RPSC RAS Prelims 2013 Polity and Governance Questions with Solutions
This year the exam was held in more than one sitting; questions from all of them, grouped by subject. Questions 1–50 of 110, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation.
Match List-1 with List-2 and choose the correct answer using the codes given below –
List-1 – List-2
A. First Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly 1. V.T. Krishnamachari
B. Original Congress member of the Drafting Committee 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Members of the Constituent Assembly representing the principalities of Rajasthan 3. K.M. Munshi
D. Chairman of the Union-Constitution Committee 4. H.C. Mukherjee
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
H.C. Mukherjee was the first Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly, elected to assist the President in presiding over the deliberations of the house. K.M. Munshi was the only member of the seven-man Drafting Committee who was an original member of the Indian National Congress. V.T. Krishnamachari represented the princely state of Jaipur and was a key member representing the principalities of Rajasthan in the Assembly. Jawaharlal Nehru served as the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee, which was one of the eight major committees tasked with defining the framework and powers of the Union government.
2Polity and Governance
According to Article 25 of the Constitution, the right to freedom of religion is not subject to:
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Answer: (D) Humanism
Explanation
Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India provides that the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion are subject to specific restrictions. The constitutional text explicitly mentions that these rights are subject to public order, morality, and health, as well as to other provisions of Part III. Humanism is not included in this list of regulatory grounds. Although the development of humanism is mentioned in Article 51A(h) as a Fundamental Duty of the citizens of India, it does not serve as a constitutional basis for restricting the fundamental right to freedom of religion under Article 25.
3Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding women members in the 15th Lok Sabha –
1. They are less than 10 percent of the total members of the Lok Sabha.
2. The maximum number of women members are from the Indian National Congress.
3. Three women members were elected from Rajasthan.
4. The maximum number of women members were elected from Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The 15th Lok Sabha, constituted after the 2009 general elections, included 59 women members out of a total of 543, representing approximately 10.86 percent of the house. The Indian National Congress had the largest representation of women among all political parties, with 23 of its women candidates being elected. On a state-wise basis, Uttar Pradesh contributed the highest number of women members to the house, with a total of 13 representatives. Rajasthan elected three women members during this term: Girija Vyas from Chittorgarh, Jyoti Mirdha from Nagaur, and Chandresh Kumari Katoch from Jodhpur. These statistics confirm that the maximum number of women members were from the Indian National Congress, the highest state representation was from Uttar Pradesh, and exactly three women members were elected from Rajasthan.
4Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The Government of Rajasthan has notified a Public Hearing Officer at the Panchayat level for matters other than revenue
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Gram Sevak
Explanation
Under the Rajasthan Right to Hearing Act, 2012, which came into effect on August 1, 2012, the State Government notified specific officers at various administrative levels to ensure the time-bound redressal of public grievances. At the Gram Panchayat level, the Gram Sevak (now known as the Gram Vikas Adhikari or Village Development Officer) was designated as the Public Hearing Officer for all matters excluding those related to the Revenue Department. This arrangement was designed to provide a localized grievance redressal mechanism where citizens could submit complaints and receive a hearing on specified days at the Panchayat headquarters, thereby enhancing transparency and accountability in local administration.
5Polity and Governance
Instructions (Questions 6 to 8): In each of the next three questions, there are two statements: Statement (A) and Statement (R). Carefully examine both statements and choose the correct answer using the codes given below –
Statement (A): Women, Dalits, the poor, and minority groups are the biggest claimants of democracy in India.
Statement (R): Democracy in India has emerged as a carrier of the desire for more self-respect.
● Correct
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Answer: (A) (A) and (R) are both true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
In the Indian political context, marginalized sections such as Dalits, women, and the poor exhibit a high degree of faith and participation in democratic processes. For these groups, democracy is not merely a system of governance but a vital instrument for social and economic mobility. They utilize their voting power and political representation to challenge traditional social hierarchies and demand a share in state resources. This makes them the primary claimants of democracy as they rely on it more than the privileged classes to safeguard their interests.
This intense engagement stems from the fact that democracy in India has become a vehicle for the assertion of identity and dignity. For communities that have historically faced exclusion and humiliation, the principle of political equality provides a sense of self-respect and agency. The desire to be recognized as equal citizens drives their participation in the democratic framework. Therefore, since the quest for self-respect is the fundamental motivation behind their political behavior, Statement (R) provides the logical explanation for why these groups are the biggest claimants of democracy mentioned in Statement (A).
6Polity and Governance
Statement (A): Politicization of castes is happening in India.
Statement (R): Casteism is increasing in Indian politics.
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Explanation
The politicization of caste refers to the process by which caste identities are used as a basis for political mobilization, representation, and the pursuit of power within a democratic framework. This phenomenon has been central to Indian politics, as caste groups transform from traditional ritual communities into modern interest groups or pressure groups to negotiate with the state for resources and status. This makes Statement A correct. Statement R is also correct because casteism, which involves the exploitation of caste loyalties and the hardening of caste-based prejudices for electoral gains, has seen a visible rise in Indian political discourse and strategy.
While both statements are factually accurate, Statement R does not serve as the logical explanation for Statement A. Politicization is a structural process through which an ancient social hierarchy adapts to a modern parliamentary system to ensure group participation. The increase in casteism is a specific behavioral and ideological trend within that political environment. The former explains the entry of social groups into the power structure, while the latter describes the qualitative nature of that engagement, meaning they represent two parallel but distinct developments in the Indian political landscape.
7Polity and Governance
Statement (A): The President of India is indirectly elected.
Statement (R): Parliamentary system has been linked with republicanism in India.
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of the States, as well as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry, making it an indirect election. India adopted a parliamentary system of government where the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, holds the real executive power. By linking this parliamentary system with republicanism, the Constitution ensures that the head of state is an elected individual rather than a hereditary monarch. The indirect mode of election is specifically chosen to align the republican requirement of an elected head with the parliamentary requirement of a titular executive. This prevents the creation of a competing center of power that would arise if the President were directly elected by the people, thereby maintaining the supremacy of the cabinet in a parliamentary democracy.
8Polity and Governance
In which article of the Indian Constitution is the process of adopting the state language or languages?
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Answer: (C) Article 345
Explanation
Article 345 of the Indian Constitution outlines the provisions for the official language or languages of a State. It stipulates that the Legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State or Hindi as the language or languages to be used for all or any of the official purposes of that State. This article provides the necessary constitutional authority for state governments to determine their own official working languages based on regional requirements and linguistic demographics. Furthermore, it ensures administrative continuity by stating that until the state legislature provides otherwise by law, the English language shall continue to be used for those official purposes within the State for which it was being used immediately before the commencement of the Constitution.
9Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding Article 356 –
1. Failure of the constitutional machinery in the states is an objective reality.
2. The proclamation made under this article can be judicially reviewed by the Supreme Court.
3. The state assembly can be dissolved Airports along with this proclamation.
4. This proclamation must be approved by each House of Parliament within two months.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The Supreme Court in the S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) case established that the satisfaction of the President under Article 356 must be based on relevant material, making the failure of constitutional machinery an objective reality that can be tested in court. This judgement confirmed that the proclamation of President's Rule is subject to judicial review to prevent the arbitrary exercise of power. Additionally, as per the constitutional provisions of Article 356, any such proclamation must be laid before both Houses of Parliament and requires their approval within a period of two months from the date of its issuance to remain in force.
10Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding amendments to the Constitution –
1. The 42nd Amendment is known as the Mini-Constitution.
2. The 44th Amendment removed the power of judicial review from the courts.
3. The 24th Amendment abolished the privilege of the President to have cases against him during his term.
4. The 39th Amendment is related to the acquisition of land for public purposes.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 is called the Mini-Constitution because it made the most sweeping and comprehensive changes to the Indian Constitution in a single amendment. It amended the Preamble by adding the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity; inserted the chapter on Fundamental Duties as Part IVA; curtailed the scope of judicial review; extended the terms of Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies; and added new Directive Principles of State Policy. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 did not remove judicial review but rather restored it after curtailments imposed by the 42nd Amendment. The 24th Amendment of 1971 affirmed Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution including Fundamental Rights, following the Golaknath judgment; it did not concern any privilege or immunity of the President. The 39th Amendment of 1975 placed election disputes of the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, and Speaker beyond judicial jurisdiction; it was not related to land acquisition for public purposes.
11Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
A Gram Sabha is formed in Rajasthan from:
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Answer: (C) Registered voters of the village/villages in the Panchayat Circle.
Explanation
Under the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act, 1994, which was enacted to give effect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the Gram Sabha is defined as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village or a group of villages comprised within the area of the Panchayat. Every person who is a resident of the Panchayat Circle and has attained the age of 18 years, and whose name is included in the register of voters for the relevant constituency, is a member of the Gram Sabha. It functions as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system, providing a platform for direct democracy where registered voters exercise their right to participate in local governance and oversee the functioning of the Gram Panchayat.
12Polity and Governance
Identify the incorrectly matched pair of case and the Supreme Court's ruling:
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Bela Banerjee case - The right to travel abroad is a part of personal liberty.
Explanation
The State of West Bengal v. Bela Banerjee (1954) case was a landmark judgment concerning the Right to Property under Article 31. The Supreme Court ruled that the term compensation used in Article 31(2) implied a just equivalent or full market value of the property acquired by the government. This decision prompted the government to pass the Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act, 1955, to limit judicial review of the adequacy of compensation. The principle that the right to travel abroad is a fundamental part of personal liberty under Article 21 was established in the Satwant Singh Sawhney v. Assistant Passport Officer (1967) case and was later reinforced in the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) case. Since the Bela Banerjee case dealt with property compensation and not the right to travel abroad, it is incorrectly matched.
13Polity and Governance
Consider the following functions of the State Election Commission and select the correct answer using the code given below –
1. It prepares voter lists for the elections of Panchayats and Municipalities of the state.
2. It conducts elections for the Panchayats and Municipalities of the state.
3. It conducts elections for other bodies besides Panchayats and Municipalities as per the directions of the Governor.
4. It performs the functions of preparing voter lists and conducting elections as entrusted by the Election Commission of India.
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
Articles 243K and 243ZA of the Constitution of India, introduced by the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts, vest the State Election Commission with the powers of superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats and the Municipalities. The Commission is an independent constitutional authority designed to ensure that local body elections are held regularly and in a free and fair manner. Its specific mandate is restricted to these grassroots level democratic institutions within the state, where it manages the entire electoral process from the registration of voters to the declaration of results.
14Polity and Governance
In which of the following cases is the State Public Service Commission not consulted?
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Answer: (D) On the transfers of Civil Servants.
Explanation
Under Article 320 of the Constitution of India, the State Public Service Commission is mandated to be consulted on matters relating to recruitment methods, principles of appointment, promotions, and transfers from one service to another. However, routine administrative transfers of civil servants from one station or post to another within the same service do not fall within the consultative jurisdiction of the Commission. Such personnel movements are treated as executive functions of the state government to ensure administrative efficiency and are managed by the respective departments or specialized transfer boards. The Commission is only involved when the transfer involves a change in the service cadre or the underlying principles governing such movements.
15Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Which of the following is not correct about the Affordable Housing Policy-2009 in Rajasthan?
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Answer: (A) Initially, a target of constructing one lakh houses was set for the next five years.
Explanation
The Affordable Housing Policy 2009 of Rajasthan was designed specifically for urban areas to address the housing shortage for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) and Lower Income Group (LIG) categories. The state government established an overall target of constructing 1.25 lakh (1,25,000) houses within a five-year period (by 2014). This total was allocated across different agencies, where the Rajasthan Housing Board (RHB) was responsible for 40% of the construction (50,000 houses), and the remaining 60% (75,000 houses) was to be developed by Urban Improvement Trusts (UITs), Development Authorities, and private developers under Public-Private Partnership (PPP) models. To ensure effective implementation and streamlined decision-making, the policy constituted a State Level Empowered Committee (SLEC) chaired by the Minister of Urban Development and Housing.
16Polity and Governance
List-1 is matched with List-2 and the correct answer is selected using the codes given below -
List-1 – List-2
Constitutional Article – Provision
A. 215 1. Transfer of a judge from one High Court to another High Court
B. 222 2. Power of superintendence over all courts
C. 226 3. Power of the High Court to issue certain writs
D. 227 4. The High Court as a court of record
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 4 1 3 2
Explanation
Article 215 establishes that every High Court shall be a court of record, meaning its proceedings are recorded for perpetual testimony and it has the power to punish for its own contempt. Article 222 provides the legal basis for the transfer of a judge from one High Court to another High Court by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Article 226 empowers the High Courts to issue certain writs, such as habeas corpus and mandamus, for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other legal purpose. Article 227 grants the High Court the power of superintendence over all subordinate courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction.
17Polity and Governance
Who called the District Collector as 'Institutional Charisma'?
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Answer: (D) J.D. Shukla
Explanation
J.D. Shukla, a distinguished civil servant and author, described the position of the District Collector in India as one of Institutional Charisma. In his analysis of state and district administration, he highlighted how the office itself carries an inherent prestige, authority, and public trust that transcends the individual officer holding the post. This concept suggests that the District Collector serves as the central pivot of local administration, wielding a unique blend of legal-rational and traditional authority that allows the office to effectively coordinate various governmental functions and maintain social order. By using this term, Shukla emphasized the deep-rooted institutional significance and the symbolic power the Collectorate holds within the Indian socio-political framework.
18Polity and Governance
Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below -
List-1 – List-2
Article of the Constitution – Provision
A. 215 1. Transfer of a judge from one High Court to another High Court
B. 222 2. Power of superintendence over all courts
C. 226 3. Power of the High Court to issue certain writs
D. 227 4. The High Court as a court of record
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 4 1 3 2
Explanation
Article 215 of the Constitution establishes that every High Court shall be a court of record, meaning its proceedings are recorded for perpetual memory and it possesses the power to punish for contempt of itself. Article 222 empowers the President, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, to transfer a judge from one High Court to any other High Court. Article 226 grants High Courts the authority to issue directions, orders, or writs, including habeas corpus and mandamus, for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. Article 227 provides that every High Court shall have the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction.
19Polity and Governance
Who called the District Collector as 'Institutional Charisma'?
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Rajesh Kothari
Explanation
The District Collector is considered the lynchpin of district administration in India, and the term institutional charisma describes how the office itself commands supreme authority and public trust. Rajesh Kothari used this term to highlight that the prestige and power associated with the post are inherent to the institution rather than the individual officer. This charisma is a product of the historical legacy of the office, which serves as the principal point of contact between the state and the citizenry. As the head of revenue administration, the district magistrate, and the coordinator of development programs, the Collector represents the majesty of the state. This unique positioning allows the office to exercise leadership and resolve local issues with a level of legitimacy that is recognized by both the bureaucracy and the general public.
20Polity and Governance
Match List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below -
List-1 – List-2
Article of the Constitution – Provision
A. 215 1. Transfer of a judge from one High Court to another High Court
B. 222 2. Power of superintendence over all courts
C. 226 3. Power of the High Court to issue certain writs
D. 227 4. The High Court as a court of record
Code:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 4 1 3 2
Explanation
Article 215 mandates that every High Court shall be a court of record, meaning its proceedings are recorded for perpetual testimony and it possesses the power to punish for contempt of itself.
Article 222 provides the mechanism for the transfer of a judge from one High Court to any other High Court, which is carried out by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Article 226 grants the High Courts the power to issue certain writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari, for the enforcement of fundamental rights or for any other legal purpose.
Article 227 vests the High Court with the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, excluding those constituted under laws relating to the Armed Forces.
21Polity and Governance
Who called the District Collector as 'Institutional Charisma'?
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Rajesh Kothari
Explanation
Rajesh Kothari, an authority on Indian Public Administration, used the term Institutional Charisma to describe the office of the District Collector. This concept explains that the immense authority, prestige, and influence wielded by the Collector are derived from the institution of the office itself rather than the individual personality of the officer holding the post.
The historical legacy of the position, which dates back to the colonial era, combined with its role as the primary representative of the state government at the district level, has created a structural aura of power. This institutionalized status ensures that the incumbent receives instinctive respect and cooperation from both the public and the administrative machinery. The office functions as a pivot of the district administration, where the charisma is embedded in the legal-rational framework and the traditional expectations associated with the designation of the Collector.
22Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Consider the jurisdiction of the Lokayukta in Rajasthan and select the correct answer with the help of the given codes –
1. Only Ministers.
2. Ministers including the Chief Minister.
3. Servants of corporations established by the law of the state of Rajasthan.
4. District Chiefs, Sub-District Chiefs, Ward Heads and Sub-Ward Heads.
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
The jurisdiction of the Rajasthan Lokayukta is governed by the Rajasthan Lokayukta and Up-Lokayukta Act, 1973. Under the provisions of this Act, the Lokayukta is empowered to investigate allegations of corruption and maladministration against several categories of public servants. This includes all Ministers of the state government, while specifically excluding the Chief Minister from its purview. Furthermore, the Lokayukta has jurisdiction over the servants and employees of corporations, local authorities, and other statutory bodies established by or under the laws of the State of Rajasthan. The Act also brings high-level elected representatives of the Panchayati Raj system within its scope, specifically mentioning Zila Pramukhs (District Chiefs), Up-Zila Pramukhs (Sub-District Chiefs), Pradhans (Ward Heads/Block Heads), and Up-Pradhans (Sub-Ward Heads/Deputy Block Heads). Therefore, the entities and officials mentioned in statements 1, 3, and 4 are all subject to the Lokayukta's authority in Rajasthan.
23Polity and Governance
Consider the following and select the correct answer using the codes given below –
1. The Governor will take an oath or affirmation before assuming office.
2. The format of the oath or affirmation is in the Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
3. The Governor shall take the oath or affirmation before the Chief Justice of the High Court or the senior-most judge in his absence.
4. The procedure for the oath or affirmation is given in Article 159 of the Indian Constitution.
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
Article 159 of the Indian Constitution specifically governs the oath or affirmation for the Governor. It stipulates that every Governor and every person discharging the functions of the Governor shall, before entering upon their office, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation. This oath is administered in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or in their absence, the senior-most Judge of that Court available. While the Third Schedule of the Constitution contains the forms of oaths or affirmations for various constitutional functionaries like Ministers, Legislators, and Judges, it does not include the oath for the Governor. Instead, the specific format and text of the Governor's oath are provided directly within the text of Article 159, similar to the oaths of the President and Vice-President which are found in Articles 60 and 69 respectively.
24Polity and Governance
Select the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister from the given code –
1. The Chief Minister informs the Governor about the decisions related to the administration of the state's functions.
2. The Chief Minister informs the Governor about legislative proposals.
3. The Chief Minister participates in the meetings of the National Development Council.
4. If the Governor requests, the Chief Minister places before the Council any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister, but which has not been considered by the Council.
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
Article 167 of the Constitution of India explicitly defines the duties of the Chief Minister towards the Governor. Under Article 167(a), it is the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation. This directly establishes the duties mentioned in points 1 and 2. Furthermore, Article 167(c) provides that if the Governor so requires, the Chief Minister must submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council, corresponding to point 4. While the Chief Minister participates in the National Development Council, this is an extra-constitutional body established by an executive resolution rather than a constitutional mandate, and therefore participation in its meetings does not constitute a constitutional duty under the framework of the Indian Constitution.
25Polity and Governance
Match the following lists -
List-1 – List-2
Excellent MP – Award Year
A. Arun Jaitley 1. Year 2009
B. Karan Singh 2. Year 2012
C. Sharad Yadav 3. Year 2011
D. Murli Manohar Joshi 4. Year 2010
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Arun Jaitley was conferred the Outstanding Parliamentarian Award for the year 2010 in recognition of his articulate debating skills and logical contributions in the Rajya Sabha. Karan Singh received the award for the year 2011 for his deep intellectual depth and long-standing service as a distinguished elder statesman. Sharad Yadav was chosen for the year 2012 for his veteran leadership and consistent efforts in raising the concerns of the marginalized sections of society. Murli Manohar Joshi was the recipient for the year 2009, recognized for his vast experience and scholarly input during parliamentary proceedings. These awards are presented annually by the Indian Parliamentary Group to recognize the exemplary performance, conduct, and dedication of Members of Parliament to the democratic process.
26Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
According to the figures presented by the Government of India and Rajasthan on May 25, 2013, the combined population of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Rajasthan is
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 31.3 percent
Explanation
According to the Census 2011 data, which served as the basis for the government figures released in 2013, the population of Scheduled Castes in Rajasthan was approximately 17.83 percent of the total state population. During the same period, the population of Scheduled Tribes was recorded at approximately 13.48 percent. The summation of these two demographic figures yields a combined population percentage of 31.31 percent for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the state.
27Polity and Governance
Match the following lists and select the correct answer based on the code given below -
List-1 – List-2
Player – Game
A. Sameer Suhag 1. Polo
B. Vikas Krishna 2. Boxing
C. Anup Kumar 3. Kabaddi
D. Yashpal Solanki 4. Judo
Code:
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 1 2 3 4
Explanation
Sameer Suhag is an elite Indian polo player who received the Arjuna Award in 2012 for his significant contributions to the sport. Vikas Krishan Yadav is a prominent boxer who won a gold medal at the 2010 Asian Games and a bronze at the 2011 World Championships, earning the Arjuna Award in 2012. Anup Kumar is a legendary kabaddi player and former captain of the Indian national team who was also conferred with the Arjuna Award in 2012. Yashpal Solanki is a renowned judoka who represented India in international competitions and was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2012 for his excellence in Judo. The sequence 1-2-3-4 correctly aligns each athlete with their respective discipline based on the 2012 Arjuna Award recipients list.
28Polity and Governance
Match the following lists and select the correct answer based on the code given below -
List-1 – List-2
Player – Game
A. Sameer Suhag 1. Polo
B. Vikas Krishna 2. Boxing
C. Anup Kumar 3. Kabaddi
D. Yashpal Solanki 4. Judo
Code:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
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Answer: (A) 1 2 3 4
Explanation
Sameer Suhag is a highly distinguished Indian Polo player who achieved a 6-goal handicap and was honored with the Arjuna Award in 2012. Vikas Krishna, commonly known as Vikas Krishan Yadav, is a prominent Indian Boxer who won a gold medal at the 2010 Asian Games and was also an Arjuna Award recipient in 2012. Anup Kumar is a legendary figure in Kabaddi, having captained the Indian national team to multiple victories and received the Arjuna Award in 2012. Yashpal Solanki is a veteran Indian Judoka who represented India in numerous international championships and was conferred with the Arjuna Award in 2012. These athletes were all prominent figures in their respective sports during the 2012-2013 period.
29Polity and Governance
Match the following lists and select the correct answer based on the code given below -
List-1 – List-2
Player – Game
A. Sameer Suhag 1. Polo
B. Vikas Krishna 2. Boxing
C. Anup Kumar 3. Kabaddi
D. Yashpal Solanki 4. Judo
Code:
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
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Answer: (A) 1 2 3 4
Explanation
Sameer Suhag is a prominent Indian Polo player who achieved a six-goal handicap and was conferred with the Arjuna Award in 2012. Vikas Krishan Yadav is a successful Indian Boxer who secured a gold medal at the 2010 Guangzhou Asian Games and received the Arjuna Award in 2012. Anup Kumar is a legendary Kabaddi player who captained the Indian national team to several international victories and was also honored with the Arjuna Award in 2012. Yashpal Solanki is a distinguished Judo practitioner who represented India in various international competitions and was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2012 for his excellence in the sport.
30Polity and Governance
Match the following lists and select the correct answer based on the code given below -
List-1 – List-2
Player – Game
A. Sameer Suhag 1. Polo
B. Vikas Krishna 2. Boxing
C. Anup Kumar 3. Kabaddi
D. Yashpal Solanki 4. Judo
Code:
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Answer: (A) 1 2 3 4
Explanation
Sameer Suhag is a premier Indian Polo player who attained a +5 handicap and represented India in multiple World Cups. Vikas Krishna is a celebrated athlete who secured a gold medal in Boxing at the 2010 Guangzhou Asian Games and received the Arjuna Award in 2012. Anup Kumar was the captain of the Indian national Kabaddi team and a key figure in winning gold medals at the 2010 and 2014 Asian Games. Yashpal Solanki is a distinguished judoka who was conferred with the Arjuna Award in 2012 for his achievements in Judo.
31Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Julian Assange is the founder of WikiLeaks.
2. He is a citizen of Australia.
3. He took political asylum at the Bolivian embassy in London.
4. Bradley Manning was sentenced to 90 years in prison for espionage for WikiLeaks.
Choose the correct statements from the codes given below:
Code:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, and 4
Explanation
Julian Assange, an Australian computer programmer and journalist, founded WikiLeaks in 2006. The organisation gained worldwide attention for publishing classified, sensitive, and censored materials provided by anonymous sources. Assange is a citizen of Australia, born in Townsville, Queensland, in 1971. He took refuge in the Embassy of Ecuador in London in June 2012, not the Bolivian embassy, and was granted political asylum by Ecuador in August 2012 to avoid extradition to Sweden and subsequently to the United States. Bradley Manning, a former United States Army intelligence analyst later known as Chelsea Manning, was convicted in 2013 on charges related to the unauthorised disclosure of classified information to WikiLeaks. While the theoretical maximum sentence totalled 90 years, the military judge sentenced Manning to 35 years in prison. Among the given options, the one containing statements 1 and 2 is option C, as both those statements are factually correct.
32Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The chairman of the newly formed 'State Innovation Council' is:
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Answer: (B) V.S. Vyas.
Explanation
The Rajasthan State Innovation Council was established to drive innovation-led growth in the state, and Professor V.S. Vyas was appointed as its Chairman. A renowned economist and former Director of the Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad, V.S. Vyas also served as the Deputy Chairman of the Rajasthan State Planning Board. His leadership was instrumental in formulating strategies to foster innovation across various sectors including agriculture, industry, and governance within the state.
33Polity and Governance
The political leadership of which country is known as 'Princeling'?
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Answer: (C) China
Explanation
The term Princelings, known in Chinese as Taizidang, refers to an informal political faction within the Communist Party of China consisting of the descendants of prominent high-ranking revolutionary veterans and senior officials. These individuals often leverage their family’s prestige and extensive political networks to secure influential positions in the party hierarchy, the government, and major state-owned corporations. The term gained significant international attention around 2013 during the leadership transition to the fifth generation, as several top leaders, most notably General Secretary Xi Jinping, the son of former Vice Premier Xi Zhongxun, were identified as members of this elite group. Their rise to power is characterized by a combination of merit and the inherited political capital of their parents, who were part of the founding generation of the People’s Republic.
34Polity and Governance
The terrorist organization that attacked the mall in Nairobi in September 2013 was -
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Answer: (A) Al-Shabaab
Explanation
The attack on the Westgate shopping mall in Nairobi, Kenya, which began on September 21, 2013, was carried out by the Somalia-based militant group Al-Shabaab. The organization officially claimed responsibility for the siege, stating it was a retaliatory measure against the Kenyan military's intervention in Somalia, which had commenced in 2011 to combat the group's influence. The multi-day attack involved gunmen storming the luxury complex, resulting in a prolonged standoff with Kenyan security forces and significant casualties.
35Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
The Indian Institutes of Technology and the National Law University are located in Rajasthan in -
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Answer: (A) Jodhpur
Explanation
Jodhpur is the only city in Rajasthan that hosts both an Indian Institute of Technology and a National Law University. IIT Jodhpur was established in 2008 by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to provide high-quality technical education and research facilities. The National Law University Jodhpur was established in 1999 under the National Law University, Jodhpur Act passed by the Rajasthan State Legislature, making it one of the premier autonomous law schools in the country. The presence of these two prestigious national-level institutions makes Jodhpur a significant educational hub in the state.
36Polity and Governance
On October 7, 2013, who was sworn in as the first Chief Minister of the Northern Province of Sri Lanka?
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Answer: (C) C.V. Vigneshwaran
Explanation
C.V. Vigneshwaran, a former Justice of the Supreme Court of Sri Lanka, was sworn in as the first Chief Minister of the Northern Province on October 7, 2013. His appointment followed the landmark provincial council elections held in September 2013, where the Tamil National Alliance (TNA) secured a significant victory. These elections were particularly noteworthy as they were the first held in the Northern Province since the provincial council system was introduced in 1987. Vigneshwaran took his oath of office before President Mahinda Rajapaksa in Colombo, assuming leadership of the province's first-ever elected administration in the post-civil war era.
37Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Under the National Food Security Act, 2013, the population included in the food security scheme started in Rajasthan is -
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Answer: (D) 4.64 crore
Explanation
The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was officially launched in Rajasthan on October 2, 2013. Based on the 2011 Census and the criteria set by the Union Government, the act aimed to cover 67 percent of the state population, which translated to approximately 4.64 crore people. This beneficiary base was comprised of 75 percent of the rural population, amounting to 3.62 crore people, and 50 percent of the urban population, amounting to 1.02 crore people. These identified individuals became eligible to receive food grains, specifically wheat, at the subsidized rate of ₹2 per kilogram as per the entitlements defined under the food security scheme.
38Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Who is the chairman of the Fourth Finance Commission of Rajasthan?
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Answer: (B) B.D. Kalla
Explanation
B.D. Kalla, or Bulaki Das Kalla, was appointed as the Chairman of the Fourth State Finance Commission of Rajasthan. This constitutional body was established under the provisions of Article 243-I and 243-Y of the Constitution of India to review the financial position of local bodies. The commission was tasked with making recommendations regarding the distribution of net tax proceeds between the State Government and local bodies, including Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies. The Fourth Finance Commission covered the functional period from 2011 to 2015, ensuring a structured fiscal transfer mechanism to empower grassroots governance in the state.
39Polity and GovernanceRajasthan-specific
Under which scheme does the Government of Rajasthan provide financial incentives to candidates of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes who pass the All India Civil Services Examination and the State Civil Services Examination?
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Answer: (D) Anpreeti Yojana
Explanation
The Anupriti Yojana is a flagship scheme implemented by the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of Rajasthan. It was specifically designed to provide financial assistance and incentives to meritorious students belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Special Backward Classes, and other marginalized groups who pass various stages of prestigious competitive examinations. Under this scheme, candidates receive monetary rewards upon clearing the preliminary and main stages of the All India Civil Services Examination conducted by the UPSC and the Rajasthan State and Subordinate Services Combined Competitive Examination conducted by the RPSC. The initiative aims to encourage and support talented students from socially and economically disadvantaged backgrounds in their pursuit of careers in the civil services by easing the financial burden of preparation and examination fees.
40Polity and Governance
In the following questions, two assumptions are given after a statement. Decide whether the assumption(s) is/are valid or invalid based on the statement and the assumptions.
Statement: All Indian youth above the age of 18 should be given unemployment allowance.
Assumptions –
First: Unemployed youth in India need financial assistance.
Second: The government has enough funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.
Code:
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Answer: (A) Only the first.
Explanation
The statement proposes providing an unemployment allowance to Indian youth, which logically proceeds from the assumption that these individuals require financial support. An allowance is a form of economic aid, and suggesting its distribution implies that the lack of employment creates a financial void that needs to be addressed for the welfare of the youth. Therefore, the need for assistance is a foundational premise of the statement. However, a recommendation for what should be done is a normative claim based on social or economic necessity and does not automatically assume the immediate availability of funds or fiscal capacity. The suggestion identifies a requirement for the youth, whereas the state of government finances is an external factor of implementation that is not pre-supposed by the desire to provide aid.
41Polity and Governance
In the following questions, a statement and two arguments are given below. Choose the correct answer based on the code provided below -
Statement: Should special treatment be given to prominent people who commit crimes unknowingly?
Argument 1: Yes, prominent people do not commit crimes intentionally.
Argument 2: No, it is our policy that all are equal before the law.
Code:
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Answer: (B) Only argument 2 is valid.
Explanation
The principle of equality before the law is a fundamental tenet of a democratic legal system and is enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution. This principle dictates that all individuals, regardless of their social status, wealth, or prominence, are subject to the same laws and legal processes. The rule of law requires that the legal system operates without discrimination, ensuring that the nature of the crime and the evidence determine the outcome rather than the identity of the accused. Granting special treatment based on social standing would violate the core constitutional mandate of uniform justice and the egalitarian basis of the judiciary.
42Polity and Governance
Statement: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) receives a complaint from an official alleging that a bribe was taken for a work that is his duty.
Methods of action:
1. The CBI should try to catch the official red-handed and then take strict action against him.
2. The CBI should wait for complaints to be sure of the matter.
What would be the appropriate action?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
The Central Bureau of Investigation is the primary agency in India tasked with investigating corruption among public officials under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. When a specific complaint regarding a demand for a bribe is received, the standard and most effective operational procedure is to organize a trap to catch the perpetrator red-handed. This method provides direct, admissible evidence of the criminal act, which is necessary for successful prosecution and strict disciplinary action. Taking immediate action based on a formal complaint is essential to prevent the loss of evidence and to uphold the rule of law, as delaying the investigation would undermine the agency's mandate to combat administrative corruption effectively.
43Polity and Governance
There are six roads represented by the letters X, Y, Z and the numbers 1, 2, 3, which lead to a country. When a storm comes, Y is closed. When a flood comes, X, 1 and 2 are affected. When 1 is closed, Z also closes. If there is a flood and a storm at the same time, which road(s) are used?
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Answer: (C) Only 3
Explanation
The occurrence of a storm results in the closure of road Y. Simultaneously, a flood affects and closes roads X, 1, and 2. According to the specific dependency rule provided, whenever road 1 is closed, road Z is also closed. Under the condition where both a flood and a storm happen at the same time, road Y is closed due to the storm, while roads X, 1, and 2 are closed due to the flood. The closure of road 1 further triggers the closure of road Z. Evaluating all six roads, X, Y, Z, 1, and 2 are all rendered unusable. Road 3 is the only route that remains unaffected by the storm, the flood, or any secondary closure rules, making it the only road that can be used.
44Polity and Governance
In a coded language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing carosQ’, ‘kop ja ki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing tennis’, ‘ki top sop ho’ means ‘they are playing football’, and ‘po sur kop’ means ‘carosQ and tennis’. What does the word ‘ja’ mean in this language?
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Answer: (A) ja
Explanation
To decode the word ja, the coded phrases are compared systematically. The phrase po ki top ma means Usha is playing carosQ, and kop ja ki ma means Asha is playing tennis. The codes ki and ma appear in both phrases, corresponding to the words is and playing, which are common to both meanings. The phrase po sur kop means carosQ and tennis. The code kop appears in both this phrase and in kop ja ki ma with the common meaning tennis, so kop means tennis. In the phrase kop ja ki ma, kop means tennis and the pair ki and ma corresponds to is and playing. The only remaining code is ja and the only remaining meaning is Asha. Therefore ja represents Asha and the answer to the question of which code word stands for Asha is ja.
45Polity and Governance
The power of the President to veto the bill amending the Constitution was taken away by which amendment by replacing the word 'consent shall be obtained'?
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Answer: (B) Twenty-fourth Amendment
Explanation
The Twenty-fourth Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 amended Article 368 to make it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill. By substituting the phraseology in Article 368 to state that the President shall give his assent to the Bill, the amendment removed the President's discretionary power to withhold assent or return such bills for reconsideration. This change ensured that once a constitutional amendment is passed by both Houses of Parliament with the requisite majority, the President is constitutionally bound to sign it.
46Polity and Governance
Where is the fundamental duty to protect and maintain the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India placed?
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Answer: (C) Third
Explanation
Article 51A of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, enumerates the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens. The provision specifically mentioned in clause (c) of Article 51A states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. In the sequential arrangement of the eleven fundamental duties listed under this Article, this particular duty is positioned as the third one, following the duties to respect the national flag and anthem and to follow the ideals of the freedom struggle.
47Polity and Governance
Which part of the Constitution deals with Panchayats?
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Answer: (B) Part Nine
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 inserted Part IX into the Constitution of India, titled The Panchayats. This part contains provisions from Article 243 to 243-O, establishing a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for rural local self-government. It mandates the creation of Gram Sabhas and provides for periodic elections, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women, and the constitution of State Finance Commissions to review the financial position of these bodies. By giving constitutional status to Panchayats, this part ensures the stability and continuity of local democratic institutions at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
48Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Constitutional Amendment of 1978 prioritized all the directive principles of state policy over the fundamental rights mentioned in Articles 14 and 19.
2. In the Minerva Mills case of 1980, the Supreme Court held that only the directive principles of state policy mentioned in Articles 39(b) and (c) are constitutionally prioritized over the fundamental rights mentioned in Articles 14 and 19.
Code:
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Answer: (B) Only 2 is correct.
Explanation
The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980) invalidated Section 4 of the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, which had attempted to give precedence to all Directive Principles of State Policy over the Fundamental Rights contained in Articles 14, 19, and 31. The Court ruled that the Constitution exists on the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, and giving absolute primacy to one over the other would disturb the basic structure. As a result of this judgment, the legal status reverted to the position established by the 25th Amendment Act of 1971, which provides that only the Directive Principles mentioned in Article 39(b) and Article 39(c) can take precedence over the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 14 and 19. This ensures that socio-economic justice goals related to the distribution of material resources and the prevention of concentration of wealth can be pursued even if they conflict with specific individual liberty clauses.
49Polity and Governance
Match List-1 with List-2 and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists -
List-1 – List-2
Provision of Constitutional Amendment – Number of Constitutional Amendment
A. Right to form cooperative societies under Article 19(1)(g) – 1. 81st Amendment, 2000
B. Protection of reservation for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes in filling up backlogs of vacancies – 2. 91st Amendment, 2004
C. Formation of National Judicial Appointments Commission – 3. 97th Amendment, 2012
D. Limiting the size of the Council of Ministers – 4. 99th Amendment, 2015
Code:
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Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
The 97th Amendment Act of 2011, associated with A, granted constitutional status to cooperative societies and protected the right to form them under Article 19. The 81st Amendment Act of 2000, linked to B, introduced Article 16(4B) to enable the government to treat unfilled reserved vacancies of a year as a separate class of vacancies to be filled in succeeding years without being limited by the 50 percent reservation cap. The 99th Amendment Act of 2014, corresponding to C, provided for the establishment of the National Judicial Appointments Commission to handle judicial appointments in place of the collegium system. The 91st Amendment Act of 2003, paired with D, restricted the total number of ministers in the Council of Ministers to 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha or the respective State Legislative Assembly.
50Polity and Governance
Match List-1 with List-2 and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists -
List-1 – List-2
Case – Subject
A. A.K. Gooptan vs. Madras State – 1. Equality in admission to educational institutions
B. Romesh Thapar vs. Madras State – 2. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
C. Shankari Prasad vs. Indian Union – 3. Doctrine of Basic Structure
D. Champakam Dorairajan vs. Madras State – 4. Restriction on freedom of speech
Code:
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Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Romesh Thapar vs. State of Madras (1950) is the landmark case on restriction of freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a). The Supreme Court held that banning the entry and circulation of a journal in Madras could not be justified merely on grounds of public safety, and this judgment prompted the First Constitutional Amendment which added public order as a valid ground for restricting free speech. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India (1951) is the foundational case on the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368. The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the First Constitutional Amendment, establishing the principle that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, through the procedure prescribed in Article 368. Champakam Dorairajan vs. State of Madras (1951) concerned caste-based reservations in medical and engineering college admissions. The Supreme Court struck down the Communal Government Order as violating Article 29(2), which prohibits discrimination in state-aided educational institutions on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them. This ruling directly necessitated the First Amendment which inserted Article 15(4), enabling the state to make special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes in educational admissions.