SSC CGL2012General AwarenessPage 4 of 5

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 General Awareness Questions with Solutions

Questions from every shift of the year, grouped by section. Questions 151–200 of 248, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation.

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151General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually GNP calculation through Expenditure Method does not include
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Answer: (B) Net Foreign Investments

Explanation

The Expenditure Method calculates Gross National Product (GNP) by summing the total spending on all final goods and services produced by a country's residents within a specific period. The fundamental formula for this calculation is:

GNP = C + I + G + (X - M) + NFIA

In this identity, C represents Private Consumption Expenditure, I denotes Gross Domestic Private Investment, G is Government Expenditure on goods and services, (X - M) represents Net Exports, and NFIA is the Net Factor Income from Abroad.

Net Foreign Investment refers to the net flow of capital used for the acquisition of foreign financial assets (such as stocks and bonds) or the purchase of existing property by non-residents. These transactions belong to the capital account of the Balance of Payments. Since the Expenditure Method measures the market value of current production in the product market, it only accounts for spending on newly produced goods and services. Financial transfers and asset acquisitions like Net Foreign Investment do not constitute the purchase of current output and are therefore excluded from the GNP calculation under the Expenditure Method.

152General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually The Cobb Douglas Production function Q = ALᵃK¹⁻ᵃ is based on
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Answer: (C) constant returns to scale

Explanation

The Cobb-Douglas production function is generally represented as Q = ALᵅKᵝ, where the sum of the exponents α + β determines the returns to scale. In the given function Q = ALᵃK¹⁻ᵃ, the exponents for labor and capital are a and 1-a respectively. Calculating the sum of these exponents gives a + (1 - a) = 1. When the sum of the exponents in a Cobb-Douglas production function equals one, the function is said to be linearly homogeneous, which mathematically represents constant returns to scale. This implies that if all inputs are increased by a specific factor, the total output will increase by that same factor.

153General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Find the odd one out of the following:
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Answer: (D) Reliance Industries Limited

Explanation

Reliance Industries Limited is a diversified conglomerate with core business interests in sectors such as energy, petrochemicals, textiles, and retail. It functions as a multi-sector industrial giant. This differentiates it from the other entities, all of which are specialized organizations primarily focused on providing services within the transportation sector.

154General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Monetary Policy in India is laid down and executed by
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Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central banking institution of the country and is legally mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, to formulate and implement the monetary policy. The primary objective of the monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. The RBI regulates the supply of money, the availability of credit, and the cost of credit (interest rates) through various direct and indirect instruments. These tools include the Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), and Open Market Operations (OMO). By adjusting these parameters, the RBI manages liquidity in the banking system to control inflation and influence the macroeconomic environment of India.

155General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which one of the following subjects is not available on the Union List?
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Answer: (C) Trade Union

Explanation

Trade Unions, including industrial and labor disputes, are categorized under Entry 22 of the Concurrent List (List III) within the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This classification empowers both the Parliament and the State Legislatures to enact laws concerning the formation, registration, and functioning of labor organizations. Consequently, the subject is not part of the Union List, which is reserved for matters under the exclusive legislative jurisdiction of the Central government.

156General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually The term "closure" in Parliamentary terminology implies
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Answer: (B) stoppage of debate on a motion

Explanation

Closure is a parliamentary procedure that allows a member of the House to move a motion to terminate the discussion on a matter currently under debate. When such a motion is moved and approved by the House, the debate on the specific subject is stopped immediately, and the matter is put to a vote. This mechanism is used to manage the time of the House and ensure that proceedings move forward to a decision without being delayed by indefinite discussion. Various types of closure exist, such as simple closure, closure by compartments, kangaroo closure, and guillotine, all of which aim to conclude the deliberative phase of a motion or bill.

157General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Article 17 - Abolition of titles

Explanation

Article 17 of the Constitution of India provides for the Abolition of Untouchability. It states that untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden, and the enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. The subject of Abolition of Titles is actually covered under Article 18, which prohibits the State from conferring any titles except those of military or academic distinction. Because Article 17 specifically addresses the social evil of untouchability and not the legal status of titles, the pairing in this option is inaccurate.

158General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which of the following Presidents held office for two consecutive terms?
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Answer: (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Explanation

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of the Republic of India and is the only person to have served two consecutive terms in the office. He assumed the presidency on January 26, 1950, following the adoption of the Constitution. He was subsequently elected by the electoral college in 1952 and re-elected for a second full term in 1957. His continuous service lasted until May 13, 1962, making him the longest-serving President in Indian history.

159General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?
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Answer: (D) 61st

Explanation

The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 amended Article 326 of the Indian Constitution to lower the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies from 21 to 18 years. This change was introduced to provide the younger generation with the opportunity to participate in the political process and express their aspirations through the electoral system. The legislation was passed during the tenure of Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi and officially came into force on March 28, 1989, after receiving the required ratification from the state legislatures and the President of India.

160General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Match the Following: a) Vikrama Era b) Saka Era c) Kalachuri Era d) Gupta Era 1. AD 248 2. AD 320 3. 58 BC 4. AD 78 Code:
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Answer: (B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

Explanation

The Vikrama Era began in 58 BC and is traditionally associated with King Vikramaditya of Ujjain to commemorate his victory over the Sakas. The Saka Era was founded by the Kushana ruler Kanishka in AD 78 and currently serves as the basis for the Indian National Calendar. The Kalachuri Era, also referred to as the Traikutaka or Chedi era, was established in AD 248 by the Abhira king Ishwarsena and later utilized by the Kalachuri dynasty. The Gupta Era was initiated in AD 320 by Chandragupta I to mark his accession to the throne and the formal beginning of the Gupta Empire.

161General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Mahavira was the
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Answer: (B) 24th Tirthankara

Explanation

Vardhamana Mahavira is recognized as the twenty-fourth and final Tirthankara of the current cosmic age in Jainism. He was born into the Ikshvaku dynasty in Kundagrama and attained Kevala Jnana, or supreme omniscience, after twelve years of intense meditation and penance. As a spiritual successor to Parshvanatha, Mahavira reorganized the Jain teachings and established the five great vows known as Mahavratas, specifically adding the vow of celibacy to the four existing principles. His life and teachings in the 6th century BCE were instrumental in codifying Jain philosophy and expanding the reach of the religion across the Indian subcontinent.

162General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which one among the following woman scholars challenged the invincible Yajnavalkya in debate?
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Answer: (D) Gargi

Explanation

Gargi Vachaknavi was a renowned philosopher and scholar of the Vedic period who famously challenged the sage Yajnavalkya in a philosophical debate. This intellectual exchange is recorded in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad and took place in the court of King Janaka of Videha during a Brahmayajna organized by him. As a Brahmavadini, Gargi questioned Yajnavalkya on the ultimate nature of the universe, asking him about the foundation upon which the world is woven like warp and woof. Her persistence and profound inquiries into the nature of Brahman forced Yajnavalkya to acknowledge her scholarship, and she is celebrated as one of the few women mentioned in the Upanishads as a seeker of the highest spiritual knowledge.

163General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which one of the following event made the crown of England to take over the Indian Administration?
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Answer: (D) The Sepoy Mutiny

Explanation

The Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 was the primary catalyst for the transfer of Indian administration from the East India Company to the British Crown. The intensity and scale of the uprising exposed the limitations and mismanagement of the Company's rule, prompting the British Parliament to intervene. This resulted in the enactment of the Government of India Act 1858, which officially ended the Company's political authority. Under this legislation, the governance of India was placed directly under the British Monarch, and the title of Viceroy was introduced for the Crown's representative in India, signifying the start of direct imperial rule.

164General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Who built the famous Dilwara temple at Mount Abu in Rajasthan in the 13th century ?
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Answer: (D) Tejapala

Explanation

The Luna Vasahi temple, which is a major part of the Dilwara temple complex at Mount Abu, was commissioned in 1230 AD by Tejapala and his brother Vastupala. Tejapala was a minister in the court of the Vaghela ruler of Gujarat. Built during the 13th century, this temple is dedicated to Neminatha, the 22nd Jain Tirthankara. It is celebrated for its extraordinary marble craftsmanship, specifically the intricate carvings on its pillars and the magnificent circular pendant in the dome of the assembly hall, representing the pinnacle of the Solanki style of architecture.

165General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually GIS stands for
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Answer: (C) Geographical information system

Explanation

GIS stands for Geographical Information System, which is a computer-based framework designed to capture, store, manipulate, analyze, manage, and present all types of geographical or spatial data. It integrates hardware, software, and data for capturing, managing, analyzing, and displaying all forms of geographically referenced information. GIS allows users to view, understand, question, interpret, and visualize data in many ways that reveal relationships, patterns, and trends in the form of maps, globes, reports, and charts. By 2012, GIS technology was widely established as an essential tool for urban planning, environmental resource management, and logistics, enabling complex problem-solving through the visualization of spatial data.

166General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which of the following is a Trans Himalayan river ?
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Answer: (C) Sutlej

Explanation

Trans-Himalayan rivers are those that originate in the region north of the Great Himalayan range, specifically in the Tibetan Plateau. The Sutlej is a prime example of such a river, as its source lies in the Rakshas Tal lake near Lake Mansarovar in Tibet. Because these rivers existed before the Himalayan mountains reached their current height, they are also classified as antecedent rivers. The Sutlej cuts through the Himalayan ranges, creating deep gorges such as the one at Shipki La, where it enters India from Tibet before joining the Indus river system.

167General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Match the following using codes given below : List I (Forest Type) a) Tropical Evergreen b) Monsoon c) Temperate d) Mangrove List II (Regions) 1. Siwaliks 2. Shillong 3. West Bengal 4. Nilgiris Code:
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Answer: (C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

Explanation

Tropical Evergreen forests (a) are found in regions with rainfall exceeding 200 cm, such as the Shillong (2) plateau in the Northeast. Monsoon forests (b), or tropical deciduous forests, thrive in areas with 70 to 200 cm of rainfall and are the dominant vegetation type in the foothills of the Himalayas, specifically the Siwaliks (1). Temperate forests (c) occur in high-altitude mountain regions where the temperature is lower, such as the Shola forests found in the Nilgiris (4). Mangrove forests (d) are salt-tolerant vegetation found in coastal and deltaic regions, with the Sundarbans in West Bengal (3) being the most extensive mangrove ecosystem.

168General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually On which river is the Nagarjunasagar Project located ?
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Answer: (A) Krishna

Explanation

The Nagarjunasagar Project is a major multi-purpose river valley project constructed across the Krishna River. It is one of the largest and highest masonry dams in the world, spanning the border between the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh and the Nalgonda district of Telangana. Named after the revered Buddhist monk and philosopher Acharya Nagarjuna, the project was inaugurated in 1955 and completed in 1967 to provide irrigation for millions of acres of farmland and to generate hydroelectric power. The dam creates a massive reservoir that plays a crucial role in the agricultural and economic development of the Krishna basin region.

169General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Suez Canal joins
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Answer: (B) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea

Explanation

The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway located in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez. Opened in November 1869, it provides the shortest maritime route between Europe and the lands lying around the Indian and western Pacific oceans by eliminating the need to navigate around the southern tip of Africa. The canal strategically separates the African continent from Asia and remains one of the world's most vital shipping lanes for international trade and global energy transport.

170General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Drug which helps to reduce anxiety and brings about calmness is
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Answer: (A) tranquiliser

Explanation

Tranquilisers are a class of chemical compounds used for the treatment of stress and mild or severe mental diseases. These drugs function by acting on the central nervous system to reduce anxiety, irritability, and excitement, thereby inducing a state of calmness. They are an essential part of psychotherapeutic treatment as they help in promoting a sense of well-being. Some tranquilisers, such as chlordiazepoxide and meprobamate, are specifically used for relieving tension, while others like equanil are used in controlling depression and hypertension. They work by modulating the communication between neurons, which helps stabilize the emotional state of the individual.

171General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually A keel is absent in
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Answer: (B) Ostrich

Explanation

A keel is a projection of the sternum found in flying birds for the attachment of flight muscles, whereas ratites like the ostrich have a flat sternum lacking a keel. Chickens, ducks, and peacocks are all carinate birds and possess a keel.

172General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Broad spectrum antibiotics are produced by
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Answer: (A) Streptomyces

Explanation

Streptomyces is a genus of actinobacteria that produces the majority of naturally occurring antibiotics, including many broad-spectrum varieties like tetracycline and chloramphenicol. While Penicillium produces penicillin, it is primarily effective against a narrower range of bacteria.

173General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually The pigment that protect plants from harmful effect of ultraviolet rays is
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Answer: (C) Phycocyanin

Explanation

Phycocyanin is a water-soluble accessory pigment found in cyanobacteria and certain algae, which were traditionally categorized within the plant kingdom in general science contexts. This pigment provides protection against the damaging effects of ultraviolet rays through its role as a potent antioxidant and photoprotective agent. Exposure to UV radiation leads to the production of reactive oxygen species and free radicals that can destroy cellular components and interfere with photosynthesis. Phycocyanin functions by neutralizing these oxidative agents and absorbing portions of the harmful radiation, thereby shielding the internal structures of the cell from permanent solar damage.

174General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Glycogen, starch and cellulose are polymers of
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Answer: (B) Glucose

Explanation

Glycogen, starch, and cellulose are all homopolysaccharides, meaning they are large carbohydrates composed of only one type of monosaccharide unit. Glucose is the specific monomer that serves as the building block for all three substances. Starch and glycogen are storage forms of energy in plants and animals respectively, consisting of α-D-glucose units. Cellulose is a structural component of plant cell walls made of β-D-glucose units. While the types of glycosidic linkages and the degree of branching differ—such as α(1 → 4) and α(1 → 6) bonds in starch and glycogen versus β(1 → 4) bonds in cellulose—the repeating chemical unit remains glucose in every case.

175General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Black death is
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Answer: (B) Plague

Explanation

Black Death refers to the devastating global epidemic of bubonic plague that struck Europe and Asia in the mid-1300s. It was caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis, which is typically transmitted to humans through the bites of infected fleas carried by rodents. The name Black Death originated from the characteristic symptom of acral necrosis, where the skin and flesh of the victim turned black and died due to internal hemorrhaging and gangrene. It remains one of the most fatal pandemics in human history, significantly reducing the world population during the 14th century.

176General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Stars appear to move from east to west because the
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Answer: (D) earth is rotating from west to east

Explanation

The apparent motion of stars from east to west is a direct consequence of the Earth's rotation on its axis. The Earth rotates from west to east, which is a counter-clockwise direction when viewed from above the North Pole. Because observers on the surface are moving along with the Earth towards the east, celestial objects in the distant sky appear to drift in the opposite direction. This relative motion makes the stars, as well as the sun and moon, seem to rise in the east and set in the west.

177General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually On the moon, an astronaut cannot drink lemonade with the help of a straw because
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Answer: (B) there is no atmosphere on the moon

Explanation

Drinking through a straw relies on the existence of atmospheric pressure. When a person sucks through a straw, they expand their lungs and create a region of low pressure inside the straw. On Earth, the surrounding atmospheric pressure exerted on the surface of the liquid is greater than the pressure inside the straw, which forces the liquid upward into the mouth. Because the moon lacks an atmosphere, there is no external air pressure to push the lemonade into the vacuum created by the astronaut. Without this external pressure gradient, the liquid cannot rise through the straw regardless of the suction applied.

178General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually A particle moving with uniform speed
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Answer: (C) may have uniform velocity

Explanation

Uniform speed signifies that the magnitude of the velocity vector remains constant over time. Velocity itself is a vector quantity, defined by both magnitude and direction. For a particle to possess uniform velocity, both its speed and its direction of motion must remain unchanged. If a particle moves along a straight-line path at a constant speed, its direction does not change, and therefore its velocity is uniform. However, if the particle moves along a curved path at the same constant speed, such as in uniform circular motion, its direction is constantly changing, resulting in a non-uniform velocity. Because the particle can move in either a straight line or a curved path while maintaining a constant speed, it is possible, but not mandatory, for its velocity to be uniform.

179General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Device which uses sound waves for detection and ranging is called
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Answer: (B) Sonar

Explanation

SONAR stands for Sound Navigation and Ranging and specifically utilizes sound waves to detect and locate objects underwater. RADAR uses radio waves, which are electromagnetic waves rather than sound waves.

180General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually What is the name of the network topology in which there are bidirectional links between each possible node?
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Answer: (D) Mesh

Explanation

A mesh topology is a network design where every node is connected to every other node via a dedicated point-to-point link. In a full mesh configuration, if there are n nodes, the network requires n(n-1)/2 physical communication channels. These links are bidirectional, allowing simultaneous data transmission in both directions between any two specific nodes. This direct interconnection ensures high privacy, security, and robust fault tolerance, as the failure of a single link or node does not disable the rest of the network.

181General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually LAN stands for
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Answer: (D) Local Area Network

Explanation

LAN is an abbreviation for Local Area Network, which refers to a group of computers and peripheral devices that share a common communications line or wireless link to a server within a distinct geographic area. These networks are typically confined to a single room, building, or group of buildings, such as a home, office, or school. LANs provide high data transfer rates and are characterized by their private ownership and low error rates compared to larger network types. The most prevalent technologies employed in establishing a Local Area Network are Ethernet and Wi-Fi, allowing for efficient sharing of resources like printers, files, and internet access among connected users.

182General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Dry Ice is nothing but
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Answer: (C) Solid carbon dioxide

Explanation

Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide (CO₂). It is primarily used as a cooling agent because it undergoes sublimation, meaning it transitions directly from a solid to a gas without passing through a liquid phase at standard atmospheric pressure. This process occurs at a temperature of approximately -78.5°C (-109.3°F). Because it does not leave any liquid residue, it is highly effective for shipping perishable goods, preserving food, and creating fog effects in entertainment.

183General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which one of the following is obtained as slag in a blast furnace?
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Answer: (D) Calcium Silicate

Explanation

In the extraction of iron within a blast furnace, limestone (CaCO₃) is added as a flux to remove acidic impurities, primarily silica (SiO₂), from the ore. At the high temperatures inside the furnace, limestone undergoes thermal decomposition to produce calcium oxide (CaO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂). The basic calcium oxide then reacts with the acidic silica gangue to form molten calcium silicate (CaSiO₃), according to the reaction CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃. This molten calcium silicate is known as slag. Because it is less dense than the molten iron, it floats on the surface of the metal, where it can be easily tapped off. This slag formation is crucial for purifying the iron and protecting the molten metal from oxidation by the furnace gases.

184General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually When Hydrogen gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the temperature of the gas
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Answer: (B) increases

Explanation

The phenomenon described is the Joule-Thomson effect, which relates to the temperature change of a real gas when it expands adiabatically through a throttle or porous plug from a region of high pressure to low pressure. The direction of the temperature change depends on whether the gas is above or below its inversion temperature Tᵢ. For most gases, the inversion temperature is well above room temperature, leading to cooling upon expansion. However, Hydrogen and Helium have very low inversion temperatures. For Hydrogen, the inversion temperature is approximately 193 K (-80°C). Since room temperature is much higher than this inversion point, Hydrogen exists in a state where the Joule-Thomson coefficient _J_T = ( (∂ T)/(∂ P) )_H is negative. In this regime, the repulsive forces between molecules dominate over the attractive forces. When the gas expands and the pressure drops (dP < 0), work is done by the internal forces of the gas, leading to an increase in the kinetic energy of the molecules and a subsequent rise in temperature.

185General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually In the industrial production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is
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Answer: (B) reduction

Explanation

The industrial production of vegetable ghee involves the process of catalytic hydrogenation, where vegetable oils are converted into semi-solid fats. Vegetable oils are primarily composed of unsaturated fatty acids containing carbon-carbon double bonds. During the manufacturing process, hydrogen gas (H₂) is passed through the oil in the presence of a catalyst, such as finely divided nickel, at specific temperatures and pressures. In chemistry, the addition of hydrogen to a molecule is defined as a reduction reaction. This hydrogenation reduces the degree of unsaturation by converting double bonds into single bonds, resulting in saturated fats that have a higher melting point and the desired solid consistency of ghee.

186General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which of the following weeds has been found useful to check water pollution caused by industrial affluent?
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Answer: (D) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation

Parthenium and Elephant grass are both effective in the phytoremediation of industrial effluents. Parthenium hysterophorus, though primarily a terrestrial weed, has been found to be a highly efficient bio-adsorbent when processed into biomass or activated carbon. It can effectively sequester heavy metals such as lead, cadmium, and nickel, as well as various industrial dyes from contaminated water through the process of adsorption. Elephant grass, or Napier grass, is utilized in constructed wetlands for treating industrial and municipal wastewater. Its rapid growth and extensive root system allow it to absorb large quantities of nutrients and heavy metals, significantly reducing the pollutant concentration in industrial discharge. Both plants provide biological solutions for mitigating the environmental impact of hazardous industrial waste.

187General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually In which year the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant of the former USSR had accident that caused escape of radio nuclides into atmosphere?
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Answer: (D) 1986

Explanation

The Chernobyl disaster occurred on April 26, 1986, at the No. 4 reactor in the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant, near the city of Pripyat in the Ukrainian Soviet Socialist Republic. The accident was triggered by a flawed reactor design operated with inadequately trained personnel during a safety test. The resulting steam explosion and fire released at least 5 percent of the radioactive reactor core into the environment, dispersing large quantities of radionuclides like Iodine-131 and Cesium-137 across the Soviet Union and parts of Europe. It is classified as a Level 7 event on the International Nuclear Event Scale, representing a major release of radioactive material with widespread health and environmental effects.

188General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry form. This serves as a means of
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Answer: (C) adaptation of the organism to the environment

Explanation

Desert lizards exhibit specific physiological traits to survive in arid environments where water is a severely limited resource. These reptiles are uricotelic, meaning they excrete nitrogenous waste primarily as uric acid rather than urea. Because uric acid is relatively non-toxic and insoluble in water, it can be expelled as a dry, semi-solid paste with minimal fluid loss. This process allows the lizard to reabsorb nearly all the water from its waste in the cloaca before excretion. Such a mechanism is a vital evolutionary adaptation that enables the organism to maintain its internal water balance and thrive in habitats characterized by extreme heat and low moisture availability.

189General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which one is regarded as "World heritage forest"?
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Answer: (C) Sundarbans in West Bengal

Explanation

The Sundarbans in West Bengal is the largest contiguous mangrove forest in the world and was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987. Spanning the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers, it represents a unique bioclimatic zone and serves as a critical habitat for numerous endangered species, most notably the Royal Bengal Tiger. Its complex network of tidal waterways, mudflats, and salt-tolerant mangrove trees constitutes a globally significant ecosystem, leading to its recognition as a World Heritage Forest for its outstanding universal value in terms of ecological processes and biological diversity.

190General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Shibpur in West Bengal Kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the
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Answer: (A) cessation of neurological function only

Explanation

The Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994, provides the legal framework for organ donation in India, recognizing brain-stem death as legal death. Brain-stem death is defined as the irreversible cessation of all neurological functions of the brain-stem. When a person is declared brain-dead, their organs, including the kidneys, can be harvested for transplantation while the body is still maintained on a ventilator. This state of neurological cessation is critical for organ retrieval because it allows the kidneys to remain perfused with oxygenated blood via artificial support until they are surgically removed, ensuring the organs remain viable and healthy for the recipient. Medical protocols require a series of clinical tests by a board of experts to confirm the permanent loss of brain-stem reflexes before the deceased can be considered a donor.

191General Awareness
There is no life on moon because it has no
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Answer: (D) Water

Explanation

Water is the fundamental requirement for all known forms of life because it acts as a universal solvent, facilitating the chemical reactions necessary for metabolism and cellular function. The Moon lacks liquid water on its surface because it has no significant atmosphere to provide the pressure and temperature stability required to maintain water in a liquid state. Without this vital medium to support biological processes, the lunar environment remains sterile and incapable of sustaining life. While frozen water has been detected in certain lunar craters, the absence of accessible liquid water is the primary reason life does not exist there.

192General Awareness
Losoong is a festival celebrated in
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Answer: (C) Sikkim

Explanation

Losoong is the Sikkimese New Year festival, celebrated predominantly by the Bhutia and Lepcha tribes. It marks the conclusion of the harvest season and the beginning of the new year according to the Tibetan lunar calendar, typically falling in the month of December. The festivities are characterized by traditional rituals in monasteries, such as the Enchey Monastery, where monks perform the Cham dance to symbolize the victory of good over evil. It is a period of joy and gratitude where farmers offer the first fruits of their harvest to the deities to seek blessings for the upcoming year, accompanied by local sports like archery and community feasting.

193General Awareness
The commodity for which India spends the largest amount to import is
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Answer: (B) Crude petroleum

Explanation

India has historically maintained a high dependency on imported energy resources to fuel its economic growth and meet domestic demand. Crude petroleum, classified under Petroleum, Oil, and Lubricants (POL), constitutes the single largest item in India's import basket. During the 2011-12 fiscal period, the expenditure on crude oil accounted for approximately 31 percent of the total import bill. This dominance is driven by the country's limited domestic oil reserves and the increasing consumption in the transportation, industrial, and power sectors, making petroleum the most significant factor in India's trade deficit and foreign exchange outflow.

194General Awareness
In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different Nobel Prizes?
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Answer: (A) Physics and Chemistry

Explanation

Marie Curie was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1903, which she shared with Pierre Curie and Henri Becquerel, for their joint research on the radiation phenomena discovered by Henri Becquerel. In 1911, she was awarded a second Nobel Prize, this time in Chemistry, in recognition of her services to the advancement of chemistry by the discovery of the elements radium and polonium, by the isolation of radium and the study of the nature and compounds of this remarkable element. She is the first person and only woman to win two Nobel Prizes, and remains the only person to be honored with Nobel Prizes in two different scientific fields.

195General Awareness
Michael Phelps won gold medals in swimming events in the Beijing Olympics.
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Answer: (C) 8

Explanation

Michael Phelps achieved a historic milestone at the 2008 Beijing Olympics by winning 8 gold medals, which broke the previous record of 7 gold medals won by Mark Spitz in the 1972 Munich Games. His gold medal tally included victories in the 200m freestyle, 100m butterfly, 200m butterfly, 200m individual medley, 400m individual medley, 4x100m freestyle relay, 4x200m freestyle relay, and 4x100m medley relay. Seven of these eight events were won with world record times, making him the most successful athlete at a single Olympic Games.

196General Awareness
Spot the odd one from the following:
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Answer: (B) Trombay

Explanation

Trombay is the location of the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), which is the premier nuclear research and development facility in India. Its primary purpose is to conduct multidisciplinary research in nuclear science, engineering, and related areas. The site houses research reactors such as Apsara, Cirus, and Dhruva, which are used for scientific experimentation and the production of radioisotopes rather than for the commercial generation of electricity for the power grid. This research-oriented function differentiates it from sites that are established as commercial nuclear power stations.

197General Awareness
Which one of the following players has the unique distinction of winning 50 Doubles Titles in ATP tour history?
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Answer: (A) Leander Pees

Explanation

Leander Paes achieved the historic milestone of winning 50 ATP doubles titles in July 2012. He reached this landmark by winning the doubles trophy at the Farmers Classic in Los Angeles, partnering with Thailand player Danai Udomchoke. This victory made him one of the few players in the history of the Open Era to record at least 50 professional doubles titles. A veteran of the sport and a multiple-time Grand Slam champion, Paes has consistently been a dominant force in the doubles circuit, representing India at the highest level for over two decades. His 50th title win occurred just before the start of the 2012 London Olympics, cementing his legacy as one of the most successful doubles specialists in tennis history.

198General Awareness
As per the 2011 census, the state with the largest gap in male and female literacy is
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Answer: (C) Rajasthan

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, Rajasthan recorded the highest gender gap in literacy rates among all Indian states. The male literacy rate in Rajasthan was approximately 79.19 percent, whereas the female literacy rate was significantly lower at 52.12 percent. This results in a literacy gap of 27.07 percentage points, which was the widest disparity in the country. This significant difference reflects the historical socio-economic challenges and educational barriers faced by women in the state compared to the national average gender literacy gap, which stood at approximately 16.25 percentage points during the 2011 census.

199General Awareness
Which among the following is termed 'Hot Money'?
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Answer: (A) FII

Explanation

Hot money refers to capital that moves frequently and quickly between financial markets to take advantage of high short-term interest rates or anticipated exchange rate shifts. Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) involves investment by foreign entities in the secondary market of a country, primarily in stocks and bonds. Because these financial instruments are highly liquid and the investors do not have long-term management stakes or physical assets in the country, they can withdraw their capital at the first sign of economic instability or better returns elsewhere. This inherent volatility and the potential for sudden, large-scale outflows make FII the primary example of hot money in an economy.

200General Awareness
For the following questions answer them individually Which kind of veto can the President make use of with regard to bills by the Parliament?
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Answer: (B) Pocket

Explanation

The Pocket Veto is a discretionary power that allows the President of India to withhold action on a bill passed by the Parliament for an indefinite period. According to Article 111 of the Constitution, the President must declare either his assent to a bill or his intention to withhold assent or return it for reconsideration as soon as possible. However, the Constitution does not prescribe a specific time limit within which the President must take this action. By simply keeping a bill pending on his desk without signing it, rejecting it, or returning it, the President effectively prevents the bill from becoming law. This power is significant because it allows the President to stall legislation without providing a formal reason or facing the immediate procedural consequences of a rejection or a return for reconsideration.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 151B
  2. 152C
  3. 153D
  4. 154C
  5. 155C
  6. 156B
  7. 157C
  8. 158C
  9. 159D
  10. 160B
  11. 161B
  12. 162D
  13. 163D
  14. 164D
  15. 165C
  16. 166C
  17. 167C
  18. 168A
  19. 169B
  20. 170A
  21. 171B
  22. 172A
  23. 173C
  24. 174B
  25. 175B
  26. 176D
  27. 177B
  28. 178C
  29. 179B
  30. 180D
  31. 181D
  32. 182C
  33. 183D
  34. 184B
  35. 185B
  36. 186D
  37. 187D
  38. 188C
  39. 189C
  40. 190A
  41. 191D
  42. 192C
  43. 193B
  44. 194A
  45. 195C
  46. 196B
  47. 197A
  48. 198C
  49. 199A
  50. 200B

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