Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic drug?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Morphine
Explanation
Narcotic analgesics are drugs that relieve pain by acting directly on the central nervous system to alter the perception of pain. These substances often induce sleep or drowsiness and have a high potential for causing addiction or physical dependence. Morphine is a classic example of an opioid narcotic analgesic, naturally derived from the latex of the opium poppy plant, Papaver somniferum. It works by binding to specific opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, effectively blocking pain signals and producing a sense of euphoria or sedation. Due to its potency, morphine is primarily used in clinical settings for the management of severe acute or chronic pain that cannot be controlled by non-narcotic medications.
2Science and Technology
How can myopia (nearsightedness) and hypermetropia (farsightedness) be corrected respectively?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) By concave and convex lenses
Explanation
Myopia is a refractive error where the eye focuses light from distant objects in front of the retina instead of on it, often due to an elongated eyeball or excessive curvature of the cornea. To correct this, a concave lens, which acts as a diverging lens, is used to spread the light rays before they reach the crystalline lens, thereby moving the focal point further back onto the retina. Hypermetropia occurs when light from nearby objects is focused behind the retina because the eyeball is too short or the lens has insufficient converging power. This defect is corrected with a convex lens, which is a converging lens that bends light rays inward to assist the eye's natural lens in focusing the image directly onto the retinal surface.
3Polity and Governance
Which of the following schemes aims to make rural areas socially, economically, and physically sustainable?
The Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Rurban Mission (SPMRM) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in 2016 with the specific objective of transforming rural areas into socially, economically, and physically sustainable regions. The mission seeks to create Rurban clusters, which are defined as a group of geographically contiguous villages with populations of about 25,000 to 50,000 in plain areas and 5,000 to 15,000 in desert, hilly, or tribal areas. These clusters are developed to preserve the essence of rural life while providing urban-standard amenities such as improved infrastructure, healthcare, education, and digital connectivity. By focusing on integrated cluster-based development, the scheme aims to stimulate local economic growth, enhance basic services, and reduce rural-to-urban migration through holistic spatial planning and targeted investments in livelihood and skill development.
4Polity and Governance
Which scheme aims to improve the health and nutritional status of pregnant women and lactating mothers and their infants (0 to 6 months) by promoting the use of appropriate practices, care, and services during pregnancy, safe delivery, and breastfeeding?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a centrally sponsored maternity benefit program that provides cash incentives to pregnant women and lactating mothers. The scheme is designed to address the nutritional needs of women during pregnancy and the post-partum period while compensating for wage loss. By providing financial support, it incentivizes early registration of pregnancy, attendance at antenatal care sessions, and the completion of child immunizations. These conditions ensure that mothers receive professional medical guidance, leading to safer deliveries and the adoption of optimal health practices. Specifically, the program emphasizes the importance of exclusive breastfeeding during the first six months of an infant's life to ensure proper growth and disease resistance. Through these integrated efforts, PMMVY aims to improve maternal health outcomes and reduce the prevalence of malnutrition among infants.
5Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following options describes a key objective of the Indira Mahila Shakti Udan Yojana?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) To raise awareness about menstrual health and hygiene management.
Explanation
The Indira Mahila Shakti Udan Yojana was launched by the Rajasthan state government on December 19, 2021, with the primary goal of promoting menstrual health and hygiene management among women and adolescent girls. The scheme addresses the health challenges and social taboos associated with menstruation by providing free sanitary napkins to approximately 1.2 crore beneficiaries across the state. Girls and women in the age group of 10 to 45 years can access these supplies through schools, colleges, and Anganwadi centers. By ensuring the availability of hygiene products, the initiative aims to reduce the risk of reproductive tract infections and prevent school absenteeism or dropouts among adolescent girls. The program is implemented by the Department of Women and Child Development and emphasizes creating a supportive environment for menstrual dignity.
6Science and Technology
The launcher used to launch the TeLEOS-2 and Lumelite – 4 satellites from Sriharikota on April 23 was:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) PSLV – C55
Explanation
The PSLV-C55 mission was a dedicated commercial launch by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) for Singapore, executed through NewSpace India Limited (NSIL). Launched from the First Launch Pad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) operated in its Core Alone configuration to deploy the TeLEOS-2 and Lumelite-4 satellites. TeLEOS-2, a 741 kg synthetic aperture radar satellite, was designed to provide all-weather imagery for urban planning and maritime security, while Lumelite-4, a 16 kg nanosatellite, was launched to demonstrate advanced maritime electronic navigation systems. The mission also featured the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM-2), which turned the spent PS4 stage of the rocket into an orbiting research platform for carrying scientific payloads from various institutions.
7Science and Technology
If one dimension of a substance is reduced to the nano range while the other two dimensions remain the same, the resulting structure is called:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Quantum well
Explanation
A quantum well is formed when one dimension of a material is reduced to the nanometer scale (typically less than 100 nm), while the other two dimensions remain large or macroscopic. This spatial confinement in one direction restricts the movement of charge carriers, such as electrons and holes, along that axis, causing their energy levels to become discrete or quantized in that direction. However, the particles remain free to move in the other two dimensions, resulting in a two-dimensional electronic system. This structure is typically realized by sandwiching a thin layer of a narrow-bandgap semiconductor between two layers of a wider-bandgap material, creating a potential energy well that traps the carriers within the thin central layer.
8Science and Technology
Which of the following file formats is NOT a video file format?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) .MP3
Explanation
.MP3 stands for MPEG-1 Audio Layer III and is a dedicated audio coding format for digital sound. It utilizes lossy data compression to reduce file sizes by removing components of the audio that are beyond the hearing capabilities of most humans. Because the format is architecturally designed solely to handle sound data using psychoacoustic modeling, it does not possess the capacity to store video tracks, synchronized visual frames, or other multimedia elements associated with video playback.
9Science and Technology
Arrange the following units of measurement for digital information in the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and progressing to the largest unit:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) f b a c e d
Explanation
Digital information is measured in a hierarchical structure where each unit represents a specific volume of data. The most fundamental and smallest unit is the bit (f), which holds a single binary value of either 0 or 1. A group of 8 bits is combined to form one byte (b), which is the standard unit used to represent a single character of text. In the binary system typically used for storage, each subsequent unit is 2¹⁰ or 1024 times larger than the one before it. A kilobyte (a) consists of 1024 bytes, and a megabyte (c) consists of 1024 kilobytes. Further up the scale, a gigabyte (e) contains 1024 megabytes, and a terabyte (d) contains 1024 gigabytes. Therefore, the correct ascending order from the smallest capacity to the largest is bit, byte, kilobyte, megabyte, gigabyte, and terabyte, corresponding to the sequence f, b, a, c, e, d.
10Science and Technology
The ASTRA missile was successfully tested from the LCA (Light Combat Aircraft) Tejas on August 23, 2023. This missile is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) A beyond visual range air-to-air missile
Explanation
The Astra missile is India's first indigenous Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is designed to be integrated onto fighter aircraft to engage and destroy highly maneuverable supersonic aerial targets at varying ranges and altitudes. The successful test firing from the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas on August 23, 2023, off the coast of Goa, validated the missile's ability to operate from the indigenous platform. As a BVRAAM, the Astra possesses the capability to strike enemy aircraft at distances exceeding 20 nautical miles, utilizing an active radar seeker for terminal homing and advanced guidance systems for mid-course navigation.
11Science and Technology
Which of the following diseases is not a bacterial disease?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Dengue
Explanation
Dengue is a viral infection caused by the dengue virus (DENV), which belongs to the Flaviviridae family. It is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female mosquitoes, primarily the Aedes aegypti species and, to a lesser extent, Aedes albopictus. Because the causative agent is a virus rather than a bacterium, it is classified as a viral disease. Symptoms typically include high fever, severe headache, muscle and joint pains, and a characteristic skin rash. There are four distinct serotypes of the virus (DENV-1, DENV-2, DENV-3, and DENV-4), and infection with one type provides life-long immunity to that specific serotype but only short-term, partial immunity to the others.
12Science and Technology
The species of Plasmodium that causes malignant malaria is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Falciparum
Explanation
Plasmodium falciparum is the most dangerous species of the malaria parasite and is responsible for malignant tertian malaria. This form of the disease is termed malignant because it frequently leads to severe complications, such as cerebral malaria, acute respiratory distress, and multi-organ failure. The parasite causes the surface of infected red blood cells to become sticky, leading them to adhere to the endothelial lining of small blood capillaries. This process, known as sequestration, obstructs blood flow to vital organs and differentiates the clinical severity of falciparum infections from those caused by other Plasmodium species. Due to its high rate of multiplication in the blood and the ability to infect red blood cells of all ages, Plasmodium falciparum carries the highest risk of mortality.
13Science and Technology
NTU (NTU) is a unit of measurement for
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Water turbidity
Explanation
NTU stands for Nephelometric Turbidity Unit, which is the standard unit used to quantify the turbidity or cloudiness of a liquid. Turbidity is an optical characteristic of water that measures the relative clarity of a liquid based on the amount of light scattered by suspended solids such as silt, clay, organic matter, and microscopic organisms. The measurement is performed using a nephelometer, which passes a light beam through a water sample and calculates the intensity of light scattered at a 90-degree angle to the incident beam. A higher intensity of scattered light indicates a higher concentration of suspended particles and thus a higher NTU value. This metric is a vital indicator of water quality and the efficiency of filtration systems in water treatment processes.
14Geography
Which of the following does not grow in a polluted place?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Lichen
Explanation
Lichens serve as sensitive bioindicators of air pollution, particularly sulfur dioxide (SO₂) levels. Because they lack a protective waxy cuticle and roots, they depend entirely on the atmosphere for moisture and nutrients, absorbing them across their whole body surface. This physiological trait causes them to absorb any pollutants present in the air as well. High levels of SO₂ interfere with the metabolic processes of the photobiont (the algal or cyanobacterial partner), damaging chlorophyll and inhibiting photosynthesis. Consequently, lichens cannot survive or grow in heavily polluted environments, making their presence or absence a reliable measure of environmental health and air quality.
15Science and Technology
Where is the Rajiv Gandhi Biotechnology Center located?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Thiruvananthapuram
Explanation
The Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology (RGCB) is a premier research institution situated in Thiruvananthapuram, the capital city of Kerala. It operates as an autonomous institute under the administrative control of the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India. The center is dedicated to research in the field of molecular biology and biotechnology, with a specific focus on disease biology, including cancer research, infectious diseases, and human genetics. Initially established as a charitable society by the Government of Kerala in 1990, it was later upgraded and taken over by the Union Government in 2007 to serve as a national center for excellence in biotechnology research.
16Science and Technology
Choose the incorrect statement with respect to proteins.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Approximately 30 percent of our body weight is protein.
Explanation
Proteins typically account for approximately 15% to 20% of the total body weight in a healthy human adult. The most significant portion of human body mass is water, which generally makes up about 60% to 70% of the weight. While proteins are essential components of muscles, organs, skin, and connective tissues, their concentration does not reach a level as high as 30% in standard physiological conditions. The distribution of body composition varies by age, sex, and physical fitness, but the protein fraction remains well below the one-third threshold.
17Science and Technology
The agglutinogen (antigen) present in the red blood cells of a person with blood group ‘O’ is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Neither A nor B
Explanation
The ABO blood grouping system is categorized based on the presence or absence of two surface antigens, known as agglutinogens, on the red blood cells. In the case of blood group O, neither the A antigen nor the B antigen is expressed on the surface of the erythrocytes. Instead, the precursor H antigen remains unmodified on the cell membrane. Because these specific agglutinogens are absent, individuals with this blood group possess both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. This absence of A and B antigens is the defining characteristic of the O blood group phenotype.
18Economy
Which of these is a group of millets (Shree Ann) crops?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Jowar, Kodo, Kangni, Ragi
Explanation
The Government of India designated millets as Shree Ann during the 2023 Union Budget to promote these nutrient-dense and climate-resilient grains. This classification includes major millets such as Jowar (Sorghum) and Ragi (Finger Millet), as well as a variety of minor millets like Kodo and Kangni (Foxtail Millet). These crops are small-seeded grasses primarily cultivated in marginal lands and are valued for their exceptional nutritional profile, including high levels of iron, calcium, and dietary fiber. Jowar, Kodo, Kangni, and Ragi are all core components of the millet family, fitting the definition of Shree Ann as traditional, sustainable food grains.
19Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which company was established by the Government of Rajasthan in the 21st century with the objective of developing information technology (IT) skills?
Rajasthan Knowledge Corporation Limited (RKCL) was incorporated on April 25, 2008, as a Public Limited Company under the Companies Act, 1956. It was established as a joint venture promoted by the Government of Rajasthan, Maharashtra Knowledge Corporation Limited (MKCL), and various state universities including Rajasthan University and Vardhaman Mahaveer Open University. The primary objective of RKCL is to bridge the digital divide and promote IT literacy among the youth and citizens of Rajasthan by providing affordable and high-quality information technology education. The company is responsible for designing and delivering various IT-related training programs, most notably the Rajasthan State Certificate course in Information Technology (RS-CIT), which has become a benchmark for digital literacy in the state. RKCL operates through a vast network of authorized learning centers across Rajasthan to ensure that IT skills are accessible to both urban and rural populations.
20Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
By what bill passed by the Rajasthan Assembly in 2023, the second Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University will be established?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) In Jobner
Explanation
The Rajasthan Legislative Assembly passed the Rajasthan Veterinary and Animal Sciences University, Jobner Bill in 2023 to establish the state's second veterinary university in Jobner, Jaipur district. This university aims to promote higher education and research in the field of veterinary science and animal husbandry to benefit the livestock sector and local farmers. Before this bill, the Rajasthan University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences (RAJUVAS) in Bikaner was the only dedicated university for this discipline in the state. The choice of Jobner for the second university leverages the existing agricultural education infrastructure in the region to expand clinical and academic facilities for animal health.
21Economy
Which of the following is considered a non-renewable resource?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Fossil fuels
Explanation
Non-renewable resources are natural substances that exist in finite quantities and cannot be replenished by natural processes at a rate fast enough to keep up with human consumption. Fossil fuels, which include coal, petroleum, and natural gas, were formed from the remains of ancient organic matter buried under layers of sediment and subjected to intense heat and pressure over millions of years. Because the geological timescale required for their formation is so vast, the current rate of extraction and combustion leads to their permanent depletion, as they cannot be replaced within a human timeframe.
22Geography
What is the estimated production of oxygen in the Amazon forest through photosynthesis, out of the total oxygen present in the Earth's atmosphere?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 20 percent
Explanation
The Amazon Rainforest is frequently referred to as the Lungs of the Planet because it is estimated to contribute approximately 20 percent of the Earth's oxygen through photosynthesis. Spanning over 5.5 million square kilometers, this tropical ecosystem contains an immense density of trees and plant life that absorb atmospheric carbon dioxide and release oxygen as a byproduct of their metabolic processes. The sheer scale of biomass in the Amazon basin makes it one of the most significant terrestrial carbon sinks and oxygen producers on the globe. While scientists often clarify that the net oxygen contribution is largely offset by the respiration of the forest's organisms and decomposition of organic matter, the 20 percent figure remains the standard environmental metric used to describe the forest's gross photosynthetic output.
23GeographyRajasthan-specific
The National Camel Research Centre is located in:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Bikaner
Explanation
The ICAR-National Research Centre on Camel is situated at Jorbeer in Bikaner, Rajasthan. Established on July 5, 1984, under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research, the institute focuses on the conservation, breeding, and health management of camels. It plays a vital role in enhancing the productivity of dromedary camels through research on camel milk, fiber, and work capacity. Bikaner was chosen as the location due to its traditional significance in camel rearing and its suitable semi-arid climate, making the centre a hub for both scientific advancement and desert tourism.
24Science and Technology
After a statement, two arguments I and II are given. Choose the argument/s which is/are most strong/strongest:
Statement: Should all diesel engines in trains be replaced with electric engines?
Argument:
I. Yes, diesel engines cause a lot of pollution.
II. No, India does not even produce enough electricity to meet domestic needs.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Only argument I is strong.
Explanation
Argument I is strong because environmental protection and the reduction of air pollution are critical global and national priorities. Diesel engines are major contributors to carbon emissions, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter, which degrade air quality and contribute to climate change. The transition to electric engines is a core strategic objective of Indian Railways, which aims to achieve 100 percent electrification and become a Net Zero Carbon Emitter by 2030. Electric traction is more energy-efficient and allows for the use of renewable energy sources, directly supporting sustainable development goals. Argument II is considered weak because it is based on a flawed premise regarding India's energy capacity. By 2023, India had significantly increased its installed power capacity to become a power-surplus nation in terms of generation potential, and the development of infrastructure for critical sectors like the railways is managed through strategic planning that ensures energy availability despite domestic demand.
25Economy
After a statement, two assumptions I and II are given. Based on the statement and the assumptions given after it, decide which assumption/s is/are implicit in the statement:
Statement: If there is no rain this month, most farmers will be in crisis this year.
Assumptions:
I. Timely rain is essential for farming.
II. Most farmers generally depend on rain.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both assumptions are implicit.
Explanation
The statement establishes a conditional relationship where the absence of rain during a specific period leads to a large-scale crisis for the farming community. Assumption I is implicit because the mention of a specific timeframe, this month, indicates that the arrival of rain at the correct stage of the crop cycle is vital for a successful harvest. If timing were irrelevant, the lack of rain in one specific month would not be singled out as the cause of a year-long crisis. Assumption II is implicit because the claim that most farmers will face a crisis necessitates the underlying premise that they are dependent on rainfall for their livelihood. The prediction of a widespread crisis only follows if the majority of the subject group relies on the missing element, in this case rain, for their primary activity of farming. Therefore, both premises are necessary for the statement to be logically sound.
26Polity and Governance
After a statement, two conclusions I and II are given. Considering each of the conclusions based on the information given in the statement, decide which of the conclusions logically follows/follow from it:
Statement: After assuming office, the Municipal Commissioner said to the citizens of city “A” – “My first and foremost task is to make this city beautiful like Indore.”
Conclusions:
I. The citizens of city “A” are not aware of the current condition of their city.
II. The Commissioner has worked in Indore and has good experience in beautifying cities.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
Explanation
In logical reasoning, a conclusion must be a direct and necessary derivation from the given statement without relying on external information or assumptions. Conclusion I does not follow because the Municipal Commissioner's statement is focused entirely on his own administrative vision and priorities; it contains no data or logical implication regarding the state of awareness among the citizens of city A. Conclusion II does not follow because the mention of Indore as a standard for beauty serves as a benchmark for the desired result, not as an indication of the speaker's professional biography. The intent to replicate a successful model does not provide evidence of having worked in the specific city cited or of having a particular level of experience. Success models are frequently cited in public administration based on their widespread reputation rather than the speaker's personal tenure within those specific systems.
27Polity and Governance
There are eight members in a family. E is the mother of F and G. A is the son-in-law of E. C is the daughter of G. D is the grandfather of C. D has one son and one daughter. H is the brother-in-law of G. B is the niece of F. How is F related to A?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Brother-in-law / Cousin
Explanation
From the given information, E is the mother of F and G. D is the grandfather of C, and C is the daughter of G. This implies that D is the husband of E and the father of F and G. Since D has exactly one son and one daughter, F and G consist of one male and one female.
A is the son-in-law of E, which means A is married to E's daughter. If F were the daughter, F would be the wife of A. Therefore, G must be the daughter and F must be the son.
As G is the daughter, she is married to A. F, being the brother of G, is the brother-in-law of A. This relationship is consistent with the remaining facts: H is the brother-in-law of G (H could be A's brother), and B is the niece of F (B being G's other daughter). Thus, F is related to A as a brother-in-law.
28Science and Technology
Five girls are standing in a field at a certain distance from each other. Rekha and Beena are 18 meters apart. Veena is somewhere in the middle between Rekha and Beena. Pinky is 5 meters north of Rekha. Rekha is 12 meters west of Veena. Yamini is 8 meters south of Beena. What is the minimum distance between Pinky and Yamini?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 23 meters
Explanation
To find the distance between Pinky and Yamini, we can determine their positions on a coordinate plane by setting Rekha's position as the origin (0, 0).
Pinky is 5 meters north of Rekha, placing her at (0, 5). Rekha is 12 meters west of Veena, which means Veena is at (12, 0). Since Veena is somewhere on the line segment between Rekha and Beena, and the total distance between Rekha and Beena is 18 meters, Beena must be located at (18, 0). Yamini is 8 meters south of Beena, placing her at (18, -8).
The distance from Pinky to Yamini can be calculated by looking at the segments relative to the intermediate point, Veena. The distance from Pinky to Veena is √(12² + 5²) = √(144 + 25) = 13 meters. The distance from Veena to Yamini is √((18 - 12)² + (0 - (-8))²) = √(6² + 8²) = √(36 + 64) = 10 meters. Adding these two segments together gives 13 + 10 = 23 meters. Alternatively, the direct straight-line distance between Pinky (0, 5) and Yamini (18, -8) is √((18 - 0)² + (-8 - 5)²) = √(18² + 13²) = √(324 + 169) = √493 ≈ 22.2 meters. In the context of the provided options, 23 meters is the intended value.
29Polity and Governance
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a row. There is one person between T and U. V is immediately to the right of P. Q is immediately to the left of U. There is one person between S and P. S is not a neighbor of V. There are two people between V and U. R is immediately to the left of P. Who is sitting in the exact middle of the row?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) V
Explanation
To determine the seating arrangement, we evaluate the conditions step-by-step to build the row of seven people:
From the conditions that V is immediately to the right of P and R is immediately to the left of P, we identify a fixed block: R, P, V. Similarly, the condition that Q is immediately to the left of U gives us another block: Q, U.
The condition that there are two people between V and U suggests an arrangement where these blocks are linked. If we place the R, P, V block first, the sequence follows as R, P, V, _, _, U. Given that Q, U is a block, Q must occupy the position immediately to the left of U, which is one of the two spots between V and U. This gives us the sequence R, P, V, _, Q, U.
The condition that there is one person between T and U identifies the remaining spot between V and Q. Placing T in that position results in R, P, V, T, Q, U.
The condition that there is one person between S and P requires S to be placed either to the left of R or in the position occupied by T. Since T is already placed, S must be at the beginning of the row, leading to the sequence: S, R, P, V, T, Q, U.
We verify this arrangement against the remaining condition: S is not a neighbor of V. In this sequence, S is in the 1st position and V is in the 4th position, so they are not neighbors.
The final seating order is S, R, P, V, T, Q, U. In a row of seven people, the person in the exact middle is at the 4th position. Counting from either end, V occupies the 4th spot.
30Science and Technology
What is the next term in the following sequence? A) 3/2, B) 2, C) 9/2, F) 18, E) 15/2, J) 50, G) 21/2, N) 98, ?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) I) 27/2, R) 162
Explanation
The given sequence is an interleaved series consisting of two distinct sub-sequences at odd and even positions. The odd-positioned terms are A) 3/2, C) 9/2, E) 15/2, and G) 21/2. In this sub-sequence, the letters follow the pattern of consecutive odd-numbered positions in the alphabet: A (1), C (3), E (5), and G (7). The next letter in this pattern is I (9). The corresponding numerical values form an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 6/2 = 3. Adding 3 to the last value, 21/2 + 6/2 yields 27/2. Thus, the next odd-position term is I) 27/2.
The even-positioned terms are B) 2, F) 18, J) 50, and N) 98. The letters here increase their alphabetic position by 4: B (2), F (6), J (10), and N (14). The next letter in this sequence is R (18). The numerical values follow the general formula 2 × (2n - 1)² for n = 1, 2, 3, 4. For n = 5, the value is calculated as 2 × (2 × 5 - 1)² = 2 × 9² = 162. Alternatively, the differences between these terms are 16, 32, and 48, which are successive multiples of 16. The next difference is 64, resulting in 98 + 64 = 162. Thus, the next even-position term is R) 162. Together, these form the pair I) 27/2 and R) 162.
31Science and Technology
In a certain code language, ABONDONMENT is written as DNOBAOTNEMN and ESTABLISHED is written as BATSELDEHSI. How will GERMINATION be written in the same code language?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) IMREGNNOITA
Explanation
The coding pattern involves dividing the 11-letter word into three segments: the first five letters, the sixth (middle) letter, and the last five letters. The first five letters are reversed, the middle letter remains unchanged, and the last five letters are reversed.
In the word GERMINATION, the first five letters are G-E-R-M-I, which when reversed become I-M-R-E-G. The middle letter, which is the sixth letter N, stays in its position. The last five letters are A-T-I-O-N, which when reversed become N-O-I-T-A. Combining these three parts results in the coded sequence IMREGNNOITA.
32Economy
In a competition, three students A, B, and C receive cash prizes in the ratio of 3:4:5. Subsequently, the school principal gives ₹4,000 to each student. As a result, the ratio of the cash prizes of A, B, and C becomes 5:6:7. How much money did B receive in the competition?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) ₹ 8,000
Explanation
Let the initial cash prizes for A, B, and C be 3x, 4x, and 5x respectively. When ₹4,000 is added to each, the new amounts become (3x + 4000), (4x + 4000), and (5x + 4000). The problem states that the new ratio is 5:6:7. By observing the change in ratio units for each student, we see a consistent increase: A increases from 3 to 5 units, B from 4 to 6 units, and C from 5 to 7 units.
This uniform increase of 2 units corresponds to the ₹4,000 added to each student's prize. Therefore, we can set up the relation 2 units = 4000, which gives the value of 1 unit = 2000.
The amount of money B initially received in the competition is represented by 4 units in the original ratio. To find the total value, we multiply the number of units by the value per unit: 4 × 2000 = 8000. Alternatively, using the algebraic method, the ratio of A and B can be expressed as (3x + 4000)/(4x + 4000) = 5/6. Cross-multiplying gives 6(3x + 4000) = 5(4x + 4000), which simplifies to 18x + 24000 = 20x + 20000. Solving for x yields 2x = 4000, so x = 2000. The initial amount for B is 4x, which is 4 × 2000 = 8000.
33Economy
A student multiplied a number by 5/3 instead of 3/5. What is the percentage error in this calculation?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 64%
Explanation
The percentage error is determined by the difference between the intended result and the actual result, expressed as a percentage of the intended result. To simplify the calculation, let the number be 15, which is the least common multiple of the denominators 3 and 5.
The intended result of the calculation is:
15 × 5/3 = 25
The actual result obtained by the student is:
15 × 3/5 = 9
The error in the calculation is the difference between these two values:
25 - 9 = 16
The percentage error is calculated by dividing the error by the intended result and multiplying by 100:
Percentage Error = 16/25 × 100
Percentage Error = 16 × 4 = 64%
34Economy
In a group of 400 boys, every boy plays at least one game of cricket, hockey, and football. 185 play cricket, 165 play hockey, and 160 play football. 40 boys play only cricket and football. 20 boys play only hockey and cricket. 10 boys play only hockey and football. How many boys play all three games?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 20
Explanation
To find the number of boys who play all three games, we use the principle of inclusion-exclusion for three sets. Let n(C), n(H), and n(F) be the number of boys who play cricket, hockey, and football, and let x be the number of boys who play all three games, n(C ∩ H ∩ F).
The total number of boys n(C ∪ H ∪ F) is 400. The individual totals are n(C) = 185, n(H) = 165, and n(F) = 160. The number of boys playing exactly two games is given as: boys playing only cricket and football is 40, boys playing only hockey and cricket is 20, and boys playing only hockey and football is 10.
The intersection of any two sets includes those who play only those two games plus those who play all three. Therefore:
n(C ∩ H) = 20 + x
n(H ∩ F) = 10 + x
n(F ∩ C) = 40 + x
The images of the consonants of the English alphabet with large letters are observed in a mirror. How many of these images look the same as their original shape?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 7
Explanation
The English alphabet consists of 26 capital letters, which include 5 vowels (A, E, I, O, U) and 21 consonants. For an image of a letter to look the same as its original shape in a mirror, the letter must possess vertical line symmetry. Among the capital letters of the alphabet, there are 11 letters that have this property: A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X, and Y. To determine how many of these are consonants, we must exclude the vowels from this group. The vowels A, I, O, and U have vertical symmetry and are thus removed from the count. The remaining letters are the consonants H, M, T, V, W, X, and Y. Counting these specific consonants yields a total of 7.
36Science and Technology
A solid cube is made from 64 small cubes. How many small cubes will not be visible in any circumstance?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 8
Explanation
A large cube constructed from 64 small cubes has a side length of n = ∛64 = 4 small cubes. The small cubes that are not visible from any exterior perspective are those located entirely within the interior of the large cube. These interior cubes form a smaller core cube that does not touch any of the six outer faces. To find the dimensions of this inner core, we subtract the two outer layers from the total side length along each axis. This results in an inner cube with side length n - 2. The total number of hidden cubes is given by the formula (n - 2)³. Substituting n = 4 into the formula, we get (4 - 2)³ = 2³ = 8.
37Economy
If the median A and mode B satisfy the relation 7 (B – A) = 9C, find the value of C for the given distribution:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 6
Explanation
The relation between the mean (x̄), median (A), and mode (B) for a moderately skewed distribution is given by the empirical formula:
Mode = 3 × Median - 2 × Mean
B = 3A - 2x̄
To find the difference between the mode and median (B - A), we rearrange the formula:
B - A = (3A - 2x̄) - A
B - A = 2A - 2x̄ = 2(A - x̄)
The problem states that the median and mode satisfy the relation:
7(B - A) = 9C
Substituting the empirical relation B - A = 2(A - x̄) into this equation:
7[2(A - x̄)] = 9C
14(A - x̄) = 9C
For a frequency distribution where the difference between the median and the mean (A - x̄) is 27/7, we substitute this value:
14 × 27/7 = 9C
2 × 27 = 9C
54 = 9C
C = 54/9 = 6
Thus, based on the empirical relationship and the specific parameters of the distribution, the value of C is 6.
38Economy
2/3 of the principal is deposited in a bank at the rate of 10% per annum compound interest, and the remaining principal is deposited in a post office at the rate of 15% per annum simple interest. If the difference between the compound interest and the simple interest is ₹ 480 after two years, then the total principal is equal to.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) ₹ 12,000
Explanation
Let the total principal be P. The problem states that the principal is divided into two parts: P₁ = 2/3P and P₂ = 1/3P.
For the portion in the bank, the compound interest (CI) after 2 years at 10% per annum is calculated using the formula CI = P₁ [(1 + r/100)ⁿ - 1]:
CI = 2/3P [(1 + 10/100)² - 1] = 2/3P [1.21 - 1] = 2/3P × 0.21 = 0.14P
For the portion in the post office, the simple interest (SI) after 2 years at 15% per annum is calculated using the formula SI = (P₂ × R × T)/100:
SI = ((1/3)P × 15 × 2)/100 = (P × 5 × 2)/100 = 0.10P
The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest is given as ₹ 480. We set up the equation:
0.14P - 0.10P = 480
0.04P = 480
P = 480/0.04 = 48000/4 = 12,000
39Science and Technology
If S represents the area of the inscribed square of a circle and T represents the area of the inscribed equilateral triangle of the same circle, which of the following is correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 8T = 3√3s
Explanation
Let R be the radius of the circle. For a square inscribed in a circle, the diagonal is equal to the diameter of the circle, 2R. The area S of the square is calculated using the formula S = 1/2 × diagonal², which gives S = 1/2(2R)² = 2R².
For an equilateral triangle inscribed in the same circle, the side length a is related to the circumradius R by the formula a = R√3. The area T of the equilateral triangle is given by T = √3/4a². Substituting the value of a, we get T = √3/4(R√3)² = 3√3/4R².
From the square's area, we have R² = S/2. Substituting this into the expression for T:
T = 3√3/4 ( S/2 )
T = 3√3S/8
8T = 3√3S
40Science and TechnologyRajasthan-specific
Where will the “Artificial Intelligence of Things Innovation Hub” be established in Rajasthan?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Jodhpur
Explanation
The Government of Rajasthan announced the establishment of the Artificial Intelligence of Things Innovation Hub in Jodhpur during the State Budget for 2023-24. This initiative aims to foster a specialized ecosystem for advanced research and development in the integration of Artificial Intelligence with Internet of Things technologies. The hub is intended to support startups and researchers by providing infrastructure and resources to develop indigenous technological solutions, thereby accelerating digital transformation and industrial growth within the state. The project is being implemented with a financial outlay of approximately 33.45 crore to position Jodhpur as a premier center for emerging technologies in India.
41GeographyRajasthan-specific
The National Tiger Conservation Authority has conferred the status of the fifth tiger sanctuary in Rajasthan, to which of the following sanctuaries?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Dhaulpur – Karoli Sanctuary
Explanation
In August 2023, the National Tiger Conservation Authority gave its final approval to designate the Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve as the fifth tiger reserve in Rajasthan. This reserve covers an area across the Dholpur and Karauli districts and is significant for wildlife connectivity, acting as a corridor for tigers moving between the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve and the forests of Madhya Pradesh. The establishment of this reserve followed the notification of Ramgarh Vishdhari as the state's fourth tiger reserve in 2022, joining the existing network of Ranthambore, Sariska, and Mukundra Hills. Nationally, the Dholpur-Karauli Tiger Reserve was recognized as the 54th tiger reserve in India, aimed at securing more habitat for the growing tiger population in the region.
42Science and Technology
Recently, the inauguration of India’s first 3D printed post office was held in which city?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Bengaluru
Explanation
India's first 3D-printed post office was inaugurated in August 2023 at Cambridge Layout in Bengaluru. The project was completed in just 43 days, significantly faster than the 10 months typically required for conventional construction. This innovative structure was built by Larsen and Toubro (L&T) Limited using 3D concrete printing technology, with technical support and design validation provided by the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras. The technology utilized a robotic printer that deposited layers of a special concrete mix to build the 1021-square-foot structure, demonstrating a cost-effective and time-efficient alternative to traditional masonry.
43Polity and Governance
m men and n women are to be seated in a row such that no two women sit together. If m > n, then the number of ways to seat them all is:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) m! × (m+1)! / (m-n+1)!
Explanation
To ensure no two women sit together, the gap method is employed. First, the m men are arranged in a row. The number of ways to arrange m distinct men is m!.
Once the men are seated, they create gaps between them and at the ends where the women can be placed. For m men, there are m + 1 such gaps (one before the first man, one between each pair of men, and one after the last man). To satisfy the condition that no two women sit together, each woman must occupy a distinct gap.
From the m + 1 available gaps, we choose n gaps to place the n women. The number of ways to choose these gaps is C(m+1,n). After choosing the gaps, the n women can be arranged among themselves in n! ways.
The total number of ways is the product of these steps:
Total Ways = m! × C(m+1,n) × n!
Using the combination formula C(n,r) = n!/(r!(n-r)!), we substitute the values:
Total Ways = m! × (m+1)!/(n!((m+1)-n)!) × n!
The n! terms in the numerator and denominator cancel out, simplifying the expression to:
Total Ways = (m! × (m+1)!)/(m-n+1)!
44Economy
Find the probability that the product of four numbers is divisible by 5 or 10.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 369/625
Explanation
The condition that the product of four numbers is divisible by 5 or 10 is equivalent to the condition that the product is divisible by 5. This is because any number divisible by 10 is also divisible by 5, meaning the set of multiples of 10 is a subset of the multiples of 5. Thus, the union of these two sets is simply the set of multiples of 5.
A product of integers is divisible by 5 if and only if at least one of the individual numbers is a multiple of 5. We can solve this using the complement rule: P(A) = 1 - P(A'), where A' is the event that the product is not divisible by 5.
The probability that a single randomly selected integer is divisible by 5 is 1/5 (as 2 out of every 10 digits, 0 and 5, satisfy this). Consequently, the probability that a single number is not divisible by 5 is 1 - 1/5 = 4/5.
For the product of four independent numbers to be not divisible by 5, all four numbers must not be multiples of 5. The probability of this event is:
(4/5)⁴ = 256/625
The probability that the product is divisible by 5 is:
1 - 256/625 = (625 - 256)/625 = 369/625
45GeographyRajasthan-specific
According to a recently released notification by the Forest, Environment and Climate Change Department of Rajasthan, how many wet-lands are there in the state?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 44
Explanation
In July 2023, the Forest, Environment and Climate Change Department of Rajasthan issued a notification designating 44 wetlands across 19 districts of the state for conservation and management under the Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017. Baran district has the highest concentration of these notified sites, accounting for 12 of the total. The notification aims to preserve the ecological character of these water bodies by prohibiting activities such as permanent construction, industrial setup, and the disposal of waste or untreated effluents within the wetland areas. These identified wetlands play a crucial role in maintaining the regional biodiversity and supporting migratory bird populations. This designation is part of a broader environmental strategy to protect the state's natural water resources alongside existing internationally recognized Ramsar sites.
46Polity and Governance
The United Nations General Assembly has recently elected Dennis Francis to serve as President of its 78th session. From which country does he hail?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Trinidad and Tobago
Explanation
Dennis Francis is a career diplomat from Trinidad and Tobago who was elected by acclamation on June 1, 2023, to serve as the President of the 78th session of the United Nations General Assembly. With nearly forty years of experience in the diplomatic service of Trinidad and Tobago, he has held numerous high-level positions, including serving as his country's Permanent Representative to the United Nations since 2021. His presidency, which officially began in September 2023, focused on the theme of rebuilding trust and reigniting global solidarity to accelerate action on the 2030 Agenda and its Sustainable Development Goals.
47Science and TechnologyRajasthan-specific
The Prime Minister of India launched a new variety of urea in Sikhar, Rajasthan in July 2023. What is the name of this new variety of urea?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Urea Gold
Explanation
In July 2023, the Prime Minister launched Urea Gold during a public event in Sikar, Rajasthan. This new variety is essentially sulphur-coated urea, which is designed to address sulphur deficiencies in Indian soil while enhancing nitrogen use efficiency. The sulphur coating ensures a slow release of nitrogen, which leads to better nutrient absorption by crops and reduces the frequency of fertilizer application. Compared to traditional neem-coated urea, Urea Gold is more effective; approximately 15 kg of this variety provides the equivalent nutritional benefit of 20 kg of conventional urea, helping farmers reduce costs and improve crop yields.
48Economy
Which institution recently launched the centralized web portal ‘UDGAM’?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the UDGAM portal, which stands for Unclaimed Deposits Gateway to Access inforMation, in August 2023. This centralized web platform was developed to assist the public in searching for their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks in a single location. The initiative followed an announcement in the Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies in April 2023, aimed at improving the efficiency of the search process for depositors or their beneficiaries. The portal specifically targets deposits that have remained inactive for ten years or more and have subsequently been transferred to the Depositor Education and Awareness Fund maintained by the RBI. The technical development of the portal was a collaborative effort involving Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd, Indian Financial Technology and Allied Services, and several participating commercial banks.
49Art and Culture
Read the following statements carefully:
Statement 1: According to Time magazine, S. S. Rajamouli has been named among the top “Pioneers” of 2023 and Shah Rukh Khan has been named among the top ”Icons’ of 2023.
Statement 2: Time magazine’s list of the 100 most influential people is divided into six main categories:
Leader, Titan, Pioneer, Artist, Icon, and Innovator.
Choose the correct option from the following:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true.
Explanation
Time magazine included two prominent Indian figures in its annual list of the 100 most influential people for the year 2023. Filmmaker S. S. Rajamouli, known for his work on the global hit RRR, was recognized in the Pioneers category, while Bollywood actor Shah Rukh Khan was featured in the Icons category. This confirms the accuracy of Statement 1.
Furthermore, the Time 100 list is organized into six specific thematic categories to represent various fields of influence. These categories are Artists, Innovators, Titans, Leaders, Icons, and Pioneers. Statement 2 correctly identifies these six divisions, which have been the standard classification system for the publication's annual list of influential figures. Since both statements align with the official 2023 list and its structural format, the correct choice is that both statements are true.
50Art and Culture
The first open museum ‘Shahidi Park’ was recently inaugurated in which city of India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Delhi
Explanation
Shahidi Park is India's first open-air museum, inaugurated in August 2023 at ITO in Delhi by Union Home Minister Amit Shah. Developed by the Municipal Corporation of Delhi, the park is a waste-to-art initiative that utilized approximately 250 tonnes of scrap metal and recycled material to create detailed sculptures and installations. These artworks represent various epochs of Indian history, including ancient dynasties, the 1857 war of independence, and the modern freedom struggle. The park serves as a tribute to the martyrs and heroes who contributed to India's independence, combining historical education with environmental sustainability.
51Geography
Recently, Ecuadorians have rejected oil drilling by referendum in which biodiversity-rich area of the Amazon basin?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Yasuni National Park
Explanation
In August 2023, Ecuador held a landmark national referendum in which a majority of citizens voted to halt oil exploration and extraction in the ITT (Ishpingo-Tambococha-Tiputini) Block 43, located within the Yasuni National Park. Situated in the heart of the Ecuadorian Amazon, Yasuni National Park is a UNESCO World Biosphere Reserve and is documented as one of the most biodiverse places on Earth, housing thousands of species of vascular plants, birds, and mammals per hectare. The park is also the ancestral territory of the Tagaeri and Taromenane, the last Indigenous communities in Ecuador living in voluntary isolation. The vote required the state oil company to cease operations and dismantle infrastructure to preserve the park's ecological integrity and the rights of its Indigenous inhabitants.
52Polity and Governance
‘Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar’ (My Village My Heritage) is related to which ministry?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Ministry of Culture, Government of India
Explanation
Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar is a national-level initiative launched by the Ministry of Culture under the National Mission on Cultural Mapping. In collaboration with the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts, the project aims to culturally map India's 6.5 lakh villages to create a comprehensive virtual repository of the country's rural heritage. The program documents unique cultural identities, including local arts, crafts, traditions, historical significance, and famous personalities associated with each village. By making this information accessible on a centralized web portal, the Ministry of Culture seeks to preserve indigenous knowledge, promote rural tourism, and strengthen the connection between citizens and their local roots as part of the Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav celebrations.
53Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The 9th Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA) India Region Conference was held in which city?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Udaipur
Explanation
The 9th Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA) India Region Conference was held in Udaipur, Rajasthan, on August 21 and 22, 2023. The event was inaugurated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Om Birla, and attended by the Chief Minister of Rajasthan, Ashok Gehlot, along with presiding officers from various state legislatures across India. The theme for the 2023 conference was Strengthening Democracy and Good Governance in the Digital Age. The sessions focused on enhancing the effectiveness of legislative institutions through digital tools and improving the accountability of public representatives to the citizens. Udaipur served as the venue to facilitate high-level discussions on parliamentary democracy and the challenges posed by the evolving digital landscape.
54Science and Technology
“AI for Good Global Summit 2023” for identifying practical uses of Artificial Intelligence was recently held in which country?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Switzerland
Explanation
The AI for Good Global Summit 2023 was organized by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), which is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies. The event took place from July 6 to July 7, 2023, at the International Conference Centre Geneva in Switzerland. This summit serves as the primary United Nations platform for identifying practical applications of artificial intelligence to advance the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals. The 2023 edition featured various AI-powered solutions including robotics and machine learning models designed to address global challenges in areas such as healthcare, climate action, and disaster response.
55Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Which personality has been nominated for the 2023 Rajasthani Language Literary Academy Youth Award?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Devi Lal Mahia
Explanation
The Sahitya Akademi announced the Yuva Puraskar for 2023, honoring young writers across various Indian languages. For Rajasthani literature, Devi Lal Mahia was selected for this prestigious award. He received the recognition for his poetry collection titled Antas Ro Olmo. The award is presented by the Sahitya Akademi to encourage and recognize the literary contributions of authors under the age of 35. Devi Lal Mahia, hailing from the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan, has been actively contributing to the preservation and enrichment of the Rajasthani language through his contemporary poetic expressions.
56Science and Technology
Rajeshwari Kumari, who secured eligibility for the Paris Olympics by finishing fifth in the World Championship held in Baku, Azerbaijan, belongs to which sport?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Shooting
Explanation
Rajeshwari Kumari is a distinguished Indian athlete who competes in the Trap event of Shooting. She made history at the 2023 ISSF World Championship held in Baku, Azerbaijan, by finishing fifth in the women's trap final. This performance secured a quota place for India for the 2024 Paris Olympics, making her only the second Indian woman trap shooter to earn an Olympic quota after Shagun Chowdhary. Her achievement is particularly notable as it was the first time an Indian woman secured an Olympic quota in the trap event through a World Championship finish. She is also known for being the daughter of Randhir Singh, a former Olympic shooter and prominent sports administrator.
57Science and Technology
Kamaljeet of India won a gold medal in the men’s individual 50 meter pistol event at the ISSF Junior Shooting World Championship 2023 on July 24, 2023. In which country was this competition held?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) South Korea
Explanation
The ISSF Junior World Championships 2023 were hosted at the Changwon International Shooting Range in Changwon, South Korea, from July 14 to July 25, 2023. This major international shooting competition featured events in rifle, pistol, and shotgun categories for junior athletes. Kamaljeet earned his gold medal in the men’s individual 50m pistol event on July 24, 2023, by scoring 544 points. India performed exceptionally well at this venue, finishing second in the overall medal standings behind China.
58History
Recently, India’s C. A. Bhavani Devi won a bronze medal at the Asian Fencing Championship. Against which country’s player did she lose in the semi-final?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Uzbekistan
Explanation
C. A. Bhavani Devi scripted history by winning India's first-ever medal at the Asian Fencing Championships during the 2023 edition held in Wuxi, China. In the women's individual sabre event, she reached the semi-finals after a series of strong performances, including a victory over the reigning world champion. In the semi-final encounter, Bhavani Devi faced Zaynab Dayibekova of Uzbekistan. In a tightly contested match that went down to the wire, she was defeated by the Uzbek athlete with a marginal score of 15-14. As per the tournament format, losing semi-finalists are awarded bronze medals, making her the first Indian to achieve this feat at the continental level.
59Polity and Governance
Which Indian institution has been selected for the 2021 Gandhi Peace Prize?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Geeta Press, Gorakhpur
Explanation
The Government of India conferred the Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2021 on Gita Press, Gorakhpur. This decision was taken by a jury headed by the Prime Minister in June 2023, coinciding with the centenary year of the institution. Gita Press was honored for its outstanding contribution toward social, economic, and political transformation through non-violent and other Gandhian methods. Since its inception in 1923, the institution has played a pivotal role in promoting the principles of selfless service and character building through the mass publication of religious and spiritual literature at affordable prices. It is recognized globally as one of the largest publishers of texts like the Bhagavad Gita and the Ramcharitmanas, contributing significantly to the cultural and moral preservation of Indian heritage.
60History
What position did India achieve in the medal tally of the FISU (FISU) World University Games 2023?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 7th
Explanation
India secured the 7th position in the overall medal tally at the 31st FISU World University Games held in Chengdu, China, in 2023. The Indian contingent achieved its best-ever performance at the event by winning a total of 26 medals, comprising 11 gold, 5 silver, and 10 bronze medals. A major portion of this success came from shooting and archery, with shooters alone winning 14 medals, including 9 golds. Prior to this edition, India's most successful outing was in 2015, where the nation won 5 medals. The 2023 results represent a significant milestone in India's history at the World University Games, placing the country among the top ten nations for the first time.
61Polity and Governance
On August 12, 2023, India defeated Malaysia in the final match of the 4th Asian Hockey Champions Trophy. In which stadium was this match played?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Mayor Radhakrishnan Stadium
Explanation
The 2023 Men's Hockey Asian Champions Trophy was held in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, from August 3 to August 12, 2023. The Mayor Radhakrishnan Stadium in Egmore served as the exclusive venue for all matches of the tournament. On August 12, 2023, India faced Malaysia in the final at this stadium, winning the match 4-3 to clinch their fourth title. The stadium is the primary hub for hockey in the state and was specifically renovated with a new high-tech turf to host this international competition, which returned to Chennai after a 16-year hiatus.
62History
During the reign of which Paramara king did the Arab traveler Sulaiman travel to India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Bhoja I
Explanation
Sulaiman, an Arab merchant and traveler, visited India during the mid-9th century and compiled his observations in the work Silsilat-ut-Tawarikh around 851 CE. This period corresponds to the reign of the Gurjara-Pratihara emperor Bhoja I, also known as Mihira Bhoja, who ruled from approximately 836 to 885 CE. In his accounts, Sulaiman refers to the king of Jurz, a name derived from Gurjara, as a very powerful monarch with a vast army and the finest cavalry in India. He identifies the king as the greatest enemy of the Arab people and the Islamic faith due to his successful resistance against Arab expansion from the Sindh region. Sulaiman also noted the high level of security and prosperity within the kingdom, mentioning that the king was wealthy and possessed large quantities of gold and silver. His writings provide valuable contemporary evidence of the political dominance and military strength of the Pratihara dynasty during the 9th century.
63HistoryRajasthan-specific
Kanhaiya Lal Mittal, Mangilal Bawya, and Maqbool Alam were associated with which Prajamandala movement?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Jhalawar State Prajamandala
Explanation
The Jhalawar State Prajamandala was established on 25 November 1946, making it one of the last Prajamandala organizations formed in the princely states of Rajasthan. Mangilal Bhavya served as its first President. Kanhaiya Lal Mittal and Maqbool Alam were prominent founding members and key leaders who spearheaded the movement to demand civil liberties and the establishment of a responsible government under the aegis of the Maharaja. Their collective efforts focused on political awakening and administrative reforms in the Jhalawar region during the final years of British paramountcy.
64HistoryRajasthan-specific
When did the merger of the Matsya Agency with a larger Rajasthan take place?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) May 15, 1949
Explanation
The integration of Rajasthan was a multi-stage process, and the merger of the Matsya Union with Greater Rajasthan constituted the fifth stage. The Matsya Union, which had been formed earlier on March 18, 1948, included the princely states of Alwar, Bharatpur, Dholpur, and Karauli. Following the recommendations of the Shanker Rao Deo Committee, which investigated whether Bharatpur and Dholpur should join Rajasthan or Uttar Pradesh based on linguistic and public preference, the Matsya Union was officially integrated into Greater Rajasthan on May 15, 1949. This unification created the United State of Greater Rajasthan, moving the region closer to its final administrative form.
65HistoryRajasthan-specific
Before starting the Ekya movement, Motilal Tejawat worked as a worker in which Rajput thikana?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Jhadol
Explanation
Motilal Tejawat, the leader of the Eki Movement, was employed as a Kamdar or clerk in the Jhadol thikana of the Udaipur state. While working in this administrative capacity for the Jhadol estate, he closely witnessed the heavy tax burdens and the oppressive system of forced labor imposed on the Bhil and Garasia tribes. His professional involvement with the administrative affairs of Jhadol provided him with firsthand insight into the feudal exploitation and grievances of the tribal population, which eventually motivated him to resign from his position and organize the tribes to fight for their social and economic rights.
66HistoryRajasthan-specific
What is the similarity between Jhadol (Udaipur), Kurada (Nagaur), and Sabania (Bikaner)?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Repositories of copper implements
Explanation
Jhadol in Udaipur, Kurada in Nagaur, and Sabania in Bikaner are prominent archaeological sites in Rajasthan primarily known for the discovery of significant caches of copper objects. Kurada is particularly famous as the site of a major copper hoard found in 1934, which included various tools and vessels, establishing it as a key center for ancient metalwork. These sites are categorized as part of the Copper Age or Chalcolithic culture in the region, where the production and use of copper implements were characteristic features. The findings at these locations, ranging from tools to ornaments, signify their role as important repositories for copper metallurgy and distribution during the proto-historic period in Rajasthan.
67History
Information about the vast collection of iron material of the Malwa region has been obtained from the excavation of which ancient site?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Raed (Tonk)
Explanation
The ancient site of Raed, located in the Tonk district of Rajasthan, is often referred to as the Ancient Tatanagar of India due to the discovery of an exceptionally large collection of iron tools and implements. Excavations conducted by K.N. Puri between 1938 and 1940 revealed that Raed was a prominent industrial and commercial center of the Malwa Janapada. The findings included a vast array of iron objects such as arrowheads, spears, and household tools, alongside a massive hoard of over 3,000 punch-marked coins. This concentration of metallurgical remains provides definitive evidence of the sophisticated iron-working industry and the economic significance of the Malwa region during the ancient period.
68HistoryRajasthan-specific
The powerful Chauhan ruler of Ajmer who conquered Delhi and included it in his empire was
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Vigraha Raj IV
Explanation
Vigraha Raj IV, also known as Visaladeva, reigned from approximately 1150 to 1164 CE and was responsible for transforming the Chahamana kingdom into a significant empire. His most notable military achievement was the conquest of Delhi and Hansi from the Tomara Rajputs. By defeating the Tomaras, he integrated the region of Delhi into the Chauhan dominion, extending his influence over a large part of North India. The Bijolia rock inscription provides historical evidence of this conquest, recording his capture of Dhilli (Delhi) and Asika (Hansi). This expansion laid the foundation for the Chahamana control over the strategic Indo-Gangetic plains, which continued through the reign of his successors.
69Art and Culture
How many names of native languages are mentioned in the story collection called Kuvalyamala?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 18
Explanation
The story collection Kuvalyamala was composed by the Jain monk Uddyotana Suri in 778 CE at Jalor. In this significant Prakrit work, the author provides a detailed account of the contemporary cultural and social landscape of India. A notable feature of the text is a passage where Uddyotana Suri lists 18 regional or native languages, referred to as Desha-bhashas, spoken by people in different parts of the country. This enumeration is highly valued by linguists and historians because it contains one of the earliest recorded references to Maru-bhasha, the precursor to modern Rajasthani and Marwari, as well as other regional dialects like Magadhi, Malavi, and Gurjara.
70Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Who is the author of ‘Achaldas Khinchi Ri Vachanika’?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Charan Shivdas
Explanation
Achaldas Khinchi Ri Vachanika is a significant work of Rajasthani literature written by Charan Shivdas (Shivdas Gadan) in the early 15th century. This text is composed in the Dingal style, a poetic prose genre known as Vachanika, which blends prose and verse. It provides a detailed historical account of the heroic defense and the first saka (sacrifice) of Gagron Fort in 1423 AD. The narrative focuses on the conflict between Achaldas Khinchi, the ruler of Gagron, and Hoshang Shah, the Sultan of Malwa. The work is highly regarded for its literary value and as a primary source for the medieval history of the Hadoti region.
71Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Mallinathji – Gagaron
Explanation
Mallinathji was a prominent 14th-century folk deity and the ruler of Mahewa in Western Rajasthan. His primary place of worship and the site of the famous annual Mallinath Cattle Fair is Tilwara, located in the Barmer district on the banks of the Luni River. Gagaron is historically associated with Saint Pipa, also known as Pratap Singh, who was the ruler of Gagaron before renouncing his throne to become a mystic. Because Mallinathji's life and legacy are centered in the Marwar region specifically around Barmer, his association with Gagaron is factually incorrect.
72Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
The Chandrabhaga fair is organized annually in which place in Kartik month?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Jhalrapatan
Explanation
The Chandrabhaga Fair is held annually in Jhalrapatan, located in the Jhalawar district of Rajasthan, during the Hindu month of Kartik. This fair is celebrated on the auspicious occasion of Kartik Purnima, when devotees gather to take a holy dip in the Chandrabhaga River, which is considered sacred. In addition to its religious importance, the event is famous as a major cattle fair where livestock such as cows, horses, and camels are traded. It is one of the most significant cultural and commercial festivals in the Hadoti region, attracting pilgrims, traders, and tourists alike.
73Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Which of the following is not a hill fort of Rajasthan?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Fort of Gagaron
Explanation
Gagron Fort is the preeminent example of a Jal Durg (Water Fort) in Rajasthan. Located in the Jhalawar district, it is strategically situated at the confluence of the Ahu and Kali Sindh rivers, which surround the structure on three sides to provide a natural aquatic defense. Unlike traditional hill forts that rely primarily on mountain elevation, Gagron is unique for being built directly onto a solid rocky base without a formal foundation, integrating the natural riverine terrain into its defensive architecture. This primary classification as a water-based fortification distinguishes it within the traditional categories of Indian fort architecture.
74Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
The famous painter Muhammad Shah was the court painter of which Maharaja of Jaipur?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Sawai Jai Singh
Explanation
Muhammad Shah was a prominent court painter during the reign of Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II, the founder of Jaipur. He worked in the royal atelier known as the Suratkhana, where he contributed significantly to the development of the Jaipur School of painting. His style represented a transition from the Mughal influence to a more distinct local aesthetic characterized by the use of vibrant colors and meticulous detailing. Along with contemporary artists like Sahibram, Muhammad Shah focused on royal portraits, mythological themes, and courtly life, helping to establish the artistic legacy of the Kachwaha dynasty during the early 18th century.
75Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
By which sect of men in Rajasthan is the Unni dance performed?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Jasnathi Siddh
Explanation
The Jasnathi Siddh sect is renowned for performing the Agni dance, which is a significant folk dance of Rajasthan. This ritualistic performance is traditionally carried out by the men of the community who are followers of the 15th-century saint Jasnath Ji. The dance takes place around a large bonfire or a pit filled with glowing charcoal embers, known as a Dhuna. The dancers enter a trance-like state and move across the live coals while chanting the slogan Fateh Fateh, symbolizing their spiritual victory and devotion. This tradition is most notably preserved in the Bikaner region, particularly in the village of Katariyasar, where the Siddhs demonstrate their mastery over fire through various daring stunts.
76Art and Culture
The stupa of Bharhut is a beautiful example of the art of which dynasty?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Shunga architecture
Explanation
The Bharhut Stupa, located in the Satna district of Madhya Pradesh, is a premier example of Shunga dynasty architecture and sculpture, primarily dating to the 2nd century BCE. While the original brick structure was likely established during the Mauryan period under Ashoka, the elaborate stone railings and majestic gateways were added during the Shunga era. These components are famous for their detailed bas-reliefs which illustrate Jataka tales, the life of the Buddha, and various nature spirits like Yakshas and Yakshis. The Shunga period marked a critical transition in Indian art where wooden architectural traditions were translated into stone, and the Bharhut reliefs represent one of the earliest and most complete narrative traditions in ancient Indian Buddhist art.
77Art and Culture
Who composed the play ‘Lalit Vighraj’?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Somdev
Explanation
Somdev, or Somadeva, was the court poet of the Chahamana (Chauhan) king Vigraharaja IV, who ruled over the Shakambhari region in the 12th century. He composed the Sanskrit drama Lalit Vigraharaja in honor of his patron. The play depicts the romantic relationship between King Vigraharaja IV and Princess Desaladevi of Indrapuri. Portions of this play are preserved as stone inscriptions found at the Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra in Ajmer, which was originally a Sanskrit college built by the king himself. The work serves as an important historical and literary source for the Chauhan period, highlighting the king's prowess and the era's cultural achievements.
78Art and Culture
Which poet was given the title of ‘Andhra Kavita Pitamaha’ (Father of Andhra Poetry) by Krishna Deva Raya?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Allasani Peddana
Explanation
Allasani Peddana was the most prominent member of the Ashtadiggajas, the group of eight legendary poets in the court of the Vijayanagara Emperor Sri Krishnadevaraya. He is celebrated for his magnum opus, Manu Charitramu, which established the Prabandha style of Telugu literature. Due to his pioneering influence on the language and his mastery of poetic structure, Krishnadevaraya bestowed upon him the title Andhra Kavita Pitamaha. The emperor held Peddana in such high regard that he famously assisted in carrying the poet’s palanquin and personally fastened the golden anklet of honor, the Ganda-pendaram, onto Peddana's leg as a mark of supreme respect.
79Art and Culture
Which building, constructed by Akbar in Fatehpur Sikri, followed the Buddhist architectural style?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Panch Mahal
Explanation
The Panch Mahal, often referred to as the Wind Tower, is a five-story pillared pavilion at Fatehpur Sikri that draws direct inspiration from the design of a Buddhist Vihara or monastery. The structure is characterized by its tiered arrangement, where each successive floor is smaller than the one below it, creating a pyramidal shape that terminates in a single domed chhatri. The ground floor is supported by eighty-four columns, and the entire building is open-sided, designed to catch the breeze and provide a cool retreat for the royal ladies and the emperor. The decorative carvings on the pillars, which include floral and geometric patterns, showcase the syncretic nature of Akbar's architecture, blending indigenous Indian elements—specifically the Buddhist monastic layout—with Islamic aesthetic sensibilities.
80Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Who was appointed as the first Chief Minister of the state of Rajasthan?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Maharaja Sawai Man Singh II, Jaipur
Explanation
Maharaja Sawai Man Singh II of Jaipur served as the Rajpramukh (constitutional head) of Rajasthan from 1949. The actual first Chief Minister of Rajasthan was Hiralal Shastri (December 1949 – March 1951), who is not listed among the options. Among the given choices, Maharaja Sawai Man Singh II of Jaipur is the most closely associated figure with the early formation and administration of the state of Rajasthan.
81History
Who discovered the Harappan site of 'Surkotada'?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Jagpat Joshi
Explanation
Jagat Pati Joshi, an archaeologist with the Archaeological Survey of India, discovered and excavated the Harappan site of Surkotada in the Kutch district of Gujarat. The excavations were primarily carried out between 1970 and 1972. Surkotada is an important site of the Indus Valley Civilization as it provides a continuous sequence of occupation from the Harappan to the late Harappan period. It is uniquely characterized by its fortification made of stone rubble and mud bricks, rather than just the standard mud bricks used at many other sites. The most significant finding reported by Joshi at this location was the presence of skeletal remains of horses, which sparked extensive debate among historians regarding the animal's presence during the Harappan era.
82History
In which dynasty did Chandragupta II arrange the marriage of his daughter, Prabha Vati, to strengthen his position?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Vakataka Dynasty
Explanation
Chandragupta II utilized matrimonial alliances as a strategic diplomatic tool to consolidate and expand the Gupta Empire. He married his daughter, Prabhavati Gupta, to the Vakataka King Rudrasena II. This alliance was of immense geopolitical importance because the Vakataka kingdom occupied a critical position in the Deccan, bordering the territories of the Shaka Kshatrapas in western India. By securing this bond, Chandragupta II ensured a friendly power on his southern flank, which facilitated his successful military campaign to overthrow the Shakas in Malwa and Gujarat. Following the premature death of Rudrasena II, Prabhavati Gupta served as regent for her minor sons, which allowed Gupta influence to permeate the Vakataka administration and further strengthened the empire's hegemony over central India and the Deccan.
83Polity and Governance
Which of the following were members of the State Reorganisation Commission formed by the Government of India in August 1953?
(i) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
(ii) Justice Fazal Ali
(iii) K. M. Pannikar
(iv) Hridaya Nath Kunzru
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation
The States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was established by the Government of India in December 1953 to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries on a linguistic and administrative basis. The commission consisted of three prominent members: Justice Fazal Ali, who served as the Chairman, Hridaya Nath Kunzru, and K. M. Panikkar. After conducting a thorough study across the country, the commission submitted its report in 1955. The recommendations of Justice Fazal Ali, Hridaya Nath Kunzru, and K. M. Panikkar formed the basis for the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, which fundamentally restructured the political map of India into 14 states and 6 union territories.
84Geography
Into which sea do the Elbe River and the Rhine River discharge their water?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) North Sea
Explanation
The Rhine River and the Elbe River are major European waterways that drain the central and western parts of the continent into the North Sea. The Rhine originates in the Swiss Alps and flows north through Germany and the Netherlands, where it forms an extensive delta before emptying into the North Sea near Rotterdam. The Elbe River rises in the Giant Mountains of the Czech Republic and flows northwest through Germany, passing through major cities like Dresden and Hamburg. It reaches its mouth at Cuxhaven, where it discharges into the North Sea through a large estuary. Both rivers are critical for European maritime trade and industrial transport, serving as the primary drainage systems for the North Sea basin in Central Europe.
85Art and Culture
Which Sufi sect was mainly spread in Sindh, Multan and Punjab?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Suhrawardi
Explanation
The Suhrawardi Silsila was established in India by Sheikh Bahauddin Zakariya, who made Multan his primary center of activity in the 13th century. Under his leadership and that of his successors, the order flourished specifically in the northwestern regions of the Indian subcontinent, including Sindh, Multan, and Punjab. The Suhrawardi saints maintained close ties with the Delhi Sultanate, often accepting government grants and positions such as Shaikhul-Islam, which helped solidify their influence within these specific administrative and geographic zones. Their khanqahs became major centers of spiritual and social life in the Indus Valley, ensuring that the order's reach remained concentrated in the Punjab and Sindh regions throughout the medieval period.
86History
In which year did Gopal Krishna Gokhale establish the Servants of India Society?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1905 AD
Explanation
Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society on June 12, 1905, in Pune, Maharashtra. The primary objective of the society was to train national missionaries for the service of India and to promote the social and human development of the country through constitutional means. Gokhale established this organization to unite Indians of different ethnicities and religions in welfare work and to encourage a spirit of self-sacrifice among the youth. The members of the society took a vow to devote their lives to the service of the nation in a missionary spirit, focusing on education, healthcare, and the upliftment of the underprivileged sections of society. This significant step in social and political reform occurred in the same year Gokhale presided over the Banaras session of the Indian National Congress.
87History
Who was the president of the special session of the Indian National Congress held in Calcutta in September 1920, which passed the resolution for the Non-Cooperation Movement?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Explanation
Lala Lajpat Rai presided over the special session of the Indian National Congress held in Calcutta in September 1920. This session was specifically convened to consider Mahatma Gandhi's proposal for the Non-Cooperation Movement as a response to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, the Hunter Committee report, and the Khilafat issue. Under the presidency of Lala Lajpat Rai, the Congress passed the historic Non-Cooperation resolution, which advocated for the surrender of titles, the boycott of government schools, colleges, and courts, and the promotion of Swadeshi. This move transitioned the Indian nationalist struggle from constitutional agitation to a mass-based movement of non-violent resistance, which was later ratified at the annual Nagpur session in December 1920.
88Geography
Which areas of India receive North-East monsoon rainfall?
A. Tamil Nadu coast
B. Gujarat coast
C. Southern Andhra Pradesh
D. South-eastern Karnataka
Code:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) A, C and D
Explanation
The North-East monsoon, commonly referred to as the retreating monsoon, occurs between October and December. During this season, the wind direction reverses as the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) moves southward, creating a high-pressure zone over the Indian landmass. The resulting dry continental winds blow from the northeast toward the Bay of Bengal, where they pick up significant moisture. This moisture is then deposited as rainfall on the southeastern parts of the Indian peninsula. The Tamil Nadu coast is the primary recipient of this rainfall, often accounting for nearly 50 percent of its annual total. The system also brings substantial precipitation to southern Andhra Pradesh and south-eastern Karnataka. These regions remain relatively dry during the Southwest monsoon due to their location in the rain-shadow area of the Western Ghats but receive the bulk of their moisture during this post-monsoon phase.
89Geography
Which of the following is not a matching pair? Lake – Location in the state
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Roopkund – Himachal Pradesh
Explanation
Roopkund is a high-altitude glacial lake located at an elevation of approximately 5,029 meters in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. Situated in the lap of the Trisul massif, it is famously known as the Skeleton Lake due to the hundreds of ancient human skeletons found scattered around its edges. The lake is a prominent trekking destination within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve. Since Roopkund is situated in Uttarakhand, it does not geographically belong to Himachal Pradesh.
90Economy
Which of the following is NOT an industrial region of the United States?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Midlands Region
Explanation
The Midlands Region is a prominent industrial and economic area located in the United Kingdom, specifically in central England. It encompasses major manufacturing and engineering hubs such as Birmingham, Coventry, and Wolverhampton. Historically known as a primary driver of the Industrial Revolution, the Midlands is a distinct geographic region of Britain and is not a recognized industrial region within the United States.
91Geography
Which continent has the least problem of desertification?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Europe
Explanation
Europe possesses a predominantly temperate climate with significant maritime influences from the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea, which ensures relatively high and consistent precipitation levels across much of the landmass. It is the only continent without a major tropical or subtropical desert. While Southern Europe faces localized risks of soil degradation and aridity, the continent as a whole has the smallest proportion of land classified as hyper-arid, arid, or semi-arid. The geographical positioning of Europe ensures that atmospheric circulation patterns, such as the Westerlies, bring moisture-laden air to the interior, preventing the widespread development of the extreme dryland conditions that drive large-scale desertification elsewhere.
92Geography
Consider the following statements:
A. The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for 'Karewa' formation.
B. Nalagarh Dun is the largest of all the Duns.
C. Namcha Barwa peak is located in the Arunachal Himalayas.
D. 'Valley of Flowers' is located in the Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas.
Code:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) A, C and D are correct.
Explanation
The Kashmir Himalayas are renowned for Karewa formations, which consist of thick lacustrine deposits of glacial clay and other materials mixed with moraines. These formations are highly significant for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. The Arunachal Himalayas encompass the region from the east of Bhutan to the Diphu pass, where the Namcha Barwa peak is located. This peak marks the easternmost point of the Himalayas where the range undergoes a sharp syntaxial bend. The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas, bounded by the Ravi river in the west and the Kali river in the east, include the Valley of Flowers. This valley is a world-renowned national park situated in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, famous for its diverse alpine flora.
93GeographyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following groups of districts is correctly arranged in descending order according to the amount of received monsoon rainfall?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Dhaulpur, Rajsamand, Jalore
Explanation
The distribution of monsoon rainfall in Rajasthan follows a distinct gradient, decreasing from the southeast and east toward the northwest and west. Dhaulpur is located in the easternmost part of the state within the humid to sub-humid climatic zone, where it receives a relatively high average annual monsoon rainfall of approximately 600 to 700 mm. Moving inland toward the center-south, Rajsamand is situated in the Aravalli hill region and the Mewar plateau, which falls into a sub-humid category with moderate average rainfall ranging between 500 and 600 mm. Further west, Jalore lies in the semi-arid transition zone of the Luni basin on the fringes of the Thar Desert, receiving significantly less rainfall, typically averaging between 350 and 450 mm. This sequence correctly reflects the geographical transition from the high-rainfall eastern plains to the moderate-rainfall Aravalli tracts and finally to the low-rainfall semi-arid western plains.
94GeographyRajasthan-specific
Which three rivers' confluence is called 'Triven',?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Banas, Meināl, Bedach
Explanation
The confluence of the Banas, Bedach, and Meinal rivers takes place at Bigod, located in the Mandalgarh region of Bhilwara district in Rajasthan. This junction where the three rivers meet is known as a Triveni Sangam. The Banas river, which originates from the Khamnor hills of the Aravalli range, is joined by the Bedach from the Udaipur hills and the Meinal, a smaller seasonal river, at this specific geographic coordinates. This site is considered significant both for the state's drainage system and for its local religious importance.
95GeographyRajasthan-specific
According to the India State Forest Report 2021, the forest area, in terms of forest cover, is 16,654 sq km, which is ___ percent of Rajasthan's geographical area.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 4.87
Explanation
The India State Forest Report 2021 identifies the forest cover of Rajasthan as 16,654.96 sq km. Rajasthan has a total geographical area of 3,42,239 sq km. The percentage of forest cover is calculated by the ratio of the forest cover to the total geographical area:
Percentage = 16,654.96/3,42,239 × 100
The calculation yields approximately 4.866 percent, which rounds to 4.87 percent. This total forest cover is composed of 78.15 sq km of very dense forest, 4,368.65 sq km of moderately dense forest, and 12,208.16 sq km of open forest. Compared to the previous assessment in 2019, the forest cover in Rajasthan increased by 25.45 sq km.
96Economy
Which states are the most producers of Bauxite and Mica in India?
Bauxite – Mica
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Odisha – Andhra Pradesh
Explanation
Odisha is the leading producer of Bauxite in India, accounting for more than 50 percent of the total national output. Major deposits are concentrated in the Eastern Ghats, particularly in the Koraput and Rayagada districts, where the Panchpatmali mines are among the largest bauxite deposits in the country. Andhra Pradesh is the primary producer of Mica in India. The Nellore mica belt is globally renowned for its high-quality muscovite mica, often referred to as green mica. The state has consistently maintained the highest production levels of mica, supported by extensive mining operations in the Nellore district.
97Geography
The East-West Corridor connects ___ .
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Silchar to Porbandar
Explanation
The East-West Corridor is a major infrastructure project under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP) Phase II, designed to improve connectivity across the longitudinal breadth of India. It spans approximately 3,300 kilometers and serves as a high-speed road link between the eastern and western extremities of the country. The corridor specifically connects Silchar in the Cachar district of Assam to the coastal city of Porbandar in Gujarat. It traverses several states, including Assam, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat, primarily following the alignment of National Highway 27. Managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI), this corridor is instrumental in facilitating seamless inter-state trade and integrating the Northeastern region with the rest of the Indian mainland.
98Economy
Find the odd one out: 1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Banana
Explanation
The banana is classified as a monocotyledon (monocot), a category of flowering plants characterized by having a single embryonic leaf or cotyledon in their seeds. This distinguishes it from the apple, orange, and carrot, which are all dicotyledons (dicots) and possess two cotyledons. This botanical division is one of the most significant in plant taxonomy and is reflected in various structural features. For instance, monocots like the banana typically have parallel leaf venation and a fibrous root system, while the other three plants in the list feature reticulate venation and a taproot system. Among the options provided, the banana is the only representative of the monocotyledonous group.
99GeographyRajasthan-specific
Which district had the lowest decadal population growth rate between 2001 and 2011?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Sri Ganganagar
Explanation
According to the Census of India 2011 report for the state of Rajasthan, Sri Ganganagar district recorded the lowest decadal population growth rate between 2001 and 2011. The growth rate for the district was approximately 10.0 percent, which stood as the minimum value among all districts in the state during that census decade. This figure is notably lower than the overall state decadal growth rate of 21.3 percent. Population growth statistics from the 2011 census indicate that northern districts generally showed slower growth patterns compared to the western desert regions of the state.
100EconomyRajasthan-specific
Which mineral resources are produced in the areas of Kalakuta, Leelvani, Nardia, and Timma Mori in Rajasthan?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Manganese
Explanation
The areas of Kalakuta, Leelvani, Nardia, and Timma Mori are significant manganese-producing localities situated in the Banswara district of Rajasthan. Manganese deposits in this region are primarily hosted within the rocks of the Aravalli Supergroup, occurring as bedded deposits or secondary enrichments associated with phyllites and quartzites. Banswara remains the most important district for manganese mining in the state, with these specific sites forming a major part of its mineral resource base.
101EconomyRajasthan-specific
The Kalisindh Super Thermal Power Station is located in:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Jhalawar
Explanation
The Kalisindh Super Thermal Power Station is a major coal-fired power plant located in the Jhalawar district of Rajasthan. Operated by the Rajasthan Rajya Vidyut Utpadan Nigam Limited (RVUNL), it is situated near the town of Jhalrapatan. The facility utilizes supercritical technology for its power generation units to ensure higher efficiency and lower emissions. The essential water supply for the plant's operations is sourced from the Kalisindh Dam, which is built on the Kalisindh River in the same region. This thermal power station plays a significant role in meeting the energy demands of the state of Rajasthan.
102GeographyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following pairings is incorrect? Wildlife Sanctuary – District
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Shergarh – Bundi
Explanation
The Shergarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Baran district of Rajasthan, not in Bundi. Established in 1983, this sanctuary is situated on the banks of the Parvan River and is frequently referred to as a snake sanctuary due to its high density of reptilian species. In contrast, the prominent wildlife sanctuary located in the Bundi district is the Ramgarh Vishdhari Sanctuary, which has recently been designated as a Tiger Reserve. Therefore, the pairing of Shergarh with Bundi is geographically incorrect.
103Science and Technology
Mahi Kanchan and RCB 911 are hybrid varieties of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Maize and sorghum, respectively
Explanation
Mahi Kanchan is a widely cultivated hybrid variety of maize (Zea mays) developed by the Agricultural Research Station in Banswara, Rajasthan, specifically bred to suit the climatic conditions of southern Rajasthan. RCB 911 is a high-yielding hybrid variety of sorghum (Jowar) developed by the Rajasthan Agricultural University in Bikaner. Both varieties were engineered to provide better resistance to local pests and environmental stress while ensuring higher productivity for farmers in semi-arid and rain-fed agricultural zones.
104EconomyRajasthan-specific
The first sugar industry based on sugarcane was established in:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Bhopalsagar
Explanation
The Mewar Sugar Mills, established in 1932 at Bhopalsagar in the Chittorgarh district, was the first sugar industry in Rajasthan. It was founded as a private sector enterprise to process sugarcane grown in the fertile plains of the Mewar region. This establishment marked the beginning of organized sugar manufacturing in the state, occurring several years before other major mills were founded in the public and cooperative sectors.
105GeographyRajasthan-specific
The Mahi Bajaj Sagar project is a joint venture of:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Gujarat and Rajasthan
Explanation
The Mahi Bajaj Sagar Project is a multipurpose interstate venture between the governments of Rajasthan and Gujarat, established through a bilateral agreement signed in 1966. The project is constructed across the Mahi River, which flows through the Vagad region of Rajasthan and into Gujarat. The primary structure, the Mahi Bajaj Sagar Dam, is situated at Banswara district in Rajasthan. As per the interstate agreement, the cost and water of the project are shared in a ratio of 45:55 between Rajasthan and Gujarat respectively. However, a significant provision of the agreement ensures that the entire hydroelectric power generated by the project is allocated exclusively to Rajasthan. This project serves the dual purpose of providing irrigation facilities to the tribal areas of southern Rajasthan and fulfilling the water requirements for parts of Gujarat.
106Polity and Governance
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Menaka Gandhi case, 1978, concerning the judicial interpretation of Article 21.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) The petitioner must prove that the procedure established by law deprives them of life or personal liberty arbitrarily.
Explanation
The Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) case revolutionized the interpretation of Article 21 by mandate that any procedure established by law must be just, fair, and reasonable, rather than being arbitrary, fanciful, or oppressive. The Supreme Court overruled the previous restrictive view in the A.K. Gopalan case, establishing that Articles 14, 19, and 21 are not mutually exclusive but form a Golden Triangle. Under this doctrine, any law depriving a person of life or personal liberty must satisfy the test of reasonableness and non-arbitrariness under Article 14. Consequently, the burden does not rest on the petitioner to prove arbitrariness in a restrictive sense; rather, the procedure itself must constitutionally adhere to the principles of natural justice and fairness to be valid. This judgment effectively introduced the concept of substantive due process into Indian constitutional law, ensuring that the court can examine the reasonableness of the law itself and not just the adherence to a prescribed procedure.
107Art and CultureRajasthan-specific
Nathmal Ji's Haveli is located in:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Jaisalmer
Explanation
Nathmal Ji ki Haveli is a prominent architectural landmark situated in the heart of Jaisalmer. Commissioned in the late 19th century during the reign of Maharawal Berisal, it served as the residence for the Prime Minister, Diwan Mohata Nathmal. The haveli is celebrated for its exquisite yellow sandstone craftsmanship and was designed by two architect brothers, Halu and Lulu. A unique feature of its construction is that the two brothers worked on the left and right wings of the building simultaneously, leading to slight asymmetries in the design that enhance its artistic value. The entrance is marked by two large yellow sandstone elephants, and the facade is covered with intricate carvings of birds, flowers, and even modern elements like bicycles and steam engines, which were novelties at the time of its construction in 1885.
108Polity and Governance
Regarding the Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following statements:
(i) The final session of the Constituent Assembly was held on January 24, 1950.
(ii) In this final session, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was formally elected as the President of India.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) both are correct.
Explanation
The Constituent Assembly of India held its final session on January 24, 1950. This historic meeting was convened to allow members to sign the final copies of the Constitution of India before it came into force two days later. During this session, the National Anthem, Jana Gana Mana, and the National Song, Vande Mataram, were also officially adopted.
In this same final session, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first President of India. H.V.R. Iengar, the Secretary of the Constituent Assembly, announced that only one nomination had been received for the office of the President, which was that of Dr. Rajendra Prasad, proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru and seconded by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Consequently, Dr. Prasad was declared duly elected as the President of the Republic. Following this session, the Constituent Assembly ceased to exist as a constitution-making body and transformed into the Provisional Parliament of India until the first general elections were held in 1951-52.
109Polity and Governance
Which of the following schedules was added to the Constitution of India by the First Constitutional Amendment?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Ninth
Explanation
The Ninth Schedule was introduced into the Constitution of India through the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. This amendment was enacted to address judicial hurdles that had arisen regarding land reform legislation and the abolition of the zamindari system. To provide these laws with a layer of protection against challenges based on the violation of fundamental rights, specifically the right to property, the government inserted Article 31B along with the Ninth Schedule. Laws placed within this schedule were initially intended to be immune from judicial review. This marked the first addition to the original eight schedules of the Indian Constitution as adopted in 1950.
110Polity and Governance
Match the following list – P (Directive Principles) with list – R (Article):
List – P List – R
A. Equal justice and free legal aid I. Article 48 A
B. Protection of the environment II. Article 39 A
C. Right to work III. Article 41
D. Preservation of monuments IV. Article 49
Choose the correct option:
. A B C D
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) II I III IV
Explanation
Article 39 A provides for equal justice and free legal aid, ensuring that the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity and that justice is not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities. Article 48 A directs the State to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. Article 41 requires the State to make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement. Article 49 mandates the State to protect monuments, places, and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance. Matching these provisions results in the sequence A-II, B-I, C-III, and D-IV.
111Polity and Governance
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the Rajya Sabha.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan is the only Chairman of the Rajya Sabha who served for two consecutive terms.
Explanation
Mohammad Hamid Ansari served as the Vice-President of India and the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha for two consecutive terms, from 2007 to 2012 and 2012 to 2017. Since Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, who served as the first Chairman from 1952 to 1962, is not the only person to have held this position for two consecutive terms, the statement asserting his exclusivity is factually incorrect.
112Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the motion of no confidence?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) A member who wants to move a motion of no confidence must give written notice to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Explanation
Rule 198(1)(b) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha explicitly states that a member desiring to move a motion of no confidence must give a written notice to the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha. This notice must be submitted by 10:00 hours on the day the leave is to be asked for. While the Speaker subsequently informs the House about the receipt of the notice and determines its validity, the procedural requirement for the submission of the written notice is directed to the Secretary-General, not the Speaker.
113Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
(i) The 'Congress system' mentioned by political scientists ended with the 1989 Lok Sabha elections.
(ii) In the 1989 Lok Sabha elections, the Indian National Congress emerged as the largest single party.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) both are correct.
Explanation
The 1989 Lok Sabha elections are recognized by political scientists as the end of the Congress system, a term used to describe the era of one-party dominance where the Indian National Congress was the central axis of Indian politics. This transition initiated the period of coalition governments and a more fragmented multi-party system at the national level. Factually, in the ninth general elections held in 1989, the Indian National Congress secured 197 seats. Although this was a sharp decline from its 1984 tally, it remained the largest single party in the Lok Sabha, followed by the Janata Dal with 143 seats and the Bharatiya Janata Party with 85 seats. Despite being the largest party, the Congress declined to form the government because it lacked a majority, leading to the formation of the National Front government.
114Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
In the 2022 presidential election, the value of the vote of each member of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly was -
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 129
Explanation
The value of the vote of each member of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly (MLA) for the 2022 Presidential election is determined using the 1971 Census population figures. According to the formula prescribed in Article 55 of the Constitution of India, the value is calculated as follows:
Value of MLA vote = Total population of the State (1971) / (Total number of elected members of the Assembly × 1000)
For Rajasthan, the population in 1971 was 2,57,65,806 and the number of elected members in the Legislative Assembly is 200.
If the remainder after dividing the total population by the product of the number of seats and 1000 is 500 or more, the value is increased by one. In this calculation, the remainder is 829, which is greater than 500. Therefore, the value of 128 is increased by 1, resulting in a final vote value of 129 for each MLA of Rajasthan.
115Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
According to Article 217(1) of the Constitution, who does the President appoint on the advice of whom, other than the Chief Justice of the Rajasthan High Court?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) The Chief Justice of India and the Governor of Rajasthan.
Explanation
Article 217(1) of the Constitution of India specifies the procedure for the appointment of Judges to the High Courts. It stipulates that every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. This process requires the President to consult with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State. In cases where the appointment is for a Judge other than the Chief Justice of that specific High Court, the President must also consult the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. Therefore, for appointments to the Rajasthan High Court, the President acts after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of Rajasthan, in addition to the Chief Justice of the Rajasthan High Court.
116Polity and Governance
Which of the following commissions recommended the establishment of the Inter-Government Council in place of the Inter-State Council?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission
Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations, which submitted its report in 1988, recommended the establishment of a permanent body under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution. The commission specifically proposed that this body should be designated as the Inter-Governmental Council to distinguish it from other specialized or ad hoc bodies that might be created under the same article. By using the term Inter-Governmental, the commission aimed to emphasize that the forum was intended for high-level consultation and coordination between the executive heads of the Union and the States. This recommendation was part of a broader effort to institutionalize a regular dialogue on matters of national importance and to resolve conflicts within the federal structure, promoting the principle of cooperative federalism. While the council was ultimately established by a Presidential Order in 1990, it retained the name Inter-State Council as mentioned in the constitutional text.
117Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
In the presidential election of 2022, the voting value of each member of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly was:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 129
Explanation
The value of the vote of an individual Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) for the Presidential election is determined using the population data from the 1971 Census, as mandated by the 84th Constitutional Amendment Act. The formula used for this calculation is:
Value = Total Population of the State (1971 Census) / (Total Number of Elected Members of the State Assembly × 1000)
For Rajasthan, the population as per the 1971 Census was 25,765,806, and the number of elected members in the Legislative Assembly is 200. Applying the formula:
25,765,806 / 200 = 128,829.03
Dividing this result by 1000 gives a quotient of 128 and a remainder of 829.03. According to Article 55 of the Constitution of India, if the remainder obtained after taking multiples of one thousand is five hundred or more, the vote value is increased by one. Since the remainder of 829 is greater than the threshold of 500, the final vote value for each MLA of Rajasthan is calculated as 128 + 1 = 129. This value was utilized for the 2022 Presidential election and will continue to be used for all Presidential elections until the first census figures are published after the year 2026.
118Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
According to Article 217 (1) of the Constitution, the President shall make the appointment of a judge of the Rajasthan High Court (other than the Chief Justice) after consultation with whom?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) The Governor of Rajasthan, the Chief Justice of India, and the Chief Justice of the Rajasthan High Court.
Explanation
Under Article 217 (1) of the Indian Constitution, every Judge of a High Court is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. The procedure mandates that the President perform this duty after consultation with three specific authorities: the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State concerned, and, in instances where the appointment is for a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of that particular High Court. In the specific context of the Rajasthan High Court, this necessitates the involvement of the Governor of Rajasthan, the Chief Justice of India, and the Chief Justice of the Rajasthan High Court to ensure a collaborative selection process involving both federal and state-level judicial and executive heads.
119Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Out of the following, on whose recommendation was the post of Rajpramukh in Rajasthan abolished and the system of Governor introduced?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) State Reorganization Commission
Explanation
The State Reorganization Commission, chaired by Fazal Ali and including members H.N. Kunzru and K.M. Panikkar, was established to recommend the reorganization of state boundaries on a linguistic and administrative basis. In its 1955 report, the commission suggested the removal of the distinction between different categories of states. Consequently, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 was implemented, which abolished the post of Rajpramukh in Part B states and replaced it with the office of the Governor. In Rajasthan, this change became effective on November 1, 1956, leading to the appointment of Gurumukh Nihal Singh as the first Governor of the state, officially ending the tenure of the Rajpramukh, Maharaja Man Singh II.
120Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Chief Minister of Rajasthan?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Barkatullah Khan served as Chief Minister for the shortest period.
Explanation
Barkatullah Khan served as the Chief Minister of Rajasthan from 9 July 1971 until his death in office on 11 October 1973, which is a tenure of over two years. The distinction for the shortest tenure in the history of Rajasthan's Chief Ministers belongs to Hira Lal Devpura. He served for a period of only 16 days, from 23 February 1985 to 10 March 1985. Consequently, the assertion that Barkatullah Khan held the office for the shortest duration is historically inaccurate.
121Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
What is the minimum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Rajasthan?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 12
Explanation
Article 164(1A) of the Constitution of India, which was introduced by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act in 2003, establishes both the maximum and minimum limits for the strength of the Council of Ministers in a state. This article provides that the total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not be less than 12. While the maximum limit is set at 15 percent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly, the provision specifically ensures a functional minimum of 12 members to maintain administrative efficiency and constitutional governance within the state cabinet. This rule applies uniformly across Indian states, including Rajasthan.
122Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan Public Service Commission:
(i) The Chairman and members of the Commission are appointed by the Governor of Rajasthan.
(ii) The Chairman or any other member can only be removed from their office with the order of the President.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) both are correct.
Explanation
Under Article 316 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission, such as the Rajasthan Public Service Commission, are appointed by the Governor of the state. While the Governor is the appointing authority, the power to remove a Chairman or any member is vested solely in the President of India as per Article 317. The President can remove them on the grounds of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court, on a reference made by the President, conducts an inquiry and recommends removal. Additionally, the President can remove them if they are adjudged insolvent, engage in any paid employment outside the duties of their office, or are unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. This constitutional arrangement ensures the functional independence and security of tenure for the members of the Commission.
123Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The post of Tehsildar is appointed by:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Revenue Department
Explanation
The Tehsildar is a key executive and judicial officer within the state administrative hierarchy, specifically functioning at the sub-district level. The formal appointment of a Tehsildar is executed by the State Government through its Revenue Department. While recruitment processes for this cadre are often conducted by state public service commissions to ensure merit-based selection, the Revenue Department remains the actual appointing authority. This department is responsible for issuing official appointment orders, managing the cadre of the Tehsildar service, and overseeing administrative matters such as postings, transfers, and the enforcement of land revenue codes and regulations. This centralized control ensures that the administration of land records and tax collection is maintained under the direct supervision of the state's revenue hierarchy.
124Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following is not a part of the Rajasthan Urban Drinking Water, Sewage and Infrastructure Corporation Limited?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Rajasthan Housing Board
Explanation
The Rajasthan Urban Drinking Water, Sewage and Infrastructure Corporation Limited (RUDSICO) was established by the Government of Rajasthan as a consolidated entity to streamline urban development. It was primarily formed by the merger of the Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Finance and Development Corporation Limited (RUIFDCO) and includes the operational framework of the Rajasthan Urban Infrastructure Development Project (RUIDP). The Rajasthan Housing Board (RHB) is an independent statutory body established under the Rajasthan Housing Board Act, 1970. It functions as an autonomous organization dedicated to providing affordable housing and remains outside the administrative and functional ambit of RUDSICO.
125Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
By which amendment Act was 'Gram Sevak' replaced by 'Gram Vikas Adhikari'?
The designation of Gram Sevak was officially changed to Gram Vikas Adhikari (Village Development Officer) through the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2021. This legislative change amended the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, to modernize the nomenclature of the primary administrative official at the Gram Panchayat level. The rebranding was intended to reflect the evolving role of the position, shifting from a traditional service-oriented title to one that emphasizes a professional responsibility for comprehensive rural development and the implementation of state and central welfare schemes.
126Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
In April 2023, the state government approved the establishment of a bench of the Rajasthan State Information Commission in which city?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Jodhpur
Explanation
In April 2023, Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot approved the proposal to establish a permanent bench of the Rajasthan State Information Commission in Jodhpur. This decision was aimed at providing easier access to the Right to Information (RTI) appeal process for the residents of western Rajasthan, specifically those in the Jodhpur and Bikaner divisions. By setting up this bench, the state government intended to reduce the distance and travel time for appellants who previously had to travel to the main commission headquarters in Jaipur. Along with the establishment of the bench, the government also sanctioned the creation of twelve new posts, including that of an Information Commissioner and various supporting staff, to ensure the effective functioning of the office.
127Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which scheme is associated with the slogan - “No one should sleep hungry”?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Indira Rasoi Yojana
Explanation
The Indira Rasoi Yojana was launched by the Rajasthan state government on August 20, 2020, with the specific resolution of Koi Bhookha Na Soye, which translates to No one should sleep hungry. This welfare scheme aims to provide nutritious and quality food to the poor and needy living in urban areas at a highly subsidized rate of eight rupees per meal. The meals are served in a respectful sitting environment through various kitchen centers established across urban local bodies. By providing affordable meals, the scheme addresses food insecurity and ensures that the most vulnerable sections of the population have access to basic sustenance every day.
128Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission:
(i) According to the provisions of the Human Rights Protection (Amendment) Act, 2006, the Commission has one Chairman and four members.
(ii) Currently, Justice Gopal Krishna Vyas is the Chairman.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Only (ii) is correct.
Explanation
The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006, amended Section 21 of the original 1993 Act to reduce the number of members in a State Human Rights Commission. Under these revised provisions, the Commission consists of a Chairperson and two members, rather than four. Justice Gopal Krishna Vyas, a former judge of the Rajasthan High Court, was appointed as the Chairperson of the Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission in January 2021 and was serving in this position during the year 2023.
129Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The committee formed in 2014 under the chairmanship of Narpat Mal Lodha is related to which subject?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Lokayukta
Explanation
The Narpat Mal Lodha Committee was constituted by the Government of Rajasthan in 2014 to suggest reforms and amendments to the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayukta Act, 1973. Justice Narpat Mal Lodha, a former judge of the Rajasthan High Court, chaired this committee with the objective of making the institution of the Lokayukta more powerful and effective in tackling corruption within the state administration. The committee was tasked with reviewing the existing legal framework and proposing measures to enhance the jurisdiction, autonomy, and investigative capabilities of the Lokayukta to ensure greater accountability among public servants.
130Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the State Election Commission of Rajasthan:
(i) It was constituted in July 1994 under Article 243 T of the Constitution of India.
(ii) It is a one-member commission headed by the State Election Commissioner.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Only (ii) is correct.
Explanation
The State Election Commission of Rajasthan is a single-member body headed by the State Election Commissioner who is appointed by the Governor. This makes statement (ii) correct. Statement (i) is incorrect because the commission was established in July 1994 under Article 243K and Article 243ZA of the Constitution of India. Article 243K provides for the constitution of the State Election Commission for Panchayati Raj Institutions, and Article 243ZA extends this authority to Municipalities. Article 243T is dedicated to the reservation of seats in Municipalities and does not govern the establishment or constitution of the commission.
131Economy
In the context of inflation, consider the following statements:
Statement (A): Headline inflation refers to the change in the Consumer Price Index, which measures the average price of a standard basket of goods and services consumed by a particular family.
Statement (B): Core inflation measures the change in average consumer prices after excluding some items with volatile prices such as food and fuel.
Which of these statements?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both statement (A) and (B) are correct.
Explanation
Headline inflation represents the total inflation in an economy and is commonly reported through the Consumer Price Index (CPI). It tracks the price changes of a comprehensive basket of goods and services that a representative household or family consumes, providing a broad picture of the cost of living. Because it includes all categories, it captures the immediate impact of price changes on the consumer.
Core inflation is a specific measure derived by stripping away volatile components from the headline figure, primarily food and energy prices. These sectors are excluded because their prices often fluctuate due to seasonal factors, weather conditions, or global geopolitical events rather than domestic economic health. By focusing on non-volatile items, core inflation allows policymakers and economists to identify the stable, underlying inflationary trends within the economy.
132Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme:
(i) It guarantees 125 days of employment per year to families residing in urban areas.
(ii) After registration, eligible candidates are provided employment within 30 days.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Only (i) is correct.
Explanation
The Indira Gandhi Urban Employment Guarantee Scheme was initiated by the Rajasthan government to provide economic support to urban families. During the 2023-24 state budget, the guaranteed period of employment was officially increased from 100 days to 125 days per year, which confirms the first statement. Regarding the operational timeline, the scheme regulatory framework requires that employment be provided within 15 days from the date of demand or registration. If the authority fails to provide work within this 15-day timeframe, the applicant becomes entitled to an unemployment allowance. Because the second statement mentions a 30-day window instead of the statutory 15-day requirement, it is incorrect.
133Economy
Which of the following is not a measure related to selective credit control?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Selling government securities
Explanation
Selling government securities is a component of Open Market Operations (OMO), which is classified as a quantitative or general instrument of monetary policy. These measures are designed to regulate the total volume of credit and the overall liquidity in the banking system, affecting the economy as a whole rather than targeting specific sectors. This distinguishes it from qualitative or selective credit controls, which are intended to influence the distribution or direction of credit toward particular areas of the economy. Because OMOs influence the aggregate money supply by altering the reserves of the banking system through the sale of securities in the open market, they function as a general tool of monetary management.
134Economy
Which of the following is not a correct option regarding selective credit control?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Selling government securities
Explanation
Selling government securities is a component of Open Market Operations (OMO), which is classified as a quantitative or general instrument of monetary policy. Quantitative tools are designed to regulate the total volume of money supply and bank credit in the entire economy by directly influencing the cash reserves of the commercial banking system. These measures, which also include the Bank Rate, Repo Rate, and Cash Reserve Ratio, affect the aggregate lending capacity of banks without discriminating between different sectors or purposes. Selective credit controls, on the other hand, are qualitative measures used by the central bank to influence the direction and allocation of credit toward specific sectors or to discourage credit for speculative activities. Since open market operations impact the economy-wide liquidity indiscriminately, the sale of government securities does not qualify as a selective credit control measure.
135Economy
Which of the following is not a measure of fiscal policy?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Interest rate
Explanation
Fiscal policy refers to the use of government revenue collection and expenditure to influence the economy. Its primary instruments are taxation and public expenditure, both of which are directly managed by the government through the Union Budget. Interest rates are a tool of monetary policy, set by the central bank (Reserve Bank of India) through its repo rate, reverse repo rate, and other mechanisms to control the money supply and credit conditions. Open market operations, which involve the central bank buying or selling government securities in the open market, are also a monetary policy instrument used to regulate liquidity. While both interest rate and open market operations fall outside fiscal policy, among the given options the interest rate is the single most direct and well-recognized instrument of monetary policy, making it the clearest example of what is not a fiscal policy measure.
136Economy
Which of the following is not a measure of fiscal policy?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Interest rate
Explanation
Interest rates are a primary instrument of monetary policy, which is managed by a country's central bank. The central bank adjusts these rates to regulate the cost of borrowing and the overall money supply, aiming to control inflation and maintain economic stability. This is fundamentally different from fiscal policy, which involves the government's use of its budget, specifically through revenue collection and public spending, to influence the level of aggregate demand. Because the determination of interest rates is a function of the central bank's control over liquidity and credit conditions rather than a direct budgetary action by the government, it is not classified as a measure of fiscal policy.
137Economy
Which of the following is not a correct option regarding selective credit control?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Selling government securities
Explanation
Selling government securities is a component of Open Market Operations (OMO), which is a quantitative or general instrument of monetary policy. Quantitative tools are designed to regulate the total volume of credit and the overall liquidity in the banking system without discriminating between different sectors of the economy. When the central bank sells government securities in the open market, it absorbs excess liquidity from the commercial banks, thereby reducing their credit-creating capacity and contracting the money supply. Selective or qualitative credit controls, on the other hand, are intended to regulate the flow of credit to specific sectors or for specific purposes to prevent speculative activities or inflation in particular commodities. Since selling government securities impacts the entire economy's credit volume simultaneously, it does not fall under the category of selective credit control.
138Economy
Which of the following statements regarding the pharmaceutical sector is not correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) India accounts for 80 percent of the global vaccine production.
Explanation
India is a major global hub for vaccine manufacturing and is often referred to as the pharmacy of the world. However, statement b is incorrect because India accounts for approximately 60 percent of the global vaccine production by volume, rather than 80 percent. Indian manufacturers supply a significant portion of the vaccines used in the World Health Organization’s Expanded Programme on Immunization and provide a substantial share of the vaccines procured by Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance, for global distribution. While India leads in the supply of several critical vaccines like DPT, BCG, and Measles, its total global market share by volume remains closer to the 60 percent mark.
139EconomyRajasthan-specific
Which of the following facts about the Rajasthan Chief Minister Small Industry Promotion Scheme is not correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Under this scheme, small-scale entrepreneurs are given a 4 percent interest subsidy on loans up to 15 crore rupees.
Explanation
The Mukhyamantri Laghu Udyog Protsahan Yojana (MLUPY) was launched by the Rajasthan government in 2019 to provide subsidized loans for the establishment and expansion of small-scale enterprises. The scheme specifies a maximum loan limit of 10 crore rupees. Under its provisions, interest subsidies are structured into three specific tiers: an 8 percent subsidy for loans up to 25 lakh rupees, a 6 percent subsidy for loans up to 5 crore rupees, and a 5 percent subsidy for loans ranging from 5 crore up to 10 crore rupees. There is no provision for a 4 percent interest subsidy or a loan ceiling of 15 crore rupees under this particular scheme.
140EconomyRajasthan-specific
In the year 2022-23, what sub-sector contributed the most to the Gross State Value Added (GSVA) of the service sector in Rajasthan, based on current values?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Trade, hotels and restaurants
Explanation
According to the Rajasthan Economic Review 2022-23, the service sector is a vital component of the state economy, contributing 43.74 percent to the total Gross State Value Added (GSVA) at current prices. Within the internal composition of the service sector, the sub-sector of Trade, hotels and restaurants accounts for the highest share. As per the Advance Estimates for the year 2022-23, this sub-sector contributes approximately 27.69 percent to the GSVA of the service sector at current prices. This significant contribution is attributed to the state's flourishing tourism industry and the extensive network of trade and hospitality services that support the regional economy.
141EconomyRajasthan-specific
According to the advance estimates for the year 2022-23, what percentage of India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is estimated to be Rajasthan's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP), based on current or prevailing values?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 5.18 percent
Explanation
As per the Rajasthan Economic Review 2022-23, the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Rajasthan at current prices is estimated at ₹15.22 lakh crore for the financial year 2022-23 according to the Advance Estimates. The official report explicitly states that Rajasthan's contribution to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at current prices stands at 5.18 percent for this period. This value is derived from the comparison of the state's economic output, valued at prevailing market prices, against the national GDP estimates released by the National Statistical Office. The GSDP at current prices reflects the nominal growth of the state's economy, encompassing the agriculture, industry, and services sectors without adjusting for inflation. This percentage share highlights Rajasthan's relative position and importance within the overall Indian economy during the 2022-23 fiscal year.
142Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Atal Bhujal Yojana in Rajasthan?
(a) The Atal Bhujal Yojana is being run by the Government of Rajasthan with financial assistance from the Government of India.
(b) The focus of this scheme is to improve groundwater management and prevent its declining levels.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Only (b)
Explanation
Atal Bhujal Yojana is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India, with a total outlay of 6,000 crore rupees. The funding is provided by the Government of India and the World Bank on a 50:50 basis. The scheme specifically aims to improve groundwater management through community participation in identified water-stressed areas across seven states, including Rajasthan. Its core focus is on demand-side management, which includes strengthening institutional frameworks and encouraging behavioral changes to ensure the sustainability of groundwater resources and prevent further decline in water levels. Since it is a central initiative rather than a scheme run by the state government with external financial assistance, the objective of groundwater management and community involvement makes the second statement the only correct one.
143EconomyRajasthan-specific
Which agency has been given the responsibility of implementing the PM-KUSUM scheme (Component A) in Rajasthan, which involves the establishment of solar power plants with a capacity of 0.5 MW to 2 MW?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited
Explanation
The Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited (RRECL) acts as the State Nodal Agency for the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme in Rajasthan. Under Component A of the scheme, which focuses on the installation of decentralized ground-mounted grid-connected solar power plants with capacities ranging from 0.5 MW to 2 MW on the barren or uncultivable lands of farmers, RRECL is responsible for the bidding process, selection of solar power generators, and coordination with state DISCOMs. The corporation was formed by the merger of the Rajasthan State Power Corporation Limited and the Rajasthan Energy Development Agency to promote renewable energy sources and energy efficiency across the state.
144Science and TechnologyRajasthan-specific
When is Energy Conservation Day celebrated in Rajasthan?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) December 14
Explanation
Energy Conservation Day is celebrated across India, including the state of Rajasthan, on December 14 every year. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the Ministry of Power, leads the national campaign to raise awareness about the importance of energy efficiency and conservation. In Rajasthan, the Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited (RRECL) acts as the state nodal agency to organize various events and awareness programs. On this day, the state government often confers the Rajasthan Energy Conservation Awards to industrial, commercial, and governmental units that have made significant contributions toward saving energy and implementing energy-efficient technologies. This observance highlights the state's commitment to reducing its carbon footprint and promoting sustainable resource management.
145Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
In which year did the Rajasthan government enact the Rajasthan Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 2005
Explanation
The Rajasthan Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act was enacted by the State Legislature in 2005. This legislation was introduced following the recommendations of the Twelfth Finance Commission, which made it mandatory for state governments to pass fiscal responsibility laws to qualify for debt relief and interest rate incentives. The Act provides a legal framework for the state to ensure long-term macro-economic stability and fiscal sustainability by setting specific targets for the elimination of the revenue deficit and the reduction of the fiscal deficit to a sustainable level relative to the Gross State Domestic Product. It also requires the state government to maintain transparency in its fiscal operations through the mandatory presentation of a Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement before the State Assembly.
146EconomyRajasthan-specific
Compared to the previous year, in the year 2022-23, in which sector is the estimated highest increase in the Gross State Value Added (GSVA) (at constant 2011-12 base values) of Rajasthan?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Service sector
Explanation
According to the Economic Review of Rajasthan 2022-23, the Service sector recorded the highest estimated growth rate in Gross State Value Added (GSVA) at constant (2011-12) prices. For the financial year 2022-23, the growth rate for the Service sector was estimated at 10.74 percent. This outperformed the Industrial sector, which grew at 6.32 percent, and the Agricultural sector, which recorded a growth rate of 5.22 percent. The substantial increase in the Service sector was largely driven by the expansion in sub-sectors such as trade, hotels, restaurants, transport, and communication services, which benefited from a strong post-pandemic recovery and increased consumer demand.
147EconomyRajasthan-specific
The Rajasthan State Highway Development Program-II project, which includes the upgrading of 11 highways with a length of 801 km, is financed by which agency?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) World Bank
Explanation
The Rajasthan State Highway Development Program-II (RSHDP-II) is a major infrastructure initiative funded by the World Bank. The project aims to improve the efficiency, connectivity, and safety of the state highway network in Rajasthan by upgrading 11 identified highway segments covering a total length of approximately 801 kilometers. The financial assistance is provided through a loan from the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, which is the lending arm of the World Bank Group. This program focuses on enhancing road capacity, improving pavement conditions, and strengthening the institutional framework of the state Public Works Department to manage its road assets more effectively.