The National Research Centre on Seed Spices (NRCSS) is located at Tabiji, situated near Dumara in the Ajmer district of Rajasthan. Established in April 2000 under the aegis of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), the center is dedicated to conducting basic, applied, and strategic research for the improvement of seed spices. It focuses on enhancing the productivity and quality of crops such as cumin, coriander, fennel, fenugreek, caraway, and anise. The specific agro-climatic conditions of the Ajmer region make it an ideal location for the development and dissemination of technology related to these high-value export-oriented spice crops.
2Economy
Which of the following statements is not correct in the context of compost?
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Answer: (B) Earthworms slow down the degradation process of waste materials in heaps.
Explanation
Earthworms actually accelerate the degradation process of organic waste rather than slowing it down. This specialized method of composting using earthworms is known as vermicomposting. Earthworms ingest the organic matter, breaking it down into smaller fragments through their digestive tract and enriching it with beneficial microbes and enzymes. Their burrowing action also improves aeration and moisture distribution within the heap, which facilitates faster decomposition by aerobic microorganisms. Consequently, the presence of earthworms significantly reduces the time required to convert biodegradable waste into nutrient-rich compost.
3Science and TechnologyRajasthan-specific
The solar observatory in Rajasthan is located in
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Answer: (C) Udaipur
Explanation
The Udaipur Solar Observatory (USO) is situated on an island within the Fateh Sagar Lake in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Established in 1975 by Dr. Arvind Bhatnagar and later managed by the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad, under the Department of Space, it is recognized as one of the premier solar observing stations in Asia. The specific island location was chosen because the surrounding water mass acts as a heat sink, minimizing the air turbulence caused by surface heating from the sun. This reduction in air convection allows for high-quality, stable telescopic images of the solar disk. The facility houses sophisticated instruments such as the Multi-Application Solar Telescope (MAST), which is used for high-resolution studies of solar magnetic fields and solar eruptive links.
4Geography
Which of the following environmental pollutants are responsible for acid rain?
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Answer: (B) Nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide
Explanation
Acid rain is primarily caused by the emission of sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere. These pollutants are released largely through the combustion of fossil fuels in power plants, industrial boilers, and internal combustion engines. Once released, these gases undergo chemical reactions with water vapor, oxygen, and other oxidants in the air to form acidic compounds. Specifically, sulfur dioxide is converted into sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), while nitrogen oxides are converted into nitric acid (HNO₃). These acids mix with precipitation and fall to the ground as rain, snow, or fog with a pH level significantly lower than the normal range of 5.6. This increased acidity leads to the degradation of aquatic ecosystems, damage to vegetation, and the chemical weathering of buildings and monuments.
5Polity and Governance
Which of the following plants developed in non-forest areas has been excluded from the definition of trees in the Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017?
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Answer: (B) Bamboo
Explanation
The Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 amended Section 2(7) of the Indian Forest Act, 1927, to omit bamboo from the definition of trees. While bamboo is botanically a grass, it was legally classified as a tree under the original 1927 Act, which meant that felling and transit of bamboo grown on non-forest land required various permits from forest authorities. By excluding bamboo grown in non-forest areas from the definition of trees, the amendment removed these regulatory barriers. This change was intended to promote bamboo cultivation on private and marginal lands by farmers, thereby enhancing the bamboo-based economy and increasing green cover. The amendment allows for the free movement of bamboo grown in non-forest areas, though bamboo grown within forest boundaries continues to be classified as a tree and remains subject to existing forest regulations.
6Science and Technology
DNA fingerprinting is based on.
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Answer: (A) DNA polymorphism
Explanation
DNA fingerprinting relies on the presence of DNA polymorphism, which refers to variations in the genetic sequence among individuals. While the vast majority of the human genome is identical across the species, specific regions consisting of non-coding repetitive DNA sequences show a high degree of variation. These variations, often found in satellite DNA such as Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs), occur due to mutations that accumulate over generations. Because these polymorphisms are inheritable and the probability of two unrelated individuals having the exact same pattern of repeats in multiple loci is extremely low, they serve as unique genetic signatures for identification and forensic analysis.
7Polity and Governance
In this question, two hypotheses are given with a statement.
Statement:
Although he is fat, he runs fast.
Hypotheses:
I. Fat people have weak muscles.
II. Fat people generally cannot run fast.
Then, which answer is correct?
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Answer: (C) Only II is implicit in the statement.
Explanation
The word although is a contrastive conjunction used to introduce a statement that makes the main clause seem surprising or unexpected. When the statement claims Although he is fat, he runs fast, it establishes a relationship of contradiction between being fat and the ability to run fast. This logical structure implies a general underlying assumption or expectation that fat people typically do not run fast. If there were no such general expectation, the use of although would be linguistically redundant and logically unnecessary. Therefore, the statement implicitly relies on the premise that fast running is not a common characteristic associated with being fat, making the second hypothesis a necessary implicit assumption for the statement's contrast to exist.
8Polity and Governance
Consider the following –
Statement: Should government jobs be filled based on prior academic achievements rather than competitive exams?
Argument: I. Yes, it is beneficial for candidates who are unable to afford the expense of competitive exams.
II. No, the basis for recruitment cannot be prior academic achievements because there is no uniformity in the evaluation of universities.
Which of the following arguments is/are strong?
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Answer: (C) Only II
Explanation
The strength of an argument depends on its logical consistency and relevance to the policy being discussed. Argument II is considered strong because it addresses a fundamental administrative challenge in recruitment: the lack of standardization across educational institutions. Different universities and boards follow diverse curricula, examination patterns, and grading systems, ranging from highly lenient to extremely stringent. Using academic marks as the sole criterion would result in an inequitable comparison, as a high percentage from one institution might reflect a lower level of proficiency than a moderate percentage from a more rigorous one. Competitive examinations serve as a common denominator, ensuring that all candidates are evaluated on a level playing field with a uniform set of questions and a centralized evaluation process, which is essential for maintaining meritocracy and fairness in public employment.
9Polity and Governance
Statement: All branches are flowers.
All flowers are leaves.
Conclusion: I. All branches are leaves.
II. Some leaves are branches.
III. All flowers are branches.
IV. All leaves are branches.
Answer:
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Answer: (B) Only I and II follow.
Explanation
Using set theory notation, let B denote the set of branches, F the set of flowers, and L the set of leaves. The first statement establishes that B ⊆ F, and the second statement establishes that F ⊆ L. By the transitive property of set inclusion, if every element of B is in F and every element of F is in L, then every element of B must be in L (B ⊆ L). This confirms that all branches are leaves, making Conclusion I logically sound. Furthermore, in syllogistic logic, if the set of branches is contained within the set of leaves, then the intersection of these two sets is non-empty (assuming branches exist), which means some leaves are necessarily branches. This confirms Conclusion II. Thus, both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow directly from the given premises.
10Science and Technology
Letter series
YB WD UF SH
W S O K
The next term is:
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Answer: (A) QJ/G
Explanation
The series consists of two parts: a numerator series and a denominator series.
In the numerator series, the first letters follow the pattern Y(25) → W(23) → U(21) → S(19). Each subsequent letter moves back by 2 positions in the alphabetical order. Therefore, the next first letter is 19 - 2 = 17, which corresponds to Q. The second letters in the numerator follow the pattern B(2) → D(4) → F(6) → H(8), where each letter moves forward by 2 positions. The next second letter is 8 + 2 = 10, which corresponds to J. The resulting numerator is QJ.
In the denominator series, the letters are W(23) → S(19) → O(15) → K(11). This sequence follows a pattern of moving back by 4 positions in the alphabetical order. The next letter in the sequence is 11 - 4 = 7, which corresponds to G.
Combining the numerator and denominator, the next term in the series is QJ/G.
11Science and Technology
Choose the odd one out:
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Answer: (C) VxYw
Explanation
The cluster VxYw is the odd one out because its internal structure fails to follow the n, n+3, n+2, n+1 positional pattern applied to the alphabet. By assigning numerical values to the letters, we find V is 22, x is 24, Y is 25, and w is 23. The transitions between these characters consist of +2 steps, +1 step, and -2 steps. This breaks the consistent logic used in the other groups, which requires a +3, -1, -1 step sequence. Because the second letter is not the third successor of the first, and the third letter is not the predecessor of the second, this cluster is mathematically inconsistent with the rest.
12Polity and Governance
A statement is given below along with two courses of action. You have to consider each statement to be true and decide based on the information given in the statement which of the given courses of action logically follows.
Statement: A large number of employees have gone on mass casual leave in protest against the company's new ghost policy.
Actions: I. The company should immediately withdraw the new recruitment policy.
II. All these employees should be immediately suspended from service.
Answer:
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Answer: (B) Neither I nor II follows.
Explanation
Neither course of action represents a logical or balanced administrative response to the situation. Action I is inappropriate because withdrawing a policy immediately under pressure, without further deliberation or dialogue, is an impulsive move that undermines management authority and ignores the potential necessity of the policy. Action II is also flawed as the mass suspension of employees is an excessively harsh, punitive measure that would lead to a total shutdown of company operations and further aggravate the conflict. Effective management requires a constructive approach, such as initiating a dialogue or forming a grievance committee to understand the employees' concerns, rather than resorting to the extreme measures suggested in the given actions.
13Science and Technology
If 4 + 5 – 2 = 33 and 10 + 12 – 5 = 119, then 6 + 8 – 3 =
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Answer: (D) 73
Explanation
The pattern in the given equations is determined by squaring the first two numbers, adding them together, and then subtracting the cube of the third number. This can be expressed by the mathematical formula a² + b² - c³.
Applying this to the first equation 4 + 5 - 2 = 33:
4² + 5² - 2³ = 16 + 25 - 8 = 33
Applying this to the second equation 10 + 12 - 5 = 119:
10² + 12² - 5³ = 100 + 144 - 125 = 119
Following the same logic for the final expression 6 + 8 - 3:
6² + 8² - 3³ = 36 + 64 - 27 = 73
14Economy
The product of three consecutive positive numbers is divided by each number alternately, and the sum of the three quotients is 74. What is the sum of the three numbers?
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Answer: (C) 15
Explanation
Let the three consecutive positive numbers be x-1, x, and x+1. The product of these numbers is (x-1)x(x+1). Dividing this product by each number individually yields three quotients: x(x+1), (x-1)(x+1), and x(x-1). The sum of these quotients is given as 74.
The equation is formed as:
x(x+1) + (x-1)(x+1) + x(x-1) = 74
Combining like terms:
3x² - 1 = 74
3x² = 75
x² = 25
x = 5
Since x = 5, the three consecutive numbers are 5-1=4, 5, and 5+1=6. The sum of these three numbers is 4 + 5 + 6 = 15.
15Economy
Two alloys are made by mixing gold and copper in the ratio 7:2 and 7:11 respectively. An alloy is made by mixing equal amounts of both alloys. What is the ratio of gold to copper in this third alloy?
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Answer: (D) 7:5
Explanation
To find the ratio in the final mixture when equal amounts of two alloys are combined, we first equate the total parts of both alloys using their Least Common Multiple (LCM).
In the first alloy, the ratio of gold to copper is 7:2, which means there are 7 + 2 = 9 total parts. In the second alloy, the ratio is 7:11, which means there are 7 + 11 = 18 total parts.
The LCM of 9 and 18 is 18. To make the quantities equal, we multiply the components of the first alloy by 2 so that it also totals 18 parts. This results in 14 parts of gold and 4 parts of copper (14:4). The second alloy remains as 7 parts of gold and 11 parts of copper.
By adding the corresponding components of the two alloys, we get:
Total Gold = 14 + 7 = 21
Total Copper = 4 + 11 = 15
The resulting ratio of gold to copper in the third alloy is 21:15. Dividing both sides by their greatest common divisor, 3, yields the simplified ratio of 7:5.
16Economy
At a construction site, men, women, and children are working in the ratio 9:4:1. Their wages are in the ratio 8:5:3. If 60 women are working at the site, and the total daily wages of all people are ₹2,850, what is the daily wage of a child?
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Answer: (C) ₹ 6
Explanation
The ratio of men, women, and children working at the site is 9:4:1. Given that 60 women are working, we can find the scaling factor for the number of workers by dividing 60 by 4, which results in 15. Consequently, the number of men is 9 × 15 = 135 and the number of children is 1 × 15 = 15.
Let the individual daily wages of a man, a woman, and a child be 8k, 5k, and 3k respectively, based on the ratio 8:5:3. The total daily wage of ₹2,850 is the sum of the wages of all individual workers. This can be expressed as:
(135 × 8k) + (60 × 5k) + (15 × 3k) = 2850
1080k + 300k + 45k = 2850
1425k = 2850
k = 2850 / 1425 = 2
The daily wage of a child is defined by the term 3k. By substituting the value of k, the daily wage of a child is 3 × 2 = 6.
17Science and Technology
In an unknown language,
I. “lew nas hsi ploy’ means “she is bringing coffee”.
II. “Wir sut lew ploy’’ means “he is bringing tea”.
III. “sut lim nas” means “tea and coffee”.
Which word is used for “he”?
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Answer: (D) wir
Explanation
To find the word for he, we compare the given statements to isolate meanings through the elimination of common terms. Comparing statement II (Wir sut lew ploy means he is bringing tea) and statement III (sut lim nas means tea and coffee) reveals that the common word sut corresponds to the common meaning tea. Next, comparing statement I (lew nas hsi ploy means she is bringing coffee) and statement II shows that the words lew and ploy are common to both, which represents the phrase is bringing. Since sut represents tea and the combination of lew and ploy represents is bringing, the only remaining word in statement II is Wir, which must correspond to the remaining English word he.
18Polity and Governance
Mr. A meets Mr. B. B is the father of a son C and a daughter D. E is the mother of A. C is married and has a son. E is the daughter-in-law of B. How is A related to B?
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Answer: (C) Grandson
Explanation
The family structure can be determined by tracing the generations from Mr. B. B is the father of C (son) and D (daughter). E is described as the daughter-in-law of B, which implies she is married to B's son, C. Since E is the mother of A, and E is married to C, it follows that C is the father of A. In this lineage, B is the father of C, and C is the father of A. Therefore, A is the grandson of B.
19Economy
If x, y, z are natural numbers, what is the number of different solutions to the equation x+y+z=6?
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Answer: (B) 10
Explanation
The number of positive integer solutions to an equation of the form x + y + z = n, where x, y, z are natural numbers (x, y, z ≥ 1), is determined by the stars and bars formula C(n-1, r-1). In this equation, n = 6 and the number of variables r = 3.
Applying the formula:
Number of solutions = C(6-1, 3-1) = C(5, 2)
This combinatorial method accounts for all unique sets of natural numbers that sum to 6, such as (1, 1, 4), (1, 2, 3), (2, 2, 2), and their respective permutations. By placing 6 items in a row, there are 5 available spaces between them. Choosing 2 of these spaces to place dividers ensures that each of the three variables receives at least one unit, fulfilling the requirement for natural number solutions.
20Economy
If the percentage increase in the total number of vehicles from 2000-01 to 2010-11 is made equal to the percentage increase in the total number of vehicles from 1990-91 to 2000-01, then the total number of vehicles in 2010-11 (in millions) will be equal to
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Answer: (A) 43.36
Explanation
To find the total number of vehicles in 2010-11, we use the property of equal percentage increases over two consecutive periods. If the percentage increase from 1990-91 to 2000-01 is equal to the percentage increase from 2000-01 to 2010-11, the vehicle populations follow a geometric progression.
Let V₁ be the total vehicles in 1990-91, V₂ be the total in 2000-01, and V₃ be the total in 2010-11. Based on the statistical data associated with this period, the total number of vehicles in 1990-91 was 21.37 million and in 2000-01 was 30.44 million.
The condition for equal percentage increase is expressed as:
(V₂ - V₁)/V₁ = (V₃ - V₂)/V₂
Rounding to two decimal places, the total number of vehicles in 2010-11 would be 43.36 million.
21Economy
The population of a small town is 926100. If it grows at an annual rate of 5%, what was its population two years ago?
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Answer: (C) 840000
Explanation
The population growth follows the compound interest formula Pₜ = P₀(1 + r/100)ᵗ, where Pₜ is the current population, P₀ is the population from two years ago, r is the annual growth rate, and t is the time in years. Substituting the given values into the equation:
926100 = P₀(1 + 5/100)²
926100 = P₀(21/20)²
926100 = P₀ × 441/400
To solve for P₀, the equation is rearranged:
P₀ = (926100 × 400)/441
Since 9261 is 21³ and 441 is 21², the division 926100 ÷ 441 equals 2100.
P₀ = 2100 × 400 = 840000
22Economy
The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum at the rate of 10% per annum for 2 years is ₹ 874. Find the sum.
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Answer: (B) ₹ 87,400
Explanation
The difference D between compound interest and simple interest for a period of 2 years is calculated using the formula D = P × (R/100)², where P is the principal sum and R is the annual rate of interest. Given that the difference D is 874 and the rate R is 10, the values can be substituted directly into the formula:
874 = P × (10/100)²
874 = P × (1/10)²
874 = P/100
P = 874 × 100
P = 87,400
23Economy
A certain sum of money becomes double in 3 years at a fixed compound interest rate. In 9 years, this amount will be k times the principal amount. What is the value of k?
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Answer: (D) 8
Explanation
In compound interest, if a sum of money grows to x times the principal in T years, it will grow to xⁿ times the principal in nT years. This is because the growth follows a geometric progression where the multiplier remains constant for equal intervals of time.
Given that the sum doubles (x = 2) in T = 3 years, we need to find the growth factor k after 9 years. The total time duration of 9 years can be written as 3 × 3 years, which means n = 3.
Using the compounding property:
k = xⁿ
k = 2³
k = 8
Alternatively, using the standard compound interest formula A = P(1 + r)ᵗ, let the growth factor be m = (1 + r).
According to the problem, for t = 3, 2P = P ⋅ m³, which simplifies to m³ = 2.
For t = 9, the amount is kP = P ⋅ m⁹.
By substituting m⁹ = (m³)³, we get k = (2)³ = 8.
24Economy
An American woman of Indian origin has been appointed as Chief Financial Officer of General Motors, the largest vehicle manufacturer in the United States. What is her name?
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Answer: (D) Divya Suryadevara
Explanation
Divya Suryadevara was appointed as the Chief Financial Officer of General Motors in June 2018, officially assuming the role on September 1, 2018. Born and raised in Chennai, India, she completed her education at the University of Madras before moving to the United States to earn an MBA from Harvard Business School. Her appointment was significant as she became the first female CFO in the history of the largest American automaker. At the time of her promotion, her leadership alongside CEO Mary Barra made General Motors one of the few Fortune 500 companies to have women occupying both the top executive and top financial positions. Prior to this appointment, she had served as the Vice President of Corporate Finance at General Motors, where she played a critical role in major corporate transactions and capital allocation strategies.
25Polity and Governance
Sharda Kumar, former Director General of the National Investigation Agency, was recently in the news for what reason?
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Answer: (C) He has been appointed as Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission.
Explanation
Sharad Kumar, a 1979-batch Indian Police Service officer of the Haryana cadre, was appointed as a Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission in June 2018. His appointment was made by the President of India based on the recommendation of a high-level committee chaired by the Prime Minister. Before this role, he served as the Director General of the National Investigation Agency for four years, becoming the first NIA chief to receive two successive extensions after his initial retirement in 2015. The Central Vigilance Commission is a statutory body that oversees corruption-related matters in the federal government, and its leadership consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and up to two Vigilance Commissioners. Kumar was selected to fill a vacancy in the commission for a four-year term.
26Economy
The details of expenditure and savings of a family in different heads during the months of June and July 2018 are shown by the following pie chart:
Total = ₹ 13,200 Total = ₹ 16,500
By what percentage is the total expenditure on transport and food in July higher than in June? (Approximately)
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Answer: (C) 39%
Explanation
The total expenditure on transport and food in June 2018 is calculated using the percentages from the June pie chart. In June, food accounts for 20% and transport for 25% of the total ₹ 13,200.
Combined percentage (June) = 25% + 20% = 45%
Combined expenditure (June) = 0.45 × 13,200 = ₹ 5,940
For July 2018, the pie chart provides the values in degrees. Food accounts for 90° and transport for 90° out of a total of 360° for the entire budget of ₹ 16,500.
Combined degrees (July) = 90° + 90° = 180°
Since 180° is exactly half of the total 360° circle, the expenditure is 50% of the total.
Combined expenditure (July) = 0.5 × 16,500 = ₹ 8,250
Rounding to the nearest whole number, the total expenditure in July is approximately 39% higher than in June.
27Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The Rajasthan government has released a new software to monitor trends in seasonal and non-communicable diseases, as well as diseases found in specific areas. What is the name of this software?
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Answer: (B) Nidan
Explanation
The Rajasthan Health Department launched the Nidan software in 2018 as a digital platform for the presumptive diagnosis and online monitoring of seasonal and non-communicable diseases. This software allows health officials to track trends for approximately 36 different diseases and provides real-time data on disease outbreaks in specific geographical areas. By facilitating the electronic entry of patient data at various healthcare facilities, Nidan strengthens the state's surveillance system and enables timely medical interventions and resource allocation to control the spread of illnesses like malaria, dengue, and scrub typhus.
28Science and Technology
The Chinese team won the 2018 BWF Thomas Cup (30th edition). Which country's team did it defeat in the final?
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Answer: (C) Japan
Explanation
The 2018 BWF Thomas Cup, which was the 30th edition of the men's world team badminton championships, saw China reclaim the title by defeating Japan in the final held in Bangkok, Thailand. China secured a 3-1 victory over the Japanese team to lift the trophy for the tenth time in the tournament's history. While Japan initially took the lead in the final through Kento Momota's win in the first singles match, China won the subsequent three matches in the best-of-five series to clinch the championship. This win marked China's first Thomas Cup title since 2012, ending a six-year period without the trophy.
29Polity and Governance
The 22nd edition of the trilateral naval exercise Malabar was held in June 2018. Besides India, which two other countries participated in this exercise?
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Answer: (A) Japan and United States of America
Explanation
The Malabar exercise began in 1992 as a bilateral naval drill between the Indian Navy and the United States Navy. Japan became a permanent participant in 2015, transforming the event into a trilateral exercise. The 22nd edition, held in June 2018, took place off the coast of Guam in the Philippine Sea. This iteration featured the participation of the Indian Navy, the United States Navy, and the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force. The exercise focused on strengthening maritime interrelationships and improving interoperability through professional interactions, surface and anti-submarine warfare training, and maritime patrol operations among the three partner nations in the Indo-Pacific region.
30Polity and Governance
The Haryana government has launched the 7 Star Gram-Panchayat Indradhanush scheme to give star ranking to its panchayats based on seven social standards. Which star ranking is given to the panchayats that perform excellently in improving sex ratio?
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Answer: (D) Pink Star
Explanation
The 7 Star Gram-Panchayat Indradhanush scheme was launched by the Haryana government in 2018 to rank and incentivize panchayats based on seven distinct social parameters. Under this initiative, the Pink Star is specifically awarded to gram panchayats that demonstrate excellent performance in improving the sex ratio and curbing female foeticide. This parameter aligns with the state's broader social objectives to address gender imbalance and promote the welfare of the girl child at the village level. Panchayats achieving these benchmarks receive financial rewards and special recognition to encourage continued social development.
31Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which state has launched the Kanya Van Samriddhi Yojana to promote women empowerment and tree plantation?
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Answer: (B) Maharashtra
Explanation
The Maharashtra government launched the Kanya Van Samriddhi Yojana in June 2018 to promote women empowerment and environmental conservation simultaneously. Under this scheme, the state forest department provides ten saplings of fruit-bearing trees, such as mango, teak, and sandalwood, free of charge to any family in a village that has a newborn girl child. The primary objective is to link the birth of a daughter with the plantation of trees, ensuring that the income generated from these trees in the future can be utilized for the girl child's education and well-being. This initiative helps in increasing the state's green cover while addressing social issues related to the status of the girl child in rural areas.
32Science and Technology
Bangladesh won the Women's Cricket Asia Cup Trophy (Twenty-20 tournament) held in Malaysia in June 2018. Which team was defeated in the final?
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Answer: (C) India
Explanation
In the final of the 2018 Women's Twenty20 Asia Cup held at the Kinrara Academy Oval in Kuala Lumpur, Bangladesh defeated India by 3 wickets to clinch their maiden title. Chasing a target of 113 runs set by the Indian team, Bangladesh achieved the victory on the very last ball of the match. This historic win marked the first time a team other than India had won the Women's Asia Cup, as India had won all six previous editions of the tournament held since 2004. Rumana Ahmed was named the Player of the Match for her crucial all-round contribution in the final.
33EconomyRajasthan-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the first mega food park established in Rajasthan in March 2018:
(a) It was inaugurated by the Union Minister of Food Processing Industries, Harsimrat Kaur Badal.
(b) It is known as Smart Mega Food Park.
(c) It is located in Rupar, Ajmer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) (a) and (c)
Explanation
The Greentech Mega Food Park, which is the first mega food park in Rajasthan, was inaugurated on March 29, 2018, by Harsimrat Kaur Badal, the then Union Minister for Food Processing Industries. The park was established under the Mega Food Park Scheme to provide modern infrastructure for food processing and to create a direct link from the farm to the market. It is located at Rupangarh village in the Ajmer district. The facility was developed to process various agricultural produces like oilseeds, pulses, and cereals, aiming to reduce post-harvest losses and boost the income of farmers in the Ajmer region and neighboring districts.
34History
Where was the historic meeting between US President Donald Trump and North Korean leader Kim Jong-un held in June 2018?
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Answer: (B) In Singapore
Explanation
The historic summit between U.S. President Donald Trump and North Korean leader Kim Jong-un took place on June 12, 2018, at the Capella Hotel on Sentosa Island in Singapore. This landmark event was the first-ever meeting between a sitting American president and a North Korean leader. The two heads of state discussed the denuclearization of the Korean Peninsula, the establishment of new diplomatic relations, and the building of a lasting peace mechanism. Singapore was chosen as the venue due to its neutrality, established infrastructure for high-security diplomatic events, and its long-standing diplomatic ties with both the United States and North Korea. The meeting concluded with the signing of a joint statement in which both leaders committed to working toward a stable and peaceful environment in the region.
35Art and Culture
Recently, India's Deepika Kumari has won a gold medal in the women's recurve event at the Archery World Cup (third stage). Where was this World Cup competition held?
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Answer: (B) Salt Lake City
Explanation
The 2018 Archery World Cup Stage 3 was hosted in Salt Lake City, United States, during June 2018. Deepika Kumari won the gold medal in the women's recurve individual event at this competition by defeating Germany's Michelle Kroppen with a set score of 7-3 in the final. This victory was a major milestone in her career, marking her first individual World Cup gold medal in six years and automatically qualifying her for the Archery World Cup Final held in Samsun, Turkey, later that year.
36Polity and Governance
With the appointment of Justice Indu Malhotra, the number of female judges in the Supreme Court of India has become two. Who is the second female judge?
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Answer: (C) Justice R. Bhanumathi
Explanation
Justice R. Bhanumathi was appointed to the Supreme Court of India on August 13, 2014, after serving as the Chief Justice of the Jharkhand High Court. At the time of Justice Indu Malhotra's appointment on April 27, 2018, Justice R. Bhanumathi was the only other sitting female judge in the apex court. The addition of Justice Malhotra, who was the first woman advocate to be elevated directly from the Bar to the Supreme Court bench, brought the total number of serving female judges to two. Justice R. Bhanumathi continued her service in the Supreme Court until her retirement in July 2020.
37Polity and Governance
Recently, Pakistan's Yusuf Saleem has been in the news. Who is he?
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Answer: (D) He is Pakistan's first visually impaired judge.
Explanation
Yusuf Saleem gained international recognition in 2018 for becoming the first visually impaired person to be appointed as a Civil Judge in Pakistan. Although he topped the written examination for the judiciary in Punjab, his appointment was initially blocked during the interview stage due to his blindness. This decision was reversed following the intervention of the Supreme Court of Pakistan, where Chief Justice Mian Saqib Nisar ruled that a candidate's disability should not be a barrier to their professional recruitment if they are otherwise qualified. Saleem, an honors graduate in law from Punjab University, was subsequently sworn in as a Civil Judge.
38Polity and Governance
Recently, the capital of one of the northeastern states has been declared the 100th Smart City by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Which state is it?
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Answer: (C) Meghalaya
Explanation
In June 2018, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs announced Shillong, the capital of Meghalaya, as the 100th city to be selected under the Smart Cities Mission. This announcement followed the evaluation of the proposal submitted by the state government, which completed the selection process for the 100 cities originally envisioned under the program. The Smart Cities Mission, launched in 2015, aims to drive economic growth and improve the quality of life of people by enabling local area development and harnessing technology, especially technology that leads to smart outcomes. Shillong was the final addition to the list after previous rounds of competition had already identified 99 other cities across various states and union territories.
39Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
On June 24, 2018, a team of four Indian para-swimmers crossed the English Channel in a record time of 12 hours and 26 minutes. One of them was from Rajasthan. Who was he?
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Answer: (C) Jagdish Chandra
Explanation
Jagdish Chandra Teli, a para-swimmer hailing from the Rajsamand district of Rajasthan, was a vital member of the four-person Indian relay team that successfully crossed the English Channel on June 24, 2018. The team completed the swim in 12 hours and 26 minutes, setting a record as the first Asian para-swimming relay team to achieve this feat. Jagdish Chandra, despite his physical challenges, played a crucial role in this historic achievement, representing Rajasthan alongside teammates from Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and West Bengal.
40Science and Technology
What is the target set by the Government of India to achieve by 2022 in terms of solar energy capacity?
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Answer: (A) 100 Gigawatts
Explanation
In 2015, the Government of India significantly upscaled the targets under the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM). The revised goal aimed to achieve a total renewable energy capacity of 175 Gigawatts (GW) by the year 2022. Within this overall framework, the specific target for solar power was increased from the original 20 GW to 100 GW. This 100 GW solar target was structured to be met through 40 GW of rooftop solar installations and 60 GW of large and medium-scale grid-connected solar power projects. The expansion was part of India's commitment to climate action and energy transition, aiming to decrease dependence on fossil fuels while meeting the nation's growing electricity demand through sustainable sources.
41Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
23 authors have been selected for the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2018. Who has been selected for the Rajasthani language?
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Answer: (A) C.L. Sankhla
Explanation
C.L. Sankhla was selected for the Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2018 in the Rajasthani language category for his book titled Vigyan Ri Baatan. This work is a collection of science-based stories written specifically for children, aiming to simplify scientific concepts through the medium of storytelling in the Rajasthani language. The Sahitya Akademi confers this annual award to authors of the most outstanding books of children literature published during the preceding five years to encourage and recognize excellence in writing for young readers across various Indian languages.
42Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018:
(a) To make the process of donations received by political parties more transparent is the objective of this scheme.
(b) Only those political parties recognized by the Election Commission will be eligible to receive electoral bonds who have secured a minimum of two percent votes in the last Lok Sabha or State Assembly elections.
(c) Electoral bonds will remain valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(d) The electoral bonds deposited by the eligible political party into their account will be paid on the same day. Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation
The Electoral Bond Scheme 2018 was introduced with the primary objective of enhancing transparency in political funding by shifting donations from cash to regulated banking channels. Statement (a) is correct as the scheme aimed to create a digital trail for contributions, ensuring that only KYC-compliant entities could purchase bonds. Statement (c) is correct because the scheme specifically mandates that an electoral bond shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue; if not encashed within this period, the amount is deposited into the Prime Minister Relief Fund. Statement (d) is correct as per the operational guidelines of the scheme, which require that bonds deposited by an eligible political party in its designated account be credited on the same day. Statement (b) is incorrect because the eligibility criteria under the scheme require a political party to have secured at least one percent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, not two percent.
43Science and Technology
Which space agency has recently launched the world’s smallest rocket carrying a satellite?
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Answer: (A) JAXA
Explanation
In February 2018, the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) successfully launched the SS-520-5 rocket from the Uchinoura Space Center. Measuring approximately 9.5 meters in height and 52 centimeters in diameter, the vehicle was recognized as the world's smallest orbital rocket. It carried a 3-kilogram microsatellite called TRICOM-1R, a 3U CubeSat designed for Earth observation and store-and-forward communications. This mission demonstrated the capability of using modified sounding rockets to provide dedicated, low-cost launch services for the growing nanosatellite market.
44Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Dr. Krishna Jakhar of Rajasthan has been awarded the Sahitya Akademi Rajasthani Translation Award 2017. For which of her translation work was she given this award?
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Answer: (D) Gatha Tista Paar Ri
Explanation
Dr. Krishna Jakhar was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Rajasthani Translation Award for her work Gatha Tista Paar Ri. This book is a Rajasthani translation of the acclaimed Bengali novel Teesta Parer Brittanto, which was written by the renowned author Debes Ray. The original novel is a significant work in contemporary Indian literature, focusing on the lives and socio-political struggles of the people living along the banks of the Teesta River in North Bengal. Jakhar's translation was recognized for its ability to capture the complex narrative, cultural essence, and linguistic depth of the Bengali original while adapting it seamlessly into the Rajasthani language, thus fostering literary exchange between the two regional cultures.
45History
Who established the Department of Diwan-e-Arz in the Delhi Sultanate?
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Answer: (D) Balban
Explanation
Ghiyas-ud-din Balban established the Diwan-e-Arz as a dedicated military department to strengthen the central authority of the Delhi Sultanate and improve its defensive capabilities. Before this, military matters were often managed under the finance department headed by the Wazir. Balban separated these functions to ensure the army remained efficient, well-disciplined, and ready to tackle both internal rebellions and the persistent threat of Mongol invasions. The department was headed by the Ariz-i-Mamalik, who was responsible for the recruitment, training, equipment, and payment of soldiers, thereby centralizing military power directly under the Sultan's oversight as part of his broader administrative and autocratic reforms.
46History
Match the following:
Dynasty – Capital
A. Shunga i. Mahoba
B. Satavahana ii. Banavasi
C. Kadamba iii. Paithan
D. Chandel iv. Patliputra
Select the correct code:
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Answer: (D) iv iii ii i
Explanation
Shunga - Patliputra: Following the assassination of the last Maurya ruler, Pushyamitra Shunga established the Shunga dynasty and maintained Patliputra as the primary capital of the empire.
Satavahana - Paithan: The Satavahana dynasty, which rose to power in the Deccan, established its capital at Paithan, also known as Pratishthana, located in modern-day Maharashtra.
Kadamba - Banavasi: The Kadamba dynasty was founded by Mayurasharma in the 4th century CE and ruled from their capital at Banavasi in present-day Karnataka.
Chandel - Mahoba: The Chandela rulers of the Jejakabhukti region were famous for the Khajuraho temples and held Mahoba as one of their major political and military capitals in the Bundelkhand region.
47Art and Culture
Which of the following statements are true about temple architecture?
(i) The emergence of temples with independent bases (stone) is considered to be in the Gupta period.
(ii) Ladkhan, which is an early temple, is associated with the Badami Chalukyas.
(iii) In the temples of Khajuraho, all the blocks of the temple are connected internally and externally.
(iv) The Kailashnath temple of Kanchi is the earliest independent base temple of the Dravidian style.
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Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation
The Gupta period marks the critical transition from rock-cut architecture to the construction of free-standing structural temples built with stone and brick, such as Temple No. 17 at Sanchi. The Lad Khan temple at Aihole is a prominent early structural temple associated with the Badami Chalukyas, representing their experimental phase in temple design during the 5th and 6th centuries. The Nagara-style temples of Khajuraho are unique for their integrated architectural plan where the various components, including the garbhagriha and mandapas, are physically and aesthetically unified as a single organic structure both internally and externally on a high masonry platform.
48History
Which of the following is a false statement about the varna system of ancient India?
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Answer: (A) The varna system was prevalent only in northern India.
Explanation
The varna system was a pan-Indian social framework and was not restricted to Northern India. While the hierarchical classification originated in the Vedic culture of the Indo-Gangetic plains, it gradually spread to the Deccan and Southern India through a long process of cultural diffusion and the expansion of Brahmanical traditions. Historical records, such as the inscriptions of the Satavahana dynasty and references in the Sangam literature of the Tamil region, confirm that the varna ideology was well-established in the South by the early centuries of the common era. For instance, Satavahana rulers often styled themselves as protectors of the varna order (Varnashrama Dharma) and sought to prevent the intermixture of different social classes. Although the system in Southern India evolved differently—often characterized by a more prominent distinction between Brahmins and non-Brahmins due to the relative absence of traditional Kshatriya and Vaishya varnas—the conceptual framework of varna remained a central feature of social organization across the entire subcontinent.
49History
Who was not involved in the Harding Bomb Case?
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Answer: (C) Bhagwati Charan Vohra
Explanation
Bhagwati Charan Vohra was a leading revolutionary of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) during the late 1920s. He was a close associate of Bhagat Singh and is best remembered for writing the revolutionary manifesto titled The Philosophy of the Bomb. His period of active revolutionary involvement occurred significantly later than the 1912 assassination attempt on Lord Hardinge. Vohra died in May 1930 following an accidental explosion while he was testing a bomb on the banks of the Ravi River near Lahore, making him chronologically and organizationally distinct from the individuals involved in the Delhi-Lahore Conspiracy Case of 1912.
50History
Who played the role of mediator in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact?
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Answer: (C) Tej Bahadur Sapru
Explanation
Tej Bahadur Sapru, along with M.R. Jayakar, played a pivotal role as a mediator between the British government and the Indian National Congress. Following the First Round Table Conference, these liberal leaders initiated negotiations to bring an end to the Civil Disobedience Movement and ensure Congress participation in future constitutional discussions. Their diplomatic efforts facilitated the direct talks between Mahatma Gandhi and the Viceroy, Lord Irwin, which culminated in the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact on March 5, 1931. Under this agreement, the Congress agreed to discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London.
51Art and Culture
The main seat of the Varkari sect is located in:
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Answer: (C) Pandharpur
Explanation
The Varkari sect is a religious movement within the Bhakti tradition of Hinduism, primarily centered in the state of Maharashtra. Pandharpur, situated on the banks of the Chandrabhaga River in the Solapur district, serves as the main seat and the most important pilgrimage site for this community. The sect is dedicated to the worship of Lord Vithoba, also known as Vitthal, who is considered a manifestation of Krishna or Vishnu. The spiritual life of a Varkari revolves around the Vari, an annual walking pilgrimage to the Vitthal temple in Pandharpur, which culminates on the auspicious days of Ashadhi Ekadashi and Kartiki Ekadashi. This tradition was popularized by Marathi saints such as Dnyaneshwar, Namdev, Eknath, and Tukaram, making Pandharpur the focal point of their collective devotion and egalitarian philosophy.
52History
Choose the correct sequence of the following events:
(i) Lucknow Pact
(ii) Establishment of the Swaraj Party
(iii) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(iv) Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak
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Answer: (B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (ii)
Explanation
The Lucknow Pact was signed in December 1916 during the joint session of the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League, marking a period of Hindu-Muslim unity and the reconciliation of the Moderates and Extremists. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on April 13, 1919, when British troops under General Dyer opened fire on a peaceful gathering in Amritsar. Bal Gangadhar Tilak passed away on August 1, 1920, which coincided with the formal launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement by Mahatma Gandhi. The Swaraj Party was established on January 1, 1923, by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru following the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement and the disagreements at the Gaya session of the Congress in December 1922. Therefore, the chronological order is 1916, 1919, 1920, and 1923.
53History
Which of the following pairs is not matched?
Institution – Founder
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Answer: (A) Social Reform Association – Shriram Bajpayee
Explanation
Shriram Bajpayee is primarily recognized as the founder of the Seva Samiti Boy Scouts Association, established in 1914 in Allahabad, rather than the Social Reform Association. His efforts were directed toward creating an indigenous scouting movement in India after the British-run scouting organizations restricted Indian membership. The Social Reform Association, commonly referred to as the Indian National Social Conference, was established in 1887 by Mahadev Govind Ranade and Raghunath Rao to advocate for social reforms such as the abolition of child marriage and the promotion of widow remarriage.
54HistoryRajasthan-specific
The designation 'Naimittik' was used in the states of eastern medieval Rajasthan.
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Answer: (B) For the Royal Astrologer.
Explanation
The designation Naimittik was used in the administrative systems of medieval Rajasthan, particularly in the eastern states, to refer to the Royal Astrologer. The term is derived from the Sanskrit word Nimitta, which signifies signs, omens, or instrumental causes. In the royal court, the Naimittik was a scholar specialized in the science of omens and astrology. This official was responsible for interpreting celestial events, forecasting future occurrences, and determining auspicious timings for significant state activities such as military campaigns, religious ceremonies, and administrative appointments. The ruler relied on the Naimittik to ensure that state actions were aligned with favorable astrological conditions.
55History
The revolutionary who was sentenced in the Mahant Pyarelal murder case was?
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Answer: (B) Kesari Singh Barhath
Explanation
Kesari Singh Barhath was a prominent revolutionary from Rajasthan who played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. In 1912, he orchestrated a plot to assassinate Mahant Pyarelal of Jodhpur with the aim of acquiring wealth to fund revolutionary activities against British rule. Following the murder in Kota, an investigation led to his arrest in 1914. Kesari Singh Barhath was tried and sentenced to 20 years of rigorous imprisonment for his involvement in the conspiracy. He served a portion of his sentence in Hazaribagh Central Jail before being released in 1920. His entire family is noted for their immense sacrifices in the freedom struggle.
56HistoryRajasthan-specific
Who negotiated the subsidiary treaty of 1817-18 with the princely states of Rajputana?
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Answer: (C) Charles Metcalfe
Explanation
Charles Metcalfe, acting as the British Resident at Delhi, was the principal official responsible for negotiating the treaties of Subordinate Alliance with the princely states of Rajputana during 1817-18. Under the policy of Lord Hastings, the British aimed to bring the Rajput states under their protection to eliminate the influence of the Marathas and Pindaris. Metcalfe successfully concluded treaties with major states including Kota, Jodhpur, Udaipur, Bikaner, Kishangarh, Jaipur, and Jaisalmer. These treaties ensured that the Rajput rulers accepted British suzerainty, agreed to pay tribute, and surrendered their foreign relations to the East India Company in exchange for protection from external aggression and internal rebellion.
57History
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) After the Nagpur session (1920) of the Congress, provincial Congress committees were formed on a linguistic basis.
(B) In 1948, the Congress rejected the demand for the formation of provinces on a linguistic basis.
Choose the correct answer from the code below:
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Answer: (A) (A) and (B) both
Explanation
During the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in 1920, the party underwent a major structural reorganization under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership. One of the key changes was the reconstitution of Provincial Congress Committees on a linguistic basis, which allowed the nationalist movement to reach the masses by operating in local vernaculars instead of the administrative boundaries drawn by the British. After independence, the linguistic demand resurfaced, leading to the formation of the JVP Committee in late 1948, comprising Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya. This committee, following the recommendations of the Dhar Commission, formally rejected the immediate reorganization of states on a linguistic basis, prioritizing national security, unity, and economic development over ethnic or linguistic considerations in the sensitive period following Partition.
58History
From which of the following sites have sixteen coins of the ruler Menander been obtained?
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Answer: (D) Beeraht
Explanation
Bairat, also known as Viratnagar and located in the Jaipur district of Rajasthan, is a significant archaeological site where excavations conducted by Daya Ram Sahni yielded a major numismatic find. A collection of thirty-six silver coins was discovered stored within a cloth inside a clay pot. This hoard consisted of eight punch-marked coins and twenty-eight Indo-Greek coins. Within this group of Indo-Greek currency, sixteen coins were specifically identified as belonging to the ruler Menander I, who is famously known in Indian literature as Milinda. These coins are characterized by the depiction of the king and inscriptions in Greek and Kharosthi scripts, providing evidence of the geographical reach of the Indo-Greek kingdom into the regions of present-day Rajasthan.
59History
Which of the following rulers is not associated with the Gurjar-Pratihara dynasty?
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Answer: (A) Bharthari-1
Explanation
Bharthari-1 is not a historical ruler belonging to the Gurjar-Pratihara dynasty. In Indian history and folklore, Bharthari is widely recognized as a legendary king of Ujjain, often identified as the elder brother of the famed King Vikramaditya. He is celebrated as a Sanskrit poet who composed the Satakatrayam and is deeply associated with the Natha tradition of yogis after his abdication of the throne. The official genealogy and epigraphic records of the Gurjar-Pratihara dynasty, such as the Gwalior Prashasti, provide a detailed lineage of their sovereigns including major figures like Nagabhatta, Vatsaraja, Mihira Bhoja, and their successors, but they contain no mention of a ruler named Bharthari-I. Thus, while he is a significant figure in literary and religious traditions, he lacks any historical or dynastic connection to the Gurjar-Pratihara empire.
60Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Which of the following temples in Chittorgarh Fort is a Jain temple?
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Answer: (C) Saatvish Dewari
Explanation
The Saatvish Dewari is a prominent Jain temple complex situated within the Chittorgarh Fort. Its name is derived from the Rajasthani words saat meaning seven and vish meaning twenty, signifying the twenty-seven small shrines or dewaris located within the temple premises. Each of these twenty-seven shrines is dedicated to a Jain Tirthankara. Built around the 11th century, the temple is a significant example of Shvetambara Jain architecture and is adorned with intricate stone carvings and detailed iconography characteristic of the era's craftsmanship.
61Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Which of the following painters is not related to the Alwar style of painting?
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Answer: (B) Nanakram
Explanation
Nanakram was a prominent artist associated with the Kishangarh school of painting, which is a sub-style of the Marwar school in Rajasthan. He was active during the 18th century and is recognized alongside masters like Nihal Chand and Sitaram for developing the unique aesthetic of Kishangarh, characterized by elongated facial features and the depiction of Radha and Krishna. The Alwar school of painting, which falls under the Dhundhar school, was developed later under the patronage of rulers like Maharaja Bakhtawar Singh and Maharaja Vinay Singh. Artists such as Jamnadas, Nandram, and Baksaram were the primary contributors to the Alwar style, specializing in portraiture, court scenes, and manuscripts like the Gulistan of Saadi.
62Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Composition – Author
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Answer: (D) Bol Bharamali – Yadveendra Sharma
Explanation
The poetic work Bol Bharamali was authored by Satya Prakash Joshi, who was a distinguished figure in Rajasthani literature. For this specific composition, he was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1977. Yadveendra Sharma, popularly known as Chandra, is a separate and prolific Rajasthani writer recognized for his novels and stories, such as Hoon Gori Kin Peev Ki and Janani Deodhi, rather than the poetry of Bol Bharamali. Therefore, the pairing of Bol Bharamali with Yadveendra Sharma is a mismatch.
63Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Gauri Devi was associated with which singing style?
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Answer: (C) Maand
Explanation
Gauri Devi, also known as Gauri Bai, was a legendary folk singer from Bikaner, Rajasthan, and a prominent exponent of the Maand singing style. Maand is a sophisticated and melodic form of Rajasthani folk music that evolved within the royal courts and is characterized by its intricate, raga-based structure. Gauri Devi's mastery of this genre earned her national acclaim, including the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, as she played a vital role in preserving and popularizing this traditional vocal art form which is deeply rooted in the cultural history of the Marwar and Bikaner regions.
64HistoryRajasthan-specific
Which princely state was not a part of the united Rajasthan formed on March 25, 1948?
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Answer: (B) Udaipur
Explanation
Udaipur joined the integration process of Rajasthan during the third stage, which took place on April 18, 1948. The second stage of integration, known as the United Rajasthan or Rajasthan Union, was inaugurated on March 25, 1948, and comprised nine princely states: Banswara, Bundi, Dungarpur, Jhalawar, Kishangarh, Kota, Pratapgarh, Shahpura, and Tonk, along with the chiefship of Kushalgarh. Although the Maharana of Udaipur was invited to join this union, the decision to merge Mewar was finalized later, resulting in a separate inauguration ceremony the following month where Udaipur was officially integrated and designated as the capital of the newly expanded union.
65HistoryRajasthan-specific
Who was the editor of ‘Tyag Bhoomi’?
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Answer: (D) Haribhau Upadhyay
Explanation
Haribhau Upadhyay was a prominent freedom fighter and social reformer who started the publication of the journal Tyag Bhoomi in 1927 from Ajmer. Inspired by Gandhian ideology, the magazine played a crucial role in spreading political awareness and promoting social reforms across Rajasthan. It served as a major literary platform for advocating the use of khadi, rural upliftment, and the abolition of social inequalities during the Indian independence movement.
66Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Match the following:
Temple – District
i. Kameshwar Mahadev a. Alwar
ii. Sheetaleshwar b. Jodhpur
iii. Peepala Mata c. Jhalawar
iv. Neelkanth d. Pali
Select the correct code:
. i ii iii iv
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Answer: (C) d c b a
Explanation
Kameshwar Mahadev temple is located in Auwa within the Pali district, representing the architectural style of the Gurjara-Pratihara era. The Sheetaleshwar Mahadev temple is situated in Jhalrapatan, Jhalawar, and is renowned for being the oldest temple in Rajasthan with a recorded date of 689 AD on its inscription. Peepala Mata temple is one of the many ancient shrines found in Osian, Jodhpur, which served as a major religious center for the Pratiharas during the early medieval period. Neelkanth Mahadev temple is a significant 10th-century temple complex located in the Rajgarh region of Alwar, situated within the bounds of the Sariska Tiger Reserve.
67Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I – List-II
(Peak) (Location/Country)
A. Albus (i) New Zealand
B. Kilimanjaro (ii) United States of America
C. Mount Cook (iii) Tanzania
D. McKinley (iv) Russia
Code:
. A B C D
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Answer: (B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Explanation
Mount Elbrus, listed as Albus, matches with Russia (iv) because it is the highest peak in the Caucasus Mountains and the highest point in Europe. Mount Kilimanjaro matches with Tanzania (iii) as it is the highest mountain in Africa and a prominent dormant volcano. Mount Cook matches with New Zealand (i) because it is the highest mountain in the country, located in the Southern Alps of the South Island. Mount McKinley matches with the United States of America (ii) as it is the highest peak in North America and is situated in the state of Alaska.
68Geography
Which of the following mathematical indices for measuring biodiversity indicates the mean species diversity in a local area/habitat?
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Answer: (D) Alpha index
Explanation
Alpha index, or alpha diversity, refers to the species diversity within a particular area or ecosystem. It is typically expressed by the number of species, or species richness, in that specific local habitat. This measurement focuses on the variety of organisms coexisting in a single community or a small, homogeneous site. Introduced by R.H. Whittaker, the alpha index provides a foundational metric for understanding the local distribution and abundance of species before scaling up to broader landscape-level comparisons. By quantifying the richness at the site level, it helps ecologists assess the health and complexity of individual habitats.
69Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Nari sant Dayabai was a disciple of whom?
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Answer: (D) Sant Charandas ki
Explanation
Dayabai was a prominent 18th-century female saint-poet and one of the two most distinguished female disciples of Sant Charandas, the other being Sahjobai. Sant Charandas founded the Charandasi Sampradaya in Delhi, which emphasizes a path of devotion that harmonizes both Saguna and Nirguna traditions. Dayabai is well-known for her literary contributions to the Bhakti movement, specifically her works Daya Bodh and Vinay Malika, which reflect the spiritual teachings and the path of devotion she pursued under the guidance of her guru, Sant Charandas.
70Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Which dance style is associated with the Garasia tribe?
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Answer: (C) Lour
Explanation
The Lour dance is a traditional folk dance of the Garasia tribe, predominantly found in the Sirohi, Udaipur, and Pali regions of Rajasthan. It is performed exclusively by women on occasions such as weddings and the Holi festival. During the performance, women divide themselves into two groups and engage in a rhythmic dance that symbolizes a symbolic exchange or dialogue between the family of the bride and the groom, often involving a formal request for marriage. This dance reflects the unique social customs and cultural identity of the Garasia community.
71Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Consider the following statements about Vijaydan Detha:
(A) Vijaydan Detha was a famous writer from Rajasthan, whose story was adapted as a play called 'Charandas Chor'.
(B) Vijaydan Detha was a co-founder of the Rupayan Sansthan.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (B) are true.
Explanation
Vijaydan Detha, popularly known as Bijji, was one of the most celebrated writers of Rajasthani literature and a recipient of the Padma Shri and Sahitya Akademi awards. Statement (A) is correct because his stories, deeply rooted in folk traditions, have been widely adapted into other media; most notably, his work served as the basis for the legendary play Charandas Chor, directed by Habib Tanvir, as well as a subsequent film by Shyam Benegal. Statement (B) is also correct as Detha co-founded the Rupayan Sansthan in 1960 at Borunda, Jodhpur, alongside the renowned folklorist Komal Kothari. This institution was established with the primary objective of documenting, preserving, and promoting the rich oral traditions, folk music, and literature of Rajasthan.
72Geography
Which one does not match?
Shifting agriculture name – State
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Answer: (C) Masha – Himachal Pradesh
Explanation
The term Masha is a local name for shifting cultivation practiced in the central Indian state of Madhya Pradesh, specifically among certain tribal communities. It involves a slash-and-burn method often associated with other regional names like Bewar or Mashan in that area. In contrast, Himachal Pradesh is a mountainous state in the Western Himalayas where the primary agricultural method is terrace farming. Shifting cultivation is not a traditional or recognized practice in Himachal Pradesh under the name Masha, making this pairing geographically and terminologically incorrect.
73Geography
Which one does not match?
Industrial region – Country
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Answer: (C) Southern New England – United Kingdom
Explanation
Southern New England is a prominent industrial region located in the Northeastern United States, encompassing states such as Massachusetts, Connecticut, and Rhode Island. Historically, it served as the heart of the American Industrial Revolution, specializing in textiles, footwear, and machinery. In contrast, the United Kingdom contains industrial regions such as the West Midlands, Lancashire, and Central Scotland, but Southern New England is strictly a geographic and economic designation within the USA.
74Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I – List-II
(Canal) (Connects)
A. Kiel (i) Mediterranean Sea & Red Sea
B. Suez (ii) Elbe Estuary (Eshtuery) & Baltic Sea
C. Panama (iii) Atlantic Ocean & Pacific Ocean
D. Sues (iv) Superior Lake & Uran Lake
Code:
. A B C D
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Answer: (D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Explanation
Kiel Canal is a freshwater canal in Germany that connects the North Sea at the Elbe River estuary to the Baltic Sea, significantly reducing travel time for ships. The Soo Canal connects Lake Superior and Lake Huron in the Great Lakes system of North America, facilitating navigation between these large bodies of water. The Panama Canal is a major engineering feat that cuts across the Isthmus of Panama to connect the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, serving as a critical link for international maritime trade. The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea, providing the shortest maritime route between Europe and the lands lying around the Indian and western Pacific Oceans.
75Geography
Which of the following mountain peaks is not located in the Eastern Ghats?
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Answer: (C) Salher
Explanation
Salher is a prominent mountain peak located in the Western Ghats, specifically in the Sahyadri range within the Nashik district of Maharashtra. It holds the distinction of being the highest fort in Maharashtra and the second highest peak in the state after Kalsubai, reaching an elevation of approximately 1,567 meters above sea level. Because it is situated in the Western Ghats along the western edge of the Deccan Plateau, it is not part of the Eastern Ghats mountain range.
76GeographyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following hills are the extensions of the Vindhyan mountain ranges in Rajasthan?
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Answer: (D) Mukundra Hills
Explanation
The Mukundra Hills are situated in the southeastern part of Rajasthan, primarily covering the districts of Kota and Jhalawar. These hills represent the northwestern extension of the Vindhyan mountain range into the Hadoti Plateau region. Geologically, they are part of the Vindhyan Scarp Land, characterized by massive sandstone and limestone formations that are consistent with the structural composition of the main Vindhyan system found in central India. The range forms a significant part of the watershed in the region and is home to the Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve.
77Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I – List-III
(Protected Area in India) (Number, as of 2018)
A. Community Reserve (i) 103
B. Conservation Reserve (ii) 46
C. National Park (iii) 544
D. Wildlife Sanctuary (iv) 76
Code:
. A B C D
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Answer: (D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Explanation
Community Reserve (A) corresponds to 46 (ii) because these protected areas, established primarily on private or community land to act as buffers or connectors, numbered 46 in early 2018. Conservation Reserve (B) corresponds to 76 (iv) as these government-owned areas used for landscape and habitat protection reached this total during the same period. National Park (C) matches 103 (i) which represents the count of these high-protection IUCN Category II areas as recorded in 2018. Wildlife Sanctuary (D) corresponds to 544 (iii) since these areas constitute the largest category of protected sites in India under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
78Science and Technology
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) manufactures in collaboration with ISRO (ISRO):
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Answer: (C) GaAs Solar Cell
Explanation
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) entered into a Memorandum of Understanding with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for the transfer of technology regarding the manufacture of space-grade Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) solar cells. These solar cells are critical components for powering satellites, offering significantly higher efficiency and better radiation resistance compared to conventional silicon solar cells. By collaborating with ISRO, BEL aimed to establish a dedicated production facility to meet the increasing demand for indigenous satellite hardware, thereby reducing dependence on imported solar cells for India's space missions. This partnership focuses on leveraging ISRO's research and development expertise with BEL's large-scale manufacturing capabilities to support the national space program.
79GeographyRajasthan-specific
Match List-1 with List-II and select the answer using the code given below:
List-I – List-II
(Districts) (Mountains)
A. Jalore (i) Barwara
B. Jaipur (ii) Jharola
C. Alwar (iii) Raghunathgarh
D. Sikar (iv) Bhangarh
Code:
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Answer: (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Explanation
Jharola Bhakar is a significant hill located in the Jalore district, belonging to the western Rajasthan hill tracts. Barwara peak, which reaches an elevation of approximately 786 meters, is situated in the Jaipur district. Bhangarh is a prominent hill and historical site found within the Alwar district of the Aravali range. Raghunathgarh is the highest peak of the Northern Aravali region, standing at 1055 meters in the Sikar district.
80GeographyRajasthan-specific
Match the following:
List-I – List-II
(Major Irrigation Project) (Districts benefited by irrigation facilities)
A. Siddhmukh Project (i) Jalore and Barmer
B. Narmada Project (ii) Jalore, Pali and Jodhpur
C. Jawai Project (iii) Udaipur and Pratapgarh
D. Jakham Project (iv) Hanumangarh and Churu
Code:
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Answer: (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Explanation
Siddhmukh Project (iv) utilizes surplus water from the Ravi and Beas rivers to provide irrigation facilities to the Hanumangarh and Churu districts, specifically targeting the arid tehsils of Bhadra, Nohar, Rajgarh, and Taranagar.
Narmada Project (i) brings water from the Sardar Sarovar Dam in Gujarat to Rajasthan through a 74 km long canal, primarily benefiting the Sanchore tehsil of Jalore and the Barmer district through mandatory sprinkler irrigation systems.
Jawai Project (ii) is centered around the Jawai Dam built on the Jawai river, a tributary of the Luni. It serves as a vital water source for the Pali, Jalore, and Jodhpur districts in the western arid region of the state.
Jakham Project (iii) is located on the Jakham river in Pratapgarh district. It is a major irrigation initiative for the tribal sub-plan area, providing essential water resources to the agricultural fields of the Udaipur and Pratapgarh districts.
81GeographyRajasthan-specific
The dust storms occurring in Rajasthan during May-June months are responsible for:
(a) Origin of convective currents at some places
(b) Aravalli hills are parallel to the southwest winds.
(c) Origin of very intense easterly winds
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Answer: (A) Only (a)
Explanation
The occurrence of dust storms in Rajasthan during the peak summer months of May and June is primarily driven by intense localized heating of the land surface. As the desert soil absorbs solar radiation, the air in immediate contact with the ground becomes extremely hot and less dense, causing it to rise rapidly. This upward movement creates strong vertical convective currents. These convective cells create atmospheric instability and lift loose sand and dust particles from the arid surface into the atmosphere, forming the characteristic dust storms known locally as Andhi. Therefore, the development of these convective currents is the fundamental atmospheric process associated with the generation of these seasonal storms.
82Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following statements are true?
(a) Marble Development and Conservation Rules – 2002
(b) Rajasthan Mineral Policy – 2015
(c) District Mineral Foundation Trust Rules – 2016
(d) Rajasthan Minor Mineral Concession Rules (amended up to May 2016)
Code:
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Answer: (A) All of these
Explanation
The Marble Development and Conservation Rules were established in 2002 under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act to ensure scientific mining, value addition, and conservation of marble resources throughout India. The Rajasthan Mineral Policy 2015 was launched by the state government on June 4, 2015, to enhance the contribution of the mining sector to the state's economy through increased production and transparency. The Rajasthan District Mineral Foundation Trust Rules 2016 were notified on May 31, 2016, to establish trusts in all districts for the benefit of persons and areas affected by mining-related operations, funded by a percentage of the royalty paid by miners. The Rajasthan Minor Mineral Concession Rules, originally framed in 1986, were subjected to several key amendments through May 2016 to streamline the process of granting mining leases and quarry licenses and to align with environmental and statutory requirements before the subsequent implementation of the 2017 rules. All four statements accurately reflect the legislative and policy milestones in Rajasthan's mining sector.
83EconomyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following are the important mineral-based industries in Rajasthan?
(a) Zinc Smelting Industry
(b) Cement Industry
(c) Electronic Industry
(d) Marble Industry
Code:
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Answer: (B) (a), (b) and (d)
Explanation
Rajasthan is exceptionally rich in mineral resources, which serves as the foundation for several major mineral-based industries. The zinc smelting industry is a vital sector because the state holds a near-monopoly on lead and zinc reserves in India, with significant smelting operations established at Chanderiya in Chittorgarh and Debari in Udaipur. The cement industry is another dominant mineral-based sector, driven by the state's massive deposits of high-grade limestone, particularly in districts like Chittorgarh, Sirohi, and Bundi, making Rajasthan one of the largest cement producers in the country. Furthermore, the marble industry is a hallmark of Rajasthan's industrial landscape, as the state accounts for the vast majority of India's marble production, with world-renowned processing and quarrying hubs located in Makrana, Rajsamand, and Kishangarh. These industries are classified as mineral-based because their primary raw materials are extracted directly from the Earth's crust within the state.
84GeographyRajasthan-specific
According to the 2011 census, in which districts of Rajasthan is the percentage of Scheduled Tribe population minimal in their total population?
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Answer: (B) Bikaner and Nagaur
Explanation
Based on the 2011 Census data, Bikaner and Nagaur are the districts in Rajasthan with the lowest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population relative to their total population. In Bikaner, the Scheduled Tribe population constitutes approximately 0.33 percent of the total population, while in Nagaur, it stands at roughly 0.31 percent. These figures represent the state's minimum concentration for tribal communities. The demographic distribution of Scheduled Tribes in Rajasthan is characterized by a high concentration in the southern districts and a sparse presence in the northwestern desert regions, resulting in the minimal percentages found in Bikaner and Nagaur.
85EconomyRajasthan-specific
The proposed oil refinery in Pachpadra, Barmer, is a joint venture of which?
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Answer: (A) HPCL and the Government of Rajasthan
Explanation
The oil refinery at Pachpadra in the Barmer district of Rajasthan is being developed by HPCL Rajasthan Refinery Limited (HRRL). This project is a joint venture between Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) and the Government of Rajasthan, with an equity sharing ratio of 74% and 26% respectively. The facility is designed as an integrated refinery-cum-petrochemical complex with a capacity of 9 million metric tonnes per annum (MMTPA). It is significant for being the first project in India to produce BS-VI grade fuels while simultaneously integrating petrochemical production. The foundation for the commencement of work at the site was formally laid in January 2018, marking it as a major industrial milestone for the state's economic development and energy security.
86EconomyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following minerals is Rajasthan almost the sole producing state for?
(a) Lead and Zinc Ores
(b) Copper Ore
(c) Wollastonite
(d) Selenite
Code:
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Answer: (A) (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation
Rajasthan holds a near-monopoly or sole production status for several minerals in India according to the mineral production data available up to 2018. The state is the sole producer of lead and zinc ores in the country, with major deposits located in the Rampura-Agucha, Zawar, and Rajpura-Dariba belts. Rajasthan also maintains a 100 percent share in the production of Wollastonite, which is primarily mined in the Sirohi and Dungarpur districts. Furthermore, the state is the only producer of Selenite, a crystalline variety of gypsum, with significant output coming from the Bikaner and Jaisalmer regions. While Rajasthan is a major producer of copper ore, it is not the sole producer as Madhya Pradesh contributes the largest share of copper production in India, making the combination of lead-zinc, wollastonite, and selenite the correct set for which Rajasthan is the almost sole producer.
87EconomyRajasthan-specific
According to 2017-18 (up to December 2017), from which area of Rajasthan was the highest production of crude oil obtained?
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Answer: (B) Barmer-Sanchor Basin
Explanation
The Barmer-Sanchor Basin is the most significant petroliferous region in Rajasthan, accounting for nearly the entire crude oil production of the state. Commercial production in this basin began in August 2009 with the Mangala oil field, which is part of the RJ-ON-90/1 block. By the 2017-18 period, this basin remained the primary contributor to Rajasthan's oil output through major fields including Mangala, Bhagyam, and Aishwarya. The high production levels from these terrestrial fields have positioned Rajasthan as the second-largest producer of crude oil in India, trailing only the offshore production from Mumbai High. The basin's geological structure and the successful exploration by companies like Cairn India have ensured its dominance in the state's energy sector.
88GeographyRajasthan-specific
According to the 2011 census, what is the percentage of urban population in India and Rajasthan respectively?
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Answer: (A) 31.15% and 24.87%
Explanation
According to the final data released by the Census of India 2011, the urban population of the country is approximately 37.71 crore, which constitutes 31.15 percent of the total national population. In the state of Rajasthan, the urban population was recorded at 1.70 crore out of a total state population of 6.85 crore, resulting in an urbanization percentage of 24.87 percent. These metrics represent the official demographic distribution between rural and urban areas as captured during the 2011 decadal survey, reflecting the specific pace of urban growth in the state relative to the national average.
89Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Indian Constituent Assembly?
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Answer: (D) (A) and (D)
Explanation
The members of the Indian Constituent Assembly were not elected on the basis of universal adult franchise. Instead, they were elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The electorate for those provincial assemblies was itself limited by the Government of India Act 1935, which restricted voting rights to a small percentage of the population based on property, tax, and education. Additionally, the Assembly organized its work through several committees to address the diverse aspects of the Constitution. These included major committees like the Drafting Committee, the Union Powers Committee, and the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, as well as several minor committees tasked with specific administrative and legal functions.
90Polity and Governance
“The age of a judge of the Supreme Court of India shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may provide for by law; incorporated.
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Answer: (D) by the 15th Constitutional Amendment
Explanation
The 15th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1963, inserted clause 2A into Article 124 of the Constitution of India. This clause stipulates that the age of a judge of the Supreme Court shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law provide. This amendment was introduced to provide a formal mechanism for resolving any disputes or questions regarding the age of Supreme Court judges, ensuring that such matters are handled through a procedure established by parliamentary legislation. A similar provision was also introduced for High Court judges under Article 217 through the same amendment.
91GeographyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following does not match?
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Answer: (B) Sawai Madhopur – Lion
Explanation
The Rajasthan government assigned specific wildlife mascots to each district to promote environmental awareness and conservation. Sawai Madhopur is home to the world-famous Ranthambore National Park, which is a significant habitat for the Royal Bengal Tiger. Due to this prominent ecological feature, the Tiger was officially designated as the mascot for Sawai Madhopur. The Lion is not the mascot for Sawai Madhopur, nor is it naturally found in the wild in Rajasthan, which makes this specific pairing incorrect.
92History
Which of the following elections to the Central Legislative Assembly were held under the Government of India Act, 1919?
(A) 1926
(B) 1937
(C) 1945
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Code:
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Answer: (B) (A) and (C)
Explanation
The Government of India Act, 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, established a bicameral legislature at the center, including the Central Legislative Assembly. Under the provisions of this Act, elections were held periodically to fill the seats of the Assembly. The elections of 1926 were conducted as part of the regular cycles mandated by this Act. Although the Government of India Act, 1935, was later passed, the federal portion of that Act, which involved the reorganization of the central government, was never implemented because the princely states failed to join the proposed federation. As a result, the central government continued to function under the transitional provisions of the 1919 Act for several years. This meant that the final elections to the Central Legislative Assembly, held in 1945 after the end of World War II, were still conducted under the framework and legal authority of the Government of India Act, 1919.
93Polity and Governance
Who wrote 'Gandhian Constitution for Free India'?
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Answer: (B) Shri Narayan Agarwal
Explanation
Shriman Narayan Agarwal authored the book Gandhian Constitution for Free India, which was published in 1946. The work outlined a comprehensive blueprint for the political and economic structure of independent India based on Mahatma Gandhi's principles of decentralization and village self-sufficiency. It proposed a system where the primary unit of administration was the village panchayat, with higher tiers of governance serving as coordinating bodies rather than centralized authorities. Mahatma Gandhi expressed his support for the ideas presented in the book by writing its foreword, noting that the document effectively translated his vision of a non-violent social order into a practical constitutional framework.
94Polity and Governance
Which of the following dates did the President of India, exercising his powers, declare through a proclamation that a grave emergency exists, causing a serious threat to India's security due to internal unrest?
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Answer: (B) June 25, 1975
Explanation
The National Emergency on the grounds of internal disturbance was proclaimed by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed on June 25, 1975. Acting under the provisions of Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, the President signed the official proclamation late on the night of June 25 after receiving a recommendation from Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. This declaration stated that a grave emergency existed which threatened the security of India due to internal unrest. Although Prime Minister Gandhi addressed the nation on All India Radio on the morning of June 26, the formal exercise of presidential power and the issuance of the proclamation itself occurred on June 25, 1975.
95Polity and Governance
Choose the correct chronological order of the following decisions related to fundamental rights:
(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
(B) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
(D) A.K. Gopalan vs. Madras State
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Answer: (B) (D), (A), (B), (C)
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these landmark Supreme Court judgements reflects the evolution of constitutional jurisprudence in India regarding the power of Parliament to amend fundamental rights.
A.K. Gopalan vs. Madras State (1950) was one of the first major cases where the Supreme Court interpreted Article 21, narrowly defining the procedure established by law. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967) followed, where an eleven-judge bench ruled that Parliament had no power to amend Part III of the Constitution to take away or abridge fundamental rights. This led to the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973) decision, which overruled the Golaknath case and established the Basic Structure Doctrine, asserting that while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its essential features. Finally, Minerva Mills vs. Union of India (1980) further strengthened this doctrine by striking down parts of the 42nd Amendment and reaffirming that the limited amending power of Parliament is itself a part of the basic structure.
96Polity and Governance
Who among the following was a member of the Swaran Singh Committee (1976)?
(A) A.R. Antule
(B) S.S. Ray
(C) Haridev Joshi
(D) C.M. Stephen
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Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (D)
Explanation
The Swaran Singh Committee was a 12-member body appointed by the Indian National Congress in 1976 to study the requirement of constitutional reforms and fundamental duties. A.R. Antulay, S.S. Ray, and C.M. Stephen were integral members of this committee who contributed to the formulation of its recommendations. These members worked under the chairmanship of Sardar Swaran Singh to propose the inclusion of a specific chapter on duties to ensure that citizens were aware of their obligations toward the state. Their work directly resulted in the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which introduced Article 51A into the Constitution. A.R. Antulay held the position of member-secretary, while S.S. Ray and C.M. Stephen provided critical legal and political perspectives during the committee deliberations on national integrity and civic responsibilities.
97Polity and Governance
With reference to the President's power to make regulations for certain Union territories under Article 240 of the Constitution of India, which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) 240 (1) (d) – Puducherry
Explanation
Article 240(1) of the Constitution of India authorizes the President to make regulations for the peace, progress, and good government of certain Union territories. These territories are listed under specific sub-clauses: 240(1)(a) for the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, 240(1)(b) for Lakshadweep, 240(1)(c) for Dadra and Nagar Haveli, 240(1)(d) for Daman and Diu, and 240(1)(e) for Puducherry. The pair 240(1)(d) – Puducherry is incorrectly matched because Article 240(1)(d) relates specifically to Daman and Diu. Puducherry is governed by Article 240(1)(e), which further specifies that the President can make regulations for this territory only when its legislature is dissolved or suspended.
98Polity and Governance
The process of removing the Comptroller and Auditor General of India from his office is similar to that of which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) Judge of the Supreme Court
Explanation
Article 148(1) of the Constitution of India mandates that the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This constitutional provision ensures the independence of the CAG by granting the office the same security of tenure enjoyed by the higher judiciary. According to Article 124(4), the removal process requires an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament has been presented to him in the same session. This address must be supported by a special majority in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, meaning a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. The only grounds for such removal are proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
99Polity and Governance
On whose recommendation was the Central Vigilance Commission established?
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Answer: (B) Santhanam Committee
Explanation
The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in February 1964 through an executive resolution by the Government of India. Its creation was primarily based on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, which was chaired by Shri K. Santhanam. This committee was tasked with reviewing the existing arrangements for checking corruption in the administration and advising on practical steps to make anti-corruption measures more effective. The Santhanam Committee suggested the formation of an apex body with independence from the executive to oversee vigilance administration across various central government departments. Although initially an advisory body, the CVC was later granted statutory status by the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, following directions from the Supreme Court in the Vineet Narain case.
100Polity and Governance
In which country did the concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originate?
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Answer: (C) United States of America
Explanation
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated in the United States of America in the mid-1960s. It emerged as a part of the legal aid movement aimed at providing legal representation to unrepresented groups and interests, such as the poor, racial minorities, environmentalists, and consumers. In the US, this concept was initially known as Public Interest Law and was designed to ensure that the judicial system could be accessed to protect the rights of marginalized sections of society. This American model of legal activism significantly influenced other jurisdictions across the globe, leading to the adoption of similar mechanisms to promote social justice and the rule of law.
101Polity and Governance
According to Article 87 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India addresses the session.
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Answer: (A) Together in both houses of the combined Parliament
Explanation
Article 87 of the Indian Constitution provides for a Special Address by the President. Under Clause 1 of this Article, the President is required to address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year. During this address, the President informs Parliament of the causes of its summons. The constitutional language specifically uses the term assembled together to describe the gathering of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha for this purpose. This ceremony typically takes place in the Central Hall of Parliament, where the President outlines the government's policies and legislative agenda for the upcoming year or the new parliamentary term.
102Polity and Governance
Under Rule 377 of the Rules of Procedure and Business of the Lok Sabha, how many cases can be raised by the members of the Lok Sabha in a day?
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Answer: (C) 20
Explanation
Rule 377 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha allows members to bring to the notice of the House matters of public importance that do not fall under points of order or other specific rules like questions, motions, or calling attention notices. This rule is primarily used by members to highlight issues pertaining to their respective constituencies or urgent regional matters. As per the established practice and the directions of the Speaker, the maximum number of such matters permitted to be raised in the Lok Sabha during a single sitting is 20. These 20 slots are allocated among various political parties and groups in proportion to their numerical strength in the House.
103Polity and Governance
Which of the following are financial committees of the Indian Parliament?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament
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Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (C)
Explanation
The Parliament of India has three major standing financial committees that perform the vital function of exercising parliamentary control over the executive's financial administration and expenditure. The Public Accounts Committee examines the appropriation accounts and the finance accounts of the Union Government along with the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General to ensure that funds were spent for the purposes intended. The Estimates Committee scrutinizes the budget estimates to suggest economies, improvements in organization, or administrative reforms consistent with the policy underlying the estimates. The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the reports and accounts of designated public sector enterprises and reports by the Comptroller and Auditor General to ensure these undertakings are managed according to sound business principles. These three bodies are specifically categorized as financial committees because they deal directly with the scrutiny of government spending and public accounts.
104Polity and Governance
Which of the following terminology is mentioned in the preamble of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
(A) Transparency of information
(B) Disclosure of information
(C) Informed citizenship
(D) Dominance of democratic ideals
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Answer: (A) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Explanation
The Preamble of the Right to Information Act, 2005, outlines the foundational principles and objectives of the legislation. It explicitly states that democracy requires an informed citizenry and transparency of information, which are vital to its functioning, to contain corruption, and to hold Governments and their instrumentalities accountable to the governed. The preamble also recognizes that the revelation of information in actual practice is likely to conflict with other public interests, including efficient operations of the Governments and the preservation of confidentiality of sensitive information. It emphasizes the necessity to harmonise these conflicting interests while preserving the paramountcy of democratic ideals. Thus, the terminology involving transparency of information, disclosure or revelation of information, informed citizenship or citizenry, and the dominance or paramountcy of democratic ideals are all contained within the text of the preamble.
105Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-1 List
(Author) (Books)
(A) Atul Kohli (i) Divide and Quit
(B) Granville Austin (ii) The Success of India's Democracy
(C) Penderel (iii) The Republic of India: Development of its Laws and Constitution
(D) Allen Gladwell (iv) Working a Democratic Constitution: A History of the Indian Experience
. (A) (B) (C) (D)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Explanation
Atul Kohli authored The Success of India's Democracy, which provides a detailed analysis of how political power and institutional frameworks have sustained democracy in India despite social and economic challenges. Granville Austin wrote Working a Democratic Constitution: A History of the Indian Experience, which serves as a comprehensive historical account of the constitutional development and judicial interpretations from the 1950s to the 1990s. Penderel Moon, a former British civil servant in India, wrote Divide and Quit, which offers a significant eyewitness account and critical analysis of the circumstances and administrative failures surrounding the Partition of 1947. Alan Gledhill, mentioned in the list as Allen Gladwell, authored The Republic of India: Development of its Laws and Constitution, a work that explores the legal history and the formal structure of the 1950 Constitution.
106Polity and Governance
Under the provisions of Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India, if a bill is passed by the Indian Parliament, it comes to the Rajasthan Assembly for ratification by resolution, then
(A) The Assembly may pass the resolution.
(B) The Assembly may reject the resolution.
(C) No amendment can be proposed in such a resolution.
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Answer: (A) (A), (B) and (C)
Explanation
Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India mandates that specific constitutional amendments affecting the federal structure must be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the states. When the Rajasthan Assembly receives such a bill, it acts as a constituent body. The Assembly has the power to pass the resolution to signify its consent or to reject the resolution if it disagrees with the proposed amendment. However, the Assembly cannot propose any amendments to the resolution or the underlying bill because the ratification process requires the states to accept or reject the exact version passed by the Union Parliament. Allowing state-level amendments would destroy the uniform application of the constitutional amendment across the country. Therefore, the Assembly's role is restricted to a binary choice of approval or rejection without the power to modify the text.
107Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following Act/Rule provides for joint meetings of Gram Sabhas in Rajasthan?
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Answer: (A) Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Application of Provisions to Scheduled Areas) Amendment Rules, 2011
Explanation
The Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Application of Provisions to Scheduled Areas) Rules, 2011, were framed to provide a detailed operational framework for the PESA Act in the state's tribal regions. Rule 8 of these rules specifically contains provisions for holding joint meetings of Gram Sabhas. This mechanism is utilized when a particular issue, developmental project, or management of natural resources concerns the jurisdiction of more than one Gram Sabha. By allowing these collective assemblies, the rules ensure coordinated decision-making and community consent across village boundaries, upholding the statutory requirement for tribal self-governance and communal harmony in the management of shared resources and social welfare schemes within Scheduled Areas.
108Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following has NOT served as the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
(A) Haridev Joshi
(B) Shivcharan Mathur
(C) Ashok Gehlot
(D) Vasundhara Raje
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Answer: (C) (B) and (C)
Explanation
Shivcharan Mathur and Ashok Gehlot are the leaders who have never served as the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly. Shivcharan Mathur held the office of Chief Minister on two separate occasions during the 1980s but did not occupy the post of the Leader of the Opposition at any point in his political career. Similarly, Ashok Gehlot has served multiple terms as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan but has never been designated as the Leader of the Opposition; during the legislative periods when his party was in the opposition, other senior members of the party were appointed to lead the opposition in the house. In contrast, Haridev Joshi served as the Leader of the Opposition from 1980 to 1985, and Vasundhara Raje held the same position from 2009 to 2013.
109Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following officials against whom complaints are received, the Lokayukta, Rajasthan, cannot initiate an investigation?
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Answer: (B) Sarpanch and Panch
Explanation
The Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayuktas Act, 1973, defines the scope and jurisdiction of the Lokayukta regarding investigations into allegations of corruption and maladministration against public servants. While the Act brings various high-ranking political and administrative officials under its purview, including Ministers and heads of local bodies like Zila Pramukhs and Pradhans, it specifically excludes officials at the grassroots level of the Panchayati Raj system. Under the provisions of this Act, the Lokayukta is not authorized to initiate investigations into complaints received against the Sarpanch and Panch of a Gram Panchayat. These village-level representatives are instead subject to the administrative and disciplinary controls specified under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994. Other prominent figures excluded from the Lokayukta's jurisdiction in the state include the Chief Minister, the Chairperson and members of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission, and members of the judiciary.
110Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Regarding the rule of the process of 'motion for adjournment on a matter of public importance' in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The consent of the Chairman is necessary to not present the proposal.
(B) A proposal can raise a question of privilege.
(C) The proposal will be limited to a recent specific incident.
(D) There will be no more than one proposal presented in a meeting.
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Answer: (B) (A), (C) and (D)
Explanation
The rules of procedure in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly mandate that the consent of the Speaker is a prerequisite for moving an adjournment motion. This ensures that only matters of genuine urgent public importance interrupt the pre-decided business of the House. According to Rule 71 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly, the admissibility of such a motion is subject to several conditions. The motion must be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and of urgent public importance, ensuring the debate remains focused on a single pressing issue rather than general or historical grievances. Additionally, the rules specify that not more than one such motion can be made at the same sitting to prevent excessive disruption of the legislative agenda. While other parliamentary devices exist for different purposes, an adjournment motion specifically cannot be used to raise a question of privilege.
111Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission?
(A) It was formed by a notification of the Government of Rajasthan dated January 18, 1999.
(B) The commission became operational in March, 2000.
(C) According to the Human Rights Protection (Amendment) Act, 2006, the commission provides for a Chairman and 3 members.
(D) One of its former chairpersons was a retired judge of the Supreme Court.
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Answer: (C) (A), (B) and (D)
Explanation
The Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission was constituted via a state government notification issued on January 18, 1999, under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The Commission became fully operational in March 2000 when the first Chairperson, Justice Kanta Kumari Bhatnagar, and the members were appointed and assumed their duties. The Commission has been headed by several distinguished jurists, including Justice Saghir Ahmad, who was a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India and served as the Chairperson from 2001 to 2004. While the original 1993 Act provided for a different structure, the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006, revised the composition of State Human Rights Commissions to consist of a Chairperson and two members. Consequently, the statements regarding the notification date, the timing of its operational status, and the Supreme Court background of a former chairperson are all factually accurate.
112Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following judges of the Supreme Court has not been a judge of the Rajasthan High Court?
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Answer: (A) Justice R.C. Lahoti
Explanation
Justice R.C. Lahoti was appointed as a judge of the Madhya Pradesh High Court in May 1988. In February 1994, he was transferred to the Delhi High Court, where he served until his elevation to the Supreme Court of India in December 1998. He eventually served as the 35th Chief Justice of India from June 2004 to November 2005. His judicial service in the High Courts was limited to the Madhya Pradesh and Delhi jurisdictions, and he never held a position as a judge of the Rajasthan High Court.
113Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Who has been the Protem President, President and Vice President of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
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Answer: (D) Poonam Chand Bishnoi
Explanation
Poonam Chand Bishnoi holds the unique distinction in Rajasthan's parliamentary history of serving in all three capacities within the State Legislative Assembly. He served as the Deputy Speaker from 1967 to 1971 during the fourth assembly. Subsequently, he was elected as the Speaker (President) of the seventh Rajasthan Legislative Assembly, holding the office from 1980 to 1985. Due to his extensive legislative experience and seniority, he was also appointed as the Protem Speaker (Protem President) for the ninth assembly in 1990 and again for the tenth assembly in 1993 to oversee the initial proceedings and the administration of oaths to newly elected members.
114Economy
In the context of contributions to foreign direct investment equity inflows during the year 2016-17, which country ranked at the top in India?
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Answer: (D) Mauritius
Explanation
Based on the statistics provided by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) for the financial year 2016-17, Mauritius ranked as the largest source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity inflows into India. During this period, Mauritius contributed approximately 15.73 billion US dollars, which constituted about 36 percent of India's total FDI equity inflows. This high volume of investment was driven by the long-standing Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between the two nations, which offered capital gains tax exemptions to investors, making Mauritius a highly attractive hub for routing global investments into India.
115Economy
Why do companies restructure business processes with the help of technology?
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Answer: (A) All of these
Explanation
Business process restructuring is driven by the convergence of global economic shifts, technological advancements, and evolving market demands. The liberalization of international economies has accelerated the pace of change, necessitating more agile organizational structures to survive intense global competition. Information technology serves as the fundamental catalyst in this transformation, enabling companies to optimize workflows and reduce operational costs, which results in a distinct competitive advantage in both products and services. Simultaneously, the digital age has empowered consumers, leading to a continuous rise in expectations regarding speed, quality, and service levels. By leveraging technology to redesign their core processes, companies can effectively address these multifaceted pressures, ensuring they remain efficient and responsive to a rapidly changing business environment.
116Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
A bill was required to be recommended to the Governor under the provisions of the Constitution. But it was introduced in the Rajasthan Assembly without the Governor's recommendation, passed, and sent to the Governor; now.
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Answer: (D) If the Governor grants approval, the act will not be void.
Explanation
Article 255 of the Constitution of India provides a curative provision regarding the requirements of recommendations and previous sanctions for legislation. It explicitly states that no Act of a State Legislature shall be invalid or void merely because a recommendation or previous sanction required by the Constitution was not obtained before the introduction of the Bill, provided that the Governor or the President, as the case may be, subsequently gives their assent to that Act. In this specific scenario, since the recommendation required was that of the Governor, the subsequent grant of approval by the Governor after the Bill has been passed by the Rajasthan Assembly effectively regularizes the procedural lapse. This constitutional safeguard ensures that a technical irregularity in the legislative process does not nullify an Act once the executive authority has signified its agreement through formal assent.
117Economy
What has been included in the scope of GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
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Answer: (A) Ghee
Explanation
Ghee is categorized as a manufactured dairy product and is included within the scope of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) system. Under the GST law implemented in 2017, it is classified under the Harmonized System of Nomenclature (HSN) code in Chapter 4. The GST Council determined that ghee should be taxed at a rate of 12 percent. As a taxable commodity, it is part of the unified national market, and its supply involves the standard procedures of GST levy, collection, and the utilization of input tax credits throughout the supply chain.
118Economy
Who has set an inflation target of 4 percent with a +/-2 percent tolerance level for the years 2016-2021 in India?
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Answer: (C) Government of India
Explanation
Under the provisions of Section 45ZA of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which was amended by the Finance Act, 2016, the Central Government is legally mandated to determine the inflation target in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India once every five years. Following this amendment, the Government of India officially notified in the Gazette on August 5, 2016, that the inflation target would be 4 percent with an upper tolerance level of 6 percent and a lower tolerance level of 2 percent for the period from August 5, 2016, to March 31, 2021. While the Monetary Policy Committee is responsible for using policy tools to achieve this target, the statutory authority to set and notify the target resides with the Central Government.
119Economy
Assertion (A): Cost push inflation occurs due to diversion in the aggregate supply curve.
Reason (R): Diversion in the aggregate supply curve is caused by an increase in wages.
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Answer: (D) (A) and (R) both are correct and (A) is the correct explanation of (R).
Explanation
Cost-push inflation is triggered by a reduction in the aggregate supply of goods and services, which is represented by a leftward shift or diversion of the aggregate supply curve. This reduction occurs when the costs of production factors rise, making it more expensive for firms to produce output. Wages are a primary component of these production costs. When wages increase without a commensurate rise in productivity, firms experience higher marginal costs. To protect their profit margins, firms decrease the quantity of goods they are willing to supply at any given price level. This inward shift of the aggregate supply curve leads to a higher equilibrium price level in the economy. Thus, the assertion correctly identifies the mechanism of cost-push inflation through supply curve shifts, and the reason correctly identifies wage increases as a fundamental driver of those shifts.
120EconomyRajasthan-specific
The base year of the general wholesale price index of Rajasthan is.
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Answer: (D) 1999-2000
Explanation
The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) for Rajasthan is compiled and released on a monthly basis by the Directorate of Economics and Statistics (DES), Jaipur. While the national level WPI base year was updated by the central government to 2011-2012, the state of Rajasthan continues to utilize 1999-2000 as the base year for its state-specific index calculation. This index is a primary measure for tracking inflation in the state's economy and covers a basket of 154 commodities. These commodities are categorized into three main groups: Primary Articles (75 items), Fuel, Power, Light and Lubricants (10 items), and Manufactured Products (69 items). The calculation uses the Laspeyres formula, with weights assigned based on the value of production and marketable surplus during the base period of 1999-2000.
121EconomyRajasthan-specific
The growth rate of the Gross State Domestic Product in Rajasthan at constant prices (2011-12) was in the year 2017-18.
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Answer: (D) 7.16%
Explanation
According to the Economic Review of Rajasthan 2017-18, the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) at constant (2011-12) prices was estimated at ₹6,41,940 crore for the financial year 2017-18. When compared to the revised estimate of ₹5,99,034 crore for the previous year (2016-17), the growth rate is determined by the formula:
This percentage reflects the real economic growth of the state after accounting for inflation, indicating the expansion of the agricultural, industrial, and service sectors during that period.
122Economy
The most volatile segment of the organized money market in India is
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Answer: (B) Call money market
Explanation
The call money market is the most volatile segment of the Indian money market because it deals with overnight loans used by banks to manage daily liquidity imbalances and meet statutory requirements like the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). Since these funds are borrowed and repaid within a twenty-four-hour period, the interest rates in this market, known as call rates, are extremely sensitive to the immediate demand and supply of liquidity. Even minor shifts in the banking system's liquidity, triggered by factors such as large tax outflows, government bond auctions, or variations in bank deposits, can cause the call rate to fluctuate significantly within a single trading day. This high frequency of price adjustments and the urgency of borrowing to maintain regulatory compliance result in greater price volatility compared to other money market instruments.
123Economy
Which of the following is not included in the revenue account of the Central Budget?
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Answer: (A) Small savings
Explanation
Small savings, which include collections from schemes such as the National Savings Certificate, Post Office deposits, and the Public Provident Fund, are categorized as capital receipts. In the structure of the Central Budget, capital receipts are defined as those that either create a liability for the government or lead to a reduction in its assets. Since small savings represent borrowings from the public that the government is obligated to repay with interest in the future, they create a clear financial liability. Therefore, they are accounted for in the Capital Account rather than the Revenue Account, which is reserved for recurring receipts like taxes and interest that do not impact the government's liability or asset position.
124Economy
What was emphasized in the Eleventh Five Year Plan?
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Answer: (B) More intense and more inclusive growth
Explanation
The Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007–2012) was titled Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth. It was formulated with the primary objective of increasing the GDP growth rate to 9 percent while ensuring that the benefits of economic expansion reached all segments of the population. This plan marked a significant shift in Indian planning by prioritizing inclusive growth to address the disparities and inequalities that had persisted despite high economic growth in previous years. The strategy involved massive investments in social sectors such as education, health, and rural development. Key initiatives emphasized under this plan included the expansion of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, the National Rural Health Mission, and the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act to empower the marginalized sections of society and integrate them into the mainstream economic process.
125EconomyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following is NOT a unique selling proposition (USP) in Rajasthan's tourism sector?
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Answer: (A) Medical tourism
Explanation
Medical tourism is not categorized as a Unique Selling Proposition (USP) for Rajasthan because the state's tourism identity and global branding are centered on its historical, cultural, and experiential assets. While Rajasthan has developed healthcare infrastructure in major cities, it lacks the specialized reputation and volume of international patients found in established medical hubs like Chennai, Mumbai, or Delhi. The state's tourism strategy primarily leverages its architectural heritage, such as the numerous forts and palaces, its vibrant cultural calendar featuring desert festivals and cattle fairs, and its niche luxury offerings like the Palace on Wheels. These elements define the state's competitive advantage in the global market, whereas medical services remain a standard utility rather than a distinctive factor that attracts tourists to the region.
126EconomyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following is NOT an oil field in Rajasthan?
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Answer: (B) Ganga
Explanation
Ganga is not a recognized oil field in the state of Rajasthan. The hydrocarbon reserves in Rajasthan are primarily concentrated in the Barmer-Sanchi basin, which houses several major onshore oil fields developed by operators such as Cairn Oil and Gas (Vedanta Limited). Prominent oil fields in this region include Mangla, which is the largest, along with Aishwarya, Bhagyam, Saraswati, Raageshwari, and Kameshwari. While the Ganga basin is a distinct geological province in Northern India, it does not contain a commercial oil production site named Ganga within the jurisdictional boundaries of Rajasthan.
127GeographyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following lakes in Rajasthan does not fall under the ‘National Lake Conservation Program’ (NLCP)?
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Answer: (B) Swaroop Sagar Lake
Explanation
The National Lake Conservation Program (NLCP) was a centrally sponsored scheme initiated by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to restore and conserve urban and semi-urban lakes across India. In Rajasthan, six specific lakes were selected for inclusion under this program based on their ecological degradation and importance. These identified lakes are Anna Sagar and Pushkar Lake in Ajmer, Mansagar Lake in Jaipur, Nakki Lake in Mount Abu, and Fateh Sagar and Pichola Lake in Udaipur. Swaroop Sagar Lake, although geographically situated within the Udaipur lake system and serving as a link between Fateh Sagar and Pichola, was never officially designated as an independent unit under the NLCP. The program was later merged into the National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Eco-systems (NPCA).
128Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Under the Rajasthan government's post-matric scholarship scheme for students of minority communities, financial assistance is provided to students who have a certain combination of parental income and marks obtained in the previous examination. What is that certain combination?
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Answer: (B) Less than 2 lakh rupees – at least 50%
Explanation
The Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme for minority communities in Rajasthan is designed to provide financial support to students from Muslim, Christian, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, and Parsi backgrounds to pursue higher education from Class 11 to Ph.D. level. As per the guidelines applicable in 2018, the eligibility criteria for this scholarship mandate that the annual income of the student's parents or guardians from all sources must not exceed 2 lakh rupees. Furthermore, the student must have secured at least 50 percent marks or an equivalent grade in the previous final examination to be eligible for the grant, which covers tuition fees and maintenance allowances.
129EconomyRajasthan-specific
In recent years, which of the following items has contributed the most to the state's revenue in Rajasthan's budget?
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Answer: (C) State Tax Revenue
Explanation
The State Tax Revenue, also known as the State's Own Tax Revenue (SOTR), consistently forms the largest component of Rajasthan's total revenue receipts. This category includes collections from various internal sources such as the State Goods and Services Tax (SGST), Value Added Tax (VAT) on items like petroleum and tobacco, State Excise duties on alcohol, Stamps and Registration fees, and taxes on vehicles and electricity. In the fiscal years leading up to 2018, such as the 2017-18 revised estimates and the 2018-19 budget projections, State Tax Revenue accounted for approximately 45 percent to 50 percent of the total revenue receipts. This internal revenue generation provides the primary financial base for the state's expenditure on development and administration, surpassing the volumes received through central transfers or non-tax sources.
130EconomyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following thermal power projects has the highest installed electrical capacity?
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Answer: (D) Suratgarh
Explanation
The Suratgarh Super Thermal Power Station, situated in the Sri Ganganagar district of Rajasthan, was the first super thermal power project established in the state. According to the data available in the 2017-18 period, it held the highest installed capacity among all thermal power plants in Rajasthan. The project reached a total capacity of 1500 MW through the operation of six individual units, each having a capacity of 250 MW. Managed by the Rajasthan Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited, this facility is often referred to as the Modern Development Temple of Rajasthan due to its significant contribution to the state's electricity generation and industrial growth. It provides a crucial base-load power supply to the state grid using coal-fired subcritical technology.
131Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The Rajasthan government has established the first skill university in the state. Where is it located?
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Answer: (A) Jaipur
Explanation
The Rajasthan ILD Skills University (RISU) was established in Jaipur following the passage of the Rajasthan ILD Skills University, Jaipur Act in 2017. It represents the first government-supported skill university in India, created to integrate vocational training with formal education. The university is headquartered in Jaipur and was designed to provide a regulatory and academic framework for skill-based training, ensuring that the workforce meets specific industry standards and enhancing the employability of youth through specialized certification and degree programs.
132Science and Technology
Which of the following is an example of a non-cellulosic fiber?
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Answer: (A) Nylon
Explanation
Nylon is a purely synthetic polymer and is classified as a non-cellulosic fiber because its chemical structure is not derived from plant cellulose. It belongs to the group of polyamides, synthesized through the chemical polymerization of monomers like adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine in the case of Nylon 6,6, or caprolactam for Nylon 6. These precursors are typically derived from petroleum or coal. Unlike fibers that are harvested from plant sources or those created by chemically treating and regenerating natural cellulose, nylon is manufactured entirely through industrial chemical synthesis, making it a true synthetic fiber with no biological cellulose base.
133Science and Technology
The waves used in a common TV remote are?
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Answer: (B) Infrared rays
Explanation
Standard television remote controls utilize infrared rays to transmit signals to the receiver on the TV set. These waves are part of the electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths typically ranging from 700 nanometers to 1 millimeter, which is just beyond the visible light range. Inside the remote, an infrared light-emitting diode (LED) pulses rapidly to send binary-coded data representing commands such as volume adjustment or channel switching. Infrared radiation is preferred for this application because it is non-ionizing, cost-effective to implement, and operates effectively over short distances. Its line-of-sight propagation ensures that the signal is generally contained within a single room, preventing accidental interference with electronic devices located in adjacent areas.
134Science and Technology
What layer of metal is generally applied to brass utensils to protect them from verdigris?
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Answer: (D) Tin
Explanation
Brass is an alloy primarily composed of copper and zinc. When brass utensils come into contact with moisture, carbon dioxide, and organic acids present in food, the copper component reacts to form a green-colored poisonous layer known as verdigris or basic copper carbonate CuCO₃ · Cu(OH)₂. To prevent this chemical reaction and protect the food from contamination, a process called tinning or Kalai is performed. In this process, a thin layer of molten tin is applied to the inner surface of the utensil. Tin is relatively unreactive and resistant to corrosion by food acids, acting as an effective barrier that prevents the formation of verdigris and ensures the safety of the cooked food.
135Science and Technology
Ultra High Frequency (UHF) waves are commonly transmitted as?
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Answer: (B) Space waves
Explanation
Ultra High Frequency (UHF) waves, typically ranging from 300 MHz to 3 GHz, are transmitted as space waves because they travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna. At frequencies above 30 MHz, the ionosphere fails to reflect radio waves back to Earth, causing them to penetrate into space and rendering sky wave propagation ineffective. Furthermore, these high-frequency waves suffer from significant energy loss when traveling along the ground, making ground wave propagation unsuitable. Space wave propagation, also known as Line-of-Sight (LOS) communication, is the primary mode for UHF applications such as television broadcasting, microwave links, and mobile communication. The maximum transmission distance is limited by the curvature of the Earth and the heights of the antennas, represented by the relation d = √(2Rhₜ) + √(2Rhᵣ), where R is the Earth's radius and h represents antenna height.
136Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The main objective of the Swavlamban Yojana (Self-Reliance Scheme) in Rajasthan is?
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Answer: (D) To improve the living standards of poor women, widows, deserted women, and rural women.
Explanation
The Swavlamban Yojana in Rajasthan is a state-funded initiative implemented by the Department of Women and Child Development specifically designed to empower vulnerable sections of the female population. The scheme targets poor women, widows, deserted or divorced women, and those residing in rural areas who lack stable sources of income. By providing vocational training in various skill-based trades such as tailoring, beauty culture, and handicrafts, the program seeks to enhance their employability and entrepreneurial capabilities. The ultimate goal is to facilitate economic independence and self-reliance, thereby improving the overall socio-economic living standards of these marginalized women within the state.
137EconomyRajasthan-specific
The program (MPoWR) implemented to reduce poverty in western Rajasthan is supported by?
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Answer: (B) International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) and the Ratan Tata Trust.
Explanation
The Mitigating Poverty in Western Rajasthan (MPoWR) project is a specialized poverty reduction initiative implemented by the Government of Rajasthan with financial and technical assistance from the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) and the Sir Ratan Tata Trust. The program targets the six arid districts of western Rajasthan—Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jalore, Pali, and Sirohi—to address the unique socio-economic and climatic challenges of the desert region. It focuses on empowering vulnerable households through the formation of Self-Help Groups (SHGs), improving natural resource management, and enhancing livestock productivity. The collaboration between the state government, a global multilateral agency like IFAD, and a private philanthropic organization like the Ratan Tata Trust allows for a comprehensive approach toward sustainable livelihood development and microfinance access in these drought-prone areas.
138Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
In Rajasthan, for the first time, which of the following projects has made sprinkler irrigation mandatory?
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Answer: (B) Narmada Canal Project
Explanation
The Narmada Canal Project is the first major irrigation project in India where the use of sprinkler irrigation was made mandatory for farmers across its entire command area. This project brings water from the Sardar Sarovar Dam in Gujarat to the drought-prone districts of Jalore and Barmer in Rajasthan. To maximize water use efficiency in this arid region, the Rajasthan government implemented a policy requiring all beneficiaries to use micro-irrigation systems. This approach was designed to prevent soil salinity, check waterlogging, and ensure that the limited water supply could irrigate a larger area of approximately 2.46 lakh hectares, significantly enhancing agricultural productivity in the Thar Desert.
139Science and Technology
Which of the following poly-herbal products has not been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)?
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Answer: (B) Nankudurana
Explanation
Nankudurana is not a poly-herbal product developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. DRDO, primarily through its Life Sciences laboratories such as the Defence Institute of Bio-Energy Research and the Defence Institute of High Altitude Research, has developed a range of herbal formulations to address specific health conditions. These products are typically based on traditional knowledge and high-altitude medicinal plants, which are then patented and transferred to private pharmaceutical companies for commercial production. Nankudurana is not included in the official list of recognized herbal technologies or commercialized products developed by these research wings.
140Science and Technology
Computer is based on machine language.
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Answer: (B) on Boolean algebra
Explanation
Boolean algebra is the mathematical foundation of digital logic and computer architecture. It operates on a binary system where variables have only two possible values: 1 (true/high voltage) and 0 (false/low voltage). In 1937, Claude Shannon demonstrated that the principles of Boolean algebra could be applied to electronic switching circuits to perform logical operations. Modern computers rely on machine language, which consists of binary code that directly instructs the central processing unit. These instructions are executed through physical logic gates—such as AND, OR, and NOT—which are hardware implementations of Boolean functions. Consequently, the logic governing how a computer processes, stores, and manipulates data at the most fundamental level is entirely derived from Boolean algebraic laws.
141Science and Technology
What is the correct difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi?
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Answer: (D) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz Dio frequency band while Wi-Fi can use 24 GHz or 5GHz frequency band.
Explanation
Bluetooth technology operates in the 2.4 GHz Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) radio frequency band, specifically between 2.402 GHz and 2.480 GHz. In contrast, Wi-Fi technology, governed by the IEEE 802.11 standards, is designed to utilize multiple frequency bands depending on the specific protocol used. Common Wi-Fi implementations operate in the 2.4 GHz band for better range and obstacle penetration, and the 5 GHz band to achieve higher data throughput and reduced interference from other electronics. This flexibility in frequency allocation allows Wi-Fi to support higher bandwidth requirements compared to the lower-power, short-range focus of Bluetooth.
142Science and Technology
Consider the following pairs.
ISRO Center – Location
A. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) (Kerala)
B. U.R. Rao Satellite Centre Bangalore (UPSC) (Karnataka)
C. National Remote Sensing Centre Dehradun (RSC) (Uttarakhand)
D. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing Hyderabad (IIRS) (Telangana)
Which of the above are correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Only A and B
Explanation
Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, and serves as the lead centre for the development of satellite launch vehicles. The U.R. Rao Satellite Centre (URSC) is situated in Bangalore, Karnataka, and is responsible for the design, development, and assembly of Indian satellites. The National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC) is headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana, and manages the ground segment for receiving and processing satellite data. The Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS) is based in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, and functions as a premier institute for capacity building in the field of remote sensing.
143Economy
Match Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Column I – Column II
A. Grape sugar (i) Fructose
B. Fruit sugar (ii) Sucrose
C. Milk sugar (iii) Natural sweetener
D. Sugar (iv) Glucose
E. Stevia (v) Lactose
Code:
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Answer: (B) (iv) (i), (v) (ii) (iii)
Explanation
Glucose is commonly known as grape sugar because of its high concentration in grapes and berries. Fructose is identified as fruit sugar as it is the primary monosaccharide found in most fruits and honey. Lactose is the characteristic disaccharide found in milk and dairy products, earning it the name milk sugar. Sucrose is the chemical term for regular granulated sugar derived from sugarcane or sugar beets. Stevia is a plant-based natural sweetener used as a low-calorie alternative to sugar.
144Science and Technology
Trisomy of chromosome 21 in humans is responsible for?
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Answer: (B) Down syndrome
Explanation
Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder characterized by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes instead of the usual 46. This condition is specifically termed trisomy 21. It typically arises from a failure of the 21st chromosome pair to separate during gamete formation, a biological error known as meiotic nondisjunction. As a result, one gamete receives two copies of chromosome 21, and upon fertilization with a normal gamete, the resulting zygote possesses three copies (2n + 1). This genetic imbalance leads to the distinct physical characteristics and developmental delays associated with the condition. The occurrence of this trisomy is often correlated with increased maternal age.
145Economy
The total amount of 'greenhouse gases' generated, providing direct and indirect support to human activities, is called?
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Answer: (C) Carbon footprint
Explanation
The carbon footprint represents the total amount of greenhouse gases, including carbon dioxide and methane, that are generated by human activities. It accounts for both direct emissions, such as those produced by burning fuel for transportation or heating, and indirect emissions, which occur during the production, transportation, and disposal of goods and services consumed by an individual or organization. This measurement is typically expressed in equivalent tons of carbon dioxide (CO₂e) and serves as a critical indicator of the environmental impact and contribution to global warming associated with specific lifestyles or industrial processes. By including the entire lifecycle of products, the carbon footprint provides a comprehensive view of how human choices and economic activities influence the concentration of heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere.
146Science and Technology
India's first Beyond Visual Range (BVR) air-to-air indigenous designed missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is:
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Answer: (B) Astra
Explanation
Astra is India's first indigenous Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is an all-weather missile designed to engage and destroy highly maneuverable supersonic aerial targets at ranges exceeding 70 kilometers. The missile incorporates an active radar terminal seeker and advanced mid-course guidance systems to track and intercept targets with high precision. Astra has been successfully integrated into the Indian Air Force's frontline fighter aircraft, such as the Sukhoi Su-30MKI, and represents a significant achievement in India's missile technology, providing the military with a locally developed air-to-air combat capability that was previously fulfilled by imported systems.
147Science and Technology
How many satellites were successfully launched in a single flight by PSLV-C 37 on February 15, 2017?
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Answer: (C) 104
Explanation
On February 15, 2017, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) achieved a historic milestone by successfully launching 104 satellites in a single mission using the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLV-C37. Launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, this mission set a global record at the time for the highest number of satellites deployed in a single flight. The payload included the primary Cartosat-2 series satellite, weighing approximately 714 kg, and 103 co-passenger satellites. Of these co-passengers, 101 were international nanosatellites from countries including the United States, Israel, Kazakhstan, the Netherlands, Switzerland, and the United Arab Emirates. The remaining two were Indian nanosatellites, INS-1A and INS-1B. This mission demonstrated ISRO's advanced capability in multiple satellite deployment and precision orbital injection.
148Science and Technology
A particle with at least one dimension less than 10-7 meters is called?
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Answer: (B) Nano particle
Explanation
Nanoparticles are defined in the field of nanotechnology as particles or materials having at least one dimension measured within the range of 1 to 100 nanometers. Given that 1 nanometer equals 10⁻⁹ meters, the threshold of 100 nanometers corresponds exactly to 10⁻⁷ meters. Materials at this scale exhibit unique physical and chemical properties, such as increased surface-to-volume ratios and quantum mechanical effects, which are not observed in larger structures of the same substance. This classification includes various structures like quantum dots, carbon nanotubes, and thin films.