RPSC RAS Prelims 2024 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) is a national highway network connecting India's four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The project, managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), has a total length of approximately 5,846 km. The four primary segments connecting these metros have the following approximate lengths:

Chennai – Kolkata (Segment C): ~1,684 km Kolkata – Delhi (Segment D): ~1,453 km Delhi – Mumbai (Segment A): ~1,419 km Mumbai – Chennai (Segment B): ~1,290 km

The Chennai – Kolkata segment (NH 16) is the longest arm of the quadrilateral, followed by the Kolkata – Delhi segment (NH 19). The Delhi – Mumbai segment (NH 48) is the third longest, and the Mumbai – Chennai segment (NH 48) is the shortest of the four main sides. Arranging these segments by their respective lengths in a sequence from the longest to the shortest (descending order) yields the code C, D, A, B.

Explanation

The Rajasthan Bagar refers to the semi-arid region situated between the Aravalli Range and the arid Thar Desert. This physiographic zone includes the Luni Basin in the southwest, often called the Godwar region, which marks the drainage area of the Luni river system. In the northern part of the state, the Ghagghar Plain covers the districts of Ganganagar and Hanumangarh, formed by the seasonal Ghagghar river. The broader Rajasthan Plain is also characterized by a unique hydrography featuring numerous saline lakes, such as Sambhar, Didwana, and Pachpadra, which are geological remnants of the Tethys Sea. Additionally, the region is known for extensive inland drainage basins, particularly in the Shekhawati area, where seasonal streams disappear into the sandy terrain without reaching any larger water body. These geographical elements together define the western and semi-arid landscapes of Rajasthan.

Explanation

Rajasthan shares a 1070 km international border with Pakistan, known as the Radcliffe Line. The districts of Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner, Sri Ganganagar, and Anupgarh are situated directly on this border. Jaisalmer is a primary border district, meaning its distance from the international boundary is zero at the border line. Moving eastward and inland, Sikar is located in the northeastern Shekhawati region, situated approximately 280 to 300 km from the nearest point on the Pakistan border. Kota is located in the southeastern Hadoti region of the state, which is one of the most distant areas from the western international frontier, with a distance of approximately 430 to 450 km. Thus, the sequence of Jaisalmer, Sikar, and Kota represents a clear ascending order of distance from the border.

Explanation

Kelakhera is a town and a nagar panchayat located in the Udham Singh Nagar district of Uttarakhand. It is an administrative settlement situated in the northern Terai region of India. Because the town is geographically and administratively part of Uttarakhand, its association with the state of Tamil Nadu is incorrect.

Explanation

Alfisols are the predominant soil order found in the eastern districts of Rajasthan, including Jaipur, Dausa, and Alwar. In the context of the state's agro-climatic zones, these districts fall within the semi-arid eastern plains where the soils have undergone moderate leaching and possess a distinct subsurface layer enriched with clay, known as an argillic horizon. These soils typically exhibit high base saturation and are equivalent to the fertile alluvial and sandy-loam soils of the region. They are highly suitable for agriculture, supporting major crops like wheat, mustard, and bajra due to their ability to retain moisture and nutrients effectively compared to the desert soils of the west.

Explanation

According to the Agricultural Statistics at a Glance 2022, published by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India, the total production of Bajra (Pearl Millet) in the country during the year 2021-22 was approximately 96.22 lakh tonnes. Rajasthan, being the largest producer of Bajra in India, contributed approximately 37.51 lakh tonnes to this total.

The percentage contribution is calculated using the formula:

Percentage = Production of Rajasthan / Total Production of India × 100

Percentage = 37.51 / 96.22 × 100 ≈ 38.98%

Rajasthan consistently leads the country in Bajra production due to its extensive arid and semi-arid regions, which provide the ideal agro-climatic conditions for this drought-resistant crop. The state typically accounts for over one-third of India's total Bajra output.

Explanation

The Medtech Medical Devices Park is located at Boranada in Jodhpur. This specialized industrial zone was developed by the Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation (RIICO) under the Promotion of Medical Device Parks scheme of the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of India. The park is designed to provide world-class infrastructure and common facility centers to reduce manufacturing costs and decrease India's import dependency on medical equipment. Boranada serves as a strategic location due to its established industrial base, proximity to technical institutions like IIT Jodhpur and AIIMS Jodhpur, and its connectivity via the Jodhpur airport and railway network, which supports the logistics required for high-tech medical manufacturing.

Explanation

Khadin is a unique land-use system and traditional water harvesting technique designed for the arid regions of Rajasthan, primarily found in the Jaisalmer district. Historically developed by the Paliwal Brahmins in the 15th century, the system involves constructing a long earthen embankment across lower hill slopes to capture runoff from rocky catchments. This structure allows rainwater to saturate the soil, making it fertile for cultivation even in regions with minimal rainfall. The moisture retained in the soil supports the growth of crops like wheat and gram during the winter season without the need for additional irrigation. This method effectively prevents soil erosion and salinity while recharging the groundwater table in the Thar Desert.

Explanation

Udaipur is associated with the Som and Jakham rivers because the Som originates from the Bichha Meda hills in Udaipur and forms a major part of the Mahi river basin along with the Jakham. Bundi is drained by the Kural river, which serves as a significant tributary of the Chambal river within the southeastern plateau region. Bharatpur is part of the eastern drainage system where the Gambhiri and Parvati rivers are prominent seasonal streams. Alwar is the primary region for the Sabi and Ruparel rivers; the Sabi river flows through Alwar before entering Haryana, while the Ruparel originates in the Udainath hills of the Alwar district.

Explanation

Rajasthan is the leading producer of asbestos in India, where the mineral occurs primarily in two forms: tremolite and chrysotile. The tremolite variety is widely distributed across the state within the ultramafic rocks of the Aravalli and Delhi geological systems. Specific locations in southern Rajasthan such as Kore in the Udaipur district and Mangal in the Dungarpur district are well-documented sites for asbestos mining. In central Rajasthan, the districts of Ajmer and Pali also host significant deposits, with Karpura in Ajmer and Pancharla in Pali being notable mining areas. These regions provide the necessary geological conditions, such as the alteration of magnesium-rich rocks, for asbestos formation. In contrast, locations like Kapurdi, Meria, and Kasara are distinct geological environments in the Barmer basin characterized by sedimentary sequences that host Tertiary lignite coal rather than metamorphic minerals like asbestos.

Explanation

Checking each pair against the list of Conservation Reserves of Rajasthan (as on May 2023):

A. Rankhar – Jalore — Correct. Rankhar Conservation Reserve is in Jalore district.

B. Mansamata – Jhunjhunu — Correct. Mansamata Conservation Reserve is in Jhunjhunu district.

C. Sorsan – Bundi — Incorrect. Sorsan Conservation Reserve (the Sorsan grasslands, a habitat of the Great Indian Bustard) is in Baran district, not Bundi.

D. Hamirgarh – Bhilwara — Correct. Hamirgarh Conservation Reserve is in Bhilwara district.

Hence the pair that is not correctly matched is C.

Explanation

The Rajasthan Public Examinations (Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Ordinance, 2023 was promulgated to amend the existing 2022 Act to provide more stringent punishments for paper leaks and cheating. This legislative measure was introduced to ensure the integrity of public recruitment processes after several competitive exams faced irregularities. The ordinance increased the maximum penalty for organized crime in paper leaks to life imprisonment and allowed for the attachment and confiscation of the property of the accused. No such ordinance was issued in Rajasthan during 2023 to ban the activities of the social and religious organizations mentioned in the first statement.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) regulates political parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. This section requires every political party seeking registration to submit its constitution, which must include a specific provision affirming allegiance to the Constitution of India and the principles of socialism, secularism, and democracy.

The Indian Union Muslim League (IUML) is a recognized political party whose national executive and internal organizational structure are formally acknowledged and recorded by the Election Commission. This recognition is based on the party's compliance with its own constitution and the ECI's directives regarding internal party democracy. While some other organizations face non-recognition due to internal leadership disputes or are banned under law, the IUML maintains a validated status with the Commission, ensuring its national executive is the authorized body for party affairs and symbol allocation.

Explanation

In the Rajasthan State Budget 2022-23, the government announced a significant urban sanitation and infrastructure initiative focused on the development and modernization of sewerage and drainage systems. An allocation of 250 crore rupees was specifically proposed for sewerage and drainage works in the cities of Bikaner, Kota, Sikar, and Jaipur. This initiative aimed to improve urban waste management, expand the existing sewerage networks, and upgrade the drainage systems to prevent waterlogging and enhance public health standards in these major urban centers. The project is part of the state's broader strategy to strengthen urban utility infrastructure and provide better sanitation facilities to its citizens.

Explanation

During the 2023-24 period, the most significant assembly event involving a President's role was the 8th session of the 15th Rajasthan Legislative Assembly. On July 14, 2023, President Droupadi Murmu addressed the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly for the first time. This was a historic "Special Session" as it marked the first time she addressed the state's legislators since assuming office.

Ashok Gehlot was the Chief Minister of Rajasthan during this session. Under his leadership, the assembly also passed landmark legislation during this period, including the Rajasthan Minimum Guaranteed Income Bill, 2023, and the Rajasthan Platform-Based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Bill, 2023. While the 16th Assembly began its first session in January 2024 under a new government, the specific reference to a "President's Role" in a session called during this timeframe aligns with the Presidential address delivered during Gehlot's tenure in July 2023.

Explanation

The Constitution of India reserves certain Fundamental Rights exclusively for its citizens to ensure the preservation of the nation's social fabric and the integrity of its democratic processes. The specific set of rights granted only to citizens comprises Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30. Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity for citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Article 19 protects six fundamental freedoms for citizens, including the right to freedom of speech and expression, peaceful assembly, forming associations, free movement, residence, and practicing any profession. Article 30 provides the right to minorities, whether based on religion or language, to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Because every Article listed in the chosen group is part of this exclusive category, it accurately identifies the rights restricted to Indian citizens.

Explanation

The provision for free legal aid was inserted into the Constitution of India through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. This amendment added Article 39A to the Directive Principles of State Policy, which mandates that the State shall provide free legal aid by suitable legislation or schemes to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. This addition was part of a broader effort to promote equal justice and ensure that the legal system operates on a basis of equal opportunity for all sections of society.

Explanation

In Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975), the Supreme Court struck down Clause (4) of Article 329A, introduced by the 39th Amendment Act, which attempted to place the election disputes of the Prime Minister and Speaker outside the jurisdiction of all courts. Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) saw the court invalidate sections 4 and 55 of the 42nd Amendment Act, asserting that the limited amending power of Parliament is a basic feature of the Constitution and judicial review cannot be abolished. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillu (1992) involved a challenge to the 52nd Amendment Act, which added the Tenth Schedule regarding disqualification on grounds of defection; the court upheld the law while striking down the provision that barred judicial oversight of the Speaker's decisions. P. Sambamurthy v. State of A.P. (1987) scrutinized the 32nd Amendment Act, specifically Article 371D(5), ruling that the power of the state government to nullify the decisions of the Administrative Tribunal was subversive of the rule of law and the basic structure of the Constitution.

Explanation

The value of the vote of an elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State is determined according to Article 55 of the Constitution of India. The formula for calculating this value is given by:

Value of vote of an MLA = (Total population of State (1971 Census))/(Total number of elected members in the State Legislative Assembly) × 1/1000

According to this provision, an MLA has as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained from the division of the state population by the number of elected members. If the remainder after this division is five hundred or more, the value of the vote is increased by one. Statement d is incorrect because it specifies the divisor as one hundred instead of the constitutionally mandated one thousand. This mechanism is designed to ensure that the scale of representation of states in the election of the President is uniform across the country.

Explanation

Article 324(2) of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Election Commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. The appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners is formally made by the President of India. Under the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the President makes these appointments based on the recommendations of a Selection Committee. This committee includes the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of Opposition or the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha. Despite the involvement of this committee in the selection process, the legal and constitutional power to issue the appointment orders remains vested in the President.

Explanation

Statement (i) is incorrect because under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the vacation of seats is governed by specific rules to prevent dual membership. According to Section 69, if a person who is already a member of the House of the People (Lower House) is elected to the Council of States (Upper House), their seat in the Lower House becomes vacant automatically on the date of such election. A similar rule applies under Section 70 for members of a State Legislative Assembly moving to the Legislative Council. The vacancy is a direct legal consequence of the election and does not require a separate resignation or administrative action.

Statement (ii) is incorrect because Article 100 (for Parliament) and Article 189 (for State Legislatures) of the Indian Constitution specify the voting procedure in the Houses. The Speaker or Chairman (or anyone presiding) does not vote in the first instance. however, they possess and must exercise a casting vote in the event of an equality of votes (a tie). There is no constitutional or legal restriction on how this casting vote is exercised; the presiding officer, who is a member of the House, can vote in favour of or against the resolution to resolve the deadlock. Therefore, the claim that a member does not vote in favour during a tie is factually wrong.

Explanation

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution. The 16th Finance Commission, constituted on December 31, 2023, is specifically mandated to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States under Chapter I of Part XII of the Constitution. It also determines the principles that govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States from the Consolidated Fund of India. Furthermore, under Article 280(3)(bb), the Commission recommends measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats based on the recommendations of the State Finance Commission. These functions represent the core constitutional responsibilities of the Commission as outlined in the official notification and the Constitution of India.

Explanation

Statement A is incorrect because a committee recommendation is a formal report presented to Parliament, whereas a Joint Sitting of both Houses is a specific constitutional event under Article 108. A Joint Sitting is a session of the entire membership of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha convened by the President to resolve a legislative deadlock, and it is not a "recommendation" of a committee.

Statement B is incorrect because the rules governing a member's transition from the Lower House to the Upper House (or vice versa) are defined under the vacation of seats provisions. Specifically, Article 101 of the Constitution and Sections 68, 69, and 70 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, provide the legal framework for dual membership and the resulting vacancy. These are statutory and constitutional mandates rather than recommendations from a 24th Committee. While the 24th Report of the Committee on Rules (Rajya Sabha) in 2004 recommended increasing the number of Departmentally Related Standing Committees to 24, it did not stipulate the conditions provided in the statements.

Explanation

Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the President of India when President's Rule was imposed in Rajasthan for the first time on March 13, 1967. This constitutional measure was taken under Article 356 following the fourth assembly elections, which resulted in a hung assembly with no single party achieving a clear majority. The state remained under President's Rule for 44 days until April 26, 1967, when Mohan Lal Sukhadia was eventually able to form a government and was sworn in as the Chief Minister. Radhakrishnan's term as the second President of India (1962–1967) covered this period of political instability in the state.

Explanation

Rajasthan is characterized by high voter participation and political engagement. In the 2024 Vidhan Sabha by-elections held for seven constituencies—Jhunjhunu, Ramgarh, Dausa, Deoli-Uniara, Khinvsar, Salumber, and Chorasi—the overall voter turnout was approximately 69.29%. Specific segments like Khinvsar and Chorasi recorded turnouts exceeding 75% and 73% respectively. This robust participation contradicts the claim that the state has the "minimum turnover" (voter turnout or participation) in by-elections. Furthermore, Rajasthan is known for a high turnover of representatives, often seeing a significant percentage of incumbent MLAs replaced in each election cycle, which also makes the statement regarding minimum turnover incorrect.

Explanation

The Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayukta Act, 1973, empowers the Lokayukta to investigate actions related to grievances and allegations against ministers and public servants. Under Section 2(d), a grievance is defined as a claim where a person has sustained injustice or undue hardship in consequence of maladministration, which covers the suffering caused by a public servant as described in statement (i). Section 2(b) defines an allegation as an affirmation that a public servant has abused their position to obtain any valuable thing or pecuniary advantage for themselves or any other person, aligning with statement (ii). This section also includes instances where a public servant is guilty of corruption or a lack of integrity, supporting statement (iv). Statement (iii) regarding sexual harassment is not a subject specified under the investigative jurisdiction of this Act, as such offenses are typically addressed under the Indian Penal Code and specialized legislation like the POSH Act. The Lokayukta's mandate is primarily focused on checking corruption, abuse of power, and administrative inefficiencies.

Explanation

Under Section 34 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, candidates contesting elections to the State Legislative Assembly are required to submit a security deposit to the Returning Officer at the time of filing their nomination. For the Rajasthan Assembly elections, the prescribed security deposit for a candidate belonging to the general category is ₹ 10,000. This amount is intended to ensure that only serious candidates participate in the electoral process. Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are required to pay half of this amount, which is ₹ 5,000. The deposit is refunded to the candidate if they poll more than one-sixth of the total number of valid votes in the constituency; otherwise, the amount is forfeited.

Explanation

The Amrita Scheme in Rajasthan is an initiative under the Department of Specially Abled Persons designed to provide financial assistance and support for the self-employment and rehabilitation of the state's most vulnerable citizens. The eligibility criteria are intentionally broad to ensure inclusive social security coverage. Individuals with a certified disability of 40% or more are the primary target, including those categorized as having more than 40% disability for higher-tier benefits. Economic vulnerability is a key factor, making all persons from BPL families eligible for the scheme's provisions.

The scheme also prioritizes households facing a higher burden of care, specifically including families where two or more members are specially abled. Furthermore, the Rajasthan government has integrated intersectional social justice into the scheme by explicitly making families with a specially abled transgender person eligible. This ensures that marginalized groups based on both disability and gender identity receive necessary state support for economic independence and social integration.

Explanation

Government welfare schemes for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families are designed to provide a comprehensive social safety net. Statement A reflects the overarching objective of socio-economic upliftment and improving the standard of living for marginalized households through targeted interventions in health, nutrition, and education. Statement B pertains to specific empowerment initiatives such as the PM SVANidhi scheme, which provides micro-credit and financial support to street vendors, a group largely comprised of BPL individuals, to help them achieve self-reliance. Statement C covers essential structural benefits like the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), which provides affordable housing, alongside various subsidies and direct benefit transfers that offer financial security and economic stability to these families. Together, these statements encapsulate the multi-dimensional approach of the government to assist the poor.

Explanation

Gujarat, Jharkhand, and Rajasthan are constituent states of the Republic of India. Peer is not a recognized state, union territory, or major administrative division within the Indian political and geographical structure. In the context of a list identifying Indian states, Peer is the outlier as it does not correspond to any known sovereign or administrative territory of the country.

Explanation

The India Smart Cities Award Contest (ISAC) 2022, organized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), recognized Madhya Pradesh as the top performer in urban initiatives.

Statement A: The ISAC 2022 edition marked a specific assessment cycle for urban initiatives and projects evaluated during that year, representing the current framework of the national urban awards.

Statement B: These awards are distributed across four primary categories based on the nature and scale of the initiatives: State Awards, City Awards, Project Awards (covering various thematic areas), and Innovation Awards.

Statement C: Madhya Pradesh demonstrated exceptional performance by winning awards for seven different projects in the National (Project) Category. These included achievements by cities like Indore in Sanitation, Urban Environment, and Water; Sagar in Governance; and Gwalior in ICCC (Integrated Command and Control Centers).

Statement D: Madhya Pradesh was officially declared the Best Performing State for the year 2022 in the ISAC rankings (announced in 2023), followed by Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan. This was attributed to its high percentage of completed projects and effective utilization of funds under the Smart Cities Mission.

Explanation

In Rajasthan, the District Planning Committee is constituted under Section 121 of the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, in accordance with Article 243ZD of the Constitution of India. The Zila Pramukh, who is the elected head of the Zila Parishad and referred to as the District Head, serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of this committee. The committee is tasked with consolidating the development plans prepared by the Panchayats and Municipalities within the district and preparing a comprehensive draft development plan for the district as a whole. While the District Collector functions as the Member Secretary of the committee, the leadership and chairing of the meetings are the statutory responsibility of the District Head.

Explanation

The Jaipur Development Authority (JDA) was established by the Government of Rajasthan under the Jaipur Development Authority Act, 1982. This legislative enactment, specifically Act No. 25 of 1982, was designed to provide a statutory framework for the planned, coordinated, and sustainable development of the Jaipur region. The authority took over the functions of the previous Jaipur Improvement Trust to address the growing urban requirements of the state capital. The Act empowers the JDA to prepare master plans, manage land use, develop infrastructure, and ensure the provision of civic amenities within its designated jurisdictional area.

Explanation

The accession of the princely states of Rajasthan to the Indian Union was formalized through the signing of the Instrument of Accession in August 1947. Maharaja Sadul Singh of Bikaner was the first ruler in Rajasthan to sign the document, doing so on August 7, 1947. Maharaja Hanwant Singh of Jodhpur signed the instrument on August 11, 1947, following a period of deliberation and negotiations regarding the state's future. The Maharawal of Jaisalmer, who had been closely involved in discussions alongside the Jodhpur ruler, acceded to the Indian Union around the same time (August 11, 1947). This sequence represents the chronological progression of these major states formally joining the Union during the transition to independence.

Explanation

Kelakhera is a municipal town (Nagar Panchayat) located in the Udham Singh Nagar district of Uttarakhand. It is situated in the fertile Terai belt of the Kumaon division. It has no geographical or administrative presence in the state of Tamil Nadu. In contrast, the name Kota is associated with the Kota tribe and their traditional settlements in the Nilgiri district of Tamil Nadu, and Satura is a recognized locality situated within the state of Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation

A Citizen's Charter is an administrative instrument designed to enhance the transparency, accountability, and responsiveness of public service delivery. Its primary dimensions involve the specification of service standards, including quality and time frame management, and the establishment of robust mechanisms to handle public demands and grievances. These elements are specifically intended to foster citizen-friendly governance by empowering the public with information about their rights to service. Democratic Government, however, refers to the macro-level political structure and system of a state based on the principle of popular sovereignty. While a democratic setup provides the necessary context for a Citizen's Charter to be effective, the form of government itself is not a constituent element or a functional dimension of the Charter document, which remains focused on the micro-level operational relationship between service providers and the public.

Explanation

The fiscal year 2020-21 was characterized by a historic economic contraction in India due to the COVID-19 pandemic and the resulting nationwide lockdowns that disrupted industrial and service sector activities. According to the National Accounts Statistics provided by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), the growth rate of Real Gross National Income (GNI) at constant (2011-12) prices was negative during this period, estimated at approximately -6.6 percent. This contraction reflected the sharp decline in private consumption and investment during the pandemic, marking the first time in several decades that the annual growth rate of India's national income entered negative territory.

Explanation

The Startup India Scheme provides several key advantages to foster entrepreneurship and innovation. It facilitates financial growth by offering tax exemptions, such as the three-year income tax holiday and the removal of the Angel Tax, while also ensuring pass-through status for specific investment funds to avoid double taxation. For intellectual property, the scheme implements the Start-ups Intellectual Property Protection (SIPP) program, which provides fast-track patent processing and an 80 percent rebate on filing fees, making it easier for startups to protect their inventions. Additionally, it streamlines regulatory compliance through a self-certification regime for three environmental laws. This allows startups to operate without the burden of external inspections or the requirement to maintain formal environmental records for a period of three to five years, provided they fall within the non-polluting category.

Explanation

The NIEEMI (Network of Industrial Estates and Entrepreneurship Management Information) portal is an online platform established by the Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO) of Odisha. It is primarily dedicated to the transparent allotment of industrial land, the management of industrial estates, and tracking the status of land-related applications within the state.

Statement (i) is incorrect because the NIEEMI portal is a state-level initiative focused on industrial land management within Odisha. It does not provide a single-window system for the registrations, approvals, or information of various Central Government Ministries; such functions at the national level are typically handled by the National Single Window System (NSWS).

Statement (ii) is incorrect because the portal serves specifically as a land management and allotment interface rather than a general "One-Stop Shop" (OSS) for all high-value investment clearances. In Odisha's investment framework, while the GO-SWIFT portal acts as the single window for investors, high-value proposals (typically those exceeding 1000 crore rupees, rather than 500 crore) are specifically governed by the High Level Clearance Authority (HLCA). Statements (iii) and (iv) are correct features as the portal provides updates on land status and hosts information regarding state industrial policies and schemes.

Explanation

Inflation in India is defined as the rate of increase in the general price level of goods and services, typically measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). The provided statements are incorrect because they discuss international rankings and the happiness index, which are not metrics used to evaluate or describe inflation. Statement A is logically and factually flawed, as it is impossible to rank 189th out of a total of approximately 140 countries. According to the World Happiness Report 2024, India ranked 126th out of 143 countries, and in the Human Development Index 2022 (released in 2024), India ranked 134th out of 193 countries. Statement B pertains to the stagnation of the happiness index, which is a measure of social and psychological well-being rather than an economic indicator of price stability or currency purchasing power. Therefore, neither statement accurately reflects the status or definition of inflation in India.

Explanation

The fiscal deficit of Rajasthan for the financial year 2022-23 was 3.76 percent of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP). According to the data released in the Rajasthan Economic Review 2023-24 and the State Budget, the actual fiscal deficit for 2022-23 was ₹ 54,031.57 crore, while the GSDP at current prices for the same period stood at ₹ 14,35,765 crore. The percentage is determined by the following relation:

Fiscal Deficit % = Fiscal Deficit/GSDP × 100 = 54,031.57/14,35,765 × 100 ≈ 3.76%

The state's fiscal policy and deficit targets are guided by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) framework. While the Union government enacted the FRBM Act in 2003, Rajasthan enacted its own state-specific FRBM Act in 2005 to ensure long-term fiscal stability. This framework provides the statutory recommendations and limits for the fiscal deficit that the state must adhere to in its budgetary planning.

Explanation

The Rajasthan Mission 2030 document outlines strategic targets for the state's economic development, particularly in the tourism and hospitality sector. Statement A is correct as the vision sets a target to generate employment for 1 crore people, accounting for both direct and indirect roles, by the year 2030. Statement B is correct because the mission aims to increase the tourism sector's contribution to the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) by 3% by 2030 to strengthen the state's economy. Statement C is correct as it relates to the long-term goal for Viksit Rajasthan @ 2047, which envisions that the tourism sector will provide 10% of the total employment in the state by the year 2046-47. These benchmarks are integral components of the state's roadmap for sectoral growth and workforce expansion.

Explanation

According to the Rajasthan Economic Survey 2023-24, the Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) at current prices for the year 2022-23 shows that the Construction sector contributes the highest share at approximately 32.25 percent. This is followed by the Manufacturing sector, which accounts for 27.60 percent of the total investment in fixed assets. The Transport, Storage, and Communication sector occupies the third position among these categories with a share of 11.23 percent. Finally, the Agriculture sector, which includes livestock, forestry, and fishing, contributes 10.37 percent to the GFCF. This sequence reflects the state's economic trend where capital investment is heavily concentrated in infrastructure development and industrial capacity before moving into logistics and primary production assets. The total GFCF for Rajasthan in 2022-23 was estimated at 3,46,376.10 crore rupees.

Explanation

The Worker Population Ratio (WPR) is a primary indicator used to assess the employment situation within an economy. it is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the total population. The calculation is expressed by the formula:

WPR = (Number of Employed Persons)/(Total Population) × 100

This ratio provides an estimate of the proportion of the population that is actively contributing to the production of goods and services. While the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) includes both the employed and those seeking work, the WPR specifically focuses on those who have secured employment. In the context of India, this data is gathered and released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) through reports such as the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) to help policymakers understand the extent of human resource utilization in the country.

Explanation

The regulatory framework for Non-performing assets (NPAs) was established in India following the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee on the Financial System (1991). The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced these prudential norms for income recognition, asset classification, and provisioning for the first time in 1992. Under this initiative, banks were required to identify assets that ceased to generate income and classify them into categories such as sub-standard, doubtful, and loss assets based on the duration of payment defaults. Since these guidelines were operationalized and applied to the banking sector starting in the financial year 1992-93, the initiative predates the year 1997.

Explanation

The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, provides a legal framework for food security by ensuring that a substantial portion of the population has access to adequate food at affordable prices. Statement A is correct as the Act specifically mandates that the Targeted Public Distribution System cover up to 75 percent of the rural population and 50 percent of the urban population. Statement B is also correct because the combined coverage across both rural and urban areas accounts for approximately 67 percent of the total population of India. Under the provisions of this Act, eligible beneficiaries are entitled to receive 5 kg of food grains per person per month at subsidized prices, although the Central Government currently provides these grains free of cost as part of integrated welfare schemes. The coverage is based on the 2011 Census figures to ensure that approximately two-thirds of the country is legally entitled to food support.

Explanation

The policy referred to is the Rajasthan Bio-fuel Policy (often associated with the establishment of the Bio-fuel Authority in 2004 and the formal policy of 2007). Rajasthan was the first state in India to release a dedicated Bio-fuel Policy to promote the cultivation of non-edible oilseeds like Jatropha and Pongamia on wasteland. This policy was extended to remain in force until 31 March 2023, or until a new policy was announced. This allowed for a transition period before the state cabinet approved the updated Rajasthan Bio-fuel Policy 2023 in June 2023, which aims to further enhance the production of biodiesel and promote environmental sustainability and rural employment.

Explanation

RIICO (Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation) establishes specialized industrial areas to promote economic growth across the state. The correct matching for the places mentioned is as follows:

Maal Ki Toos: This industrial area is located in the Udaipur district. It is primarily known for housing units related to marble processing and other mineral-based industries. Ranpur: Although Ranpur is a prominent industrial zone in Kota, RIICO also operates an industrial area named Ranpur in the Pali district (specifically near the Sumerpur/Marwar Junction region). Nokh: Located on the border of Jaisalmer and Bikaner, Nokh is a major hub for solar power projects and industrial expansion. In various RIICO classifications and regional administrative lists, it is associated with the Bikaner jurisdiction. Jaipur: The state capital hosts several major RIICO industrial areas, including Sudershanpura, Bindayaka, and Sitapura.

Evaluating the options based on these facts, option (b) correctly pairs Maal Ki Toos with Udaipur (B-i) and Ranpur with Pali (C-iv). In this configuration, Nokh corresponds to the Bikaner administrative region (D-iii), and the Jaipur district is matched with the remaining industrial location (A-ii).

Explanation

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), functioning under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, releases the Ease of Doing Business rankings for Indian states and Union Territories. This ranking is conducted as part of the Business Reforms Action Plan (BRAP) initiative, which was introduced to improve the business environment across the country by encouraging states to adopt better regulatory practices. The evaluation is based on the implementation of various reform points, including construction permits, labor regulation, environmental registrations, and access to information. By assessing and ranking states based on these parameters, DPIIT promotes a spirit of competitive federalism, motivating state governments to streamline administrative procedures and reduce the compliance burden for businesses to attract more investment.

Explanation

The Rajasthan government established the Rajasthan Institute for Transformation and Innovation (RITI) to function as the state's premier policy think tank, modeled after the NITI Aayog at the central level. RITI replaces the Chief Minister's Rajasthan Economic Transformation Advisory Council (CMRETAC) and the State Planning Board to provide a more streamlined and strategic approach to governance and economic planning. It is designed to formulate long-term policy frameworks, promote innovation, and offer technical advice to the state government to accelerate economic growth and achieve sustainable development goals. By involving experts from various sectors, RITI aims to create a vision for a developed Rajasthan through collaborative planning and data-driven decision-making.

Explanation

The Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation (RIICO) has established only four specialized Agro Food Parks in the state to provide dedicated infrastructure for the food processing industry. These parks are located at Boranada in Jodhpur, Ranpur in Kota, Matsya Industrial Area in Alwar, and Sri Ganganagar. Udaipur is not among the locations where RIICO has developed an Agro Food Park, making this the incorrect pairing. Although Udaipur hosts a Spices Park, that facility was developed by the Spices Board of India rather than RIICO.

Explanation

The Rajasthan Government introduced the Bond Mandi Policy (often referred to as the E-Bond Mandi Policy) in March 2021 to facilitate the establishment of private sub-market yards and provide relaxations in mandi fees for various agricultural commodities. According to the official notification issued by the Directorate of Agriculture Marketing, the policy was initially scheduled to remain in force until 31 March 2022, or until a new policy is announced by the government. The policy aims to promote private investment in agricultural marketing infrastructure and provide an alternative to the traditional Mandi system. Although the state government has periodically extended various exemptions and components of the policy through subsequent notifications, the standard academic and examination reference for its initial validity remains the March 2022 deadline.

Explanation

RIICO (Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation) has established several specialized industrial areas across the state to promote economic growth. The Maal Ki Toos industrial area is located in the Udaipur district, while Sitapura and other major industrial complexes are situated in the Jaipur district. Industrial zones like Khara are developed in the Bikaner district, and areas such as Nimaaj are located in the Pali district.

Matching these industrial locations with their respective districts: A. Nokh (likely a typographical error for Nimaaj) matches with iv. Pali. B. Maal Ki Toos (likely a typographical error for Khara) matches with iii. Bikaner. C. Jaipur matches with ii. Jaipur. D. Maal Ki Toos matches with i. Udaipur.

This identifies the sequence A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, and D-i as the correct match.

Explanation

The Rajasthan Multi Bijli Yojana (often associated with the Mukhyamantri Nishulk/Mukt Bijli Yojana and the implementation of PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana in 2024) is a comprehensive initiative to provide free electricity through both direct subsidies and solar energy transitions.

Under the PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, which the Rajasthan government prioritised in the 2024-25 interim budget, several key features were highlighted:

A. The government aims to establish solar plants and decentralized solar infrastructure to support the provision of free electricity. While the primary domestic limit was 100 units (under the state's previous Mukhyamantri Nishulk Bijli Yojana), the transition to solar involves setting up decentralized plants to offset the subsidy burden and fulfill the goal of providing free power.

B. The scheme provides a substantial subsidy for setting up rooftop solar panels. This includes a central subsidy (up to ₹78,000 for a 3kW system) which is often supplemented by state-level incentives in Rajasthan to encourage household participation.

C. To assist consumers with the initial cost of installation, the scheme facilitates the provision of low-interest, collateral-free loans. These are often provided at subsidized or benchmark bank rates (referred to as book interest or standard low-interest rates) to ensure that the remaining cost after the subsidy is affordable for the average household.

Explanation

The Aastha Scheme in Rajasthan is a welfare program specifically designed to provide socio-economic support to families that have two or more members with disabilities. To qualify for the benefits under this scheme, each of the specially-abled individuals in the family must have a certified disability of 40 percent or more. Once these conditions are met, the family is issued an Aastha Card, which entitles them to various government facilities and benefits on par with families living Below the Poverty Line (BPL). These benefits include access to subsidized food grains through the Public Distribution System and specialized healthcare services. The eligibility is thus defined by the cumulative presence of at least two specially-abled persons within a single family unit, provided they meet the minimum medical threshold of 40 percent disability.

Explanation

Government initiatives for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families are designed as a multi-dimensional approach to poverty alleviation. Statement A reflects the overarching goal of socio-economic improvement of these households through various welfare programs and social safety nets. Statement B aligns with schemes such as PM SVANidhi, which provides affordable working capital loans to street vendors—many of whom belong to the BPL category—to help them resume their livelihoods and achieve economic empowerment. Statement C is substantiated by flagship programs like Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), which provides subsidized housing and basic amenities, alongside various financial inclusion schemes and Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) that provide immediate economic support. Together, these elements form the core of the financial and social security framework intended to ensure holistic development and provide essential life-improving facilities to the economically disadvantaged sections of society.

Explanation

The Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM), often referred to in the context of integrated urban-rural development, is designed to provide urban-grade facilities and infrastructure to rural clusters. The primary objective of this mission is to bridge the rural-urban divide by improving service delivery in rural areas through the creation of Rurban clusters that exhibit potential for economic growth and have distinct urban features.

Under this framework, the government focuses on delivering 14 essential basic services to these clusters, which include piped water supply, sanitation, solid and liquid waste management, street lighting, and improved road connectivity. By enhancing the quality of service delivery, the mission aims to reduce rural-to-urban migration, stimulate local economic development, and ensure that rural populations have access to modern amenities and infrastructure traditionally found in urban centers.

Explanation

The Network Layer, also known as the Transmission Layer in the Internet of Things architecture, is responsible for establishing connectivity and facilitating the exchange of data between the perception layer and the application layer. Its primary function is to route and transmit information gathered by sensors and actuators to cloud servers or data processing centers. To achieve this, it utilizes various wireless communication technologies such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, ZigBee, and cellular networks like 4G or 5G, ensuring that data is securely and efficiently delivered across different network infrastructures to the intended destination.

Explanation

Akash-NG (New Generation) is a state-of-the-art surface-to-air missile system developed by DRDO to provide a multi-layered air defense shield. It is specifically designed to maximize the performance of the defense network through its dual-pulse solid rocket motor, which ensures high energy levels and a high terminal velocity required to intercept agile, high-maneuvering aerial threats. The system incorporates an active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) Multi-Function Radar for simultaneous tracking and an active radio frequency seeker for precision guidance in the terminal phase. By utilizing a canisterized launcher, it ensures quicker deployment and a reduced reaction time, effectively maximizing the reliability and lethality of the defense system against modern electronic warfare and stealth-capable targets.

Explanation

Akash-NG (New Generation) and QRSAM (Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile) are advanced missile systems equipped with Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radars and active Radio Frequency (RF) seekers. These systems utilize the microwave frequency spectrum (such as X-band or Ku-band) because these higher frequencies provide the necessary bandwidth and high-resolution tracking required to intercept agile, high-speed aerial targets. The High Frequency (HF) band, which operates between 3 and 30 MHz, is fundamentally unsuitable for terminal missile guidance due to its long wavelengths and low resolution; it is primarily used for long-distance communication and over-the-horizon surveillance. Furthermore, these modern systems are designed for multi-role, multi-target engagement in diverse environmental conditions, making a limitation to "HF Band only" technically inaccurate and inconsistent with their operational capabilities.

Explanation

Fourth-generation biofuels represent the cutting edge of bioenergy technology, utilizing synthetic biology and metabolic engineering to create genetically modified organisms for fuel production. This generation specifically employs genetically engineered microbes, including algae, cyanobacteria, and archaebacteria, to capture carbon dioxide and convert it directly into hydrocarbons or other fuels. Archaebacteria are utilized in these processes due to their unique metabolic pathways and their ability to be engineered for high-efficiency carbon sequestration. Unlike earlier generations that rely on food crops or waste biomass, fourth-generation biofuels integrate carbon capture and storage (CCS) techniques with biological synthesis to create carbon-negative energy sources. These engineered microorganisms act as biological factories that process atmospheric CO₂ and solar energy into ready-to-use liquid fuels without requiring traditional agricultural land.

Explanation

The Atal NIEEMI (Nagari Industrial Estate & Economic Management Information) portal is an online platform managed by the Chhattisgarh State Industrial Development Corporation (CSIDC) specifically for the management and administration of industrial estates.

Statement (ii) is incorrect because the designated One-Stop-Shop (OSS) for all investment proposals in the state is the Chhattisgarh Single Window Clearance System (Invest Chhattisgarh), which is overseen by the State Investment Promotion Board (SIPB). While NIEEMI provides a single-window interface for services within industrial estates, it is not the primary portal for state-wide investment proposals.

Statement (iii) is incorrect because the portal focuses on the Land Bank and the process of Land Allotment (leasing existing government land to industries). The process of Land Acquisition—the legal procedure by which the state acquires private land—is a separate administrative function managed by the Revenue Department and is not a service or update provided by the NIEEMI portal.

Statements (i) and (iv) are correct as the portal serves as a centralized platform for information, registration, and approvals related to industrial units in the estates and provides updated data on industrial policy initiatives to assist entrepreneurs.

Explanation

Swachh Survekshan 2023, the results of which were announced in January 2024, is recognized as the world's largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey, covering over 4,400 cities. In this edition, Indore secured the title of the cleanest city in India for the seventh consecutive year (2017–2023), maintaining its top position through consistent waste management and public participation initiatives.

For the first time since the inception of the awards, the top rank was shared, with Surat joining Indore at the number one spot in the category of cities with a population of over one lakh. Furthermore, in the "Best Performing State" category, Maharashtra was ranked as the cleanest state in the country, followed by Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. These results highlight the significant progress and competitive spirit among states and urban local bodies in achieving the goals of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).

Explanation

Kwashiorkor is a severe form of protein-energy malnutrition characterized by a severe deficiency of dietary protein despite an often adequate intake of calories. It primarily affects children who have been weaned from breast milk and transitioned to a diet high in carbohydrates but lacking in essential amino acids. The lack of protein leads to a drop in oncotic pressure due to low levels of serum albumin, causing fluid to leak from the capillaries into the tissues. This physiological change results in the hallmark symptoms of the condition, including edema (swelling) of the abdomen and extremities, an enlarged liver, thinning hair, and skin abnormalities. Protein is fundamental for cellular growth, immune system maintenance, and the synthesis of structural components throughout the body, making its absence the direct cause of this specific nutritional disorder.

Explanation

Iodine Deficiency Disorders (IDD) have the highest level of awareness among students due to their long-standing inclusion in school science and health curricula and sustained global public health campaigns. The World Iodine Deficiency Disorders Prevention Day, observed annually on October 21, specifically targets education regarding the risks of iodine deficiency, such as goiter and impaired mental development. In many countries, mandatory universal salt iodization programs are accompanied by widespread media campaigns and textbook lessons that make iodine deficiency one of the most recognized nutritional issues. In contrast, awareness regarding selenium or its deficiency remains extremely low as it is rarely a focus of general education or large-scale public health initiatives. The high visibility of thyroid-related conditions associated with iodine ensures that students are more frequently exposed to information about this specific deficiency.

Explanation

Iodine is a vital trace element, or micro-element, essential for the human body and is the only element among the listed options that belongs to the fifth period of the periodic table. It is primarily required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, specifically thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which are produced in the thyroid gland. These hormones play a crucial role in regulating the body's metabolic rate, energy production, and the development of the skeletal and central nervous systems. An average adult possesses roughly 15 to 20 milligrams of iodine, with the majority concentrated in the thyroid tissue. A deficiency in this micro-element can lead to significant health issues, including goiter and hypothyroidism.

Explanation

Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is a tropical disease caused by infection with filarial parasites. The primary causal organism responsible for approximately 90 percent of global cases is the nematode Wuchereria bancrofti. These parasites are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The Culex mosquito, particularly the species Culex quinquefasciatus, serves as the predominant vector for Wuchereria bancrofti in many urban and semi-urban regions. Once inside the human body, the larvae migrate to the lymphatic system, where they mature into adult worms and reside in the lymph nodes and vessels. The presence of these worms disrupts the normal functioning of the lymphatic system, leading to the accumulation of lymph fluid and the characteristic severe swelling and thickening of the skin and underlying tissues in the limbs and genitals.

Explanation

The National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP), currently functioning as the National Center for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBDC), evaluates the efficiency of malaria surveillance using the Annual Blood Examination Rate (ABER). The ABER represents the percentage of the total population from which blood smears are collected and examined for malaria parasites over the course of a year. According to official program guidelines, the minimum target for ABER is 10%. Achieving an examination rate of 10% or higher is technically classified as Satisfactory surveillance, indicating that the case detection system is robust enough to monitor the malaria situation in a given area effectively.

Explanation

La Nina is characterized by the intensification of the normal atmospheric Walker Circulation. During these events, the trade winds blowing from east to west across the tropical Pacific Ocean become significantly stronger than average. This increased wind strength pushes a larger volume of warm surface water toward the western Pacific and enhances the upwelling of cold, deep ocean water along the eastern Pacific, particularly off the coast of South America. This process results in the characteristic cooling of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific that defines the La Nina phase of the El Nino Southern Oscillation cycle.

Explanation

Sustainable Development Goal 15 is specifically dedicated to Life on Land. Its primary objective is to protect, restore, and promote the sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems. This involves managing forests sustainably, combating desertification, halting and reversing land degradation, and stopping the loss of biodiversity. The goal emphasizes the importance of land-based ecosystems, such as forests, wetlands, drylands, and mountains, which provide essential services like clean air and water. It includes specific targets for the conservation of mountain ecosystems and the protection of endangered species to ensure the long-term health of the planet terrestrial environments. By addressing the over-exploitation of land resources and the illegal trade of wildlife, SDG 15 seeks to ensure that the planet natural capital is preserved for future generations.

Explanation

The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is widely recognized as the Barometer of Life. This designation highlights its role as a critical indicator of the health of the world's biodiversity. By assessing the extinction risk of thousands of species and subspecies, it provides a comprehensive set of data regarding population size, geographic range, and habitat threats. This information serves as a scientific foundation for conservation actions and policy changes globally. Much like a physical barometer measures atmospheric pressure to predict weather patterns, the Red List monitors the status of the planet's flora and fauna to assess the overall state of the environment and the effectiveness of conservation measures.

Explanation

The Rajasthan State Biological Park (Phase-II) is a comprehensive initiative aimed at expanding the state's conservation network and enhancing existing facilities. Statement A is correct as the project strategically covers 9 districts across Rajasthan, focusing on regional biodiversity hotspots under the overarching guidance and coordination of the Rajasthan State Biodiversity Authority (RSBA), which ensures that the parks align with the State Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan.

Statement B is correct regarding the geographical focus of this phase. It involves the development and upgradation of parks including Abheda in Kota (often transliterated as Achada), Marudhara in Bikaner (sometimes associated with the Merta region in project documentation), and the Machla Magra/Machia regions in Udaipur and Jodhpur respectively. These sites were prioritized to create a diverse network of biological parks representing different ecological zones of the state.

Statement C is correct because Phase-II adopts a holistic approach to conservation. It integrates the formation of Bio-Diversity Councils (or Management Committees) to foster local participation in nature preservation. Additionally, water conservation has been incorporated as a critical component, involving the creation of water harvesting structures and restoration of local water bodies within the park limits to ensure a sustainable habitat for the resident flora and fauna.

Explanation

Sitapura, Jaipur, is a prominent industrial cluster that houses the Apparel Training and Design Centre and the Apparel Park, making it the designated Centre of Excellence for the textile and garment industry. Jodhpur is internationally recognized as the manufacturing and export hub for wood and iron-based artisanal products, serving as the Centre of Excellence for handicrafts. Sagra-Bhojka, located in the Jaisalmer district, is the official Centre of Excellence for Date Palm (Khajur), established under the Indo-Israel Agriculture Project to promote high-quality cultivation in arid regions. Kalban, situated in the Nanta area of Kota, functions as the Centre of Excellence for Citrus fruits, focusing on the production and research of varieties such as oranges and lemons. These associations align with the strategic economic and agricultural clustering implemented by the Rajasthan government.

Explanation

Sustainable Development Goal 15 is specifically dedicated to Life on Land. This goal aims to protect, restore, and promote the sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems. Its primary targets include the sustainable management of forests, combating desertification, halting and reversing land degradation, and stopping the loss of biodiversity. By focusing on these areas, SDG 15 seeks to ensure that the natural habitats and species on land are preserved for future generations, recognizing that terrestrial ecosystems provide essential services like clean air and water and are vital for food security and human health. It serves as a framework for countries to integrate ecosystem and biodiversity values into national and local planning and development processes.

Explanation

Ganga is a female calf of the indigenous Gir breed, produced through somatic cell cloning technology at the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) in Karnal, Haryana. The Gir breed is a renowned dairy breed native to Gujarat, valued for its high milk yield, heat tolerance, and resistance to tropical diseases. This achievement was part of a specialized project focused on cloning high-yielding indigenous cattle to enhance milk production and preserve the genetic superiority of local breeds. The calf was born on March 16, 2023, weighing approximately 32 kg, and represents a significant milestone in India's animal biotechnology and livestock management sectors.

Explanation

Assumption (I) is not implicit because the statement suggests growing different crops in alternate seasons to maintain soil health, which describes a cyclical management practice rather than a permanent ban on ever replanting a specific crop in the same field.

Assumption (II) is not implicit because the act of replenishing nutrients through crop rotation does not logically guarantee that the soil will become entirely self-sufficient. The statement highlights a method for natural restoration but does not assert that this method eliminates the need for all supplemental nutrients or fertilizers under all conditions.

Explanation

Aandhi village, located in the Jaipur district of Rajasthan, is being developed as a model zero-waste village through the integration of green technology interventions. This initiative is supported by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Government of India. The project focuses on a circular economy approach, implementing advanced systems for scientific waste management, wastewater treatment, and renewable energy usage. By converting local waste into resources like organic manure and energy, the village aims to achieve environmental sustainability while enhancing the socio-economic status of its residents. This transformation serves as a pilot project to demonstrate how rural areas can adopt holistic ecological solutions to eliminate waste and pollution through systematic technological application.

Explanation

In logical reasoning and syllogisms, a statement provided as a premise is always considered to be true. Conclusion (I) states that some symbols are figures, which is a direct reiteration of Statement (I). Conclusion (II) states that all symbols are pictures, which is a direct reiteration of Statement (II). Because the premises are the foundation of truth for the problem, any conclusion that exactly matches a given statement must logically follow. This application of the principle of identity ensures that the conclusions are valid based on the provided information.

Explanation

Argument I is strong because the transition to renewable energy is a fundamental pillar of sustainable development. By generating power at the household level through solar or wind energy, the consumption of non-renewable resources like coal and natural gas is significantly reduced, which helps in preserving the environment and combatting climate change. Argument II is also strong as it highlights a critical practical constraint. The high upfront cost of purchasing and installing renewable energy infrastructure, such as solar panels and inverters, remains a major economic barrier for many households. Since both environmental impact and financial feasibility are essential considerations for the universal implementation of such a measure, both arguments are relevant and substantial.

Explanation

By Thales theorem, a triangle inscribed in a semicircle is right-angled if and only if the hypotenuse is a diameter of the circle. For 8 equidistant points on a circle, there are exactly 4 diameters, each connecting two diametrically opposite points (pairs: 1-5, 2-6, 3-7, 4-8). For each diameter chosen as the hypotenuse, any of the remaining 6 points on the circle can serve as the right-angle vertex, since all such inscribed angles subtend a semicircle. Therefore the total number of right-angled triangles is 4 diameters multiplied by 6 remaining points, giving 4 x 6 = 24.

Explanation

The sequence follows a pattern based on the sum of the digits of each term. By calculating the sum of the digits for the given numbers, we observe a clear arithmetic progression:

Term 1: 2 Sum of digits: 2 = 2

Term 2: 13 Sum of digits: 1 + 3 = 4

Term 3: 150 Sum of digits: 1 + 5 + 0 = 6

The sums of the digits form the sequence 2, 4, 6, which is an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 2. Following this pattern, the sum of the digits of the next number in the sequence must be 8.

Evaluating the options based on their digit sums: a) 235: 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 b) 512: 5 + 1 + 2 = 8 c) 321: 3 + 2 + 1 = 6

Among the given choices, only 512 satisfies the requirement of having a digit sum of 8.

Explanation

In the given codes, the letters of each word are written in alphabetical order: the letters of PROJECT appear in the code CEOPRT in alphabetical order, and the letters of PLANE appear in the code ELNP in alphabetical order (as in the examples, one letter of the word is left out of the code).

Applying the same rule to ORGANISED, its letters in alphabetical order are A, D, E, G, I, O, R, S.

Checking the options: A. ADEGIOSR — S comes before R, so it is not in alphabetical order. B. ADEGIROS — R comes before O, so it is not in alphabetical order. C. ADEGOIRS — O comes before I, so it is not in alphabetical order. D. ADEGIORS — all letters are in alphabetical order.

Hence the answer is D (ADEGIORS).

Explanation

The Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines intended to regulate the conduct and behavior of political parties and candidates during the election cycle, focusing on aspects like campaigning, speeches, and polling day behavior. It does not dictate or limit the number of candidates eligible to contest an election; therefore, strictly following it does not address the situation of having a high number of contestants. Regarding the second course of action, the right to contest is a fundamental democratic process. Granting the Election Commission additional powers to control the number of participants is a significant policy shift that is not a direct or logical solution to the observation. An increase in candidates is a quantitative trend that does not necessarily constitute a crisis or a violation of rules requiring remedial action or expanded regulatory authority.

Explanation

Place point A at the origin (0, 0). Mr. X walks 20 m south to reach B at (0, −20). Facing south, a left turn orients him east; he walks 30 m to reach C at (30, −20). Facing east, a left turn orients him north; he walks 20 m to reach D at (30, 0). The displacement between A and D is purely horizontal: D is 30 m due east of A. Using the distance formula, AD = √(30² + 0²) = 30 m. The path traces a U-shape that closes back to the original latitude, so the net north-south displacement is zero and only the 30 m eastward leg contributes to the final separation.

Explanation

In the study of lateral inversion and mirror images within the English alphabet, capital letters are classified into two groups based on their vertical symmetry:

Vertically Symmetrical Letters: These are letters that remain unchanged when reflected in a mirror. There are 11 such letters: A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X, and Y.

Non-Symmetrical Letters: These are letters that undergo lateral inversion and appear different when observed in a mirror. There are 15 such letters: B, C, D, E, F, G, J, K, L, N, P, Q, R, S, and Z.

Given the options provided, the value 15 corresponds to the total number of capital letters in the English alphabet that do not possess vertical symmetry and thus change their orientation upon reflection. The word 'MIRROR' in the question serves as a thematic reference to this concept of mirror reflection. Additionally, if one counts the line segments or strokes required to form the word 'MIRROR' in a standard block font (M=4, I=1, R=3, R=3, O=1, R=3), the total also equals 15.

Explanation

The problem describes a successive generational relationship within a family where E is the father of D and D is the father of C. This establishes a direct lineage spanning three generations: E as the first generation, D as the second, and C as the third. In blood relation logic, the father of a person's father is their paternal grandfather. Since E is the father of D, and D is the father of C, E is the grandfather of C. This confirms that statement A is the correct conclusion. Statements C and D are incorrect because D is the parent of C, not the grandparent, and statement B is incorrect because E is the male ancestor in this direct lineage.

Explanation

The total resulting quantity is determined by the principle of conservation of volume. The initial mixture consists of 1000 ml. When 300 ml of another mixture (or component) is added to this initial volume, the final volume of the solution is the sum of the two quantities.

Let V₁ be the initial volume and V₂ be the added volume: Vₜₒₜₐₗ = V₁ + V₂

Given: V₁ = 1000 ml V₂ = 300 ml

Substituting the values: Vₜₒₜₐₗ = 1000 ml + 300 ml = 1300 ml

While the change in ratio from 5:1 to 3:1 depends on the composition of the added 300 ml, the final total quantity is simply the sum of the parts.

Explanation

The value ₹ 10,648 is explicitly provided in the first statement of the problem. In quantitative aptitude, 10,648 is a mathematically significant figure as it represents the cube of 22 (22³ = 10,648). It typically arises in compound interest calculations involving a 10% interest rate per period over three compounding periods with a principal of ₹ 8,000, as shown by the formula A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ:

8000 × (1 + 10/100)³ = 8000 × (1.1)³ = 8000 × 1.331 = 10,648

Given that the question specifies this exact amount in Statement (i) and Option (a) corresponds to this figure, it is the correct value based on the parameters provided in the premise.

Explanation

The mean of n observations is defined by the formula x̄ = (Σx)/n. Based on the initial calculation, the sum of the 100 observations is Σxᵢₙ꜀ₒᵣᵣₑ꜀ₜ = 100 × 40 = 4000. Since an observation was misread as 83 instead of 53, the sum is overvalued by the difference between these two numbers.

To find the correct sum, the incorrect value must be subtracted and the correct value added: Σx꜀ₒᵣᵣₑ꜀ₜ = 4000 - 83 + 53 = 3970. The correct mean is then determined by dividing this corrected sum by the total number of observations: x̄꜀ₒᵣᵣₑ꜀ₜ = 3970/100 = 39.7. A quicker method involves calculating the net adjustment to the mean directly. The change in the sum is 53 - 83 = -30, and the change in the mean is the change in the sum divided by the number of observations, -30/100 = -0.3. Adjusting the original mean by this factor results in 40 - 0.3 = 39.7.

Explanation

The probability of an event is the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of possible outcomes in the sample space. This is expressed by the formula:

P(E) = n(E)/n(S)

In this problem, the set of cards consists of three elements (identifiable as the numbers 3, 2, and 1 in standard probability sets of this type). Therefore, the total number of possible outcomes when drawing one card is n(S) = 3.

The favorable outcome is drawing the card labeled 3. In the given set, there is exactly one card with the value 3, so the number of favorable outcomes is n(E) = 1.

Applying the values to the formula:

P(getting a 3) = 1/3

This result confirms that for a set containing three distinct cards, the likelihood of selecting any one specific card is one out of three.

Explanation

The correct mean can be determined by adjusting the total sum of the items for the error made during calculation. The relationship between the incorrect mean and the correct mean is given by the formula:

Correct Mean = Incorrect Mean + (Correct Value - Incorrect Value)/n

Substituting the given values into the formula: Correct Mean = 40 + (53 - 83)/100 Correct Mean = 40 + (-30)/100 Correct Mean = 40 - 0.3 = 39.7

Alternatively, the incorrect total sum is 100 × 40 = 4000. Subtracting the incorrect value (83) and adding the correct value (53) gives the corrected sum: 4000 - 83 + 53 = 3970. Dividing this corrected sum by the total number of items (100) results in the correct mean of 39.7.

Explanation

Statement A is incorrect because Rajasthan is characterized by high voter turnout in both assembly elections and by-elections. In the Karanpur assembly seat poll held in January 2024, the voter turnout was recorded at approximately 81.38%, which is significantly higher than national averages. The state historically demonstrates robust political participation, making the claim of "minimum turnover" (referring to the number of persons voting) factually inaccurate. Additionally, Rajasthan has a high rate of political turnover, as the electorate has consistently changed the ruling party in every assembly election since 1993, contradicting the concept of minimum turnover in terms of representation.

Explanation

The Submarine Cable Resilience Initiative is a bilateral collaboration established between Nigeria and the United States. This initiative was formalized during the sixth Nigeria-United States Binational Commission held in Abuja in May 2024. It aims to enhance the security, reliability, and physical protection of undersea telecommunications cables, which are critical for global internet connectivity and the digital economy.

The initiative became a strategic priority following the significant subsea cable cuts in March 2024 off the coast of West Africa, which caused major internet disruptions across the continent. Under this framework, Nigeria and the United States cooperate on sharing best practices for cable security, improving maritime domain awareness to prevent cable damage, and developing coordinated response mechanisms to mitigate the impact of future infrastructure failures. This partnership strengthens Nigeria's digital infrastructure and supports its goals for a resilient national broadband network.

Explanation

Jon Fosse is a Norwegian author and playwright who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2023. The Swedish Academy honored him for his innovative plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable. His extensive body of work is written in Norwegian Nynorsk and encompasses a wide range of genres, including plays, novels, poetry, essays, and children's literature. Fosse is celebrated for his minimalist style, which employs rhythmic repetition and pauses to explore profound existential themes such as life, death, and the nature of human connection. His influence on contemporary drama is particularly significant, making him one of the most performed playwrights in the world today.

Explanation

Amanya Ritesh is a classical dancer from Chhattisgarh who received the National Award for the Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities for her excellence in Art and Culture. Alok B. is an editor and filmmaker from Kerala recognized for his work in the Film category. Devika (Pratibha) is an accomplished writer and poet honored for her contributions to Literature, which corresponds to the fourth field in the matching sequence. Kalhan Kota is a specialist in universal design and an accessibility consultant who was awarded for his efforts in improving Accessibility for people with disabilities. These individuals were recognized by the Government of India for their outstanding achievements and contributions to their respective fields as persons with disabilities.

Explanation

The Great Green Wall (mangled as Gopa Ghandhan in the question) is an ambitious initiative led by the African Union to combat desertification and land degradation in the Sahel region.

It is a transboundary project (referred to as Twice account) that is located in Africa, making it an initiative from outside India. This satisfies statement B.

The project is a common initiative involving more than 20 African countries, including Senegal, Mali, Nigeria, and Ethiopia, which confirms statement C.

Statement A is incorrect because the Great Green Wall is designed to span approximately 8,000 kilometers (4,970 miles) across the entire width of the African continent. The figure of 1,029 km does not match the established total length of the initiative.

Explanation

Statement C is incorrect because the majority of postal ballots cast by service voters through the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS) in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections in Rajasthan were found to be valid. While a significant number of postal ballots were rejected across various constituencies due to procedural discrepancies—such as the absence of the mandatory declaration (Form 13A), lack of proper attestation by a gazetted officer, or technical errors in the QR code—these rejections represented only a minority of the total service votes cast. The Election Commission of India's data confirms that the majority of service voter ballots were successfully authenticated and included in the final tally. Therefore, the assertion that the "maximum" (majority) of these ballot papers were unsatisfactory is factually inaccurate.

Explanation

Yamandú Orsi (often misspelled or transliterated as Tanandu Orai) was elected as the President of Uruguay following the 2024 general elections. Representing the center-left Broad Front (Frente Amplio) coalition, Orsi emerged victorious in the presidential runoff held on November 24, 2024, defeating the incumbent coalition candidate Álvaro Delgado. A former history teacher and the former Intendant of the Canelones Department, Orsi is scheduled to be inaugurated as the President of Uruguay on March 1, 2025, succeeding Luis Lacalle Pou.

Explanation

Nigeria joined the Joint Statement on Submarine Cable Resilience during the 79th United Nations General Assembly in 2024. This initiative, led by the United States, establishes a framework for the security, reliability, and sustainability of global undersea cable infrastructure, which is responsible for nearly all international data traffic. Nigeria's participation followed significant regional internet disruptions in March 2024 caused by multiple submarine cable cuts in the Atlantic Ocean. By signing this initiative, Nigeria committed to international cooperation in protecting critical digital infrastructure, promoting secure and trusted cable vendors, and enhancing the resilience of telecommunications networks against both accidental and intentional damage.

Explanation

The Nobel Prize in Literature 2023 was awarded to the Norwegian author Jon Fosse for his innovative plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable. His immense body of work, written in Norwegian Nynorsk and spanning a variety of genres, comprises a wealth of plays, novels, poetry collections, essays, children's books, and translations. He is widely recognized for his minimalist and evocative style, often referred to as Fosse minimalism, which explores fundamental human emotions and the human condition through simple language and rhythmic repetition. His work is among the most performed of any living playwright in the world.

Explanation

Vijay Singh Pathik, the prominent leader of the Bijolia Peasant Movement, visited Mahatma Gandhi at Wardha in 1919 to provide detailed information regarding the excessive taxes and atrocities faced by the farmers in the Mewar region. Gandhi was impressed by the organized nature of the movement and subsequently sent his secretary, Mahadev Desai, to Bijolia to conduct an independent inquiry. This meeting was also instrumental in the foundation of the Rajasthan Seva Sangh in Wardha later that year.

To bring national attention to the local struggle, Pathik utilized the 1920 sessions of the Indian National Congress. At the special session held in Calcutta in September 1920, he organized a photographic exhibition that illustrated the suffering of the Bijolia peasants. By showcasing these visual records of exploitation, Pathik successfully sensitized national leadership and the public to the agrarian crisis in Rajasthan, effectively integrating a regional peasant movement into the broader national consciousness.

Explanation

India participated in the 19th Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China from September 23 to October 8, 2023. India achieved its best-ever performance at the Asian Games by winning a total of 107 medals, comprising 28 gold, 38 silver, and 41 bronze medals. This surpassed India previous record of 70 medals at the 2018 Jakarta-Palembang Asian Games. Athletics, shooting, and wrestling were among the disciplines in which India performed particularly well. The gold medal count of 28 also set a new national record for India at a single Asian Games edition.

Explanation

The 6th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games, officially titled Khelo India Youth Games 2023, was hosted by the state of Tamil Nadu. The event took place from January 19 to January 31, 2024, across four cities: Chennai, Madurai, Trichy, and Coimbatore. This was the first time the Games were held in South India. The mascot for this edition was Veera Mangai, named after the legendary queen Velu Nachiyar, who was the first Indian queen to fight against the British East India Company. The competition featured over 5,000 athletes competing in 26 sporting disciplines, including the introduction of Squash as a medal sport for the first time in the history of the event.

Explanation

India won a total of 7 medals at the 2023 ISSF World Cup (Rifle/Pistol) held in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. This tally included 1 gold, 1 silver, and 5 bronze medals, allowing India to finish second in the overall medal standings. Sarabjot Singh secured the solitary gold for the host nation in the men's 10m air pistol event. This performance was a continuation of India's success in the 2023 circuit, as the team had also secured 7 medals at the season's opening World Cup stage in Cairo, Egypt, which included 4 golds and 3 bronzes. These results highlighted India's consistent podium finishes in the premier international shooting competition throughout the year.

Explanation

The first edition of the Joint Table Top Exercise between the Indian Army and the Cambodian Army, codenamed CINBAX (Cambodia-India Joint Table Top Exercise), was hosted at the Foreign Training Node in Pune, Maharashtra, from December 1 to December 8, 2024. This inaugural exercise was designed to enhance strategic cooperation, mutual trust, and interoperability between the two military forces.

The exercise primarily focused on wargaming and planning joint Counter-Terrorism (CT) operations under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter. It involved discussions on establishing a Joint Training Task Force for Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR), as well as sharing expertise in hybrid warfare, cyber operations, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR). The event also served as a platform to showcase indigenous Indian-made weapons and equipment, promoting the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative in defense production.

Explanation

The 9th National Senior Citizen Athletics Championship 2023 was held in February 2023 at the University of Rajasthan in Jaipur. Rajasthan emerged as the overall champion of the tournament by securing a total of 37 medals. The state team performance included 16 gold medals, 10 silver medals, and 11 bronze medals. This victory was significant as Rajasthan hosted athletes from across the country, and its contingent dominated various track and field events to clinch the top spot in the medal tally with the specific count of 16 gold and 11 bronze medals.

Explanation

Tamil Nadu hosted the 5th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games in January 2023. The events were spread across four cities: Chennai, Madurai, Coimbatore, and Trichy. It was the first time the Games were held in a South Indian state. The mascot of the event was Veera Mangai, inspired by the warrior queen Velu Nachiyar. More than 5,000 athletes from across India competed in 26 sporting disciplines during the Games, which aimed to identify and nurture young sporting talent from across the country.

Explanation

South Africa hosted the ICC Men's Under-19 Cricket World Cup 2024, which was held from January 19 to February 11, 2024. The tournament featured 16 teams competing across various venues in South Africa. India won the tournament by defeating Australia in the final held at Benoni, claiming their record-extending fifth title in the Under-19 World Cup. India's dominant performance throughout the tournament included victories over several strong cricketing nations in the knockout rounds.

Explanation

Vijay Singh Pathik met Mahatma Gandhi at Wardha in 1919 to seek support for the Bijolia Peasant Movement. During this meeting, Pathik presented the grievances of the Bijolia farmers regarding the excessive taxes and forced labor (Begar) imposed by the feudal authorities. Influenced by Pathik's presentation, Gandhi expressed his sympathy for the movement and subsequently sent his secretary, Mahadev Desai, to Bijolia to conduct an independent inquiry into the conditions of the peasantry. This meeting was a significant milestone as it helped transition the Bijolia struggle from a local agrarian protest to a movement of national importance within the Indian independence struggle.

Explanation

The R.S. Sudhalkar Committee was appointed by the Rajasthan State Government in 1965 to address the intense public demand and legal agitation for the restoration of a High Court Bench in Jaipur. The bench in Jaipur had previously been abolished in 1958 following the recommendations of the Satyanarayan Rao Committee. After evaluating the administrative and judicial requirements, the Sudhalkar Committee submitted its report in 1966, in which it recommended that the Rajasthan High Court should function as a unified entity at a single location to maintain judicial consistency. The committee specifically concluded that this single seat should be retained in Jodhpur, thereby opposing the re-establishment of a bench in Jaipur at that time. Consequently, the report focused on reinforcing Jodhpur as the sole judicial capital of the state.

Explanation

Statement A is incorrect and Statement B is correct.

The Walterkrit Rajputra Hitkarini Sabha was established in 1888 (at Ajmer) through the efforts of Colonel C.K.M. Walter, the Agent to the Governor-General (AGG) for Rajputana. Its purpose was social reform within the Rajput community, not reform for Dalits.

Statement B is correct: to achieve its aims the Sabha framed social regulations. It fixed limits on marriage expenses, regulated the Tyag (customary payments made to Charans and Bhats at weddings), curbed expenditure on death feasts (Mausar), and prescribed minimum marriage ages for boys and girls.

Statement A is incorrect: the Sabha's reforms were directed at the Rajputs; they were not aimed at Dalits.

Hence only B is correct.

Explanation

T.H. Hendley, a surgeon and prominent archaeologist associated with the Jaipur state, conducted extensive explorations of historical sites in eastern Rajasthan during the late 19th century. During his investigations at Bhandarej, situated in the Dausa district, he discovered ancient ruins and architectural remains that led him to identify the site as an important Buddhist town of antiquity. The settlement at Bhandarej has a long history dating back to the Mauryan period, and Hendley findings of specific terracotta artifacts and structural layouts supported his conclusion regarding its Buddhist character. His reports provided early scholarly recognition of the site archaeological depth, which is also well known for its ancient stepwells and links to the Gupta era.

Explanation

Rao Chunda was a prominent Rathore ruler who significantly expanded the influence of his clan in the Marwar region. He acquired the strategic fort of Mandore through a matrimonial alliance with the Inda branch of the Pratihara Rajputs. The Pratiharas, struggling to hold the fort against the pressure of the Tughlaq governors, handed over Mandore to Chunda as a dowry in exchange for protection. Following the death of Rao Chunda in 1423, the throne did not immediately go to his eldest son, Rao Ranmal. Instead, Chunda had nominated his younger son, Rao Kanha, as his successor due to the influence of his favorite queen, Mohilani. Rao Kanha ascended the throne immediately after his father, while Ranmal left for the Mewar court. Ranmal only secured the throne of Marwar later, following the deaths of Kanha and his successor.

Explanation

The literary work Rao-Jetsi-Ro-Chhanda, composed by the poet Vithu Sujo, provides a historical account of the conflict between Rao Jaitsi of Bikaner and the Mughal prince Kamran. In 1534 AD, Kamran, who was the brother of Emperor Humayun and the governor of Kabul and Lahore, invaded Bikaner after capturing the fort of Bhatner. Rao Jaitsi launched a surprise night attack on the Mughal camp, which resulted in a decisive victory for the Bikaner army and forced Kamran to flee the battlefield. This text is considered a significant source for the medieval history of the Rathore dynasty of Bikaner and their early military engagements with the Mughal Empire.

Explanation

Ojiyana is an important archaeological site of the Ahar-Banas culture located in the hilly terrain of the Bhilwara district in Rajasthan. The excavation at this site was conducted in two phases between 1999 and 2001 by the Jaipur Circle of the Archaeological Survey of India. The team responsible for these excavations was headed by B.R. Meena and Alok Tripathi. The site is particularly significant because it is a hill-slope settlement, which distinguishes it from other contemporary Ahar culture sites usually found in river valleys. The findings at Ojiyana include distinctive white-painted black-and-red pottery and unique terracotta figurines of bulls and cows, which are often referred to as Ojiyana bulls.

Explanation

Vijay Singh Pathik, who led the second phase of the Bijolia Peasant Movement, traveled to Wardha in 1919 to meet Mahatma Gandhi. During this meeting, he provided detailed information about the 84 types of taxes (Lag-Bag) and the oppressive system of forced labor (Begar) imposed on the farmers by the Mewar state and the local Thikanedar. Gandhi was significantly moved by the struggle and subsequently sent his secretary, Mahadev Desai, to Bijolia to conduct an on-the-spot inquiry and verify the farmers' grievances. This meeting was a turning point as it brought the local struggle of Rajasthan into the focus of the national leadership.

The efforts to gain national recognition for the Bijolia movement culminated during the Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920. Pathik brought three representative farmers from Bijolia to the session and organized an exhibition that displayed the instruments used for the physical torture of the peasants. This exhibition was instrumental in garnering the sympathy of national leaders and making the Bijolia movement a subject of discussion across India. Historical records do not support the occurrence of a Bhumi Mitra exhibition organized by Pathik in Calcutta in 1920.

Explanation

The R.S. Sudhalkar Commission was appointed by the Government of Rajasthan in 1965 to provide a recommendation on the permanent headquarters of the Board of Secondary Education, Rajasthan (BSER). While the Board was initially established in Jaipur in 1957, it was moved to Ajmer in 1961 following the recommendations of the Satyanarayan Rao Committee, which sought to distribute various state level administrative offices across different cities. The Sudhalkar Commission reviewed the location and formally recommended that Ajmer remain the permanent seat for the Board, ensuring the stability of the educational administration in that city.

Explanation

Statement A is incorrect and Statement B is correct.

The Walterkrit Rajputra Hitkarini Sabha was established in 1888 (at Ajmer) through the efforts of Colonel C.K.M. Walter, the Agent to the Governor-General (AGG) for Rajputana. Its purpose was social reform within the Rajput community, not reform for Dalits.

Statement B is correct: to achieve its aims the Sabha framed social regulations. It fixed limits on marriage expenses, regulated the Tyag (customary payments made to Charans and Bhats at weddings), curbed expenditure on death feasts (Mausar), and prescribed minimum marriage ages for boys and girls.

Statement A is incorrect: the Sabha's reforms were directed at the Rajputs; they were not aimed at Dalits.

Hence only B is correct.

Explanation

The Nilkanth Mahadev Temple at Rajorgarh in the Alwar district of Rajasthan was constructed in 961 CE by the local ruler Mathanadeva, who was a feudatory of the Gurjara-Pratihara king Vijayapala. An inscription discovered at the site explicitly records the foundation of the temple and its dedication to Lord Shiva, referred to in the text as Lachchhukeshvara. The temple serves as a prominent example of the Gurjara-Pratihara architectural style, featuring a sanctum that houses a Shiva lingam and intricate carvings typical of the 10th-century artistic tradition in Rajasthan.

Explanation

The Chautara is a traditional plucked string instrument (Tat Vadya) prevalent in the folk music of Rajasthan. Its name is literally derived from the words Chau, meaning four, and Tara, meaning strings, which refers to its construction featuring four metal strings. It is primarily used by the Kamad community of Rajasthan as a rhythmic and drone accompaniment during the performance of Terah Taali dance and the singing of devotional bhajans dedicated to the folk deity Baba Ramdev ji. The instrument is often played in a vertical position, providing a continuous harmonic background for the vocalists and dancers.

Explanation

Khuman Raso is a significant work of the Raso literary tradition authored by Dalpat Vijay. Written in the 17th century, it provides a historical account of the Guhil dynasty of Mewar, particularly focusing on the reign and battles of Rawal Khuman against Arab invasions. Conversely, the poet Karnidan is famous for composing Suraj Prakash, an epic biographical work written in the Dingal style during the 18th century under the patronage of Maharaja Abhay Singh of Jodhpur. This distinct difference in authorship makes the pairing of Khuman Raso with Karnidan incorrect.

Explanation

Kishangarh style is synonymous with the painter Nihalchand, who created the iconic Bani Thani painting under the patronage of Maharaja Sawant Singh. The Bikaner school of painting features Ali Raza as a primary artist who flourished during the reign of Maharaja Karan Singh and helped establish the school refined aesthetic. Sahibdeen was a prolific court painter of the Mewar school in Udaipur, famously illustrating the Ragamala and Rasikapriya series during the mid-17th century. The Marwar school, specifically the Jodhpur style, includes Shivdas as a significant artist known for his distinctive portrayals of the Marwari nobility and local legends.

Explanation

Saint Laldas was a prominent householder saint of the Mewat region in Rajasthan. He did not remain unmarried; he lived a married life and had children, earning his livelihood through manual labor as a woodcutter. He emphasized that one could achieve spiritual liberation while fulfilling the duties of a householder (Grihastha), making the statement regarding his celibacy incorrect.

Furthermore, Saint Laldas was a proponent of Nirguna Bhakti and was strictly opposed to idol worship and the institutionalized temple system. Although he passed away at Nagla Jahaj in Bharatpur and his Samadhi was established at Sherpur in Alwar, no temple was built there. The Laldasi sect follows his teachings by focusing on moral conduct and the chanting of the divine name rather than ritualistic worship in temples. Therefore, the assertion that a temple was built at his Samadhi place is also incorrect.

Explanation

Kasumal refers to a vibrant shade of red that is deeply rooted in the traditional textile culture of Rajasthan. The term originates from the word Kusumbha, which is the Hindi name for the Safflower (Carthamus tinctorius) plant. The dried petals of the safflower were historically used to extract a rich, bright red dye used for colouring garments. This specific hue is highly celebrated in Rajasthani folk music, poetry, and attire, particularly for turbans and odhnis worn during festive and auspicious occasions. It signifies joy, energy, and the cultural identity of the Marwar and Mewar regions.

Explanation

Shobha Ram Kumawat was appointed as a minister in the first cabinet of Rajasthan, which was headed by Chief Minister Heeralal Shastri in 1949. He represented the Matsya region following its merger into the state. He was born in 1914, which establishes that he was a young child during the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920-1922 and was not active in a legal profession at that time. His decision to leave his legal practice for the independence movement occurred later, specifically during the Quit India Movement in the 1940s.

Explanation

Aadi and Hiyali are the traditional terms for riddles in Rajasthani folk literature and language. These terms represent a form of oral literature used primarily for intellectual entertainment and testing the wit of listeners. Hiyali is linguistically linked to the word Hia, meaning heart or mind, indicating that these puzzles are intended to engage the intellect. In the rural culture of Rajasthan, these riddles are an integral part of social interaction, often shared by elders with children or during community gatherings. They typically employ metaphorical language and domestic imagery to describe common objects or natural phenomena, requiring the audience to decode the cryptic descriptions to find the solution.

Explanation

The Kachhwaha dynasty, which traditionally traces its lineage to Kusha, the son of Lord Rama, established its presence in the Dhundhar region of Rajasthan in the 12th century. Dulha Rai (also known as Tejkaran), the founder of this regional branch, migrated from the Narwar-Gwalior area to the Dhundhar region in 1137 AD. Upon his arrival, he defeated the Badgujar Rajputs and adopted Dausa as his first capital. This establishment in Dausa marked the beginning of the Kachhwaha rule in Rajasthan, which is often regarded as the second major dynastic phase of the clan after their earlier rule in Central India. Dausa served as the initial administrative and political center before the capital was later shifted to Khoh, Jamwa Ramgarh, and eventually Amber.

Explanation

The word 'Bhaga' is derived from the Sanskrit root 'bhaj', which means 'to divide', 'to allot', or 'to share'. In the Vedic period, 'Bhaga' referred to the 'apportioner' or the 'dispenser'—a deity (one of the Adityas) responsible for the distribution of wealth, fortune, and booty among members of the tribe. In later historical periods, particularly from the Mauryan era onwards, 'Bhaga' became a standard term for the king's customary share of agricultural produce, typically fixed at one-sixth. Consequently, the term represents the concept of a 'share' or 'allotment' resulting from division, rather than an 'accumulation word' indicating wealth by accumulation.

Statement B is incorrect as it is a logically and grammatically incoherent assertion. There is no historical, linguistic, or Vedic reference that defines 'Bhaga' or its treasury in relation to the "dust of mortals" or any such accumulation of mortal remains or dust. In Vedic hymns, while Bhaga is associated with the sun and prosperity, he is described as the blind god of fortune or the one who provides the 'lot' or 'portion' to individuals, with no connection to the imagery presented in the statement.

Explanation

The Rajatarangini, authored by the Kashmiri historian Kalhana in the 12th century, is a foundational historical chronicle written in the Sanskrit language. It provides a detailed account of the various dynasties that ruled Kashmir. Similarly, the Dvyashrayakavya (appearing as Dravyavati in this context) was composed by the polymath Hemachandra in Sanskrit; it serves the dual purpose of illustrating the rules of Sanskrit grammar while documenting the history of the Chalukya kings of Gujarat.

In contrast, the Mahavamsa is a renowned historical chronicle of Sri Lanka composed in the Pali language, not Sanskrit. The inclusion of Kalhana's work and the text often paired with it in historical literature assessments identifies both A and D as the correct Sanskrit selections.

Explanation

Emperor Sher Shah Suri, the founder of the Suri Empire, commissioned several significant architectural works during his brief reign from 1540 to 1545. The Tomb of Sher Shah Suri at Sasaram in Bihar is a masterpiece of Indo-Islamic architecture, designed as a massive octagonal sandstone structure set in the middle of a large artificial lake. He also built the Qila-i-Kuhna Mosque in 1541, located inside the Purana Qila complex in Delhi. This mosque is a landmark in the evolution of mosque architecture in India, featuring a five-bay facade with pointed arches and a sophisticated use of contrasting materials like red sandstone and white marble. These structures represent the peak of the Suri architectural style before the full emergence of Mughal traditions.

Explanation

Madhvacharya was the 13th-century philosopher who founded the Dvaita (Dualism) school of Vedanta, which is fundamentally a tradition of Saguna Bhakti. He emphasized the eternal distinction between the individual soul (Jivatman) and the Supreme Being (Brahman), whom he identified as Lord Vishnu. His theological framework was built upon the worship of a personal God with specific divine attributes, forms, and qualities. This stance is the opposite of Nirguna Bhakti, which involves the devotion to a formless, attribute-less Absolute. Madhvacharya’s teachings and the resulting Haridasa movement were centered on the devotion to Vishnu or Krishna in their manifest forms, making him a central figure in the Saguna Vaishnavite tradition.

Explanation

Abanindranath Tagore painted the iconic image of Bharat Mata in 1905 during the Swadeshi movement to give a visual form to the concept of the Indian nation. His depiction portrayed her as an ascetic figure, serene and composed, dressed in saffron robes. The figure was shown with four arms, each holding an object representing the fundamental needs of national life: a book for education, sheaves of rice for food, a white cloth for clothing, and a rosary for spiritual strength. This painting was instrumental in fostering a sense of collective identity and devotion toward the motherland, as it moved the idea of the nation from an abstract concept to a tangible, maternal figure that could inspire nationalist sentiment.

Explanation

Mallanarya, often referred to as Gubbi Mallanarya, was a distinguished Veerashaiva scholar and poet who flourished in the court of the Vijayanagara monarch Krishnadevaraya. He composed his major literary works, Bhava Chinta Ratna and Veerasaivamrita, in the Kannada language. Bhava Chinta Ratna, written in 1513, is a significant work in the shatpadi metre that elaborates on the lives of various Shaiva saints. Veerasaivamrita, composed slightly later around 1530, provides a comprehensive account of the Veerashaiva philosophy and the hagiographies of its prominent figures. Mallanarya's writings are considered vital components of the 16th-century Kannada literary canon within the multilingual cultural milieu of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Explanation

Dr. A. Lakshmanswami Mudaliar, the then Vice-Chancellor of Madras University, was appointed as the chairperson of the Secondary Education Commission on September 23, 1952. Widely known as the Mudaliar Commission, it was established by the Government of India to examine the existing system of secondary education and suggest measures for its reorganization and improvement. The commission submitted its report in 1953, recommending the diversification of the curriculum, the establishment of multipurpose schools to cater to different student aptitudes, and changes in the examination system to make secondary education more relevant to the needs of independent India.

Explanation

The matching is based on the global application of the Von Thunen model, specifically the work of Richard Peet (1969), which explains the spatial organization of commercial agriculture relative to the central market of Western Europe (London) during the 19th and early 20th centuries.

Australia is matched with Accessibility (iii) because the model describes the evolution of its land use based on transport costs and distance to the European core. Historically, Australia’s agricultural frontier transitioned from high-value, non-perishable wool to more intensive crops like wheat as transport accessibility improved.

Patagonia is matched with Sheep (iv), a missing item in the list that represents the fourth ring of the global model. Patagonia is globally recognized for its extensive sheep ranching, which occupies the outermost rings of agricultural land use where transport costs are high and land is cheap.

New Zealand is matched with Dairy and Fruit (i), which appears in the list as the mangled term Cotton-apple. New Zealand is a major producer and exporter of intensive products like dairy and apples, which correspond to the inner rings of specialized intensive agriculture in the global model.

Kalhan Kota is a typographical error for the Middle West (U.S. Midwest) or a specific hub like Kansas City. It is matched with Corn (ii), as the American Midwest contains the world's most productive Corn Belt, representing the specialized grain production zone of the model.

Explanation

Northern Australia experiences a tropical monsoon or tropical savanna climate, which is characterized by high temperatures year-round and a distinct heavy rainfall period during the summer months. Mediterranean agriculture is strictly defined by a climate featuring mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers. Since the rainfall pattern in Northern Australia is dominated by summer monsoons rather than winter cyclonic storms, it lacks the fundamental climatic requirements necessary for Mediterranean-style farming. The region instead supports activities like extensive cattle ranching and tropical crop cultivation.

Explanation

The Vijaya Stambha was commissioned by Maharana Kumbha to commemorate his victory over the combined forces of Malwa and Gujarat in the Battle of Sarangpur (1437). The construction of the monument began in 1440 and was completed in 1448, which makes the year 1458 mentioned in Statement A historically incorrect. Statement B is accurate because the tower is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is frequently called the Vishnu Stambha. The nine-story tower is famous for its intricate carvings of Hindu deities and is often referred to as an encyclopedia of Indian sculpture or a museum of Hindu iconography due to the systematic representation of the Hindu pantheon on its walls.

Explanation

The latitudinal sequence of these mountain ranges from North to South begins with the Karakoram range, which forms the northernmost part of the Trans-Himalayan system. Moving southward, the Ladakh range is situated between the Karakoram and the Indus River. Further south is the Zaskar range, which lies to the south of the Indus valley and north of the Great Himalayan range. The Shiwalik range, often referred to as the Outer Himalayas, is the youngest and southernmost range of the system, bordering the Indo-Gangetic plains.

Explanation

The Monsoon Experiment (MONEX) was a major international scientific project conducted in 1979 as a core component of the Global Atmospheric Research Programme (GARP). It was organized under the joint auspices of the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the International Council of Scientific Unions (ICSU). While both the United States and India were key participants among many other nations, the expedition was an international multilateral effort rather than a bilateral program organized solely by the U.S.A. and India. The project aimed to study the regional and global aspects of the Asian summer and winter monsoons to improve seasonal forecasting.

Explanation

Rapti is a major left-bank tributary of the Ghaghra river that originates in the Lesser Himalayas of Nepal and flows through eastern Uttar Pradesh. Tista is a vital right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra river, originating from the Tso Lhamo Lake in Sikkim and flowing through West Bengal before entering Bangladesh. Hiran is an important right-bank tributary of the Narmada river, joining the main stream in the Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh. Purna is a prominent left-bank tributary of the Godavari river, primarily draining the Amravati and Buldhana districts of Maharashtra.

Explanation

Tropical forests record the highest rates of deforestation globally due to large-scale land conversion for commercial agriculture, cattle ranching, and infrastructure development. Regions such as the Amazon basin in South America, the Congo Basin in Africa, and Southeast Asia account for the vast majority of annual forest loss. According to reports from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and Global Forest Watch, the expansion of industrial-scale commodities like palm oil, soy, and beef creates immense pressure on these ecosystems. Unlike temperate or coniferous zones where forest cover has stabilized or increased in some areas, the humid tropics continue to lose millions of hectares of primary forest each year, driven by both subsistence farming and global trade demands.