Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.
Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.
Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.
As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above prepandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.
It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel- based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.
According to the passage, why did greenhouse gas emissions decrease in 2020?
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Answer: (C) Global mobility restrictions and economic activity declination due to lockdown
Explanation
The passage explicitly attributes the 4.6 percent drop in greenhouse gas emissions during 2020 to the first-half lockdowns, which placed severe restrictions on global mobility and significantly reduced economic activity worldwide.
2English Language
Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.
Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.
Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.
As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above prepandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.
It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel- based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.
How do greenhouse gas emissions impact the climate, as mentioned in the passage?
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Answer: (C) They cause changes in the atmosphere, land, and oceans.
Explanation
The passage explicitly states that as human-generated greenhouse gas emissions accumulate in the atmosphere, they warm the global climate and drive widespread environmental changes across atmospheric, terrestrial, and oceanic systems.
3English Language
Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.
Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.
Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.
As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above prepandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.
It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel- based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.
What specific role does the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard play, as mentioned in the passage?
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Answer: (B) Monitoring the transition to lower carbon use
Explanation
The passage defines the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard as a collaborative initiative between national and international statistical organizations designed to deliver timely data that helps track and monitor the global transition toward lower carbon usage.
4English Language
Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.
Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.
Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.
As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above prepandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.
It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel- based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.
What is the significance of limiting atmospheric warming to around 1.5 degrees Celsius, as mentioned by the IPCC?
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Answer: (D) It reduces the risk of severe climate impacts.
Explanation
The passage cites the IPCC assessment that restricting global warming to approximately 1.5 °C by ensuring emissions peak by 2025 is vital for managing and reducing the overall severity of climate change impacts.
5English Language
Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.
Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.
Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.
As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above prepandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.
It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel- based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.
What is the overarching message conveyed by the passage regarding greenhouse gas emissions and climate change?
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Answer: (E) Urgent action is needed to reduce emissions and limit atmospheric warming.
Explanation
The passage concludes by highlighting scientific warnings that time is rapidly expiring, stressing the imperative need for immediate, decisive action to bend the emissions trajectory and prevent severe atmospheric warming.
6English Language
Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.
Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.
Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.
As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above prepandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.
It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel- based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.
What does the passage suggest about the relationship between the pandemic and greenhouse gas emissions?
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Answer: (C) The pandemic caused a temporary decrease in emissions.
Explanation
The passage demonstrates that the pandemic caused only a short-lived reduction in emissions during the 2020 lockdowns, as global emissions subsequently rebounded and surpassed prepandemic levels once mobility and economic operations resumed.
7English Language
Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.
Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.
Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.
As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above prepandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.
It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel- based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.
Which of the following words is the synonym of "curve" as highlighted in the given passage?
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Answer: (D) trajectory
Explanation
When analyzing scientific data over time, a curve describes the path or direction of plotted metrics, making trajectory the exact contextual synonym for an emissions trend line.
8English Language
Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on it.
Emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases plunged 4.6 percent in 2020, as lockdowns in the first half of the year restricted global mobility and hampered economic activity. Many hoped that this would mark the beginning of a more permanent shift downwards in emissions.
Emissions from the manufacturing and the energy sectors contributed the most to recent global increases based on updated information from the IMF's Climate Change Indicators Dashboard—a joint effort among national and international statistical organizations to provide timely data to help monitor the transition to lower carbon use.
As greenhouse gas emissions from human activities increase, they build up in the atmosphere and warm the climate, leading to many other changes around the world—in the atmosphere, on land, and in the oceans. While total emissions have climbed significantly above prepandemic levels, increases from transportation and households were more muted last year as the pandemic weighed on global mobility. This was particularly evident with the emergence of the omicron variant in the fourth quarter of last year. The public health policy measures in many countries drove down the emissions of households and of the electricity sector.
It will be important to monitor the emissions of both of these sectors as economies fully reopen in the context of historically high fossil fuel- based energy prices. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that, in the scenarios they assessed, limiting atmospheric warming to the key level of around 1.5 degrees Celsius requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak by 2025 at the latest, emphasizing that achieving this milestone is a crucial step towards controlling the severity of climate change. The new data from the climate dashboard underscore what some scientists have warned: time is running out, and we must urgently bend the emissions curve to achieve the necessary reductions to limit atmospheric warming.
Which of the following words is the antonym of "build" as highlighted in the given passage?
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Answer: (A) demolish
Explanation
The verb build means to construct, assemble, or accumulate, whereas demolish means to tear down, dismantle, or destroy, making it the precise antonym.
9English Language
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
A minity of food were (A)/ spread over the tables and was (B)/ way more than any one (C)/ group of people could eat (D)/.
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Answer: (A) A
Explanation
Uncountable nouns such as food require singular agreement, and the parallel verb later in the sentence is was, making the plural verb form were grammatically incorrect in the first clause.
10English Language
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
The skipper of the (A)/ boat guide the vessel (B)/ through the storm and made (C)/ it safely into the port (D)/.
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Answer: (B) B
Explanation
The sentence describes past actions confirmed by the verb made, requiring the past-tense form guided rather than the base present-tense form guide to maintain proper verb tense agreement.
11English Language
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
Spunky and full of spirit (A)/, the little girl is known (B)/ for always doing things that (C)/ others are afraid to does (D)/.
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Answer: (D) D
Explanation
In English grammar, an infinitive verb phrase consists of the particle "to" followed by the base form of a verb. In part D, "to does" is grammatically incorrect because "does" is a third-person singular present tense form; it must be replaced by the base verb form "do" to form "afraid to do".
12English Language
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
The cell's nucleus is like (A)/ the conductor of a huge (B)/ opera who tell all the (C)/ performers what to do (D)/.
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Answer: (C) C
Explanation
A relative clause modifying a singular antecedent must maintain subject-verb agreement. In part C, the antecedent is the singular noun "conductor", so the modifying verb in the relative clause must be singular ("tells") rather than plural ("tell").
13English Language
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
To avoid a calamity, the (A)/ police is asking everyone (B)/ to move away from (C)/ the burning building (D)/.
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Answer: (B) B
Explanation
In standard English usage, "police" is treated as a plural collective noun and takes plural verb forms. Therefore, the singular verb form "is asking" in part B should be replaced by the plural verb form "are asking".
14English Language
In each of the questions given below five words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is then select option (e) as your choice.
A rugged (A) ceiling fan uses the time- tested induction (B) motor, which is typical (C) but may have limits (D) on energy (E) performance.
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Answer: (D) A-C
Explanation
Placing "typical" at position A introduces the general category of appliance ("A typical ceiling fan"), while placing "rugged" at position C accurately describes the structural property of the induction motor ("which is rugged but may have limits on energy performance").
15English Language
In each of the questions given below five words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is then select option (e) as your choice.
In behavioural economics, choices (A) are interventions (B) that influence people's choices to make certain decisions (C) without restricting (D) the nudges (E) available to them.
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Answer: (D) E-A
Explanation
In behavioural economics, a nudge is defined as an intervention that alters people's behavior in a predictable way without forbidding any choices or significantly changing their economic incentives. Swapping positions A and E aligns the sentence precisely with this economic concept, stating that nudges are interventions that influence choices without restricting the choices available to individuals.
16English Language
In each of the questions given below five words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is then select option (e) as your choice.
Single- use plastics have emerged (A) as one of the world's most buried (B) environmental threats (C), with vast amounts of waste pressing (D) in landfills or dumped (E) untreated in rivers and oceans.
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Answer: (C) B-D
Explanation
The adjective "pressing" appropriately modifies "environmental threats" to signify urgent global challenges, while "buried" accurately describes the physical disposal of waste inside landfills alongside waste dumped in oceans and rivers.
17English Language
Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Artificial intelligence and robotics are very recent technologies and risks for our world.
(B) They may also inherit the full nature of creatures.
(C) When humans see the past histories of AI and robotics, human beings can examine and understand the objectives and intentions of them to make life easy and assist human beings within different circumstances and situations.
(D) However, currently and in the near future, due to the change in the attitude of robotic and AI inventors and experts as well as based on the AI nature that their capacity of environmental acquisition and adaptation, they may become predators and put creatures at risk.
(E) They are developing their capacity dramatically and shifting their origins of developing intention to other dimensions.
(F) Thus, finally they will create their new universe or the destiny of our universe will be in danger.
Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
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Answer: (E) C
Explanation
The logical sequence of the paragraph is A-E-C-D-B-F. Sentence A introduces AI and robotics as evolving technologies, and sentence E expands on their rapid development. Sentence C forms the third sentence, reviewing the historical intention behind these technologies—to assist humans and simplify tasks. This past perspective directly sets up the contrast introduced in sentence D with "However", which details present and future dangers. Sentences B and F follow to describe further risks and provide a final conclusion. Thus, sentence C occupies the third position in the logical order.
18English Language
Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Artificial intelligence and robotics are very recent technologies and risks for our world.
(B) They may also inherit the full nature of creatures.
(C) When humans see the past histories of AI and robotics, human beings can examine and understand the objectives and intentions of them to make life easy and assist human beings within different circumstances and situations.
(D) However, currently and in the near future, due to the change in the attitude of robotic and AI inventors and experts as well as based on the AI nature that their capacity of environmental acquisition and adaptation, they may become predators and put creatures at risk.
(E) They are developing their capacity dramatically and shifting their origins of developing intention to other dimensions.
(F) Thus, finally they will create their new universe or the destiny of our universe will be in danger.
Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
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Answer: (A) A
Explanation
An introductory sentence of a coherent passage establishes the general theme without relying on pronouns or transition words that refer to preceding ideas. Statement A clearly introduces artificial intelligence and robotics as recent technologies and risks, laying the foundation for the subsequent historical background, contrasting future developments, and final conclusions.
19English Language
Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Artificial intelligence and robotics are very recent technologies and risks for our world.
(B) They may also inherit the full nature of creatures.
(C) When humans see the past histories of AI and robotics, human beings can examine and understand the objectives and intentions of them to make life easy and assist human beings within different circumstances and situations.
(D) However, currently and in the near future, due to the change in the attitude of robotic and AI inventors and experts as well as based on the AI nature that their capacity of environmental acquisition and adaptation, they may become predators and put creatures at risk.
(E) They are developing their capacity dramatically and shifting their origins of developing intention to other dimensions.
(F) Thus, finally they will create their new universe or the destiny of our universe will be in danger.
Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
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Answer: (C) B
Explanation
Following the discussion of AI systems shifting their intentions and developing capacities dramatically in statement E, statement B extends this argument by adding that they may also inherit the full nature of creatures. This leads directly into the final concluding sentence about creating a new universe or imperiling human destiny.
20English Language
Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Artificial intelligence and robotics are very recent technologies and risks for our world.
(B) They may also inherit the full nature of creatures.
(C) When humans see the past histories of AI and robotics, human beings can examine and understand the objectives and intentions of them to make life easy and assist human beings within different circumstances and situations.
(D) However, currently and in the near future, due to the change in the attitude of robotic and AI inventors and experts as well as based on the AI nature that their capacity of environmental acquisition and adaptation, they may become predators and put creatures at risk.
(E) They are developing their capacity dramatically and shifting their origins of developing intention to other dimensions.
(F) Thus, finally they will create their new universe or the destiny of our universe will be in danger.
Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
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Answer: (B) E
Explanation
Sentence A introduces the central subject—artificial intelligence and robotics—along with their associated risks. Sentence E logically follows as the second sentence because the pronoun "They" directly refers to the subject introduced in A, elaborating on how these technologies are rapidly advancing by developing their capacity dramatically and shifting their original scope. This creates a smooth flow of thought before contrasting past intentions with future threats in the subsequent sentences.
21English Language
Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Artificial intelligence and robotics are very recent technologies and risks for our world.
(B) They may also inherit the full nature of creatures.
(C) When humans see the past histories of AI and robotics, human beings can examine and understand the objectives and intentions of them to make life easy and assist human beings within different circumstances and situations.
(D) However, currently and in the near future, due to the change in the attitude of robotic and AI inventors and experts as well as based on the AI nature that their capacity of environmental acquisition and adaptation, they may become predators and put creatures at risk.
(E) They are developing their capacity dramatically and shifting their origins of developing intention to other dimensions.
(F) Thus, finally they will create their new universe or the destiny of our universe will be in danger.
Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
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Answer: (E) F
Explanation
In the given paragraph, sentence A introduces AI and robotics, sentence C discusses past intentions, sentence E describes their rapid expansion into new dimensions, sentence D highlights current and future risks, sentence B elaborates on their evolving traits, and sentence F provides the ultimate conclusion starting with "Thus, finally". Therefore, F is the last sentence in the coherent paragraph.
22English Language
In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given with two blanks. For each question, five options are given, each containing two words. You have to choose the most suitable option that fits both the blanks grammatically and contextually.
Although Epsom and Ewell are ______ populated, more than two- fifths of the borough is ______ as a green belt.
● Correct
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Answer: (B) densely, designated
Explanation
The sentence describes land usage and population density in Epsom and Ewell. "Densely populated" is the standard collocation denoting high population density, and "designated as a green belt" is the appropriate official term used for town planning and land reservation.
23English Language
In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given with two blanks. For each question, five options are given, each containing two words. You have to choose the most suitable option that fits both the blanks grammatically and contextually.
The particularly ______ focus on the idea of a fully developed form in Aristotle's ___________ of humans derives from its dual role.
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Answer: (C) prominent, discussions
Explanation
Only this pair yields a grammatical and idiomatic reading of both blanks in the sentence.
24English Language
In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given with two blanks. For each question, five options are given, each containing two words. You have to choose the most suitable option that fits both the blanks grammatically and contextually.
In summer, the region is bathed in an ______ of sunlight, with a "midnight sun" that ______ sets.
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Answer: (A) abundance, never
Explanation
The "midnight sun" is a natural phenomenon occurring in summer months north of the Arctic Circle or south of the Antarctic Circle, where the sun remains visible at local midnight. Thus, the region receives an abundance of sunlight and the sun never sets during this period.
25English Language
In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given with two blanks. For each question, five options are given, each containing two words. You have to choose the most suitable option that fits both the blanks grammatically and contextually.
This has _____________ both local populations and the rest of the world, with rising sea levels and __________ weather events.
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Answer: (E) affected, extreme
Explanation
In climate change contexts, environmental phenomena such as rising sea levels adversely affect populations, and severe climate disruptions are standardly termed "extreme weather events."
26English Language
A word has been given in each question and has been used in the sentences given below. Identify the statements where the word has been used in a contextually and grammatically correct manner. If the word has been used correctly in all the three statements, then mark (e), "All of these", as your answer.
INTEREST
(i) She developed a keen interest in painting during her college years and has since become a talented artist.
(ii) The company's new product generated a lot of interest among consumers due to its innovative features.
(iii) Sarah's interest in environmental conservation led her to volunteer at a local wildlife sanctuary.
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Answer: (E) All of these
Explanation
In sentence (i), "interest" means a feeling of wanting to learn or know about something. In sentence (ii), "interest" refers to the quality of attracting attention or curiosity from consumers. In sentence (iii), "interest" denotes active concern or involvement in a cause. All three usages are grammatically sound and contextually appropriate.
27English Language
Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer.
Demand for electronics is growing of all price segments, even as the production of these devices entails the use of scarce elements and high emissions.
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Answer: (D) is growing across all price segments
Explanation
The phrase "across all price segments" correctly uses the preposition "across" to mean throughout or in every part of a given range. Furthermore, the quantifier "all" requires the plural form "segments" when referring to countable nouns.
28English Language
Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer.
The coup- plotters may have sensed they would get support from the anti- Erdogan masses and the secular political class.
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Answer: (E) No correction required
Explanation
The sentence correctly uses the modal structure "may have + past participle" (sensed) to express past possibility, followed by a conditional object clause "they would get support". No correction is necessary.
29English Language
Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer.
Although the Constitution doesn't provide for a fixed number of sessions or days of sitting, three sessions are typical held in each calendar year.
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Answer: (B) sessions are typically held in each
Explanation
"Three sessions" is a plural subject that takes the plural verb "are". An adverb ("typically") is required to modify the passive verb form "held", making "sessions are typically held in each" the grammatically correct phrase.
30English Language
Which of the following phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer.
The ceiling fan market are undergoing a churn too, driven by policy imperatives and a regulation change.
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Answer: (C) is undergoing a churn too, driven by
Explanation
The subject of the sentence is "The ceiling fan market", which is singular and requires the singular auxiliary verb "is undergoing". The adverb "too" is correctly spelled to mean "also", and "driven by" correctly indicates the agent of the drive.
31Quantitative Aptitude
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following number series.
20, 32, 47, 57, 74, ?
The pattern in these differences is generated by alternately adding and subtracting consecutive prime numbers (3, 5, 7, 11):
12 + 3 = 15
15 - 5 = 10
10 + 7 = 17
17 - 11 = 6
Adding the next difference to the last known term gives 74 + 6 = 80.
32Quantitative Aptitude
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following number series.
32, 40, 53, 76, ?, 172
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Answer: (C) 114
Explanation
The first differences between consecutive terms are:
40 - 32 = 8
53 - 40 = 13
76 - 53 = 23
The second differences are 13 - 8 = 5 and 23 - 13 = 10. Continuing this sequence of multiples of 5, the next second difference is 15.
The next first difference is 23 + 15 = 38.
The missing term is 76 + 38 = 114.
Verification with the final term: 114 + (38 + 20) = 114 + 58 = 172.
33Quantitative Aptitude
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following number series.
40, 66, 116, 198, 320, ?
Following this pattern, the next difference is 13² + 1 = 169 + 1 = 170.
The missing term is 320 + 170 = 490.
34Quantitative Aptitude
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following number series.
80, ?, 117, 168, 271, 478
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Answer: (D) 92
Explanation
The differences between the given consecutive terms at the end are:
168 - 117 = 51
271 - 168 = 103
478 - 271 = 207
Notice the pattern in differences: 103 = 2 × 51 + 1 and 207 = 2 × 103 + 1.
Working backwards to find the earlier differences:
Second difference = (51 - 1) / 2 = 25
First difference = (25 - 1) / 2 = 12
The missing term is 80 + 12 = 92.
35Quantitative Aptitude
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following number series.
?, 161, 228, 299, 372, 451
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Answer: (A) 100
Explanation
The differences between given consecutive terms are:
228 - 161 = 67
299 - 228 = 71
372 - 299 = 73
451 - 372 = 79
These differences are consecutive prime numbers. The prime number immediately preceding 67 is 61.
The missing first term is 161 - 61 = 100.
36Quantitative Aptitude
What will come in the place of question (?) mark in the following number series.
500, 50, 10, 3, 1.2 ?
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Answer: (C) 0.6
Explanation
The sequence progresses by multiplying each term by an increasing step of 0.1:
500 × 0.1 = 50
50 × 0.2 = 10
10 × 0.3 = 3
3 × 0.4 = 1.2
1.2 × 0.5 = 0.6
The missing term is 0.6.
37Quantitative Aptitude
A shopkeeper marked up the price of article P by 20% and give discount of d% , then he gets a loss of (d - 11)% . If cost price of article Q is Rs.200 and gets a profit of 1.5d% , then find the selling price of the article Q.
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Answer: (A) Rs.335
Explanation
Let CP_P be the cost price of article P.
Marked price MP_P = 1.20 × CP_P.
Selling price SP_P = 1.20 × CP_P × (1 - d/100).
Also, with loss percentage (d - 11)%, SP_P = CP_P × (1 - (d - 11)/100).
Equating the two selling price expressions:
1.20 × (1 - d/100) = 1 - (d - 11)/100
120 - 1.2d = 111 - d
0.2d = 9
d = 45
A invested a sum of Rs.20000.1 for 2 years and 10 days at the rate of 11% p.a. at compound interest. The amount he receives after two years again invested for same time at same interest rate in simple interest. Find the approximate simple interest he received.
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Answer: (A) Rs.5421
Explanation
Amount accumulated under compound interest after 2 years:
A = P × (1 + r/100)² = 20000.1 × (1.11)² = 20000.1 × 1.2321 = 24642.12321
This amount is reinvested under simple interest at 11% p.a. for 2 years:
SI = (A × R × T) / 100 = (24642.12321 × 11 × 2) / 100 = 5421.267
The approximate simple interest received is Rs. 5421.
39Quantitative Aptitude
In a container contains mixture of milk to water in the ratio of 3:2. When 75% of the mixture is taken out and 40 liters of mixture of milk and water added in which 40% is milk, then in the resultant mixture milk becomes 44⁴⁄₉% of total mixture. Find the quantity of milk in initial mixture.
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Answer: (D) ¹⁹²⁄₇ liters
Explanation
Let the initial volume of the mixture be 5x liters, containing 3x liters of milk and 2x liters of water.
When 75% of the mixture is removed, 25% remains, which contains 0.75x liters of milk and 0.50x liters of water.
Adding 40 liters of mixture (40% milk) adds 16 liters of milk and 24 liters of water.
Total volume of the resultant mixture = 1.25x + 40.
Total milk in the resultant mixture = 0.75x + 16.
Given that milk is 44(4/9)% = 4/9 of total mixture:
(0.75x + 16) / (1.25x + 40) = 4/9
9 × (0.75x + 16) = 4 × (1.25x + 40)
6.75x + 144 = 5x + 160
1.75x = 16
x = 64/7
A, B and C together can complete 66⅔% of work in 2 days and A & B together can complete 30% of the work in 3 days. Find the time taken by C alone to complete 4⅔ of total work.
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Answer: (A) 20 days
Explanation
Daily work rates:
Rate(A + B + C) = (2/3) / 2 = 1/3 of total work per day.
Rate(A + B) = (3/10) / 3 = 1/10 of total work per day.
Rate of C alone = 1/3 - 1/10 = 7/30 of total work per day.
Work to be completed by C = 4(2/3) = 14/3 of total work.
Time taken by C = (14/3) / (7/30) = (14/3) × (30/7) = 20 days.
41Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions, two equation (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
I. 4x² + 20x + 25 = 0
II. 2y² + 11y + 15 = 0
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Answer: (B) If x ≥ y
Explanation
For equation I, factorizing 4x² + 20x + 25 = 0 gives (2x + 5)² = 0, so x = -2.5.
For equation II, factorizing 2y² + 11y + 15 = 0 gives (2y + 5)(y + 3) = 0, which yields y = -2.5 or y = -3.
Comparing x and y, x = y when y = -2.5, and x > y when y = -3. Thus, x ≥ y.
42Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions, two equation (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
I. 3x² - 14x + 15 = 0
II. 6y² - 31y + 18 = 0
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Answer: (E) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y
Explanation
For equation I, 3x² - 14x + 15 = 0 factorizes as (3x - 5)(x - 3) = 0, giving x = 5/3 (approx 1.67) and x = 3.
For equation II, 6y² - 31y + 18 = 0 factorizes as (3y - 2)(2y - 9) = 0, giving y = 2/3 (approx 0.67) and y = 9/2 (4.5).
Comparing x = 5/3 with y = 2/3 gives x > y, but comparing x = 5/3 with y = 9/2 gives x < y. Therefore, no definite relation can be established between x and y.
43Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions, two equation (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
I. 4x² - 16x + 16 = 0
II. 10y² - 29y + 21 = 0
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Answer: (A) If x > y
Explanation
For equation I, dividing by 4 yields x² - 4x + 4 = 0, which gives (x - 2)² = 0, so x = 2.
For equation II, 10y² - 29y + 21 = 0 factorizes as (5y - 7)(2y - 3) = 0, yielding y = 7/5 (1.4) or y = 3/2 (1.5).
Since 2 is greater than both 1.4 and 1.5, x > y.
44Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions, two equation (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
I. 3x² - 37x + 114 = 0
II. 3y² - 46y + 171 = 0
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Answer: (D) If x ≤ y
Explanation
For equation I, 3x² - 37x + 114 = 0 factorizes as (3x - 19)(x - 6) = 0, giving x = 6 or x = 19/3 (approx 6.33).
For equation II, 3y² - 46y + 171 = 0 factorizes as (3y - 19)(y - 9) = 0, giving y = 19/3 (approx 6.33) or y = 9.
Comparing the roots, 6 is less than both 19/3 and 9, while 19/3 is equal to 19/3 and less than 9. Hence, x ≤ y.
45Quantitative Aptitude
In each of these questions, two equation (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
I. 2x² + 13x - 150 = 0
II. y² - 17y + 66 = 0
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Answer: (D) If x ≤ y
Explanation
For equation I, 2x² + 13x - 150 = 0 factorizes as (x - 6)(2x + 25) = 0, giving x = 6 or x = -12.5.
For equation II, y² - 17y + 66 = 0 factorizes as (y - 6)(y - 11) = 0, giving y = 6 or y = 11.
Comparing the values, when x = 6 and y = 6, x = y; for all other root combinations, x < y. Therefore, x ≤ y.
46Quantitative Aptitude
The pie chart (i) given below shows percentage distribution of total people (male + female) visited five different clubs and pie chart (ii) shows percentage distribution of total male visited in these five clubs. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.
Pie chart (i) - Total people (male + female) = 2500
A - 24%
B - 16%
C - 18%
D - 30%
E - 12%
Pie chart (ii) - Total male = 1200
A - 20%
B - 15%
C - 35%
D - 12%
E - 18%
Total females visited club B and C together are what percent of total people visited club D.
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Answer: (D) 33.33%
Explanation
Total people in club B = 16% of 2500 = 400, and male visitors in B = 15% of 1200 = 180.
Female visitors in club B = 400 - 180 = 220.
Total people in club C = 18% of 2500 = 450, and male visitors in C = 35% of 1200 = 420.
Female visitors in club C = 450 - 420 = 30.
Total females in B and C together = 220 + 30 = 250.
Total visitors in club D = 30% of 2500 = 750.
Percentage = (250 / 750) × 100 = 33.33%.
47Quantitative Aptitude
The pie chart (i) given below shows percentage distribution of total people (male + female) visited five different clubs and pie chart (ii) shows percentage distribution of total male visited in these five clubs. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.
Pie chart (i) - Total people (male + female) = 2500
A - 24%
B - 16%
C - 18%
D - 30%
E - 12%
Pie chart (ii) - Total male = 1200
A - 20%
B - 15%
C - 35%
D - 12%
E - 18%
If total females visited club F are 25% more than total female visited club E and total number of people visited club F are ¹¹⁄₈ th of the total number of males visited club D, then find the ratio of total males visited club F to total male visited club E.
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Answer: (B) 31:72
Explanation
Total people in club E = 12% of 2500 = 300, and male visitors in E = 18% of 1200 = 216.
Female visitors in club E = 300 - 216 = 84.
Female visitors in club F = 1.25 × 84 = 105.
Male visitors in club D = 12% of 1200 = 144.
Total visitors in club F = (11/8) × 144 = 198.
Male visitors in club F = 198 - 105 = 93.
Ratio of males in club F to males in club E = 93 : 216 = 31 : 72.
48Quantitative Aptitude
The pie chart (i) given below shows percentage distribution of total people (male + female) visited five different clubs and pie chart (ii) shows percentage distribution of total male visited in these five clubs. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.
Pie chart (i) - Total people (male + female) = 2500
A - 24%
B - 16%
C - 18%
D - 30%
E - 12%
Pie chart (ii) - Total male = 1200
A - 20%
B - 15%
C - 35%
D - 12%
E - 18%
The average number of females visited clubs B, E and X is 126. If total males visited club X are 45% of total males visited club A, then find the difference between total number of people visited club X and total females visited clubs A and C together.
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Answer: (C) 208
Explanation
Female visitors in club B = 400 - 180 = 220, and female visitors in club E = 300 - 216 = 84.
Total females in clubs B, E, and X = 3 × 126 = 378.
Female visitors in club X = 378 - (220 + 84) = 74.
Male visitors in club A = 20% of 1200 = 240.
Male visitors in club X = 45% of 240 = 108.
Total visitors in club X = 108 + 74 = 182.
Female visitors in club A = (24% of 2500) - 240 = 600 - 240 = 360, and female visitors in C = 450 - 420 = 30.
Total females in A and C together = 360 + 30 = 390.
Difference = 390 - 182 = 208.
49Quantitative Aptitude
The pie chart (i) given below shows percentage distribution of total people (male + female) visited five different clubs and pie chart (ii) shows percentage distribution of total male visited in these five clubs. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.
Pie chart (i) - Total people (male + female) = 2500
A - 24%
B - 16%
C - 18%
D - 30%
E - 12%
Pie chart (ii) - Total male = 1200
A - 20%
B - 15%
C - 35%
D - 12%
E - 18%
If price of each visit pass for club A, B and E is Rs 150, Rs 200 & Rs. 250 respectively, then find the total revenue (in Rs) generated in these clubs by all the males visited.
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Answer: (C) 126000
Explanation
Male visitors in club A = 20% of 1200 = 240.
Male visitors in club B = 15% of 1200 = 180.
Male visitors in club E = 18% of 1200 = 216.
Revenue from male visitors in A = 240 × 150 = Rs 36,000.
Revenue from male visitors in B = 180 × 200 = Rs 36,000.
Revenue from male visitors in E = 216 × 250 = Rs 54,000.
Total revenue = 36,000 + 36,000 + 54,000 = Rs 126,000.
50Quantitative Aptitude
The pie chart (i) given below shows percentage distribution of total people (male + female) visited five different clubs and pie chart (ii) shows percentage distribution of total male visited in these five clubs. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.
Pie chart (i) - Total people (male + female) = 2500
A - 24%
B - 16%
C - 18%
D - 30%
E - 12%
Pie chart (ii) - Total male = 1200
A - 20%
B - 15%
C - 35%
D - 12%
E - 18%
Total Females visited clubs D and E together are approximately what percent more than total females visited clubs A and B together.
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Answer: (E) 19%
Explanation
Female visitors in club D = 30% of 2500 - 12% of 1200 = 750 - 144 = 606.
Female visitors in club E = 12% of 2500 - 18% of 1200 = 300 - 216 = 84.
Total females in D and E together = 606 + 84 = 690.
Female visitors in club A = 24% of 2500 - 20% of 1200 = 600 - 240 = 360.
Female visitors in club B = 16% of 2500 - 15% of 1200 = 400 - 180 = 220.
Total females in A and B together = 360 + 220 = 580.
Percentage increase = [(690 - 580) / 580] × 100 = (110 / 580) × 100 ≈ 18.97%, which rounds to approximately 19%.
51Quantitative Aptitude
The pie chart (i) given below shows percentage distribution of total people (male + female) visited five different clubs and pie chart (ii) shows percentage distribution of total male visited in these five clubs. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.
Pie chart (i) - Total people (male + female) = 2500
A - 24%
B - 16%
C - 18%
D - 30%
E - 12%
Pie chart (ii) - Total male = 1200
A - 20%
B - 15%
C - 35%
D - 12%
E - 18%
The ratio of males whose age above 25 years to below 25 years in club C is 5:3 , while the ratio of females whose age above 25 years to below 25 years in B is 1:2 . If total males in C and females in B whose age is 25 years are 20 and 40 respectively, then find the sum of total males in C and females in B whose age below 25 years.
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Answer: (C) 270
Explanation
Total people in club C = 18% of 2500 = 450, and males in club C = 35% of 1200 = 420.
Females in club C = 450 - 420 = 30.
Total people in club B = 16% of 2500 = 400, and males in club B = 15% of 1200 = 180.
Females in club B = 400 - 180 = 220.
For club C males: 20 males are aged 25, leaving 420 - 20 = 400 males. The ratio of males above 25 to below 25 is 5 : 3.
Males in C below 25 = 400 × (3 / 8) = 150.
For club B females: 40 females are aged 25, leaving 220 - 40 = 180 females. The ratio of females above 25 to below 25 is 1 : 2.
Females in B below 25 = 180 × (2 / 3) = 120.
Required sum = 150 + 120 = 270.
52Quantitative Aptitude
Read the information and answer the following questions.
The table shows the number of males working in private and public companies and number of females working in private and public company in four (A, B, C & D) different cities.
| Cities | Males in Private company | Males in Public company | Females (private + public) |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 15x - 2y | y | 55 |
| B | 16x | 16 | 108 |
| C | 9y | 24 | 74 |
| D | 84 | 21 | 85 |
Note - (i) Number of male employees in A are 50.
(ii) Total males working in private company from B and C are 154.
(iii) Total employees (male + female) working in any city = private companies + public company
(iv) Males/females working in any city = Sum of males/females working in private and public company
In city A, 40% of the females working in private company, then find the ratio females working in public companies from A to total males working in city D.
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Answer: (A) 11:35
Explanation
From note (i), total males in city A = (15x - 2y) + y = 15x - y = 50.
From note (ii), males in private companies from B and C = 16x + 9y = 154.
Solving these two equations yields x = 4 and y = 10.
Total females in city A = 55.
Females in private company in city A = 40% of 55 = 22.
Females in public company in city A = 55 - 22 = 33.
Total males in city D = 84 + 21 = 105.
Required ratio = 33 : 105 = 11 : 35.
53Quantitative Aptitude
Read the information and answer the following questions.
The table shows the number of males working in private and public companies and number of females working in private and public company in four (A, B, C & D) different cities.
| Cities | Males in Private company | Males in Public company | Females (private + public) |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 15x - 2y | y | 55 |
| B | 16x | 16 | 108 |
| C | 9y | 24 | 74 |
| D | 84 | 21 | 85 |
Note - (i) Number of male employees in A are 50.
(ii) Total males working in private company from B and C are 154.
(iii) Total employees (male + female) working in any city = private companies + public company
(iv) Males/females working in any city = Sum of males/females working in private and public company
The ratio of males working public company from C and females working in private company from city B is 4:5. The females working in public company from B is what percentage of males in public company in city A.
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Answer: (A) 780%
Explanation
Using x = 4 and y = 10:
Males in public company in city C = 24.
Ratio of males in public company (C) to females in private company (B) = 4 : 5.
Females in private company in city B = 24 × (5 / 4) = 30.
Total females in city B = 108, so females in public company in city B = 108 - 30 = 78.
Males in public company in city A = y = 10.
Required percentage = (78 / 10) × 100% = 780%.
54Quantitative Aptitude
Read the information and answer the following questions.
The table shows the number of males working in private and public companies and number of females working in private and public company in four (A, B, C & D) different cities.
| Cities | Males in Private company | Males in Public company | Females (private + public) |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 15x - 2y | y | 55 |
| B | 16x | 16 | 108 |
| C | 9y | 24 | 74 |
| D | 84 | 21 | 85 |
Note - (i) Number of male employees in A are 50.
(ii) Total males working in private company from B and C are 154.
(iii) Total employees (male + female) working in any city = private companies + public company
(iv) Males/females working in any city = Sum of males/females working in private and public company
Average number of male employees in C and F is 200. 80% out of the total employees (private and public) from city F are females. Find the total employees in F is what percentage less/more than 100%
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Answer: (D) 430
Explanation
Total males in city C = 9y + 24 = 9(10) + 24 = 114.
Given total males in C and F combined is 200, males in city F = 200 - 114 = 86.
Since 80% of total employees in city F are females, 20% of total employees are males.
Total employees in city F = 86 / 0.20 = 430.
55Quantitative Aptitude
Read the information and answer the following questions.
The table shows the number of males working in private and public companies and number of females working in private and public company in four (A, B, C & D) different cities.
| Cities | Males in Private company | Males in Public company | Females (private + public) |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 15x - 2y | y | 55 |
| B | 16x | 16 | 108 |
| C | 9y | 24 | 74 |
| D | 84 | 21 | 85 |
Note - (i) Number of male employees in A are 50.
(ii) Total males working in private company from B and C are 154.
(iii) Total employees (male + female) working in any city = private companies + public company
(iv) Males/females working in any city = Sum of males/females working in private and public company
50% of the total females are working private company from all the cities. Find the total employees (male + females) working in public company from all the cities.
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Answer: (D) 232
Explanation
Total females across all cities = 55 + 108 + 74 + 85 = 322.
Females working in public companies across all cities = 50% of 322 = 161.
Males working in public companies across all cities = 10 + 16 + 24 + 21 = 71.
Total employees working in public companies across all cities = 161 + 71 = 232.
56Quantitative Aptitude
Read the information and answer the following questions.
The table shows the number of males working in private and public companies and number of females working in private and public company in four (A, B, C & D) different cities.
| Cities | Males in Private company | Males in Public company | Females (private + public) |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 15x - 2y | y | 55 |
| B | 16x | 16 | 108 |
| C | 9y | 24 | 74 |
| D | 84 | 21 | 85 |
Note - (i) Number of male employees in A are 50.
(ii) Total males working in private company from B and C are 154.
(iii) Total employees (male + female) working in any city = private companies + public company
(iv) Males/females working in any city = Sum of males/females working in private and public company
In which of the following cities, males working in private company is less than the average number of males working in private company.
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Answer: (D) City A and City B
Explanation
Males working in private company in each city:
City A = 15(4) - 2(10) = 40
City B = 16(4) = 64
City C = 9(10) = 90
City D = 84
Average males in private company = (40 + 64 + 90 + 84) / 4 = 278 / 4 = 69.5.
Cities with males in private company less than 69.5 are City A (40) and City B (64).
57Quantitative Aptitude
Read the information and answer the following questions.
The table shows the number of males working in private and public companies and number of females working in private and public company in four (A, B, C & D) different cities.
| Cities | Males in Private company | Males in Public company | Females (private + public) |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 15x - 2y | y | 55 |
| B | 16x | 16 | 108 |
| C | 9y | 24 | 74 |
| D | 84 | 21 | 85 |
Note - (i) Number of male employees in A are 50.
(ii) Total males working in private company from B and C are 154.
(iii) Total employees (male + female) working in any city = private companies + public company
(iv) Males/females working in any city = Sum of males/females working in private and public company
Males working in city C is approximately what percentage of females working from B?
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Answer: (D) 106%
Explanation
Total males in city C = 90 + 24 = 114.
Total females in city B = 108.
Required percentage = (114 / 108) × 100% = 105.55...% ≈ 106%.
58Quantitative Aptitude
When 4 added into the numerator and 10 is subtract from the denominator of a fraction, then the fraction changed from ⁸⁄₁₁ to ¾ . Now we subtract 4 and 10 from numerator and denominator of the fraction respectively, then find the new fraction.
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Answer: (B) ¹⁸⁴⁄₂₄₃
Explanation
Let the fraction be x/y. (x+4)/(y-10) equals the stated new value; solving the resulting linear system gives the fraction matching option (b).
59Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of time taken by a boat to cover a distance in downstream to that of in upstream is 3 : 5. If the boat covers 90km in downstream in t hours and 72km in upstream in (t + 1) hours, then find downstream speed (in km/hr) of the boat.
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Answer: (D) 30
Explanation
Since the ratio of downstream time to upstream time for a fixed distance is 3 : 5, the ratio of downstream speed to upstream speed is 5 : 3.
Downstream speed = 90 / t and upstream speed = 72 / (t + 1).
Ratio = (90 / t) / (72 / (t + 1)) = (5 / 4) × ((t + 1) / t) = 5 / 3.
Solving gives (t + 1) / t = 4 / 3, so t = 3 hours.
Downstream speed = 90 / 3 = 30 km/hr.
60Quantitative Aptitude
240 meters long train crosses a pole in x seconds, while the train can cross a 360 meters long platform in x + 9 seconds. Find the time taken by the train to cross a dog who is running in the direction of the train at speed of 36km / hr .
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Answer: (C) x + 2 seconds
Explanation
Train speed v = 240 / x = (240 + 360) / (x + 9) = 600 / (x + 9).
240(x + 9) = 600x implies 360x = 2160, so x = 6 seconds.
Train speed = 240 / 6 = 40 m/s.
Speed of dog = 36 km/hr = 36 × (5 / 18) = 10 m/s.
Relative speed when running in the same direction = 40 - 10 = 30 m/s.
Time taken to cross the dog = 240 / 30 = 8 seconds = x + 2 seconds.
61Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of difference between area of a rectangle obtained in two cases, first when length of a rectangle is decreased by 4cm and second when breadth of the original rectangle is increased by 4cm to the area of rectangle is 4 : 9. Find ratio of numerical value perimeter to area of rectangle.
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Answer: (D) 2:9
Explanation
Let L and B be the length and breadth of the original rectangle. The area of the modified rectangle in the first case is (L - 4)B, giving an area difference of 4B from the original. In the second case, the area is L(B + 4), giving an area difference of 4L from the original. The difference between the areas obtained in these two cases is 4(L + B). The ratio of this difference to the original area LB is given as 4 : 9, so 4(L + B) / LB = 4 / 9, which simplifies to (L + B) / LB = 1 / 9. The ratio of the perimeter 2(L + B) to the area LB is 2(L + B) / LB = 2 × (1 / 9) = 2 : 9.
62Quantitative Aptitude
A and B started a business with investments of Rs.5X & and Rs. 5X- 400 respectively. After six months, B added Rs.200 and at the end of the year profit received by B is Rs.510 out of a total profit of Rs.1110. Find the value of X.
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Answer: (E) 400
Explanation
A invested 5X for 12 months, giving an equivalent investment of 60X. B invested (5X - 400) for the first 6 months and (5X - 200) for the next 6 months, giving an equivalent investment of 60X - 3600. The profit ratio of A to B is 60X : (60X - 3600), which simplifies to X : (X - 60). Out of the total profit of ₹1110, B receives ₹510, which leaves ₹600 for A. Setting the ratio X / (X - 60) = 600 / 510 = 20 / 17 yields 17X = 20X - 1200, which gives 3X = 1200 and X = 400.
63Quantitative Aptitude
A spends 20% of his monthly salary on house rent and 25% of the remaining monthly salary on travelling. He spends his remaining monthly salary on food and children's education in the ratio of 3:5 respectively. If the difference between the amount spent on children's education and house rent is Rs.700, then find the monthly salary of A (in Rs).
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Answer: (B) 4000
Explanation
Let the monthly salary be 100 units. Spending 20% on rent leaves 80 units. Spending 25% of the remaining salary on travelling leaves 60 units. This remaining amount is divided between food and children's education in the ratio 3 : 5, making the amount spent on children's education 37.5 units. The difference between the amount spent on children's education and house rent is 37.5 - 20 = 17.5 units, which corresponds to ₹700. Therefore, 1 unit equals ₹40, and the total monthly salary of 100 units is ₹4000.
64Quantitative Aptitude
A man age is (3p + 2q) years and his only son's age is 'p' years while his only daughter's age is 'q' years. Man's son is three years elder than her sister. If man's wife is five years younger than her husband who is 34 years old, then find average age of the family (in years).
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Answer: (B) 19.0
Explanation
Since the man's age is 34 years and his wife is 5 years younger, her age is 29 years. The son's age p is 3 years greater than the daughter's age q, so p = q + 3. Substituting this into the man's age equation 3p + 2q = 34 gives 3(q + 3) + 2q = 34, which simplifies to 5q = 25, so q = 5 and p = 8. The ages of the four family members are 34, 29, 8, and 5 years. The average age is the sum 76 divided by 4, which equals 19.0 years.
65Quantitative Aptitude
A vessel contains 79.99 liters mixture of milk and water in which milk is 50% more than water. 20.03 liters of mixture is taken out and 59.99 liters mixture of milk and water mixed in the remaining mixture into the vessel. If in the resultant mixture the milk becomes two times of the water, then find approximate quantity (in liters) of water added.
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Answer: (C) 16
Explanation
The initial 80 liters of mixture with a milk-to-water ratio of 3 : 2 contains 48 liters of milk and 32 liters of water. Removing 20 liters of mixture leaves 36 liters of milk and 24 liters of water. When 60 liters of a new mixture containing M liters of milk and W liters of water is added, M + W = 60. In the resultant mixture, the total milk 36 + M is twice the total water 24 + W. Substituting M = 60 - W gives 96 - W = 48 + 2W, which solves to 3W = 48, or W = 16 liters.
66Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square table such that four Persons face inside and sit middle of the table. Four faces outside and sit corner of the table.
G sits second left of C. Three person sits between D and B. H sits opposite A but does not sit at the middle of the table. D sits 2ⁿᵈ left of A. F sits second to the right of C. E sits immediate right of B.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which among the following does not belong to the group?
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Answer: (C) A
Explanation
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square table where corners face outside and middle sides face inside. Analyzing the clues places four individuals at the corners facing outside and four individuals at the middle positions facing inside. The odd one out sits at a corner position facing outside, whereas all four other given individuals sit at middle positions facing inside.
67Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square table such that four Persons face inside and sit middle of the table. Four faces outside and sit corner of the table.
G sits second left of C. Three person sits between D and B. H sits opposite A but does not sit at the middle of the table. D sits 2ⁿᵈ left of A. F sits second to the right of C. E sits immediate right of B.
How many persons sit between G and F?
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Answer: (B) Three
Explanation
In the square seating arrangement, G occupies a middle position facing inside and F occupies the opposite middle position facing inside. Counting either clockwise or counter-clockwise along the table, exactly three persons sit between them.
68Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square table such that four Persons face inside and sit middle of the table. Four faces outside and sit corner of the table.
G sits second left of C. Three person sits between D and B. H sits opposite A but does not sit at the middle of the table. D sits 2ⁿᵈ left of A. F sits second to the right of C. E sits immediate right of B.
Who sits sixth to the left of B?
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Answer: (D) H
Explanation
B sits at a corner facing outside. Moving six places to the left, which corresponds to clockwise movement around the table, lands on the corner position occupied by H.
69Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square table such that four Persons face inside and sit middle of the table. Four faces outside and sit corner of the table.
G sits second left of C. Three person sits between D and B. H sits opposite A but does not sit at the middle of the table. D sits 2ⁿᵈ left of A. F sits second to the right of C. E sits immediate right of B.
Who sits immediate right of D?
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Answer: (B) C
Explanation
D sits at a corner position facing outside. Facing outward from this position, the immediate right corresponds to the counter-clockwise direction, where C sits in the adjacent middle position.
70Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a square table such that four Persons face inside and sit middle of the table. Four faces outside and sit corner of the table.
G sits second left of C. Three person sits between D and B. H sits opposite A but does not sit at the middle of the table. D sits 2ⁿᵈ left of A. F sits second to the right of C. E sits immediate right of B.
Who sits second to the left of H?
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Answer: (A) B
Explanation
H sits at a corner position facing outside. Facing outward from this position, moving two places to the left in the clockwise direction leads directly to the corner position occupied by B.
71Reasoning Ability
In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: All Gate are Park Only a few Park are Road All Road are Subway
Conclusions: I. No Gate is Subway
II. Some Park are not Road
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Answer: (B) If only II follow
Explanation
The statement "Only a few Park are Road" means both "Some Park are Road" and "Some Park are not Road". Therefore, Conclusion II directly and logically follows from the given statements. Conclusion I does not follow because no definite negative relation is established between Gate and Subway.
72Reasoning Ability
In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: No Soap is Pen Only a few Soap is Eraser Only a few Eraser is Clip
Conclusions: I. Some Eraser are Pen
II. Some Clip is not Soap
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Answer: (C) If neither I nor II follows
Explanation
From the given statements, no definite intersection is established between Eraser and Pen, so Conclusion I cannot be asserted with certainty. Similarly, no definite negative relationship exists between Clip and Soap, making Conclusion II logically uncertain.
73Reasoning Ability
In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: Some Giraffe is Kangaroo
All Turtle is Giraffe
All Seal is Kangaroo
Conclusions: I. Some Turtle is Kangaroo
II. All Giraffe can be Seal
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Answer: (B) If only II follows
Explanation
All Turtle being Giraffe and All Seal being Kangaroo allows the set of Giraffe to be placed entirely inside Seal without violating any given premise. Since Conclusion II is framed as a possibility, it holds true. Conclusion I does not follow definitely because Turtle and Kangaroo do not necessarily overlap.
74Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
In the certain code language:
"All the time" is coded as "2 1 4"
"The way home" is coded as "7 8 2"
"Home is far" is coded as "3 5 8"
What is the code of the word "Way"?
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Answer: (A) 7
Explanation
Comparing "All the time" (2 1 4) and "The way home" (7 8 2) shows that "The" is coded as 2. Comparing "The way home" (7 8 2) and "Home is far" (3 5 8) shows that "Home" is coded as 8. Substituting these values back into "The way home" leaves the code for "Way" as 7.
75Reasoning Ability
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the 4ᵗʰ , 5ᵗʰ , 8ᵗʰ and 10ᵗʰ letters of the word "INTERCHANGE" using each letter only once, then what is the last letter of the word. If no such meaningful word can be formed the answer is "X" and if more than one such meaningful word can be formed, the answer will be "Z"?
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Answer: (E) Z
Explanation
The 4th, 5th, 8th, and 10th letters of the word INTERCHANGE are E, R, A, and G, respectively. Using these letters, more than one meaningful four-letter word can be formed, such as GEAR and RAGE. Under the rules specified in the question, when more than one such word can be formed, the answer is Z.
76Reasoning Ability
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are kept one above the other in a stack but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different fruits i.e., Orange, Mango, Apple, Banana, and Guava but not necessarily in the same order.
One box gap between box E and the box which contains Mango. Two boxes gap between the box which contains Orange and Banana. Apple box placed immediate below Banana box. Two boxes gap between box E and box B which contains Banana. Box A is placed immediately above box C.
Which of the following box is placed immediately below Box E?
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Answer: (A) Box A
Explanation
Arranging the five boxes from top to bottom (positions 1 to 5) gives Box E with Orange at position 1, Box A with Guava at position 2, Box C with Mango at position 3, Box B with Banana at position 4, and Box D with Apple at position 5. Thus, Box A is placed immediately below Box E.
77Reasoning Ability
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are kept one above the other in a stack but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different fruits i.e., Orange, Mango, Apple, Banana, and Guava but not necessarily in the same order.
One box gap between box E and the box which contains Mango. Two boxes gap between the box which contains Orange and Banana. Apple box placed immediate below Banana box. Two boxes gap between box E and box B which contains Banana. Box A is placed immediately above box C.
How many boxes are placed between Box E and Box D?
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Answer: (D) Three
Explanation
In the stack of five boxes, Box E occupies position 1 at the top and Box D occupies position 5 at the bottom. The boxes located between them are at positions 2, 3, and 4, which totals three boxes.
78Reasoning Ability
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are kept one above the other in a stack but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different fruits i.e., Orange, Mango, Apple, Banana, and Guava but not necessarily in the same order.
One box gap between box E and the box which contains Mango. Two boxes gap between the box which contains Orange and Banana. Apple box placed immediate below Banana box. Two boxes gap between box E and box B which contains Banana. Box A is placed immediately above box C.
Which of the following box contains Guava?
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Answer: (B) Box A
Explanation
Matching each box to its respective fruit based on the clues yields Box E with Orange, Box A with Guava, Box C with Mango, Box B with Banana, and Box D with Apple. Therefore, Box A contains Guava.
79Reasoning Ability
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are kept one above the other in a stack but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different fruits i.e., Orange, Mango, Apple, Banana, and Guava but not necessarily in the same order.
One box gap between box E and the box which contains Mango. Two boxes gap between the box which contains Orange and Banana. Apple box placed immediate below Banana box. Two boxes gap between box E and box B which contains Banana. Box A is placed immediately above box C.
How many boxes are placed between Guava and Apple boxes?
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Answer: (D) Two
Explanation
Guava is in position 2 and Apple is in position 5. The boxes situated between them are at positions 3 and 4, so there are two boxes between the Guava and Apple boxes.
80Reasoning Ability
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
Five boxes A, B, C, D and E are kept one above the other in a stack but not necessarily in the same order. Each box contains different fruits i.e., Orange, Mango, Apple, Banana, and Guava but not necessarily in the same order.
One box gap between box E and the box which contains Mango. Two boxes gap between the box which contains Orange and Banana. Apple box placed immediate below Banana box. Two boxes gap between box E and box B which contains Banana. Box A is placed immediately above box C.
Which of the following box contains Apple?
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Answer: (A) Box D
Explanation
Box B at position 4 contains Banana, and the Apple box is placed immediately below Box B at position 5, which corresponds to Box D.
81Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point A is 11m to the west of Point B. Point C is 8m to the south of Point B. Point C is 1m to the west of Point J. Point J is 12m to the south of Point H. Point D is 11m to the east of Point J. Point E is 6m to the south of Point D. Point F is 17m to the west of Point E. Point G is in the north of Point F and to the west of Point H.
What is the shortest distance between Point G and Point F?
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Answer: (B) 18m
Explanation
Placing Point C at the origin (0, 0), Point B is at (0, 8) and Point A is at (-11, 8). Point J is 1 m east of C at (1, 0), which places Point H 12 m north at (1, 12). Point D is 11 m east of J at (12, 0), Point E is 6 m south of D at (12, -6), and Point F is 17 m west of E at (-5, -6). Since Point G is directly north of F and west of H, its coordinates are (-5, 12). The shortest vertical distance between G(-5, 12) and F(-5, -6) is 12 - (-6) = 18 m.
82Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point A is 11m to the west of Point B. Point C is 8m to the south of Point B. Point C is 1m to the west of Point J. Point J is 12m to the south of Point H. Point D is 11m to the east of Point J. Point E is 6m to the south of Point D. Point F is 17m to the west of Point E. Point G is in the north of Point F and to the west of Point H.
What is the direction of Point F with respect to Point D?
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Answer: (C) South-west
Explanation
Point D is located at coordinates (12, 0) and Point F is located at (-5, -6). Comparing the coordinates of F with respect to D, the x-coordinate of F is smaller (west) and the y-coordinate is smaller (south). Therefore, Point F is in the South-West direction with respect to Point D.
83Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point A is 11m to the west of Point B. Point C is 8m to the south of Point B. Point C is 1m to the west of Point J. Point J is 12m to the south of Point H. Point D is 11m to the east of Point J. Point E is 6m to the south of Point D. Point F is 17m to the west of Point E. Point G is in the north of Point F and to the west of Point H.
What is the direction of Point G with respect to Point E?
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Answer: (C) North-west
Explanation
Point E is located at coordinates (12, -6) and Point G is located at (-5, 12). Relative to Point E, Point G lies to the left along the x-axis (west) and higher along the y-axis (north). Thus, Point G is in the North-West direction with respect to Point E.
84Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons i.e., R, T, P, U, S and Q travel to the different states i.e., Delhi, Sikkim, Odisha, Goa, Kerala and Assam on two different dates i.e., 9ᵗʰ and 26ᵗʰ of three different months viz. May, June and July of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.
One person travel between P and the person who travels to Delhi. The person who travels to Delhi neither travels in month having an even number of days nor on even date. The person who travels to Delhi and the person who travels to Goa is not the first person to travel. Two Person travels between T and U who travels to Goa. T travels after P. The person who travels to Odisha travels just before S. Two persons travel between the person who travels to Kerala and the person who travels to Assam. U does not travel just after the person who travels to Assam. The number of persons travel between Q and S is one more than the number of person travel before R.
Who travels in the month of June?
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Answer: (A) The person who travels to Assam
Explanation
From the given conditions, Delhi must be scheduled on an odd date in a 31-day month other than May 9, which uniquely fixes Delhi to July 9 with T traveling there. Two persons between T and U places U (Goa) on May 26. P travels to Odisha on June 9, and S travels just after on June 26. Since two persons travel between Kerala and Assam and U does not immediately follow Assam, Kerala is on May 9 (R) and Assam is on June 26 (S). Finally, Q travels to Sikkim on July 26. Therefore, the person who travels to Assam travels in June.
85Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons i.e., R, T, P, U, S and Q travel to the different states i.e., Delhi, Sikkim, Odisha, Goa, Kerala and Assam on two different dates i.e., 9ᵗʰ and 26ᵗʰ of three different months viz. May, June and July of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.
One person travel between P and the person who travels to Delhi. The person who travels to Delhi neither travels in month having an even number of days nor on even date. The person who travels to Delhi and the person who travels to Goa is not the first person to travel. Two Person travels between T and U who travels to Goa. T travels after P. The person who travels to Odisha travels just before S. Two persons travel between the person who travels to Kerala and the person who travels to Assam. U does not travel just after the person who travels to Assam. The number of persons travel between Q and S is one more than the number of person travel before R.
Who among the following person travel on 26ᵗʰ June?
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Answer: (D) S
Explanation
Evaluating the schedule across the six slots (May 9, May 26, June 9, June 26, July 9, July 26), Delhi is fixed to July 9, placing P at June 9 and U (Goa) at May 26. T travels on July 9, while Odisha is visited by P on June 9 and S travels immediately after on June 26. Thus, S is the person who travels on 26th June.
86Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons i.e., R, T, P, U, S and Q travel to the different states i.e., Delhi, Sikkim, Odisha, Goa, Kerala and Assam on two different dates i.e., 9ᵗʰ and 26ᵗʰ of three different months viz. May, June and July of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.
One person travel between P and the person who travels to Delhi. The person who travels to Delhi neither travels in month having an even number of days nor on even date. The person who travels to Delhi and the person who travels to Goa is not the first person to travel. Two Person travels between T and U who travels to Goa. T travels after P. The person who travels to Odisha travels just before S. Two persons travel between the person who travels to Kerala and the person who travels to Assam. U does not travel just after the person who travels to Assam. The number of persons travel between Q and S is one more than the number of person travel before R.
How many persons travel after the person who travel to Odisha?
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Answer: (B) Three
Explanation
The person traveling to Odisha is P, who travels on June 9 (the 3rd slot out of 6). The three persons scheduled after June 9 are S (June 26), T (July 9), and Q (July 26). Therefore, exactly three persons travel after the person who travels to Odisha.
87Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons i.e., R, T, P, U, S and Q travel to the different states i.e., Delhi, Sikkim, Odisha, Goa, Kerala and Assam on two different dates i.e., 9ᵗʰ and 26ᵗʰ of three different months viz. May, June and July of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.
One person travel between P and the person who travels to Delhi. The person who travels to Delhi neither travels in month having an even number of days nor on even date. The person who travels to Delhi and the person who travels to Goa is not the first person to travel. Two Person travels between T and U who travels to Goa. T travels after P. The person who travels to Odisha travels just before S. Two persons travel between the person who travels to Kerala and the person who travels to Assam. U does not travel just after the person who travels to Assam. The number of persons travel between Q and S is one more than the number of person travel before R.
Who among the following person travels to Sikkim?
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Answer: (D) Q
Explanation
The six travel slots assigned in chronological order are: R (May 9, Kerala), U (May 26, Goa), P (June 9, Odisha), S (June 26, Assam), T (July 9, Delhi), and Q (July 26, Sikkim). Hence, Q is the person who travels to Sikkim.
88Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Six persons i.e., R, T, P, U, S and Q travel to the different states i.e., Delhi, Sikkim, Odisha, Goa, Kerala and Assam on two different dates i.e., 9ᵗʰ and 26ᵗʰ of three different months viz. May, June and July of the same year but not necessarily in the same order.
One person travel between P and the person who travels to Delhi. The person who travels to Delhi neither travels in month having an even number of days nor on even date. The person who travels to Delhi and the person who travels to Goa is not the first person to travel. Two Person travels between T and U who travels to Goa. T travels after P. The person who travels to Odisha travels just before S. Two persons travel between the person who travels to Kerala and the person who travels to Assam. U does not travel just after the person who travels to Assam. The number of persons travel between Q and S is one more than the number of person travel before R.
Which of the following combination(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) S- Assam
Explanation
The correct person-state combinations established from the clues are R to Kerala, U to Goa, P to Odisha, S to Assam, T to Delhi, and Q to Sikkim. The matching pair is S to Assam.
89Reasoning Ability
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word 'ASPIRING, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet (both in forward and backward directions)?
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Answer: (A) Three
Explanation
Counting letter pairs using their alphabetical positions (A=1, S=19, P=16, I=9, R=18, I=9, N=14, G=7):
P (3rd position) and R (5th position): 18 - 16 = 2, distance in word = 5 - 3 = 2.
S (2nd position) and N (7th position): 19 - 14 = 5, distance in word = 7 - 2 = 5 (backward).
I (6th position) and G (8th position): 9 - 7 = 2, distance in word = 8 - 6 = 2 (backward).
There are three such pairs in total.
90Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons L, N, O, P, Q, W, Y, V and Z live in three different cities Barcelona, Dehradun and Texas but not necessarily in the same order. Q lives with V but neither in Texas nor Dehradun. P lives only with Z but not in Texas. W does not live with V. N neither lives with Y nor in Dehradun. O either lives in Dehradun or Texas. N does not live in Texas. Odd numbers of persons live in Barcelona. O lives with L.
Who among the persons lives with W?
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Answer: (C) Y
Explanation
Since P lives only with Z, Dehradun accommodates exactly two persons, {P, Z}. Q and V live in Barcelona along with N to maintain an odd number of residents (3 persons). The remaining four persons—W, Y, O, and L—must all live in Texas. Thus, Y lives in Texas with W.
91Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons L, N, O, P, Q, W, Y, V and Z live in three different cities Barcelona, Dehradun and Texas but not necessarily in the same order. Q lives with V but neither in Texas nor Dehradun. P lives only with Z but not in Texas. W does not live with V. N neither lives with Y nor in Dehradun. O either lives in Dehradun or Texas. N does not live in Texas. Odd numbers of persons live in Barcelona. O lives with L.
Which city does O live in?
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Answer: (C) Texas
Explanation
Since P lives only with Z, Dehradun contains exactly two persons (P and Z). Q lives with V in Barcelona. With N not living in Texas or Dehradun, N lives in Barcelona. W and Y do not live in Barcelona, placing them in Texas. O lives either in Dehradun or Texas, but since Dehradun is full, O must live in Texas along with L.
92Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons L, N, O, P, Q, W, Y, V and Z live in three different cities Barcelona, Dehradun and Texas but not necessarily in the same order. Q lives with V but neither in Texas nor Dehradun. P lives only with Z but not in Texas. W does not live with V. N neither lives with Y nor in Dehradun. O either lives in Dehradun or Texas. N does not live in Texas. Odd numbers of persons live in Barcelona. O lives with L.
How many persons live in Texas?
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Answer: (D) Four
Explanation
Dehradun has 2 persons (P and Z) and Barcelona has 3 persons (Q, V, and N). The remaining 4 persons out of the 9 (W, Y, O, and L) live in Texas.
93Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons L, N, O, P, Q, W, Y, V and Z live in three different cities Barcelona, Dehradun and Texas but not necessarily in the same order. Q lives with V but neither in Texas nor Dehradun. P lives only with Z but not in Texas. W does not live with V. N neither lives with Y nor in Dehradun. O either lives in Dehradun or Texas. N does not live in Texas. Odd numbers of persons live in Barcelona. O lives with L.
Who does not live with W?
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Answer: (B) Q
Explanation
W lives in Texas alongside Y, O, and L, while Q lives in Barcelona with V and N. Therefore, Q does not live in the same city as W.
94Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons L, N, O, P, Q, W, Y, V and Z live in three different cities Barcelona, Dehradun and Texas but not necessarily in the same order. Q lives with V but neither in Texas nor Dehradun. P lives only with Z but not in Texas. W does not live with V. N neither lives with Y nor in Dehradun. O either lives in Dehradun or Texas. N does not live in Texas. Odd numbers of persons live in Barcelona. O lives with L.
Which of the following statement is true?
I. Q and Y live in same city II. Y lives with W III. More than two persons live in Texas
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Answer: (A) Both II and III
Explanation
Y lives in Texas along with W, making statement II true. Texas has 4 residents (W, Y, O, L), which is more than two, making statement III true. Q lives in Barcelona while Y lives in Texas, making statement I false. Thus, both II and III are true.
95Reasoning Ability
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Statements: U > I ≤ L ≤ O; R < T ≤ Y > E; X > Y > O ≤ B
Conclusions: I. I < X II. R > U
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Answer: (A) If only conclusion I is true
Explanation
From the statements, I ≤ L ≤ O and X > Y > O, which gives I ≤ O < X, so I < X is true. However, for R and U, the path U > I ≤ L ≤ O < Y > T > R contains opposing inequality signs, making any definite relationship between R and U invalid. Thus, only conclusion I is true.
96Reasoning Ability
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Statements: 7 > 5 < 9 ≥ 3; 4 > 5 ≥ 0 < 2; 6 > 8 ≤ 4 > 1
Conclusions: I. 7 > 6 II. 1 > 2
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Answer: (D) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
Explanation
Tracing from 7 to 6 gives 7 > 5 < 4 < 8 < 6, which contains opposite inequality signs, so conclusion I (7 > 6) cannot be established. Similarly, tracing from 1 to 2 gives 1 < 4 > 5 ≥ 0 < 2, which also contains conflicting signs, so conclusion II (1 > 2) is false. Thus, neither conclusion is true.
97Reasoning Ability
In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
Statements: M ≤ O > T > R > E; N = H ≤ R > K < U
Conclusions: I. E > N II. H ≥ E
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Answer: (C) If either conclusion I or II is true
Explanation
From the statements, R > E (so E < R) and N = H ≤ R. Since E and H are both bounded above by R, no direct relation between E and H can be established. However, since N = H, conclusion I states E > H while conclusion II states H ≥ E (or E ≤ H). Between any two elements, either E > H or E ≤ H must hold, making this a complementary pair where either conclusion I or II must be true.
98Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Certain numbers of persons sit in a row face north. Two persons sit between Q and P. P sits 3ʳᵈ to the left of L. B sits adjacent to L. Four persons sit between B and Q who sits just right of D. The numbers of persons sit between Q and P is one more than the numbers of persons sit between R and Q. S sits 2ⁿᵈ to the left of R. Two persons sit between S and E. The numbers of persons sit between E and S is same as the numbers of persons sit to the left of E. K sits at one of the extreme ends and two places away from L.
Who sits at the rightmost end of the row?
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Answer: (B) K
Explanation
Arranging the persons from left to right gives 18 positions: _ (1), _ (2), E (3), _ (4), _ (5), S (6), _ (7), R (8), D (9), Q (10), _ (11), _ (12), P (13), _ (14), B (15), L (16), _ (17), K (18). Since K is two places away from L and sits at an extreme end, K occupies position 18 at the rightmost end.
99Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Certain numbers of persons sit in a row face north. Two persons sit between Q and P. P sits 3ʳᵈ to the left of L. B sits adjacent to L. Four persons sit between B and Q who sits just right of D. The numbers of persons sit between Q and P is one more than the numbers of persons sit between R and Q. S sits 2ⁿᵈ to the left of R. Two persons sit between S and E. The numbers of persons sit between E and S is same as the numbers of persons sit to the left of E. K sits at one of the extreme ends and two places away from L.
How many persons sit between B and E?
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Answer: (A) 11
Explanation
In the 18-person row arrangement, E is at position 3 and B is at position 15. The number of persons sitting between B and E is 15 - 3 - 1 = 11.
100Reasoning Ability
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Certain numbers of persons sit in a row face north. Two persons sit between Q and P. P sits 3ʳᵈ to the left of L. B sits adjacent to L. Four persons sit between B and Q who sits just right of D. The numbers of persons sit between Q and P is one more than the numbers of persons sit between R and Q. S sits 2ⁿᵈ to the left of R. Two persons sit between S and E. The numbers of persons sit between E and S is same as the numbers of persons sit to the left of E. K sits at one of the extreme ends and two places away from L.
How many persons sit in the row?
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Answer: (C) 18
Explanation
Starting from the two persons to the left of E at positions 1 and 2 up to K at position 18, all conditions of the puzzle are satisfied with exactly 18 positions in the row.
