signifies a hostile or argumentative meeting or situation between opposing parties. While conciliation seeks to avoid or resolve conflict through mediation, confrontation represents the active state of clashing or facing an opponent in a defiant or antagonistic manner.
145English Comprehension
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
MYTH
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Answer: (B) Fact
Explanation
A myth is defined as a traditional story, typically concerning the early history of a people or explaining a natural or social phenomenon, often involving supernatural beings. In a more general sense, it refers to a widely held but false belief or idea. Conversely, a fact is a piece of information used as evidence or as part of a report or news article, representing something that is known or proven to be true through objective reality and verification. Therefore, the concept of a proven, evidence-based reality serves as the direct antonym to an unverified or legendary narrative.
146English Comprehension
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
RELUCTANTLY
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Answer: (B) Willingly
Explanation
Reluctantly is an adverb that describes an action performed with hesitation, doubt, or a lack of desire. It implies that the person is doing something against their internal preference or with a degree of resistance. In contrast, willingly signifies that an action is carried out with one's own free will, readiness, and without any hesitation or compulsion. Since one term denotes a lack of inclination while the other denotes a ready desire to act, they are direct opposites in the context of human volition and attitude.
147English Comprehension
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
MUTILATE
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Answer: (D) Mend
Explanation
The word mutilate means to inflict a violent and disfiguring injury on something or to damage it so severely that it is rendered imperfect or ruined. In contrast, the word mend means to repair something that is broken, damaged, or torn, or to restore something to its original, functional, or healthy condition. While mutilate involves the destruction or marring of a structure or form, mend involves the process of fixing and restoring it, making the two words opposites in meaning.
148English Comprehension
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
LAMENT
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Answer: (A) Rejoice
Explanation
The word lament refers to the expression of deep grief, sorrow, or regret, often manifested through mourning or weeping. Its primary meaning involves focusing on sadness or a sense of loss. The word rejoice signifies the feeling or outward expression of great joy, delight, or triumph. Because lamenting involves a state of mourning and rejoicing involves a state of celebration and happiness, they are direct opposites in meaning.
149English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.
GRANDEUR
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Answer: (A) Magnificence
Explanation
Grandeur refers to the quality or state of being impressive, splendid, or magnificent in appearance or style. It denotes a sense of majesty and greatness, often used to describe architectural beauty, vast natural landscapes, or high social status. Magnificence is the most accurate synonym as it also describes the quality of being extremely beautiful, elaborate, or impressive in scale. Both words convey the idea of something that is grand and visually or conceptually striking.
150English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.
INCEPTION
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Answer: (B) Beginning
Explanation
Inception is defined as the starting point or commencement of an institution, activity, or process, which is most accurately captured by the word beginning. While origin is a synonym, beginning is the primary and more direct definition used in linguistic contexts.
151English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.
COLOSSAL
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Answer: (D) Enormous
Explanation
The word colossal is derived from the Greek word kolossos, which refers to a giant statue of much larger than life size, such as the Colossus of Rhodes. In modern English usage, it functions as an adjective to describe something that is exceptionally large, massive, or vast in scale, extent, or degree. The term enormous is a direct synonym as it signifies a size, quantity, or intensity that deviates greatly from the common measure or is extraordinarily large. Thus, enormous accurately expresses the primary meaning of colossal.
152English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.
PARADOX
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Answer: (C) Puzzle
Explanation
A paradox is a statement, proposition, or situation that seems self-contradictory or absurd but in reality expresses a possible truth. Because it presents conflicting ideas that are difficult to reconcile or understand at first glance, it functions as a mental puzzle or an enigma. The term is often used to describe circumstances that are baffling or hard to explain due to their inherent contradictions, making puzzle the most appropriate synonym.
153English Comprehension
Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.
PROLIFERATE
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Answer: (D) Reproduce
Explanation
The word proliferate is derived from the Latin prolifer, meaning producing offspring. It refers to the process by which an organism, cell, or population increases rapidly in number through the multiplication of parts or individuals. In a biological context, it specifically describes the way cells divide and grow. In a general sense, it signifies spreading or growing at a fast pace. The term reproduce directly captures this core meaning of generating new units or individuals to increase the total count, serving as a primary synonym for the act of rapid multiplication or production.
154English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
The failure of crops in successive years put the farmer in "a tight corner."
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Answer: (C) In a difficult situation
Explanation
The idiom a tight corner refers to a state of great difficulty or a predicament where one has very little room to maneuver or escape. In the context of a farmer facing successive crop failures, it signifies the resulting financial hardship and precarious circumstances that create a challenging environment for survival and recovery. This expression draws a metaphorical parallel between being physically trapped in a narrow space and being caught in an overwhelming or stressful life situation.
155English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
The effort to trace the culprit was a "wild goose chase."
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Answer: (B) Futile search
Explanation
The idiom wild goose chase refers to a pursuit or search that is entirely pointless, unsuccessful, or destined for failure. It describes a task where the effort expended leads to no result because the objective is either non-existent or unattainable. The phrase originated in the late sixteenth century, initially referring to a specific type of horse race where riders followed a lead horse in a formation resembling a flock of wild geese in flight. Because wild geese are notoriously difficult to catch or follow in a predictable manner, the term evolved to represent any disorganized and unproductive quest. In the context of tracing a culprit, it indicates that the investigation was a hopeless and useless endeavor.
156English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
The story "does not hold water."
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Answer: (C) Cannot be believed
Explanation
The idiom hold water means to be logically sound, valid, or consistent. If a story does not hold water, it lacks credibility or logical consistency and therefore cannot be believed.
157English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
Raj couldn't pay the bill, so he asked the owner to put it "on the cuff."
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Answer: (A) On credit
Explanation
The idiom on the cuff means to obtain goods or services on credit with the promise to pay the balance at a later time. The phrase originated from the late 19th-century practice of bartenders or clerks scribbling a customer's debt onto their large, starched shirt cuffs. This served as a convenient and immediate way to keep a record of what was owed before the amount was transferred to a formal ledger. In this context, Raj is asking the owner to record the debt as an account to be settled in the future rather than paying the bill immediately.
158English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
His statement is "out and out" a lie.
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Answer: (A) Totally
Explanation
The idiom out and out is used as an intensifier meaning complete, absolute, or thorough. When characterizing a statement as an out and out lie, it signifies that the claim is entirely false with no element of truth. The phrase functions to emphasize that the quality being described is present to the fullest possible extent, making it synonymous with totally or completely.
159English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
The luxury car that they bought turned out to be a "white elephant."
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Answer: (C) Costly or troublesome possession
Explanation
The idiom white elephant refers to a possession that is useless or troublesome, especially one that is expensive to maintain or difficult to dispose of. Historically, the Kings of Siam were said to gift sacred white elephants to courtiers they disliked; because the animals were expensive to keep and could not be used for labor, they would eventually ruin the recipient financially. In modern usage, a luxury car described this way implies that its high maintenance costs and constant need for repairs outweigh its utility or prestige.
160English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
If you are "fair and square" in your work you will definitely prosper.
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Answer: (B) Honest
Explanation
The idiom fair and square means to be completely honest, direct, and upright, particularly in business dealings or competitive situations. It describes a person who follows the rules strictly without any deception or foul play. In the context of the sentence, it implies that maintaining high standards of integrity and ethical conduct in one's work leads to long-term success and prosperity. The term square has been used figuratively for centuries to denote something that is equitable and straightforward, reflecting a sense of balance and justice.
161English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
There is "no love lost between" any two neighbouring countries in the world.
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Answer: (B) Not on good terms
Explanation
The idiom no love lost between is used to indicate that two people or groups dislike each other significantly. It implies a state of mutual animosity, hostility, or ill will where no affection exists to be wasted or lost in the relationship. In the context of international relations between neighboring countries, it describes a situation where diplomatic ties are strained and the parties are not on good terms.
162English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
The heavy downpour "played havoc" in the coastal area.
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Answer: (A) Caused destruction
Explanation
The idiom play havoc means to cause widespread damage, chaos, or disorder. When used in the context of natural phenomena like a heavy downpour, it signifies that the event resulted in severe disruption and physical damage to the affected region. The phrase conveys a sense of uncontrollable force leading to ruinous consequences.
163English Comprehension
Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase.
To have a "green thumb" means
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Answer: (C) To have a natural interest in gardening
Explanation
The idiom green thumb refers to a person who possesses a natural talent or exceptional skill for gardening and making plants grow well. It signifies that the individual is highly successful in cultivating vegetation and has a deep-seated interest in horticultural activities. The expression likely originates from the physical stains of chlorophyll or algae that appear on the hands of an active gardener when handling plants and terracotta pots.
164English Comprehension
Four words have been written out of which three are correctly spelt and one is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word out of the four responses
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Answer: (B) Iminent
Explanation
The word provided in option b is misspelled because it lacks the required double m. The correct spelling is imminent, which is derived from the Latin word imminere, meaning to overhang or impend. In English, it is used to describe an event, typically something threatening or significant, that is about to happen or is fast approaching. Standard orthography requires the double consonant m to follow the initial vowel.
165English Comprehension
Four words have been written out of which three are correctly spelt and one is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word out of the four responses
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Answer: (C) Dietician
Explanation
The words Mathematician, Statistician, and Physician are all spelled correctly. The word Dietician is commonly considered a misspelling in formal English and competitive exams, where the standard preferred spelling is Dietitian.
166English Comprehension
Four words have been written out of which three are correctly spelt and one is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word out of the four responses
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Answer: (B) Furmidable
Explanation
The word in option b is misspelled as Furmidable. The correct spelling is Formidable, which begins with the prefix formi- instead of furmi-. This term is derived from the Latin word formidabilis, originating from formido, meaning fear or terror. It is used to describe something that inspires respect or fear because it is impressively large, powerful, intense, or difficult to overcome.
167English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Nadeeka was musing ______ memories of the past.
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Answer: (C) On
Explanation
The verb muse is frequently paired with the preposition on to form an idiomatic expression meaning to reflect deeply, meditate, or ponder. When a person is lost in thought regarding a specific subject, such as memories of the past, the preposition on identifies the focus of that contemplation. This usage follows established grammatical patterns where muse on indicates a state of being absorbed in quiet reflection over a particular topic.
168English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
The lame boy tried to climb up the staircase without ______ Help
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Answer: (B) Any
Explanation
The word any is the standard determiner used in negative contexts or with words like without to indicate a total absence of something. Help is an uncountable noun, so many is grammatically incorrect, while any fits the context perfectly.
169English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Each school has its own set of rules ________ all good pupils should follow them.
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Answer: (D) And
Explanation
The sentence consists of two independent clauses that express complementary ideas. The first clause establishes the existence of school rules, while the second clause describes a corresponding action or expectation regarding those rules. The coordinating conjunction and is used to join words, phrases, or clauses that are grammatically equal and logically related in a cumulative or additive sense. In this context, it effectively connects the fact that rules exist with the supplementary information that good pupils are expected to adhere to them, creating a cohesive and logical flow of thought without implying a contrast, a choice, or a condition.
170English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
On my return from a long holiday, I had to _______ with a lot of work
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Answer: (B) Catch up
Explanation
The phrasal verb catch up with is used to describe the act of doing tasks that should have been completed earlier or reaching a necessary level after a period of delay. In the context of returning from a long holiday, it signifies addressing the backlog of accumulated work to return to a current or up-to-date status.
171English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Only one of the boys _______ not done the homework given yesterday.
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Answer: (B) Has
Explanation
The subject of the sentence is the phrase Only one, which is a singular noun phrase. In subject-verb agreement, when the subject follows the pattern one of plus plural noun, the verb must be singular because it refers to a single individual from the group. Therefore, the singular auxiliary verb has is used to complete the present perfect tense.
172English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Hopes of a settlement depends on the ______ of the discussion.
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Answer: (B) Outcome
Explanation
The term outcome refers to the final result, consequence, or end product of a specific process or event. In the context of negotiations or formal talks, the success of a settlement is logically dependent on the final result reached during those talks. Using outcome completes the causal link between the discussion phase and the eventual resolution, as it signifies the conclusion derived from the exchange of ideas or the deliberation of points.
173English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
We must avail ourselves _______ every opportunity that comes ______ our way.
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Answer: (A) Of;In
Explanation
The verb avail is used reflexively in this context, and according to standard English idiom, the phrase avail oneself is always followed by the preposition of. This construction is used to express the act of taking advantage of or making use of a particular opportunity or resource. In the second blank, the preposition in is used to complete the phrase comes in our way, which is a common idiomatic expression signifying that something has presented itself or occurred in the course of one's life or activities. Together, these prepositions ensure the sentence is both grammatically precise and idiomatically sound.
174English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
It is time we _______ with determination.
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Answer: (B) Acted
Explanation
The phrase "It is time" followed by a subject requires the use of the simple past tense to express the past subjunctive mood. This construction is used to suggest that an action should have started already or is overdue. When the sentence structure follows the pattern of "It is time + subject + verb," the verb must be in its past form even though the meaning refers to the present or immediate future. Therefore, "acted" is the grammatically appropriate choice to indicate that the moment for acting with determination has arrived.
175English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
When the thief entered the house, the inmates _______ in the hall.
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Answer: (B) Were sleeping
Explanation
The sentence describes a background action that was already in progress when a second, shorter action occurred in the past. In English grammar, the Past Continuous tense is used to denote an ongoing activity that serves as the context for a specific event expressed in the Simple Past. In this construction, the clause using when contains the Simple Past verb entered, while the main clause requires the Past Continuous form were sleeping to show that the inmates were in the middle of their sleep at the moment the thief arrived.
176English Comprehension
Fill in the blanks with an appropriate and suitable word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
700 men worked for 10 years to _______ the Borobudur temple in Java to its former glory.
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Answer: (A) Restore
Explanation
The word restore is the most suitable choice in the context of historical architecture and preservation. It specifically means to return a building or work of art to its original or former condition. The phrase to its former glory is a standard idiomatic expression frequently used with restore to describe the process of bringing a degraded or damaged monument back to its peak aesthetic and structural state. This usage correctly reflects the massive archaeological and engineering efforts undertaken by Indonesia and UNESCO in the late 20th century to stabilize and reconstruct the Borobudur temple.
177English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
Please report to me when "you return back" from Delhi.
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Answer: (B) You return from
Explanation
The word return is defined as coming back or going back to a place. Using the word back immediately after return creates a grammatical redundancy because the sense of returning already encompasses the direction of moving back. To maintain concise and proper English usage, the adverb back should be omitted. Additionally, in subordinate clauses introduced by conjunctions of time like when, the simple present tense is used to refer to a future action or event. Therefore, the phrase you return from Delhi is the grammatically correct way to express the intended meaning.
178English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
Ravi has been demanding a lot more marks, "doesn't he?"
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Answer: (A) Hasn't he?
Explanation
In English grammar, a question tag must match the tense and the auxiliary verb of the principal clause. The sentence provided uses the present perfect continuous tense with the auxiliary verb has. Since the statement is positive, the question tag must be negative. By using the auxiliary verb has in its negative form hasn't and pairing it with the personal pronoun he to represent the subject Ravi, the correct tag is formed.
179English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
Exercise is "benevolent" to good health.
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Answer: (A) Beneficial
Explanation
The word beneficial is the most appropriate adjective to describe the relationship between exercise and health because it means resulting in good or having a helpful or useful effect. While benevolent is typically used to describe a person who is well-meaning and kindly, beneficial is used for things, actions, or conditions that produce a positive advantage or improvement in a specific state, such as physical well-being. In standard English usage, something that contributes to or promotes good health is described as being beneficial to that health.
180English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
He parked his vehicle "under" the shade of a tree
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Answer: (B) In
Explanation
The preposition in is the grammatically correct choice when referring to being within an area of darkness or coolness created by the blockage of light. Shade is treated as a three-dimensional space or a state of being surrounded by shadow rather than a physical object that one can be positioned beneath. Therefore, idiomatic English requires the use of in to describe the location of an object within the limits of that shaded area.
181English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
"In case" if it rains, I shall not visit you.
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Answer: (C) If
Explanation
The original sentence contains a grammatical redundancy because both in case and if are conditional conjunctions used to introduce a dependent clause. Using them together is a pleonasm. By replacing the quoted part with if, the sentence follows the standard structure of a first conditional, where a real or possible situation in the present or future is expressed. The simple present tense in the if-clause correctly pairs with the simple future tense in the main clause to indicate that the refusal to visit is contingent upon the occurrence of rain.
182English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
TV sets have become costlier, thanks to the sudden rise in the prices of imported "compounds."
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Answer: (B) Components
Explanation
The term components is the technically accurate word used to describe the individual parts or units that make up an electronic device such as a television set. In the context of manufacturing and international trade, electronic components refers to the hardware elements like integrated circuits, capacitors, and transistors that are often imported to assemble the final product. Using this term correctly identifies the specific physical parts whose price increase would directly lead to a higher retail cost for the TV sets.
183English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
Because the enemy had a reputation for engaging in sneak attacks we were "frequently" on the alert.
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Answer: (C) Constantly
Explanation
The term sneak attacks implies an unpredictable and sudden threat that can occur at any moment without warning. When an enemy possesses a reputation for such tactics, a periodic or intermittent state of readiness is insufficient for security. To ensure safety against a continuous and hidden danger, the state of being on alert must be unceasing and perpetual. The word constantly is the most logically sound choice in this context because it signifies a persistent, uninterrupted state of vigilance that aligns with the need to be prepared for a surprise attack at any time.
184English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
"Less" people came to watch cricket matches this year, so the gate receipts were lesser than last year.
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Answer: (B) Fewer
Explanation
The word people is a countable plural noun. In standard English grammar, fewer is used as the comparative adjective when referring to items that can be counted individually. Conversely, less is reserved for uncountable mass nouns or abstract concepts. Since the sentence discusses a numerical reduction in the number of spectators attending a cricket match, fewer is the grammatically accurate term to modify the noun people.
185English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
God has "bestowed man" unusual gifts.
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Answer: (C) Bestowed on man
Explanation
The verb bestow is traditionally followed by the preposition on or upon to indicate the recipient of a gift, honor, or quality. The standard idiomatic structure is to bestow something on someone. In this sentence, God is the giver, unusual gifts are the things being given, and man is the recipient. Therefore, the preposition on is required to connect the verb to the recipient man. This construction remains grammatically sound even when the prepositional phrase precedes the direct object for stylistic emphasis in formal or religious contexts.
186English Comprehension
Below are given alternatives to the quoted part as (a), (b), and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).
Many workers were being "held hostages".
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Answer: (D) No improvement
Explanation
The original sentence is grammatically correct as it employs "hostages" as a predicative complement. In this construction, the verb "hold" in its passive form "were being held" is followed directly by a noun that describes the state or status of the subject. This is a standard English structure similar to being "held prisoner" or "held captive." Because the subject "many workers" is plural, the noun "hostages" correctly takes the plural form to ensure numerical agreement. The phrase concisely defines the condition of the workers without the need for supplementary prepositions.
187English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. A dictionary
P. arranged words
Q. about which information
R. containing alphabetically
S. is a book
6. is given
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Answer: (C) SRPQ
Explanation
The sentence follows a logical grammatical structure by first defining the subject. Starting with the opening phrase A dictionary, the most natural continuation is the verb and predicate noun found in part S, is a book. To describe the specific nature of this book, the participle phrase beginning with R, containing alphabetically, followed by P, arranged words, serves as an adjectival modifier. This establishes that the book contains words organized in a specific order. The relative clause beginning with Q, about which information, then provides further detail regarding these words, linking seamlessly to the final part 6, is given. The complete, coherent sentence reads: A dictionary is a book containing alphabetically arranged words about which information is given.
188English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. Agriculture
P. cotton for our clothes
Q. raw materials like jute
R. and sugarcane for our industries
S. gives us food
6. and food for cattle
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Answer: (D) SPRQ
Explanation
The sentence begins with the subject Agriculture (1), which requires a verb to form a complete predicate. Part S provides this verb gives along with the first object food, making it the necessary first part of the sequence. Following the mention of food, the sentence lists other agricultural products. Part P (cotton for our clothes) provides the next item in the list. Part R (and sugarcane for our industries) uses the conjunction and to conclude the first set of primary agricultural goods. Part Q (raw materials like jute) then introduces a further category of products, which is finally paired with part 6 (and food for cattle) to complete the entire list and the sentence structure. This arrangement creates two distinct groups of agricultural outputs, each ending with a conjunction.
189English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. Today political freedom
P. and the right
Q. however money and all that money
R. assures people equality before law
S. to elect their Government
6. can buy is not fairly distributed
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Answer: (B) RPSQ
Explanation
The sentence structure begins with the subject Today political freedom, which is followed by the singular verb assures in part R. This verb takes people as an indirect object and equality before law as the first direct object. Part P uses the conjunction and to link the second direct object, the right, which is then specified by the infinitive phrase to elect their Government in part S. This completes the statement regarding the benefits of political freedom. The sentence then transitions using the word however in part Q to introduce a contrasting economic point. Part Q provides the subject money and all that money, which naturally leads into the final segment in part 6, can buy is not fairly distributed. This arrangement maintains grammatical consistency and creates a logical contrast between political equality and economic inequality.
190English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. By far the most logical step
P. to relieve the housewife of routine
Q. which can be programmed
R. to carry out standard operations
S. is to provide a robot
6. when switched by the housewife.
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Answer: (B) PSQR
Explanation
The sentence structure follows a logical progression where the purpose of the action is defined before the action itself. Part 1, By far the most logical step, is naturally followed by the infinitive phrase in part P, to relieve the housewife of routine, which specifies the goal of the step. This is followed by the main verb and complement in part S, is to provide a robot, defining what the step actually entails. The noun robot is then immediately qualified by the relative clause in part Q, which can be programmed, to explain the nature of the machine. Part R, to carry out standard operations, completes the thought by describing the function of the programming, which then flows into the concluding condition in part 6, when switched by the housewife.
191English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. During the reign of the Emperor Tiberius
P. called Phaedrus
Q. an Augustan story teller
R. translated Aesop's fables into Latin
S. in ancient Rome
6. and also added some tales of his own
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Answer: (C) SQPR
Explanation
The sentence construction follows a logical sequence starting with the temporal setting in part 1, which is naturally followed by the geographical setting in ancient Rome (S). After establishing the time and place, the sentence introduces the subject by describing his role as an Augustan story teller (Q) and providing his specific name, Phaedrus (P). This identification of the subject leads directly to the main action of the sentence, which is the translation of Aesop's fables into Latin (R). The verb phrase in part R then connects grammatically and contextually to the concluding part 6, which details the additional original tales contributed by the author. This arrangement ensures that the modifiers and the subject-predicate relationship remain clear and coherent.
192English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. The pigeons were used
P. as messengers
Q. which were tied
R. in the olden days
S. to carry messages
6. to their feet
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Answer: (C) PRSQ
Explanation
The sentence construction follows a logical and grammatical sequence that defines the subject's role, historical context, and specific function. The opening segment (1) leads into P (as messengers) to establish the identity of the pigeons in this context. R (in the olden days) provides the necessary temporal setting for the practice. S (to carry messages) introduces the purpose of using these messengers. Finally, Q (which were tied) introduces a relative clause that modifies the noun "messages" appearing at the end of S, which is then seamlessly completed by the terminal segment (6) describing where the messages were fastened (to their feet). This structure ensures that modifiers are placed adjacent to the words they describe.
193English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. The school has always been
P. tradition from one
Q. the most important
R. the wealth of
S. means of transferring
6. generation to the next
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Answer: (B) QSRP
Explanation
The sequence QSRP follows the logical and grammatical structure of the English language. Part 1 establishes the subject and verb, which is then naturally followed by the superlative adjective phrase in Part Q to describe the school's status as the most important. Part S identifies the school as a means of transferring, where the gerund transferring necessitates an object. This object is provided in Part R as the wealth of, which is further defined in Part P as tradition. Part P concludes with the phrase from one, which creates a necessary link to Part 6, generation to the next, completing the idiomatic expression from one generation to the next. The full sentence identifies the school as the primary institution for passing down cultural and intellectual heritage over time.
194English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. When she got to her house, there was nothing to retrieve.
P. All valuables were smashed or stolen,
Q. The curtains were burned; books were ripped to shreds.
R. Her medals and trophies had been flung everywhere.
S. The house had been completely ransacked.
6. Mirsada stood in the centre of her bedroom looking at a ruined copy of the Koran forcing back her tears.
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Answer: (A) PQRS
Explanation
The sequence follows a narrative progression that moves from specific examples of destruction to a broad summary of the scene. Part P ends with a comma, creating a grammatical link to the clauses in part Q that list further examples of damage, such as burned curtains and shredded books. Part R continues this inventory by describing the state of the medals and trophies. Once these specific items have been enumerated, part S provides a concluding summary statement that the house had been completely ransacked. This arrangement allows the narrative to transition from a list of general household damage to the specific, poignant image in sentence 6, where Mirsada stands in her bedroom and focuses on a single ruined object. This inductive structure effectively builds the sense of total loss before narrowing the focus to a personal emotional moment.
195English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. The student came late to the school.
P. He went home weeping.
Q. The watchman didn't allow him inside the school.
R. The boy was waiting outside for some time.
S. He then decided to go home.
6. It was a bad day for him.
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Answer: (C) QRSP
Explanation
The sentence structure follows a chronological and logical sequence of events. After the student arrives late (1), the immediate consequence is the watchman denying him entry (Q). Having been stopped at the gate, the student's next action is to wait outside for a period of time (R) in hopes of being let in. Once he realizes he will not be allowed inside, he reaches the decision to return home (S). Part P then describes the manner in which he carries out that decision, going home in tears. This sequence of being barred, waiting, deciding to leave, and finally leaving weeping provides a coherent narrative that justifies the concluding remark (6) that it was a bad day for him.
196English Comprehension
The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
1. Oliver dozed off again and it had been bright day for hours when Oliver opened his eyes.
P. He belonged to the world again.
Q. In three day's time, he was able to sit in an easy chair, well propped up with pillows, but he was still too weak to walk.
R. He felt cheerful and happy.
S. The crisis of the disease was safely past.
6. Mrs. Beduin had him carried downstairs into the little housekeeper's room which belonged to her.
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Answer: (B) RSPQ
Explanation
The sequence follows a logical progression from Oliver's immediate physical state to his medical condition and subsequent recovery over time. Sentence 1 describes Oliver waking up after a long sleep. Part R follows naturally by describing his immediate emotional state of feeling cheerful and happy upon waking. Part S provides the medical justification for this improvement, noting that the crisis of his disease had passed. This leads to part P, which summarizes his return to health as belonging to the world again. Part Q introduces a chronological shift of three days, noting that while he could sit up, he was still too weak to walk. This specific detail in Q provides the direct reason for sentence 6, where Mrs. Beduin has him carried downstairs because of his inability to walk.