Consider the following statements according to Uttarakhand Census - 2011 :
1. Rudraprayag district has the least population in Uttarakhand.
2. Nainital district is at the third place in terms of population in state of Uttarakhand.
3. Sex-ratio in Uttarakhand is 963.
4. The population density of Uttarakhand is 189.
Which statement/statements is/are correct from above?
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Answer: (C) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
Explanation
According to the Census 2011 data for Uttarakhand, Rudraprayag is the least populated district in the state with a population of 2,42,285. Nainital district is the fourth most populous district with a population of 9,54,605, while Udham Singh Nagar holds the third position with 16,48,902. The average sex ratio of Uttarakhand is 963 females per 1,000 males. The overall population density of the state is 189 people per square kilometer.
2EconomyUttarakhand-specific
According to Uttarakhand Economic Survey 2024-25, what was the projected growth rate of the Gross State Domestic Product (at constant prices) of Uttarakhand in 2024-25?
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Answer: (C) 6.61%
Explanation
According to the Uttarakhand Economic Survey 2024-25, the state's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) at constant prices (base year 2011-12) is projected to grow at a rate of 6.61 percent in the financial year 2024-25. In real terms, the state's economy at constant prices is estimated to increase to approximately Rs 2.17 lakh crore (specifically Rs 217.82 thousand crore) in 2024-25 from Rs 2.04 lakh crore (specifically Rs 204.32 thousand crore) in 2023-24. This projected growth rate of 6.61 percent highlights the steady and consistent economic expansion of the state despite various macroeconomic headwinds.
3GeographyUttarakhand-specific
In Uttarakhand, where is the unit of Hindustan Machine Tools situated?
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Answer: (A) Ranibagh
Explanation
The Hindustan Machine Tools (HMT) watch manufacturing unit, known as Watch Factory V, was established in Ranibagh in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand in 1982. This unit was an important industrial establishment in the Kumaon region, specializing in the production of mechanical and quartz wristwatches. The facility operated for over three decades until its closure in 2016.
4EconomyUttarakhand-specific
The craft products of the Uttarakhand state are sold by which brand name?
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Answer: (D) Himadri Brand
Explanation
The handicraft and handloom products of Uttarakhand are officially marketed and sold under the brand name Himadri. Established by the Uttarakhand Handloom and Handicraft Development Council (UHHDC), a state government agency, this brand aims to promote local artisans, weavers, and traditional craftsmen by offering them a platform for national and international market access. Under the Himadri brand, a wide variety of authentic items, including hand-woven woolen shawls, ringal bamboo crafts, wood carvings, and traditional copperware, are sold through dedicated emporiums and exhibitions.
5Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
What is total score obtained by Uttarakhand in 6ᵗʰ Food Security Index, 2024?
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Answer: (C) 38.75
Explanation
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) released the 6th State Food Safety Index (SFSI) for the year 2023-2024 in September 2024. In this evaluation, Uttarakhand obtained an overall score of 38.75 out of 100.
The total score of 38.75 is calculated based on the following specific parameters defined by the FSSAI:
Human Resources and Institutional Data: 4.75 marks out of 9
Compliance: 12.00 marks out of 28
Food Testing Infrastructure and Surveillance: 15.00 marks out of 36
Training and Capacity Building: 4.00 marks out of 10
Consumer Empowerment: 3.00 marks out of 10
Improvement in SFSI Rank: 0.00 marks out of 10
6Economy
What is the score of Uttarakhand in NITI Aayog's SDG India Index, 2023-24?
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Answer: (A) 79
Explanation
In the fourth edition of NITI Aayog's Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index for the year 2023-24, Uttarakhand secured the joint first position in the country alongside Kerala. Both states achieved the highest composite score of 79 out of 100, showing significant progress driven by advancements in clean energy, climate action, and sustainable cities.
7Science and Technology
What is the Boolean expression for a NAND gate?
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Answer: (B) (A· B)'
Explanation
A NAND gate functions as an AND gate followed by a NOT gate, representing a Not-AND operation. The Boolean expression for a standard two-input AND gate is A · B, which outputs a logic high only when both inputs are high. The addition of the NOT gate inverts this output, resulting in the Boolean expression (A · B)', also written as A · B. This expression means the output is logic low only when both inputs A and B are logic high, and logic high for all other input combinations.
8Science and Technology
Which of the following is used to measure the speed of computer's processor?
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Answer: (C) Hertz
Explanation
The speed of a computer processor, also known as its clock speed, is determined by the frequency of its internal clock generator. This frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz), which represents the number of clock cycles the CPU can execute per second. In modern computing, processor speeds are typically measured in Gigahertz (GHz), where one Gigahertz equals one billion cycles per second. Each cycle represents a tiny unit of time during which the processor can perform basic operations or execute instructions, so a higher frequency directly correlates with faster instruction execution.
9Science and Technology
Which application software is used for sending and receiving e-mails?
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Answer: (B) Microsoft Outlook
Explanation
Microsoft Outlook is a personal information manager developed by Microsoft that functions primarily as an email client. It provides the necessary interface and protocols to send, receive, and organize email messages, while also integrating tools for managing calendars, contacts, and tasks.
10Science and Technology
What does acronym PaaS stand for in cloud computing?
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Answer: (A) Platform as a Service
Explanation
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing model where a service provider delivers a complete platform environment, including hardware, operating systems, storage, and databases, over the internet. This model allows developers and software development teams to build, run, and manage custom applications without the complexity and cost of purchasing, configuring, and maintaining the underlying physical infrastructure.
11Science and Technology
Bulk Modulus for a perfectly rigid body is
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Answer: (A) Infinite
Explanation
The Bulk Modulus K of a substance measures its resistance to uniform compression and is mathematically expressed as:
K = -V (dP)/(dV)
Here, dP represents the change in pressure, V is the initial volume, and dV represents the change in volume. For a perfectly rigid body, by definition, there is absolutely no change in shape or size under the application of any external pressure, meaning the change in volume dV is exactly zero. Substituting dV = 0 into the formula results in the division of a non-zero pressure change by zero, which gives an infinite value for the Bulk Modulus K. This mathematically demonstrates that an infinite pressure would be needed to produce any change in the volume of a perfectly rigid body.
12Economy
Which five year plan was focused on inclusive growth?
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Answer: (D) 11ᵗʰ
Explanation
The Eleventh Five Year Plan, which spanned from 2007 to 2012, was designed with the core theme of "Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth". Under the leadership of Dr. Manmohan Singh as the Chairperson of the Planning Commission and drafted by C. Rangarajan, this plan recognized that rapid economic growth must be inclusive to ensure that its benefits reach marginalized communities, women, and backward regions. It targeted key areas such as agriculture, education, health, and poverty reduction, aiming to double per capita income while significantly reducing socio-economic disparities and creating millions of new employment opportunities.
13GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Where is the Herbal Research and Development Institute of Uttarakhand situated?
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Answer: (B) Gopeshwar
Explanation
The Herbal Research and Development Institute (HRDI) was established in 1989 at Gopeshwar (specifically in Mandal) in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. It serves as an autonomous institute under the Government of Uttarakhand and acts as the nodal agency for the Uttarakhand Medicinal Plant Board. The institute focuses on the conservation, development, propagation, and sustainable utilization of the highly valuable medicinal and aromatic plant resources found in the Himalayan region, while also coordinating training and research activities for farmers, government bodies, and non-governmental organizations.
14EconomyUttarakhand-specific
As per Uttarakhand Budget 2025-26, the amount allocated for Char Dham Road network improvement is
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Answer: (B) 10 Crores
Explanation
In the Uttarakhand Budget for the financial year 2025-26, presented by State Finance Minister Premchand Aggarwal, the state government allocated an amount of 10 Crores specifically for the improvement of the Char Dham Road network. This allocation aims to enhance spiritual tourism, connectivity, and safety along the critical pilgrimage routes of Yamunotri, Gangotri, Kedarnath, and Badrinath.
15Science and Technology
The moderator used in nuclear reactor is :
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Answer: (B) D
Explanation
Option b represents deuterium oxide (D₂O), commonly known as heavy water, which is a widely used neutron moderator in nuclear reactors. In a nuclear fission reactor, fast-moving neutrons are released during the fission of fuel nuclei. To sustain a controlled chain reaction, these neutrons must be slowed down to thermal energies. Heavy water is highly effective for this purpose because deuterium has an extremely low neutron absorption cross-section, which allows neutrons to be slowed down through elastic collisions without being captured and lost to the reaction.
16Geography
The marble of Taj Mahal is getting discoloured and lustreless due to :
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Answer: (A) Acid rain
Explanation
The white marble of the Taj Mahal is composed of calcium carbonate, CaCO₃. This marble is getting discoloured and losing its lustre due to the corrosive effects of acid rain.
Industries, oil refineries, and automobiles in and around Agra release significant amounts of air pollutants, primarily sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ). These acidic gases rise into the atmosphere and react with water vapor, oxygen, and other substances to form sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) and nitric acid (HNO₃).
When these acids descend as precipitation, they react chemically with the calcium carbonate of the marble:
CaCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + H₂O + CO₂
This reaction corrodes and dissolves the outer layers of the stone, a destructive phenomenon often referred to as marble cancer. The smooth surface of the pristine white marble gets pitted, eroded, and covered with calcium sulfate deposits, which causes the monument to lose its original lustre and gradually turn a yellowish-brown color.
17Geography
The thickness of ozone layer from base to top of atmosphere is measured in :
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Answer: (A) Dobson unit
Explanation
The total amount of atmospheric ozone in a vertical column from the Earth's surface to the top of the atmosphere is measured in Dobson Units (DU). One Dobson Unit is defined as the thickness of a layer of pure ozone that would be formed if all the ozone in that column were compressed to a standard temperature of 0 degrees Celsius and a standard pressure of 1 atmosphere (STP). Under these conditions, a column of ozone measuring 1 DU would be 0.01 millimeters thick. A typical vertical column of the atmosphere contains about 300 Dobson Units of ozone, which corresponds to a compressed layer thickness of approximately 3 millimeters. This unit is named in honor of G. M. B. Dobson, who developed the spectrophotometer used to measure atmospheric ozone from the ground.
18Geography
The rate at which solar energy is stored in green plants to be used as food is called :
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Answer: (A) Primary productivity
Explanation
Primary productivity is the rate at which primary producers, such as green plants, capture and store solar energy by converting it into organic substances (chemical energy/food) through the process of photosynthesis. This accumulation of biomass or chemical energy per unit area over a given time interval forms the fundamental trophic level base of the ecosystem.
19Geography
The interaction, in which one organism is benefitted and the other is neither harmed nor benefitted, is called :
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Answer: (B) Commensalism
Explanation
Commensalism is an ecological interaction between two different species where one species benefits from the association while the other species is unaffected, meaning it is neither helped nor harmed. This is represented as a (+, 0) interaction. An example of this is the relationship between orchids growing as epiphytes on the branches of trees, where the orchid gets support and access to sunlight without drawing nutrients or causing any harm to the host tree. Similarly, barnacles attaching themselves to the backs of whales get transported to plankton-rich feeding grounds while the whale remains completely unaffected.
20GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements about Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve :
1. It is World Heritage Site.
2. Its inhabitants include snow leopard, musk deer and blue sheep.
Choose the correct answer using following options :
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 both
Explanation
The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, located in the state of Uttarakhand, is recognized for its exceptional natural beauty and ecological significance. The core areas of the biosphere reserve consist of the Nanda Devi National Park and the Valley of Flowers National Park. The Nanda Devi National Park was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1988, which was later expanded in 2005 to include the Valley of Flowers National Park, collectively forming a single World Heritage Site.
The reserve is situated in the high-altitude transition zone between the Zanskar range and the Great Himalayas, providing a unique habitat for diverse Himalayan wildlife. Key mammalian species that inhabit this biosphere reserve include endangered and rare animals such as the snow leopard, the Himalayan musk deer, and the bharal or blue sheep.
21Geography
Match the items given in Column-I and II :
| Column-I | Column-II |
|---|---|
| A. Biomagnification | 1. Synthesis of ozone |
| B. Electrostatic precipitation | 2. Solid waste |
| C. Landfills | 3. Concentration build up at successive trophic levels |
| D. Stratosphere | 4. Particulate matter |
Codes :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
Biomagnification refers to the process where toxic substances increase in concentration at successive trophic levels of a food chain because an organism cannot metabolize or excrete the toxin, passing it on to its predator.
Electrostatic precipitation is an industrial technique that uses electrostatic precipitators to remove particulate matter, such as dust and smoke, from exhaust gases before they are released into the atmosphere.
Landfills are standard facilities specifically designed for the disposal and containment of municipal solid waste by burying it in engineered pits.
Stratosphere is the layer of the Earth's atmosphere where the synthesis of ozone occurs naturally through the action of solar ultraviolet radiation on oxygen molecules, maintaining the protective ozone layer.
22Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
Statement I : Light travels faster in air than in water.
Statement II : Refractive index of air is greater than that of water
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Answer: (A) Statement I is correct, statement II is wrong.
Explanation
The speed of light in any medium is inversely proportional to its refractive index, as represented by the relation v = ᶜ⁄ₙ, where v is the speed of light in the medium, c is the speed of light in vacuum, and n is the refractive index of the medium. The refractive index of air is approximately 1.0003, whereas the refractive index of water is approximately 1.33. Since the refractive index of air is less than that of water (nₐᵢᵣ < n_wₐₜₑᵣ), light travels faster in air than in water, which makes Statement I correct. Additionally, because the refractive index of air is smaller than that of water, Statement II is wrong.
23Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
1. The coefficient of linear expansion has dimension K-1.
2. The coefficient of volume expansion has dimension K-1.
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Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation
The coefficient of linear expansion, denoted by α, represents the fractional change in length per unit change in temperature, given by the formula α = (Δ L)/(L₀ Δ T). Dimensionally, this is written as [α] = ([L])/([L][K]) = [K⁻¹].
Similarly, the coefficient of volume expansion, denoted by γ, represents the fractional change in volume per unit change in temperature, expressed as γ = (Δ V)/(V₀ Δ T). Dimensionally, this is [γ] = ([L³])/([L³][K]) = [K⁻¹].
Since the units of length and volume cancel out in their respective formulas, both coefficients of expansion depend only on the inverse of temperature, giving both of them the dimension K⁻¹.
24Science and Technology
When milk is converted into curd, the sour taste is due to :
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Answer: (C) Lactic acid
Explanation
When milk is converted into curd, lactic acid bacteria, specifically Lactobacillus species, ferment the lactose sugar present in milk into lactic acid. The accumulation of lactic acid increases the acidity of the medium, lowering the pH. This process coagulates and partially digests the milk protein casein, transforming liquid milk into thick curd and imparting the characteristic sour taste.
25Science and Technology
Penicillin was discovered by :
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Answer: (C) Alexander Fleming
Explanation
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 at St. Mary's Hospital in London. He observed that contamination by a green mold, Penicillium notatum, inhibited the growth of Staphylococcus bacteria in a petri dish. This landmark discovery led to the development of penicillin as the world's first broad-spectrum antibiotic, which saved countless lives and revolutionized modern medicine.
26Science and Technology
Correct hierarchy of classification of plants is :
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Answer: (A) Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
Explanation
The taxonomic hierarchy in biological classification, from highest to lowest rank, is Kingdom, Division (for plants), Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species. In descending order of taxonomic categories, Class is followed by Order, which is followed by Family, then Genus, and finally Species. This represents the correct systematic arrangement of plant groups based on their shared characteristics and evolutionary relationships.
27Polity and Governance
What was the key focus of the Waqf Amendment Bill introduced in April, 2025 ?
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Answer: (B) Enhancing transparency and ensuring better governance of Waqf properties
Explanation
The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 (originally introduced in 2024 and passed by Parliament in April 2025) aims to reform the administration of Waqf properties in India. Its primary focus is on enhancing transparency, preventing misuse, and ensuring better overall governance. This is achieved through key administrative changes, such as the mandatory registration and digitisation of Waqf properties, streamlining the audit and accounts process, updating outdated definitions, and broadening representation on the Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards.
28Polity and Governance
Which programme was approved by the Union Cabinet in April, 2025 to develop border villages ?
The Union Cabinet approved the second phase of the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP-II) on April 4, 2025, as a Central Sector Scheme with 100 percent funding from the Central Government. Under this phase, which has a total financial outlay of Rs 6,839 crore for the financial years 2024-25 to 2028-29, the government focuses on the comprehensive development of selected strategic villages located in blocks abutting India's international land borders.
The primary objective of VVP-II is to improve living standards, build critical infrastructure, and generate sustainable livelihood opportunities in remote border villages. By strengthening these areas and preventing out-migration, the programme aims to enhance national security, control trans-border crimes, and empower the local border populations to act as the eyes and ears of the border guarding forces.
29Polity and Governance
What was the primary objective of the 'Poshan Pakhwada' event observed in April, 2025 ?
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Answer: (B) To improve nutrition across India, especially for women and children
Explanation
The 7th edition of the Poshan Pakhwada was observed from April 8 to April 22, 2025, with the primary objective of improving nutritional outcomes and combating malnutrition across India, particularly among children, pregnant women, lactating mothers, and adolescent girls. Organized annually by the Ministry of Women and Child Development as a key component of the Poshan Abhiyaan, this fortnightly campaign focuses on mass mobilization, behavioral change, and community participation. During the 2025 event, key initiatives were centered around raising awareness on the critical first 1,000 days of a child's life, managing acute malnutrition through community-based programs, utilizing the digital Poshan Tracker app, and promoting healthier lifestyles to prevent childhood obesity.
30Science and Technology
ISRO's module reentered the atmosphere and impacted the Indian Ocean on April 4, 2025. Name the module.
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Answer: (B) POEM-4
Explanation
The PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-4 (POEM-4) is the specially configured spent fourth stage (PS4) of the PSLV-C60 rocket. It was launched on December 30, 2024, as part of the Space Docking Experiment (SPADEX) mission. After executing its mission of hosting 24 payloads in orbit, the module was safely de-orbited and passivated by venting leftover fuel to prevent the accumulation of space debris. Under the continuous monitoring of ISRO's System for Safe and Sustainable Space Operations Management (IS4OM) and the United States Space Command, the module re-entered Earth's atmosphere and safely impacted the Indian Ocean on April 4, 2025.
31Economy
In March, 2025, the Indian Government announced the merger of how many Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) under the "one state, one RRB" initiative ?
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Answer: (C) 26
Explanation
The Department of Financial Services under the Ministry of Finance announced the consolidation of 26 Regional Rural Banks under the One State, One RRB initiative. This reform marks the fourth phase of the structural consolidation of Regional Rural Banks in India, aimed at merging these banks to bring the total number of functioning entities down from 43 to 28. This integration is designed to leverage economies of scale, enhance operational viability, and strengthen the overall financial health of these rural lending institutions.
32Polity and Governance
A key focus of Viksit Bharat Yatra is to disseminate information and facilitate access to which of the following areas ?
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Answer: (C) Welfare and development schemes
Explanation
The Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra is a major nationwide outreach initiative launched by the Government of India to raise awareness and ensure the last-mile delivery of various central government welfare and development schemes. Operating through specially equipped Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) vans, the campaign travels across gram panchayats, tribal areas, and urban local bodies to disseminate detailed information about government programs. Its core objectives include identifying and enrolling eligible individuals who have not yet accessed these benefits, thereby achieving 100 percent saturation of flagship programs such as Ayushman Bharat, Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, PM-KISAN, and PM Awas Yojana.
33Geography
Which of the following statements about causes of biodiversity loss is/are correct ?
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation are the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
2. Human activities lead to over-exploitation of natural resources.
3. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it do not become extinct.
Choose the correct answer using following options :
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 both
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because habitat loss and fragmentation are widely recognized as the primary and most devastating drivers of biodiversity loss globally. The destruction and breaking up of large, contiguous habitats into smaller patches severely disrupt the survival and migration of numerous animal and plant species, leading directly to their extinction.
Statement 2 is correct because human activities frequently result in the over-exploitation of natural resources. When human utilization of species and ecosystems transition from need to greed, resources are harvested faster than they can replenish, which has historically caused the extinction of many species such as the Steller's sea cow and the passenger pigeon.
34Science and Technology
Transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells may be induced by physical, chemical or biological agents are called :
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Answer: (A) Carcinogens
Explanation
Carcinogens are physical, chemical, or biological agents that induce the transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells. These agents damage or mutate the cellular DNA, disrupting the regulatory mechanisms that control normal cell growth and division, which leads to uncontrolled proliferation. Examples include physical mutagens like UV radiation and X-rays, chemical hazards like tobacco smoke and soot, and biological agents like oncogenic viruses.
35Science and Technology
Which pair is not correctly matched ?
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Answer: (C) Plumule - Root tip
Explanation
The plumule represents the embryonic shoot or stem tip of a plant, which develops into the shoot system upon germination. In contrast, the root tip develops from the radicle, which is the embryonic precursor of the root system. Since the root tip originates from the radicle and not the plumule, this pairing is incorrect.
36Science and Technology
Which Singapore-based student won the Breakthrough Junior Challenge Award in April, 2025 for the work in Mechanogenetic cellular engineering?
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Answer: (A) Jasmine Eyal
Explanation
Jasmine Eyal, a 16-year-old student from Singapore, won the 10th annual Breakthrough Junior Challenge in April 2025. Her winning science video, titled Mechanogenetic Cellular Engineering, explained the innovative biotechnology of engineering cells to respond to mechanical forces, which has potential future medical applications such as treatments for diabetes. For her achievement, she was awarded a 250,000 USD college scholarship, along with funding for a new state-of-the-art science lab at her school and a prize for her science teacher.
37Polity and Governance
Which of the following countries are members of the BRICS?
1. India
2. Indonesia
3. Iran
4. Egypt
5. Ethiopia
Select the correct answer:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation
India is one of the founding nations of BRICS, having been part of the grouping since its inception. The bloc went through a significant expansion on January 1, 2024, when Egypt, Ethiopia, and Iran officially joined as full members. Furthermore, in January 2025, Indonesia officially joined the BRICS grouping as a full member. Therefore, by 2025, all five of the listed countries—India, Indonesia, Iran, Egypt, and Ethiopia—are full members of the BRICS organization.
38Polity and Governance
In January, 2025, the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights appealed for how much funding to support Human Rights Worldwide?
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Answer: (C) 500 Million
Explanation
In January 2025, the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights, Volker Turk, launched the 2025 Annual Appeal requesting USD 500 million in extra-budgetary funding. This voluntary contribution is aimed at addressing critical global human rights needs, monitoring abuses in conflict zones such as Gaza, Ukraine, Sudan, and Myanmar, and supporting survivors of torture, arbitrary detention, and modern slavery across the world.
39Polity and Governance
What is the objective of 'DigiLocker' service?
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Answer: (A) Provide cloud storage for personal documents
Explanation
DigiLocker is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) under the Digital India programme. It is a secure, cloud-based platform designed to provide Indian citizens with a digital document wallet to store, share, and verify authentic electronic documents and certificates. Linked to an individual's Aadhaar card, DigiLocker provides dedicated cloud storage space where users can upload and safely keep scanned copies of their personal documents, as well as fetch and access digitally verified versions of official documents directly issued by government departments and academic institutions.
40Science and Technology
The United Nations has designated the year 2025 as the international year of which scientific field?
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Answer: (B) Quantum Science and Technology
Explanation
The United Nations General Assembly officially proclaimed 2025 as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology. This global initiative is designed to increase public awareness of quantum science and its widespread applications. The year 2025 was chosen to mark the centennial anniversary of the initial development of quantum mechanics, commemorating the seminal papers that mathematically formulated quantum physics. Supported by UNESCO, the initiative emphasizes how quantum technologies can drive innovation and help achieve the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals in fields such as healthcare, climate change mitigation, and clean energy.
41Science and Technology
Which of the following technologies is used to create personalized medicine based on a patient's genetic make up?
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Answer: (A) CRISPR
Explanation
CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) is a revolutionary gene-editing technology that allows scientists to make precise, targeted modifications to a patient's DNA sequence. By utilizing a guide RNA to locate a specific sequence of DNA and the Cas9 enzyme to cut it, CRISPR can repair defective genes, silence harmful mutations, or introduce beneficial genetic sequences. Because it directly alters genetic material at specific locations based on an individual's unique genetic blueprint, it is a foundational technology for designing customized gene therapies and developing highly personalized treatments tailored to a patient's exact genetic profile.
42Science and TechnologyUttarakhand-specific
Which one of the following is incorrect about Uttarakhand's first nano-fabrication facility for semiconductor research setup by I.I.T. Roorkee?
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Answer: (B) It complements Government's Sumudrayan mission.
Explanation
The Samudrayaan Mission is India's first manned deep-ocean exploration initiative aimed at sending humans in a submersible to study deep-sea resources and biodiversity. It is completely unrelated to semiconductor fabrication, microelectronics, and nanotechnology. The newly established nanofabrication facility at IIT Roorkee focuses exclusively on advancing the semiconductor ecosystem, quantum research, and nanotechnology development, having no connection to deep-sea exploration.
43Science and TechnologyUttarakhand-specific
Which one of the following is incorrect about the event 'Surya Dev Bhoomi Challenge' organized by the Indian Army and the Uttarakhand Government?
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Answer: (B) It featured 210 km high-altitude cycling.
Explanation
The Surya Devbhoomi Challenge featured a 110 km high-altitude cycling segment on its first day, which took route from Nelang to Bhatwari, rather than a 210 km cycling expedition.
44Art and Culture
What is the title of Pope Francis' autobiography, released in January, 2025?
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Answer: (B) Hope
Explanation
The autobiography of Pope Francis, titled Hope, was officially released on January 14, 2025, to coincide with the Catholic Church's 2025 Jubilee Year of Hope. Co-authored with Italian publisher Carlo Musso over a six-year period, it represents a historic milestone as the first memoir published by a sitting pope. Initially planned for posthumous release, Pope Francis decided to publish it during his lifetime to provide a testament of hope for the world. The memoir details his ancestry, childhood in Argentina, his religious calling, and various aspects of his papacy.
45Polity and Governance
Which International Summit did Prime Minister Narendra Modi attend in Bangkok in April, 2025?
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Answer: (C) BIMSTEC Summit
Explanation
Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Bangkok, Thailand, from April 3 to April 4, 2025, to participate in the 6th BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) Summit held on April 4, 2025. This summit was hosted under the chairmanship of Thailand with the theme "BIMSTEC: Prosperous, Resilient, and Open". During the event, leaders adopted the landmark BIMSTEC Bangkok Vision 2030, signed the Agreement on Maritime Transport Cooperation, and focused on enhancing regional connectivity, security, and trade among member states.
46Art and Culture
Which historic site in Jamaica faced threats from coastal erosion and storm surges, prompting UNESCO to launch a conservation project in early 2025?
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Answer: (A) Port Royal Naval Hospital
Explanation
On 12 February 2025, UNESCO launched a conservation project to protect the Historic Naval Hospital of Port Royal in Jamaica. This historic site, which is a major component of the Archaeological Landscape of 17th Century Port Royal, is surrounded by a nineteenth-century sea wall. The site has been threatened by coastal erosion, severe storm surges, and heavy ship traffic, which risk undermining the structural integrity of the hospital and the submerged ruins beneath it. Supported by the Netherlands Funds-in-Trust, the UNESCO initiative aims to reinforce the protective sea wall, build climate resilience, and safeguard the area's rich terrestrial and underwater archaeological heritage.
47Art and CultureUttarakhand-specific
Which one of the following is incorrectly matched about festivals/exhibitions/expos held in Uttarakhand in 2025?
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Answer: (D) Indo-Himalayan Expo - Dehradun
Explanation
The Indo-Himalayan Expo 2025 was held at the Prem Nagar Ashram in Haridwar, Uttarakhand, from February 21 to 23, 2025. Organised by the All India Commerce and Industry Development Foundation, the exhibition focuses on AYUSH, sustainable agriculture, wellness tourism, and animal husbandry, making the pairing with Dehradun incorrect.
48Polity and Governance
After the successful completion of 38ᵗʰ National Games in Uttarakhand, India is preparing itself to host ______ Olympics.
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Answer: (B) 2036
Explanation
During the inauguration of the 38th National Games in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, in January 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi reiterated India's strong commitment and preparation to host the 2036 Summer Olympic Games. The Indian Olympic Association has formally initiated steps, including submitting a Letter of Intent to the International Olympic Committee, showcasing the country's rising sporting capability, upgraded infrastructure, and strategic vision to host the global event in 2036.
49Art and CultureUttarakhand-specific
Which one of the following books is not written by Pushpesh Pant, a noted author of Uttarakhand?
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Answer: (C) Himalaya Ke Barf
Explanation
Himalaya Ke Barf is not authored by Pushpesh Pant. While the noted academician, historian, and food critic from Uttarakhand has written extensively about the Himalayan region, his prominent publications on the subject include titles like Himalaya: Smrtiyam, Svapna, Aura Saca and The Himalaya. The book Himalaya Ke Barf does not figure in his list of published literary works.
50Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
Where was the closing ceremony of 38ᵗʰ National Games held?
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Answer: (B) The International Sports Stadium, Haldwani
Explanation
The closing ceremony of the 38th National Games was held on February 14, 2025, at the International Sports Stadium in Golapar, Haldwani. Union Home Minister Amit Shah attended as the chief guest of the ceremony, which marked the conclusion of the multi-sport event successfully hosted across various venues in Uttarakhand.
51EconomyUttarakhand-specific
The Silkyara Tunnel spanning ______ is expected to shorten the distance between Gangotri and Yamunotri above 20 km .
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Answer: (C) 4.531 km
Explanation
The Silkyara-Barkot tunnel is a double-lane, bi-directional tunnel under construction as a key part of the Char Dham all-weather road project in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Spanning a length of 4.531 km, this tunnel connects Silkyara to Barkot on the Dharasu-Yamunotri section of National Highway 134. Once completed, it will provide safer, all-weather connectivity and significantly reduce the travel distance between Gangotri and Yamunotri by approximately 26 km, saving over an hour of travel time.
52Art and CultureUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following UNESCO World Heritage Sites is/are located in Uttarakhand? Choose the correct option:
A. Valley of Flowers
B. Kaziranga National Park
C. Mountain Railways of India
D. Nanda Devi National Park
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Answer: (D) A and D only
Explanation
The Nanda Devi National Park and the Valley of Flowers National Park together constitute a single UNESCO World Heritage Site located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
Initially, the Nanda Devi National Park was inscribed as a natural World Heritage Site in 1988. In 2005, the site was extended to include the adjacent Valley of Flowers National Park, renowned for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and outstanding natural beauty. Consequently, both of these protected areas are situated within the state of Uttarakhand.
53Art and CultureUttarakhand-specific
Who among the following received Padma Shri Award in 2025 for social work from Uttarakhand?
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Answer: (C) Smt. Radha Bahin Bhatt
Explanation
Smt. Radha Bahin Bhatt was honored with the Padma Shri Award in 2025 under the Social Work category from Uttarakhand. Often referred to as the Gandhi of the Hills, she has dedicated over seven decades of her life to grassroots social service, environmental protection, and the welfare of rural women and children in the Himalayan region. Having joined the Lakshmi Ashram in Kausani in 1951, she worked under the guidance of Sarla Behn and actively participated in Vinoba Bhave's Bhoodan Movement, leading walking tours across northern and northeastern India. She also played a prominent role in the historic Chipko Movement and continues to advocate for the conservation of water resources and traditional mountain lifestyles.
54Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following is incorrectly matched about Central Government Institutes located in Uttarakhand?
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Answer: (D) Directorate of Coldwater Fisheries Research - Haldwani
Explanation
The Directorate of Coldwater Fisheries Research (now elevated to the Central Institute of Coldwater Fisheries Research) is located in Bhimtal, in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, rather than Haldwani. While it was initially established with a temporary office in Haldwani in 1987, its headquarters was permanently shifted to Bhimtal in May 1997.
55History
Match List - I and List - II and choose the correct answer using the code given below :
| List - I (Biography) | List - II |
|---|---|
| A. Ramcharita | 1. Padmagupta |
| B. Navsahasankcharit | 2. Hemchandra |
| C. Kumarpalacharit | 3. Sandhyakarnandi |
| D. Vikramankdevacharit | 4. Bilhana |
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Explanation
Ramcharita was composed by Sandhyakarnandi, a court poet of the Pala dynasty, who wrote this epic using double meanings to narrate both the story of Rama and the life of King Ramapala of Bengal.
Navsahasankcharit was written by Padmagupta, also known as Parimala, who was the court poet of the Paramara dynasty of Malwa, to chronicle the exploits of King Sindhuraja.
Kumarpalacharit was authored by the renowned Jain scholar Hemchandra to celebrate the achievements and rule of the Chaulukya king Kumarapala of Gujarat.
Vikramankdevacharit was written by the Kashmiri poet Bilhana to describe the life, campaigns, and achievements of the Western Chalukya King Vikramaditya VI.
56History
Which of the following texts are written by Amir Khusrau ?
1. Khazain-ul-Futuh
2. Nuh Siphir
3. Miftah-ul-Futuh
4. Qiraan-us-Sadain
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Answer: (D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
All four of the given texts are historical and poetic works composed by the prominent Delhi Sultanate scholar and poet Amir Khusrau:
Khazain-ul-Futuh, also known as Tarikh-i-Alai, is a Persian prose work that chronicles the military campaigns, reforms, and victories of Sultan Alauddin Khalji, particularly focusing on his Deccan conquests.
Nuh Siphir is a historical masnavi written in 1318 during the reign of Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khalji. It comprises nine chapters describing the contemporary political atmosphere while enthusiastically praising the climate, languages, culture, and nature of India.
Miftah-ul-Futuh is a poetic work written in 1291 that documents the early military successes and campaigns of Sultan Jalaluddin Khalji.
Qiraan-us-Sadain is the first historical masnavi written by Khusrau in 1289. It narrates the historical meeting and eventual reconciliation between Sultan Muiz ud-din Qaiqabad and his father, Bughra Khan (the governor of Bengal).
57History
Who founded a separate department called 'Diwan-i-amir-i-kohi' to improve agriculture ?
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Answer: (B) Muhammad Tughlaq
Explanation
Muhammad Tughlaq established the Diwan-i-amir-i-kohi, a dedicated department of agriculture, to improve cultivation and bring more arable land under the plow. The primary objective of this department was to encourage peasants to cultivate superior crops through direct state support, including the provision of agricultural loans known as sondhar or taccavi. Under this system, the territory was divided into development blocks managed by officers who supervised the expansion of agriculture, distributed seeds, and monitored the progression of crop cultivation.
58History
Who was popularly known as Chiragh-i-Delhi ?
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Answer: (B) Nasiruddin Mahmud
Explanation
Nasiruddin Mahmud was a prominent 14th-century Sufi saint of the Chishti Order and a disciple of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya. He is popularly known as Chiragh-i-Delhi (meaning the Lamp of Delhi) and was the last major spiritual successor of the Chishti order in Delhi, significantly contributing to the expansion and preservation of the mystic tradition during a period of political transition in the Delhi Sultanate.
59History
Arrange the following events in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last event :
I. First Battle of Panipat
II. Battle of Khanwa
III. Battle of Ghagra
IV. Battle of Chanderi
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Answer: (C) I, II, IV, III
Explanation
The correct chronological order of the battles fought by Babur is determined by their respective years of occurrence in consecutive succession. The First Battle of Panipat was fought on 21 April 1526, in which Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi to lay the foundation of the Mughal Empire in India. This was followed by the Battle of Khanwa on 17 March 1527, where Babur defeated the Rajput alliance led by Rana Sanga of Mewar. Next was the Battle of Chanderi in January 1528, where Babur captured the strategic fort of Chanderi from the Rajput ruler Medini Rai. Finally, the Battle of Ghagra took place on 6 May 1529, in which Babur defeated the joint Afghan forces of Bihar and Bengal under Mahmud Lodi. This consecutive annual sequence of military campaigns from 1526 to 1529 establishes the progression from I to II, then IV, and lastly III.
60Art and Culture
Who were the famous painter at Jahangir's court ?
1. Basawan
2. Manohar
3. Bishun Das
4. Mansur
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Answer: (B) Only 2, 3, 4
Explanation
Manohar was a celebrated painter who served under both Akbar and Jahangir, excelling in portraiture and depictions of court life.
Bishun Das was highly esteemed by Jahangir for his exceptional portrait-painting skills. Jahangir praised him as unrivalled in portraiture and even sent him on a diplomatic mission to Persia to paint the Safavid ruler, Shah Abbas I.
Ustad Mansur was a master naturalist painter in Jahangir's court, famous for his detailed, lifelike paintings of flora and fauna. Jahangir honored him with the title Nadir-al-Asr (Wonder of the Age).
Basawan, on the other hand, was primarily one of the leading court painters of Akbar's reign rather than Jahangir's.
61History
Consider the following statements with reference to Trade Union Movement in India :
1. All India Trade Union Congress was founded in 1920.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai was elected its first President.
3. All India Trade Union Federation was formed by S.A. Dange in 1929.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
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Answer: (A) Only 1 | 2
Explanation
The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded on October 31, 1920, in Bombay. It was established to represent Indian labor at the International Labour Organisation (ILO) and to coordinate the activities of various local trade unions.
Lala Lajpat Rai was elected as the first President of the All India Trade Union Congress during its inaugural session in 1920, while Dewan Chaman Lall served as its first general secretary.
The All India Trade Union Federation (AITUF) was formed in 1929 by N. M. Joshi and other moderate leaders who split from the AITUC during the Nagpur session, rather than by S. A. Dange. This makes the third statement incorrect and leaves only statements 1 and 2 as correct.
62Art and Culture
Which of the following Vedas is divided into two branches as Krishna and Shukla ?
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Answer: (C) Yajur Veda
Explanation
The Yajur Veda is divided into two major branches known as the Shukla Yajur Veda and the Krishna Yajur Veda. The term Shukla means white or bright, representing the well-arranged version of the text where the core mantras are clearly separated from the explanatory prose of the Brahmanas. The term Krishna means black or dark, representing the version where the sacrificial formulas and the explanatory prose commentaries are intermixed within the collection.
63History
Which ancient city was named 'Polibrotha' in the Greek texts ?
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Answer: (D) Patliputra
Explanation
In ancient Greek texts, the city of Pataliputra (modern-day Patna) is referred to as Polibrotha or Palibothra. This name was recorded by Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador sent by Seleucus I Nicator to the court of the Mauryan Emperor Chandragupta Maurya in the 3rd century BCE. In his work Indica, Megasthenes described the grandeur, local administration, and advanced wooden fortifications of the Mauryan capital.
64History
Consider the following statements with reference to the inscriptions of Ashoka :
1. Most of the inscriptions are in the Prakrit language and Brahmi script.
2. The inscriptions found at Mansehra and Shahbazgarhi are in the Prakrit language and Kharoshthi script.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The vast majority of Ashoka's edicts across his empire were composed in the Prakrit language and written in the Brahmi script, which is the ancestor of most modern Indian scripts and is written from left to right.
The major rock edicts at Mansehra and Shahbazgarhi, situated in the northwestern frontier of the Mauryan Empire in modern-day Pakistan, were adapted to the regional culture by using the Kharoshthi script written from right to left to record the Prakrit language.
65History
When did Muslim League observe 'Direct Action Day'?
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Answer: (B) 16ᵗʰ August, 1946
Explanation
The Muslim League, under the leadership of Muhammad Ali Jinnah, announced Direct Action Day on 16 August 1946. The call for direct action was made to demonstrate the strength of Muslim support for the demand of a separate homeland of Pakistan, following the failure and rejection of the Cabinet Mission Plan. This day initiated widespread communal violence and riots, most notably in Calcutta, leading to what is historically referred to as the Great Calcutta Killings.
66History
Who wrote the book 'The Indian Musalmans'?
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Answer: (A) W.W. Hunter
Explanation
The book 'The Indian Musalmans' was written by Sir William Wilson Hunter (W.W. Hunter) and published in 1871. He was a Scottish historian, statistician, and member of the Indian Civil Service. The book was written in response to a question posed by the Viceroy, Lord Mayo, on whether Indian Muslims were bound by their religion to rebel against the Crown. Hunter's work detailed the socio-economic conditions of Muslims in British India, highlighting their decline under British administrative and educational reforms and recommending policy shifts to secure their loyalty.
67History
The religious reforms in Bombay were started by whom?
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Answer: (D) Parramahans Mandali
Explanation
The religious reforms in Bombay were pioneered by the Paramahans Mandali, a secret socio-religious society founded in 1849 by Dadoba Pandurang, Mehtaji Durgaram, and their associates. Operating quietly to avoid orthodox backlash, the Mandali worked towards the abolition of caste distinctions, the promotion of monotheism, female education, and widow remarriage. It served as the first organized reform movement in the Bombay region, laying the intellectual groundwork for subsequent public reform initiatives in Western India.
68History
When was the 'Sargeant Plan' of education started?
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Answer: (B) 1944
Explanation
The Sargent Plan of Education, formally known as the Report of the Sargent Committee on Post-War Educational Development in India, was formulated in 1944 by the Central Advisory Board of Education. Sir John Sargent, who served as the Educational Advisor to the Government of India, prepared this comprehensive memorandum. The plan provided a detailed blueprint to systematically develop education at all levels, from pre-primary to university education, aiming to elevate India's educational standards to be on par with England within a span of forty years.
69HistoryUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements:
1. During the Gurkha Administration, the Judge was called 'VICHARI'.
2. The other judicial workers were also called 'SABHA'.
3. For the prompt justice the officer appointed was called 'DIVYA'.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2
Explanation
During the Gurkha (Gorkha) administration in Kumaon and Garhwal, the judicial system had distinct administrative terminologies. The judge or the officer presiding over the court was known as the Vichari. The court also featured other judicial workers and assembly members who acted as a jury, and they were referred to as the Sabha.
Divya did not refer to a designated officer for prompt justice; rather, it was a traditional system of ordeals or divine tests used to determine guilt or innocence when eye-witnesses and concrete evidence were lacking. These ordeals included tests such as Gola Deep (carrying a red-hot iron rod), Kadhai Deep (submerging hands in boiling oil), and Taraju ka Deep (weighing the accused). Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are historically correct.
70HistoryUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements and select the correct statement/s:
1. Somchand appointed four fort guards - Karki, Bora, Taragi and Chaudhary.
2. All the above were jointly called 'CHAR Aal'.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
King Somchand, the founder of the Chand dynasty of Kumaon, established his administration from the Rajbunga Fort in Champawat. For the protection and security of the fort and the kingdom, he appointed four kiledars (fort commandants or guards) from different prominent local clans: Karki, Bora, Taragi, and Chaudhary. These four guardians were collectively known as the Char Aal, representing the four walls or pillars of defence.
71HistoryUttarakhand-specific
What were the duties of 'KAMIN' in Uttarakhand during the Colonial period?
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Answer: (A) Collection of revenue from assigned villages
Explanation
During the pre-colonial and colonial periods in Uttarakhand, Kamins (along with Sayanas) functioned as crucial regional and village chiefs who acted as revenue intermediaries. Their primary duty was the administration and collection of land revenue and other taxes from the assigned villages within their jurisdiction. They signed revenue agreements, such as Kaul Pattas, on behalf of the villages and ensured that the collected taxes were deposited with the state administration, bridging the gap between the local cultivators and the government.
72History
Consider the following statements with reference to the 'Revolt of 1857':
1. Syed Ahmad Khan wrote "Causes of the Indian Revolt".
2. Mangal Pande was hanged on March 29, 1857.
3. Hazrat Mahal led the revolt at Lucknow.
4. Nana Saheb led the revolt at Bareilly.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Only 1, 2 | 3
Explanation
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan authored the influential booklet Asbab-e-Baghawat-e-Hind (The Causes of the Indian Revolt) in 1858, which examined the underlying social, political, and military causes of the uprising.
On March 29, 1857, Mangal Pandey, a sepoy of the 34th Bengal Native Infantry at Barrackpore, rebelled against his British superior officers. This critical event serves as the primary initiation date of the military resistance, leading to his subsequent arrest and execution.
Begum Hazrat Mahal, the wife of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, assumed leadership of the rebellion in Lucknow. She rallied the local sepoys and residents, seized control of Lucknow, and crowned her minor son, Birjis Qadr, as the Nawab of Awadh.
73History
Which of the following commissions are related to famine in British India?
1. Campbell Commission
2. Lyall Commission
3. Strachey Commission
4. Hunter Commission
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Campbell Commission was appointed in 1866 under the chairmanship of George Campbell to investigate the Orissa Famine of 1866 and suggest relief measures.
The Strachey Commission was set up in 1878 under Sir Richard Strachey following the Great Famine of 1876 to 1878. It laid down the fundamental principles of famine relief administration in British India and recommended the formulation of the Famine Code.
The Lyall Commission was constituted in 1897 under Sir James Lyall following the widespread famine of 1896 to 1897 to review existing famine relief measures and suggest modifications to the Famine Code.
The Hunter Commission of 1882 was appointed under Sir William Hunter to review the progress of education in India, while the Hunter Commission of 1919 was set up to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, making neither of them related to famine relief.
74History
Who was appointed the Chairman of 'National Planning Committee' by Indian National Congress in 1938?
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Answer: (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation
The National Planning Committee was set up in October 1938 by the Indian National Congress, initiated by the then Congress President Subhas Chandra Bose. Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as the Chairman of this committee to formulate a comprehensive plan for the economic development and industrialization of India. The committee worked to coordinate efforts between science, technology, and policy, setting up several sub-committees to study various sectors of the economy and outline a blueprint for post-independence development.
75HistoryUttarakhand-specific
By which name Chinese Traveller Hiuen-Tsang addressed the Kumaon region ?
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Answer: (B) Brahampur
Explanation
During his travels in India in the seventh century CE, the famous Chinese Buddhist monk and traveller Hiuen-Tsang visited the Himalayan region. In his travelogue, Si-Yu-Ki, he described the ancient kingdom covering the Kumaon and Garhwal regions of present-day Uttarakhand as Brahmapura (referred to as Brahampur), which he recorded phonetically as Po-lo-ki-mo-pu-lo.
76HistoryUttarakhand-specific
Who founded a branch of 'HOME-RULE League' at Dehradun in 1918 ?
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Answer: (C) Swami Vicharanand Saraswati
Explanation
In 1918, Swami Vicharanand Saraswati arrived in Dehradun from Prayagraj and established a branch of the Home Rule League. This initiative was a significant step in introducing the ideas of self-governance and nationalist political consciousness to the people of the region. Swami Vicharanand Saraswati was an active social reformer and political worker in Uttarakhand who also established the weekly newspaper Abhay from Dehradun to further propagate nationalistic thoughts and mobilize the public against British colonial rule.
77History
In 1918, at which place Badridutt Pandey met with Mahatma Gandhi and informed him about the Coolie-Begar System ?
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Answer: (B) Calcutta
Explanation
In 1918, the prominent freedom fighter and leader of the Kumaon Parishad, Badridutt Pandey, traveled to Calcutta to meet Mahatma Gandhi. During this meeting, he apprised Gandhi of the highly exploitative Coolie-Begar system prevalent in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, under which local villagers were forced to provide unpaid porter services and supplies to visiting British officials. Pandey detailed the hardships faced by the local population and invited Gandhi to visit Kumaon to support the struggle. Although Gandhi was unable to visit Kumaon at that time due to other national commitments, this meeting was crucial in bringing the regional issue of forced labor to the attention of national leaders, ultimately paving the way for the successful, non-violent Coolie-Begar abolition movement of 1921.
The Mussoorie firing incident (Goli Kand), a significant event in the Uttarakhand statehood movement, occurred on 2 September 1994, rather than 3 September 1994. It took place the day after the Khatima firing incident of 1 September 1994. During a protest held in Mussoorie to condemn the Khatima tragedy, security forces opened fire on peaceful agitators, resulting in the martyrdom of several activists, including prominent women leaders like Belmati Chauhan and Hansa Dhanai.
79HistoryUttarakhand-specific
During whose reign did English Education start in Tehri-Princely state ?
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Answer: (C) Pratap Shah
Explanation
Raja Pratap Shah, who ruled the Tehri princely state from 1871 to 1886, is credited with introducing English education in the region. Realizing the necessity of modern educational facilities for his subjects, he established the first Anglo-Vernacular Middle School in Tehri in 1883. This landmark initiative initiated formal English education in the state. The school was later upgraded to a high school and renamed Pratap High School during the reign of Kirti Shah, laying the foundation for modern administrative capabilities and academic development in the kingdom.
80HistoryUttarakhand-specific
At which place the fourth conference of 'Kumaon Parisad' was held ?
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Answer: (C) Kashipur
Explanation
The fourth conference of the Kumaon Parishad was held in December 1920 at Kashipur, located in the Udham Singh Nagar district of Uttarakhand. This session was presided over by Har Govind Pant and is highly significant in the history of Uttarakhand's regional national movement, as it was during this conference that the local struggles were actively aligned with the national freedom struggle. A resolution supporting the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated by Mahatma Gandhi was brought forward and passed during this session.
81HistoryUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements :
1. Parmar king Fateh Shah invited Guru Ram Rai in his kingdom.
2. He welcomed the construction of Gurudwara at Dehradun.
3. He presented four villages - Chhayawala, Bhujanwala, Panditwari and Ghantawala to him.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below :
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2
Explanation
The Parmar King Fateh Shah, who ruled the Garhwal Kingdom, invited and welcomed the Sikh Udasi leader Guru Ram Rai to his kingdom in 1676, following the recommendation of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb. The king welcomed the establishment of the Guru's camp, which laid the foundation for the city of Dehradun and the subsequent construction of the Guru Ram Rai Darbar Sahib.
Raja Fateh Shah initially made an endowment of only three villages, namely Khurbura, Rajpur, and Chamsari. It was his grandson, Raja Pradip Shah, who later presented the four additional villages to the Guru as a jagir. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
82HistoryUttarakhand-specific
In 1814 who led the English Forces in 'Dehradun Military Campaign' of 'ENGLISH- GURKHA War' ?
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Answer: (B) Major General Gillespie
Explanation
During the Anglo-Nepalese War of 1814–1816, Major General Robert Rollo Gillespie was appointed to command the British division tasked with securing the western front. His column entered the Dehradun Valley in October 1814 to dislodge the Gorkha forces occupying the region. This campaign culminated in the historic Battle of Nalapani at the Kalunga fort near Dehradun. Gillespie personally led the British assault against the Gorkha garrison commanded by Captain Balbhadra Kunwar, where he was shot and killed while rallying his troops on October 31, 1814.
83Geography
Which of the following countries is leading producer of Gold in the World in the year 2023 ?
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Answer: (A) China
Explanation
According to the United States Geological Survey (USGS), China was the world's leading gold-producing nation in 2023, with an estimated mine production of 370 metric tons, which accounted for more than 12% of the global total. China has consistently held the position of the top global gold producer for several years, supported by major mining operations concentrated in key eastern provinces such as Shandong, Henan, Fujian, and Liaoning.
84Geography
The Shiwalik range is primarily composed of which type of material ?
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Answer: (C) Unconsolidated sediments
Explanation
The Shiwalik Range, also known as the Outer Himalayas, is the southernmost and youngest mountain range in the Himalayan system. Geologically, it belongs to the late Tertiary and Quaternary deposits. This range is primarily composed of unconsolidated sediments such as loose sand, clay, silt, gravel, and conglomerate formations. These materials were carried down by the major Himalayan rivers originating in the higher ranges to the north and deposited in the foothill basins, after which they were subsequently folded and uplifted. Due to this loose, poorly consolidated structure, the Shiwaliks are highly vulnerable to tectonic movements, landslides, and heavy soil erosion.
85Art and CultureUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to - 'GARHWAL - PAINTING' style ?
1. Shyamdas and Hardas came to Srinagar in May 1658 in the court of Prithivipati Shah.
2. They got the post of 'TASBIRDAAR' in the court of art loving Garhwal kings.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2
Explanation
The founders of the Garhwal school of painting, Shyamdas and his son Hardas, were skilled miniature painters trained in the Mughal style. They arrived in Srinagar, the capital of the Garhwal kingdom, in May 1658 as part of the entourage of the fugitive Mughal prince Suleman Shikoh, who was seeking refuge from Aurangzeb. They were warmly received in the court of King Prithivipati Shah. When the prince left the region after nineteen months, these artists chose to remain in Garhwal. Because of their artistic caliber, they were appointed as royal tasbirdars (picture-makers or court artists) by the art-patronizing Garhwal rulers, which laid the foundation of the distinct Garhwal school of painting.
86HistoryUttarakhand-specific
At which place native doctors were appointed by 'Traill' in 1833 ?
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Answer: (B) Almora
Explanation
During the British colonial administration in the Kumaon region, Commissioner George William Traill took significant steps to establish and improve public health services. Under his tenure, the first Native Doctor was appointed in Almora in February 1833. This appointed medical professional, trained at native medical institutions, was tasked with providing essential medical facilities, dispensing medicines in local jails and military hospitals, and assisting the Assistant Surgeon, marking the beginning of structured healthcare administration in the region.
87HistoryUttarakhand-specific
Who established 'GARHWAL-UNION' and 'GARHWAL HITKARINI SABHA' ?
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Answer: (D) Tara Dutt Gairola
Explanation
Tara Dutt Gairola was a prominent lawyer, writer, editor, and social reformer from Uttarakhand who established the Garhwal Hitkarini Sabha in 1901. He also played a key role in the establishment of the Garhwal Union in 1901, alongside other notable figures of the region like Vishambhar Dutt Chandola and Chandra Mohan Raturi, with the goal of fostering social development, education, and political consciousness in the Garhwal region.
88Geography
Which of the following ports is located along the western coast line ?
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Answer: (A) Navasheva
Explanation
Navasheva, also known as Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT), is located east of Mumbai in Maharashtra along the Konkan coast of the Arabian Sea, which forms a major part of India's western coastline. Commissioned in 1989, it serves as the largest container port in India, designed to handle high volumes of containerized cargo and alleviate congestion at the neighboring Mumbai Port.
89Geography
Which of the following is the correct latitudinal extend of the mainland of India ?
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Answer: (D) 8°4^′N to 37°6^′N
Explanation
The mainland of India extends from the southern tip at Kanyakumari to the northernmost point in the Himalayas. The latitudinal boundary of the Indian mainland starts at 8°4^′N latitude in the south and goes up to 37°6^′N latitude in the north. This geographic placement ensures that the entire mainland of India lies completely in the Northern Hemisphere.
90Geography
Which is the largest glacier of Trans-Himalayas ?
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Answer: (B) Siachen
Explanation
The Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram Range, which forms a major part of the Trans-Himalayan region. Measuring approximately 76 kilometers in length, it is the largest glacier in the Trans-Himalayas and the second-longest glacier in the world's non-polar areas.
91Geography
Which of the following trees is not of evergreen forest type ?
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Answer: (C) Sal
Explanation
Sal is a broad-leaved hardwood tree belonging to the family Dipterocarpaceae, which is a major component of tropical deciduous forests in India. Unlike evergreen species, Sal is a deciduous tree that sheds its leaves during the dry spring season, typically between February and April, to minimize water loss through transpiration, and then regenerates new foliage with the arrival of the pre-monsoon showers.
92Geography
Which of the following countries has the highest density of railway network ?
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Answer: (B) U.S.A.
Explanation
The United States of America possesses the largest railway network in the world, with a total operational track length exceeding 220,000 km. It has the highest density of railway network among the given options. This dense network is heavily concentrated in the highly industrialized and urbanized East-Central region of the country. This extensive coverage and high concentration of rail infrastructure in its primary economic zones make it the leading country in rail density among the choices.
93Geography
Which is the correct sequence of lakes in descending order according to their size among the following ?
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Answer: (B) Superior, Victoria, Michigan, Chilka
Explanation
The descending order of the lakes by surface area is determined by comparing their respective sizes.
Lake Superior, located on the Canada–United States border, is the largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area, covering approximately 82,100 square kilometers.
Lake Victoria, located in East Africa, is the largest tropical lake and the second-largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area, spanning about 68,800 square kilometers.
Lake Michigan, situated entirely within the United States, is one of the five Great Lakes of North America and covers a surface area of approximately 57,800 square kilometers.
Chilika Lake, a brackish water coastal lagoon on the east coast of India in Odisha, is much smaller, with a water spread area ranging between 900 and 1,165 square kilometers depending on the seasonal monsoon and dry periods.
94Geography
Grand Canyon of U.S.A. is formed by which of the following rivers ?
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Answer: (D) Colorado
Explanation
The Grand Canyon was formed by the erosive action of the Colorado River over millions of years. As the Colorado River flowed through the Colorado Plateau, it cut deep channels into the rock layers while the surrounding land was simultaneously uplifted by tectonic forces. This continuous process of river incision and geological uplift created the massive, steep-walled canyon system in northern Arizona.
95Geography
Which of the following planets takes the longest time in completing one revolution around the sun ?
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Answer: (C) Neptune
Explanation
According to Kepler's Third Law of Planetary Motion, the square of the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of its average distance from the Sun, represented as T² ∝ a³. Consequently, planets located farther from the Sun have larger orbits and slower orbital speeds, leading to longer periods of revolution. Neptune is the most distant planet in our solar system, orbiting at an average distance of approximately 30.1 astronomical units (AU) from the Sun. This immense distance results in Neptune having an orbital period of about 164.8 Earth years, which is the longest time taken to complete one revolution around the Sun.
96Geography
According to the Koppen's Climatic Classification the (Amw) climate is found predominantly in which part of India ?
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Answer: (B) Western coastal region
Explanation
Under the Koppen climate classification system, the code Amw represents a tropical monsoon climate characterized by a short dry winter season. This climatic region experiences heavy annual precipitation, typically exceeding 300 cm, which is brought by the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds during the summer months. In India, this climate type is predominantly located along the Western coastal region, stretching south of Mumbai down to the Malabar Coast. The high rainfall is heavily influenced by the orographic barrier of the Western Ghats, which forces the incoming monsoon winds to rise, condense, and precipitate abundantly along the coastal strip, leaving only a short, relatively dry period during the winter months.
97Geography
The word Bio-diversity was coined by :
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Answer: (A) W.G. Rosen
Explanation
The term biodiversity is a contraction of biological diversity. It was coined by the American botanist Walter G. Rosen in 1985 while planning the National Forum on BioDiversity, which was held in September 1986 in Washington, D.C. The term was subsequently popularized globally by the entomologist Edward O. Wilson in the 1988 publication of the forum's proceedings.
98Geography
Which of the following local winds affects some parts of Kerala and Tamil Nadu during Premonsoon season ?
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Answer: (B) Mango Shower
Explanation
Mango Showers are pre-monsoon rainfall and associated localized winds that occur in the southern parts of India, including Kerala, Karnataka, and parts of Tamil Nadu, during the hot weather season between March and May. These convectional rains and winds are triggered by thunderstorms forming over the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea due to high land temperatures. Locally known as Mango Showers, they are vital for agricultural and horticultural activities in these regions as they prevent premature dropping of mangoes and aid in their early ripening, while also bringing cooling relief prior to the main southwest monsoon.
99Geography
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
| List - I (National Parks) | List - II (States) |
|---|---|
| A. Simlipal | 1. Karnataka |
| B. Indravati | 2. Madhya Pradesh |
| C. Kanha | 3. Chhattisgarh |
| D. Bandipur | 4. Odisha |
Codes :
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Answer: (A) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1
Explanation
Simlipal National Park is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha and is famous as a biosphere reserve.
Indravati National Park is situated in the Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh, named after the Indravati River flowing nearby.
Kanha National Park is a renowned tiger reserve situated in Madhya Pradesh.
Bandipur National Park is established in Karnataka and forms an important part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
100Geography
Which of the following is the largest centre of petro-chemical industry in India ?
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Answer: (D) Vadodara
Explanation
Vadodara is one of the oldest and largest petrochemical hubs in India, established with the setting up of the Indian Petrochemicals Corporation Limited (IPCL) and the Gujarat Refinery at Koyali. It remains a major center for the petrochemical industry in the country.
101Geography
Which of the following parts of Himalaya is situated between Main Boundary Thrust and Main Central Thrust ?
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Answer: (B) Lesser Himalayan zone
Explanation
The Lesser Himalayan zone, also known as the Himachal or Lower Himalayan range, is bounded by two major thrust faults of the Himalayan orogenic belt. To its north lies the Main Central Thrust (MCT), which separates it from the higher-grade metamorphic rocks of the Great Himalayan zone. To its south lies the Main Boundary Thrust (MBT), which separates it from the younger sedimentary foothills of the Shivalik zone. Consequently, the Lesser Himalayan zone represents the geological and structural segment situated directly between the Main Boundary Thrust and the Main Central Thrust.
102GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements with reference to animal husbandry in Uttarakhand. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Animal husbandry is a supplementary occupation of agriculture.
2. Sheep rearing in the mountainous areas has been affected by environmental degradation.
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Answer: (A) Both 1 | 2
Explanation
In Uttarakhand, agriculture and animal husbandry are closely integrated, with animal husbandry serving as a vital supplementary occupation of agriculture. Livestock rearing provides rural households with critical additional income, organic manure for crop fields, and draught power, sustaining the overall agrarian economy.
Meanwhile, traditional sheep rearing in the mountainous regions of the state is heavily dependent on transhumance and seasonal access to high-altitude alpine pastures, known as Bugyals. Over the years, these natural grazing lands have faced severe pressure from environmental degradation, climate change, pasture depletion, and weed invasion. This ecological degradation has reduced the availability of quality fodder and restricted traditional migration corridors, significantly impacting the sheep-rearing practices of mountain communities.
103GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Name of Airport District
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Answer: (B) Gauchar - Rudraprayag
Explanation
Gauchar Airport is located in Gauchar town within the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, situated on the left bank of the Alaknanda River, rather than in the Rudraprayag district. It serves as an important airstrip in the Garhwal region for both military and emergency rescue operations.
104GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
| List - I (Wild Life Sanctuary) | List - II (Location) |
|---|---|
| A. Askot Wild Life Sanctuary | 1. Uttarkashi |
| B. Binsar Wild Life Sanctuary | 2. Nainital |
| C. Govind Wild Life Sanctuary | 3. Almora |
| D. Nandhaur Wild Life Sanctuary | 4. Pithoragarh |
Codes :
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Answer: (C) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Explanation
The correct matching of the wildlife sanctuaries with their respective districts in Uttarakhand is as follows:
Askot Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Pithoragarh district, established in 1986 primarily for the conservation of the Himalayan musk deer.
Binsar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Almora district, situated on the Jhandi Dhar hills.
Govind Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Uttarkashi district, established in 1955 to protect various high-altitude wildlife species.
Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Nainital district, established in 2012 within the Shivalik Terai landscape.
105Geography
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the options given below :
Statement 1 : Uttarakhand is highly vulnerable to climate change.
Statement 2 : Climate change is causing water stress and depleting biodiversity in Uttarakhand.
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Answer: (C) Statements 1 and 2 both are correct.
Explanation
Uttarakhand is situated in the sensitive Himalayan region, which makes it geographically and ecologically highly vulnerable to climate change. Its fragile mountain terrains, steep slopes, and high dependency on rain-fed agriculture and natural water sources exacerbate this vulnerability. The region frequently experiences severe climate-induced disasters such as cloudbursts, flash floods, and landslides.
Furthermore, climate change in Uttarakhand is directly leading to water stress as glaciers recede rapidly and natural springs, which serve as primary water sources for local communities, dry up. Simultaneously, changing temperature and precipitation patterns are shifting habitat zones, threatening endemic flora and fauna, and accelerating biodiversity loss across various altitudes.
106GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the options given below :
Statement 1 : The State Council for Climate Change (SCCC) of Uttarakhand was established in the year 2011.
Statement 2 : The responsibility of preparing Uttarakhand Action Plan on Climate Change (UAPCC) was given to the State Revenue Department.
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Answer: (A) Only statement 1 is correct.
Explanation
The State Council for Climate Change (SCCC) of Uttarakhand was constituted under the chairmanship of the Chief Secretary in the year 2011 to spearhead climate actions and oversee the implementation of state-level climate policies.
The formulation and preparation of the Uttarakhand Action Plan on Climate Change (UAPCC) was assigned to the State Forest Department, which acted as the nodal department for coordinating the development of this multi-sectoral strategy, rather than the State Revenue Department.
107GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following districts of Uttarakhand has the highest agricultural land ?
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Answer: (B) Udhamsingh Nagar
Explanation
Udham Singh Nagar has the highest agricultural land area (net sown area) in Uttarakhand. Located in the fertile Terai region of the Indo-Gangetic plains, it features flat, highly productive terrain with deep alluvial soil. The district has a net sown area of approximately 1.5 lakh hectares, which accounts for over 53% of its total geographical area. Known as the Rice Bowl of Uttarakhand, its favorable topography, coupled with extensive canal and tube-well irrigation networks, supports intensive commercial cultivation of major crops such as paddy, wheat, and sugarcane.
108Geography
Given below are two statements, one is Assertion (A) and other is Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the given codes:
Assertion (A): Uttarakhand is rich in forest and bio-diversity. Reason (R): Topography and climate primarily determine the forest and bio-diversity.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Uttarakhand has a highly varied elevation ranging from the foothills of the Shivaliks to the high snow-clad peaks of the Greater Himalayas, resulting in a wide range of climatic conditions from sub-tropical to alpine. These variations in topography and climate create diverse ecological niches, supporting high biodiversity and a rich forest cover of about forty-five percent of the state's total geographical area. In ecology, the distribution, density, and diversity of forest types are primarily determined by physical factors such as altitude, terrain, temperature, and precipitation. Therefore, the physical topography and climate of Uttarakhand are the main reasons why it is exceptionally rich in forest resources and biodiversity.
109GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following is the correct order of rivers from west to east in Uttarakhand?
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Answer: (A) Yamuna, Bhillangana, Alaknanda, Gori
Explanation
The geographical sequence of the rivers in Uttarakhand from west to east is determined by their respective longitudinal locations and origins.
The Yamuna River originates at the Yamunotri Glacier near the Banderpooch peaks in Uttarkashi district, making it the westernmost river of the group.
The Bhillangana River originates from the Khatling Glacier in Tehri Garhwal district, flowing east of the Yamuna and eventually joining the Bhagirathi River.
The Alaknanda River originates from the confluence of the Satopanth and Bhagirath Kharak glaciers in Chamoli district, located in the central-eastern part of Uttarakhand.
The Gori River, also known as the Gori Ganga, originates from the Milam Glacier in the Pithoragarh district of the Kumaon region, representing the easternmost river basin in this list.
110GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following is the correct order of the following physiographic regions of Uttarakhand from south to north direction?
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Answer: (C) Tarai, Shivalik, Lesser Himalaya, Great Himalaya
Explanation
The physiographic regions of Uttarakhand, arranged from south to north, follow this sequence:
The Tarai region is the southernmost belt, characterized by low-lying, marshy, and highly fertile alluvial plains.
Just north of the Tarai and Bhabar belt lies the Shivalik Range, also known as the Outer Himalayas, which consists of the youngest and lowest foothills of the mountain system.
Continuing north, the Lesser Himalaya, or the Middle Himalaya, is situated between the Shivalik Range to its south and the Great Himalayas to its north.
The Great Himalaya, also known as the Himadri, constitutes the northernmost glaciated belt featuring the highest, snow-covered peaks bordering Tibet.
111GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following groups of districts of Uttarakhand is correct in descending order of sex-ratio according to the Census of India 2011?
According to the Census of India 2011, the sex ratio of Almora district is 1139 females per 1000 males, which is the highest in the state of Uttarakhand. Rudraprayag district has a sex ratio of 1114, followed by Tehri Garhwal with a sex ratio of 1077. Haridwar district has the lowest sex ratio in the state at 880 females per 1000 males. Comparing these values, the descending order of the sex ratios is Almora (1139), Rudraprayag (1114), Tehri Garhwal (1077), and Haridwar (880).
112GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Mineral | Location
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Answer: (D) Silica sand - Pauri Garhwal
Explanation
Silica sand deposits in Uttarakhand are primarily found in the Uttarkashi district, particularly in the regions of Purola and Mori, such as the Sathang-Deodhar and Jarmola-Dharamandhar areas. Pauri Garhwal is not a key region for silica sand resources, making this pair incorrect.
113GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement 1: Vanrawats are dwellers of the Pithoragarh district.
Statement 2: Vanrawats practised shifting cultivation until it was banned by the forest department.
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Answer: (A) Statements 1 and 2 both are correct.
Explanation
The Vanrawats, also referred to as Banrawats or Rajis, are a particularly vulnerable tribal group primarily residing in the forest areas of the Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand, with smaller populations in Champawat and Udham Singh Nagar districts. Historically, they depended heavily on forest resources and practiced shifting cultivation. This traditional agricultural practice was eventually prohibited and regulated by the forest department to conserve forest cover and timber, forcing the community to transition toward settled agriculture and manual labor. As a result, both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
114GeographyUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
National Parks | Year of Establishment
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Answer: (A) Govind National Park - 1989
Explanation
Govind Pashu Vihar National Park, located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, was initially established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955. It was subsequently declared a national park in 1990 under G.O. No. 394/xiv-3-137/86 dated February 26, 1990, to strengthen the conservation efforts for the endangered snow leopard. Because it was declared a national park in 1990 rather than 1989, this pair is not correctly matched.
115Geography
'Panchamrit' targets announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Glasgow are related with :
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Answer: (C) Climate change
Explanation
During the COP26 climate summit in Glasgow in 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced five ambitious commitments, termed Panchamrit, to enhance India's climate action. These goals include achieving 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030, meeting 50 percent of energy requirements from renewable energy sources by 2030, reducing total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes by 2030, reducing the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 percent by 2030, and achieving net-zero carbon emissions by 2070. These commitments represent India's contribution to global efforts to combat climate change.
116Polity and Governance
According to Article 66, who among the following participates in the election of Vice-President of India ?
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Answer: (A) All the members of both the Houses of Parliament
Explanation
Under Article 66(1) of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. This electoral college comprises all members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, including both elected and nominated members, who vote in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
117Polity and Governance
As on April 2025, India is not a party to which of the following international conventions / commissions ?
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Answer: (C) Occupational Safety and Health Convention
Explanation
India has not ratified the Occupational Safety and Health Convention, 1981 (No. 155) of the International Labour Organization (ILO). While India is a founding member of the ILO and has ratified various other conventions, it has chosen not to ratify this specific instrument concerning occupational safety and health. Instead, safety and health at workplaces in India are governed under domestic legislations and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code.
118Polity and Governance
101ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment Act is related with :
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Answer: (D) Nationwide Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Explanation
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, paved the way for the introduction of the nationwide Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. This amendment inserted crucial provisions into the Constitution, including Article 246A, which confers concurrent taxing powers upon both the Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws governing goods and services tax. It also introduced Article 279A, which mandated the constitution of the GST Council to make recommendations to the Union and the States on issues related to GST. By subsuming a multitude of central and state indirect taxes, this amendment aimed to eliminate the cascading effect of taxes and create a unified national market.
119Polity and Governance
21ˢᵗ ASEAN - India Summit was held in :
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Answer: (C) Laos
Explanation
The 21st ASEAN-India Summit was held on October 10, 2024, in Vientiane, the capital of Laos. The summit was hosted under the Laos ASEAN Chairmanship theme of "ASEAN: Enhancing Connectivity and Resilience". During the summit, the progress of the ASEAN-India Comprehensive Strategic Partnership was reviewed, and a 10-point plan was announced to further strengthen cooperation across trade, digital technology, connectivity, and cultural ties.
120Polity and Governance
Which of the following rights is/are not included in the 'Right to Freedom' under Article 19(1) ?
1. Right of equal opportunities
2. Right to assemble peaceably
3. Right to practise any profession
4. Freedom of speech and expression
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Right of equal opportunities is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 16 of the Constitution of India, which ensures equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Since it is located within the Right to Equality under Article 16, it does not form a part of the freedoms listed under Article 19(1).
121Polity and Governance
Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of :
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Answer: (D) Swaran Singh Committee
Explanation
The Swaran Singh Committee was constituted by the Central Government in 1976 to make recommendations regarding the inclusion of fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution. The committee suggested that citizens should be conscious of their duties while enjoying their fundamental rights. Accepting these recommendations, the Parliament passed the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, which added Part IVA and Article 51A to the Constitution, thereby incorporating a set of ten Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens.
122Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 :
1. The Selection Committee of Lokpal consists of Chairperson of Rajya Sabha.
2. It shall apply to Indian public servants both within and outside India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 is applicable to all public servants in and outside India as per Section 1(3) of the Act. This means its jurisdiction covers public functionaries representing India or working on behalf of the government both within the domestic boundaries and abroad.
The Selection Committee responsible for recommending names for the Chairperson and Members of the Lokpal consists of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India, and an eminent jurist nominated by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the first four members. The Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is not part of this committee.
123Polity and Governance
Which of the following Central Ministries are responsible for the implementation of Protection of Civil Right Rules, 1977 ?
1. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Ministry of Social Justice | Empowerment
3. Ministry of Minority Affairs
4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The Protection of Civil Rights Rules, 1977, framed under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, are implemented through a coordinated approach by specific central ministries in India. Under the Government of India Allocation of Business Rules, the Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for police, public order, and the criminal justice administration of offences registered under the Act. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment functions as the nodal ministry overseeing policy formulation, welfare assistance, and monitoring of the implementation of the Act and Rules, primarily focusing on Scheduled Castes. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs handles the coordination and protection of civil rights pertaining specifically to Scheduled Tribes. Together, these three ministries oversee and review the progress of the legislation across various states and union territories.
124Polity and Governance
Arrange the following states chronologically with respect to enactment of 'Right to Service Act' :
(i) Punjab (ii) Assam (iii) Maharashtra (iv) Gujarat
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Answer: (A) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Explanation
The chronological order of the enactment of the Right to Service Act (or Public Services Act) in the given states is as follows:
Punjab enacted the Punjab Right to Service Act in 2011.
Assam enacted the Assam Right to Public Services Act in 2012.
Gujarat enacted the Gujarat (Right of Citizens to Public Services) Act in 2013.
Maharashtra enacted the Maharashtra Right to Public Services Act in 2015.
Arranging these states chronologically from the earliest to the latest enactment year yields the sequence Punjab (2011), Assam (2012), Gujarat (2013), and Maharashtra (2015), which corresponds to the sequence (i), (ii), (iv), (iii).
125Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is incorrect about India's Disarmament Policy in recent decades ?
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Answer: (B) India does not support negotiations in the CD on FMCT.
Explanation
India has consistently supported the commencement of negotiations for a universal, non-discriminatory, and internationally verifiable Fissile Material Cut-off Treaty (FMCT) in the Conference on Disarmament (CD). India was an original co-sponsor of the UN General Assembly Resolution 48/75L in 1993, which initiated this process, and continues to back negotiations based on the Shannon Mandate (CD/1299).
126Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about 'Right to Education' and choose the correct answer :
1. It try to achieve the aim of 'Education for All'.
2. Earlier a provision of free and compulsory education was provided in Part IV of the Constitution.
3. It became Fundamental Right after 91ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
The Right to Education aims to achieve the goal of education for all by making free and compulsory education a legal entitlement for children. Prior to its inclusion as a Fundamental Right, this mandate was a non-justiciable directive under Article 45 in Part IV of the Constitution, which directed the State to provide free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of fourteen years. The transition of this provision into a Fundamental Right under Article 21A was realized through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002, making only the first two statements correct.
127Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog :
1. It was established on January 1, 2014.
2. It was created by a resolution of Union Cabinet.
3. President of India is the Chairman of NITI Aayog.
Which of the above statements is/are true ?
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Answer: (C) Only 2
Explanation
NITI Aayog, or the National Institution for Transforming India, was established on January 1, 2015, by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet. Since it was not created by the Constitution or an Act of Parliament, it is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. The Prime Minister of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of NITI Aayog, while the President of India holds no such position in the organization. Thus, only the second statement is correct.
128Polity and Governance
The size of the Council of Ministers was fixed up to 15 percent of the total members of Lok Sabha by which of the following Constitutional Amendments ?
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 amended Article 75 of the Constitution of India by inserting Clause (1A). This clause limits the size of the Union Council of Ministers, specifying that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha.
129Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements about mobile courts in Uttarakhand and choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. Under mobile e-courts project, mobile vans having facilities of court rooms, computer, printer and internet connectivity will visit villages.
2. The idea is to deliver justice at the door steps of the public living particularly in remote areas.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 both
Explanation
The Mobile E-Court project in Uttarakhand was launched to address the challenging terrain and remote geographical conditions of the state. Under this initiative, mobile court vans equipped with modern information and communication technology, including Wi-Fi, computers, and printers, travel to far-flung villages. These mobile vans function as virtual courtrooms, facilitating video conferencing, documentation, and evidence recording. The primary objective is to deliver speedy justice directly to the doorsteps of citizens residing in remote hill areas who lack easy physical and digital access to standard court premises.
130Polity and Governance
Who among the following official can be invited to give his opinion in the Parliament ?
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Answer: (B) Attorney General
Explanation
Under Article 88 of the Constitution of India, the Attorney General for India has the right to speak in, and otherwise take part in the proceedings of, either House of Parliament, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which they may be named a member. This constitutional provision allows the Attorney General to be invited to give their legal opinion and participate in parliamentary debates, although they do not possess the right to vote in the proceedings.
131Economy
Which one of the following is correct percentage about ASEAN accounting for India's global trade in 2023-24 ?
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Answer: (B) 11 percent of India's global trade
Explanation
According to official data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is one of India's most vital trading partners, accounting for approximately 11 percent of India's overall global trade. In the fiscal year 2023-24, bilateral trade between India and the ten ASEAN member states reached approximately USD 121 billion to USD 122.67 billion. This economic cooperation remains a cornerstone of India's Act East Policy, facilitating regional supply chain integration, digital trade initiatives, and balanced economic engagement in the Indo-Pacific region.
132Polity and Governance
Under Article 32 in which case 'Wifull non-compliance' with court order was declared as contempt of the court ?
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Answer: (B) M.L. Sachdev vs. Union of India
Explanation
In M.L. Sachdev vs. Union of India (1990), which arose from a writ petition filed under Article 32 of the Constitution, the petitioner sought directions for the Union of India to fill vacant posts of Chairman and members of the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (M.R.T.P.) Commission. The Supreme Court directed the government to reconstitute the Commission within a specific timeframe. Upon the government's failure to adhere to the extended deadline, a contempt petition was filed. The Court held that the indifference of the state authorities in executing judicial orders, without seeking proper extensions or showing sufficient cause, constitutes wilful non-compliance. Consequently, this deliberate defiance of the Court's directives was declared as contempt of court, reinforcing that administrative bodies must strictly adhere to the directions of the judiciary to maintain the rule of law.
133Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
Where was the first Asian Mayors' Conference held in Uttarakhand in 2006?
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Answer: (C) Dehradun
Explanation
The first Asian Mayors' Conference was held in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, from November 26 to November 28, 2006. Organized by the Dehradun Chapter of the All India Council of Mayors, the event was attended by mayors from various Asian nations, including Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Indonesia, and Bhutan, alongside dozens of mayors from across India. The conference focused on addressing key urban development issues, such as poverty alleviation, sustainable tourism, urban transport, and developing healthy city criteria.
134Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
Which of the following records is not maintained by the Panchayats in Uttarakhand?
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Answer: (A) Health register
Explanation
The Health Register is not maintained directly as a standard administrative record by the Gram Panchayats in Uttarakhand. Detailed registers concerning individual health parameters, disease tracking, and immunization records are managed by public health workers such as Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHA) and Auxiliary Nurse Midwives (ANM) under the aegis of the state health department and the National Health Mission, rather than being under the direct administrative custody of the local Panchayat body.
135Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
Which among the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. Chairman of First Finance Commission - Nityanand Swami
2. First Advocate General of Uttarakhand - Nanda Ballabh Tiwari
3. First Chief Minister of Uttarakhand - Indu Kumar Pandey
4. First Woman Governor of Uttarakhand - Margaret Alva
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Answer: (C) Only 4
Explanation
Margaret Alva served as the first woman Governor of Uttarakhand, holding office from 6 August 2009 to 14 May 2012. She was appointed as the fourth Governor of the state, succeeding Banwari Lal Joshi. Her tenure was followed by her transfer to Rajasthan as Governor, and she was succeeded in Uttarakhand by Aziz Qureshi. This historical fact confirms that the fourth pair is correctly matched.
136Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
In which of the following year were the Jaunsari, Tharu, Bhotia, Buksa and Raji tribes declared Scheduled Tribes in Uttarakhand?
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Answer: (A) 1967
Explanation
The Bhotia, Buksa, Jaunsari, Raji, and Tharu communities were officially recognized and declared as Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Uttar Pradesh) Order, 1967, which was promulgated by the President of India on June 24, 1967, under the provisions of Article 342 of the Constitution of India. Following the bifurcation of Uttar Pradesh and the creation of the new state of Uttarakhand on November 9, 2000, these five tribal groups continued to hold their status as the designated Scheduled Tribes of Uttarakhand.
137Economy
As per IMF's 'World Economic Outlook' - April 2025, India's nominal GDP in 2025 will be US trillion.
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Answer: (A) 4.187
Explanation
According to the April 2025 edition of the International Monetary Fund's (IMF) World Economic Outlook, India's nominal gross domestic product (GDP) is projected to reach USD 4.187 trillion in 2025. With this projection, India's economy surpasses Japan's estimated GDP of USD 4.186 trillion, making India the fourth-largest economy in the world by nominal GDP. The outlook also highlights that despite global head-winds, India remains one of the fastest-growing major economies, with a projected real GDP growth rate of 6.2 percent for 2025.
138Economy
Consider the following statements:
(1) FEMA came into effect from June 1, 2000.
(2) FERA is mainly for external debt liability.
Select the correct code with respect to the above statements:
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Answer: (C) Statement (1) is true, but statement (2) is false.
Explanation
The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) was passed in December 1999 and officially came into force on June 1, 2000, replacing the older and more rigid Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA). This makes the first statement factually correct.
The second statement is incorrect because the primary objective of FERA, 1973 was the conservation and proper utilization of India's foreign exchange resources, along with the regulation of payments, foreign securities, and transaction flows impacting the balance of payments. FERA was a broad-based, stringent regulatory framework focused on controlling the foreign exchange market rather than being focused mainly on external debt liability.
139Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with reference to Uttarakhand and choose the correct answer:
1. The executive of Uttarakhand includes Governor as the head of the state.
2. It also includes the Chief Minister and his/her council of ministers.
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Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation
Under the constitutional framework of India, Part VI of the Constitution outlines the structure of the state executive. The executive of a state, including Uttarakhand, consists of the Governor, the Chief Minister, the Council of Ministers, and the Advocate General of the State. Article 154 of the Constitution vests the executive power of the State in the Governor, making the Governor the constitutional head of the state. Article 163 provides for a Council of Ministers, with the Chief Minister as its head, to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of their functions. Consequently, both the Governor as the head of the state and the Chief Minister along with the council of ministers are integral components of the state executive.
140Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
Consider the following statements about Uttarakhand Human Rights Commission and choose the correct option from the options given below:
1. Uttarakhand Human Rights Commission came into existence on May 13, 2013.
2. The objectives of UHRC was to bring about greater accountability and transparency in governance.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation
The Uttarakhand Human Rights Commission came into existence on May 13, 2013, when its first chairperson, Justice Vijender Jain, assumed office, making it fully operational under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
The primary vision and objectives of the Commission include bringing about greater accountability and transparency in governance and establishing efficient and effective methods of dealing with human rights violations in the state of Uttarakhand.
141Polity and GovernanceUttarakhand-specific
Who among the following performed the roles of Speaker and Protem Speaker of the State Assembly more than once in Uttarakhand?
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Answer: (A) Harbans Kapoor
Explanation
Harbans Kapoor performed the roles of both Speaker and Pro tem Speaker of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly. He served as the Pro tem Speaker on multiple occasions, specifically in 2002, 2007, and 2017. He also served as the Speaker of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly for a full term from 2007 to 2012.
142Economy
According to NITI Aayog's SDG India Index 2023-24, which state/states has the highest SDG index score?
1. Kerala
2. Uttarakhand
3. Goa
4. Tamil Nadu
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2
Explanation
According to the SDG India Index 2023-24 released by NITI Aayog, Uttarakhand and Kerala emerged as the joint top-performing states in the country, with each achieving the highest composite score of 79. This evaluation is based on progress across 16 Sustainable Development Goals, utilizing 113 indicators aligned with national priorities.
143Economy
What is the correct descending order of share of following components in Indian Foreign Exchange Reserves in March, 2025, starting from largest to smallest?
1. Gold Reserves
2. Foreign Currency Assets
3. Reserve position with the IMF
4. SDRs
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Answer: (C) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation
The components of India's Foreign Exchange Reserves as of March 2025 in descending order of their value are Foreign Currency Assets (FCA), Gold Reserves, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and the Reserve position with the IMF.
Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) constitute the largest share of the reserves, valued at approximately USD 558.86 billion. This is followed by Gold Reserves, which represent the second-largest portion at approximately USD 77.20 billion. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) allocated by the IMF form the third-largest component, amounting to around USD 18.24 billion. The Reserve Position with the IMF is the smallest component, standing at approximately USD 4.40 billion.
144Economy
Who had used the concept of "Jail cost of living" to estimate poverty line in India?
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Answer: (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji was the first in pre-independent India to discuss and estimate the poverty line. He introduced the concept of the jail cost of living to determine the minimum subsistence level. By looking at the standard dietary menu prescribed for prisoners and using contemporary market prices, he calculated the consumption cost of an adult prisoner. To adapt this adult-only figure for a general population that includes children, he assumed one-third of the population were children, with half of them consuming very little and the other half consuming half of an adult diet. Applying this weighted average, he formulated the poverty line as three-fourths of the adult jail cost of living.
145Economy
Which state has topped the ranking in the Fiscal Health Index-2025 of NITI Aayog for the financial year 2022-23?
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Answer: (A) Odisha
Explanation
The Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025, released by NITI Aayog, evaluated the fiscal performance and stability of 18 major Indian states for the financial year 2022-23. The framework evaluated states based on five core pillars: quality of expenditure, revenue mobilization, fiscal prudence, debt index, and debt sustainability.
Odisha topped the ranking with a composite score of 67.8. The state demonstrated exemplary performance due to its disciplined fiscal policies, efficient tax and non-tax revenue mobilization, strong expenditure quality, and sustainable debt management practices.
146Economy
Arrange the following social welfare schemes in chronological order:
i. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
ii. Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP)
iii. Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (PMRY)
iv. Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP)
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Answer: (B) i, iv, iii, ii
Explanation
The chronological sequence of the launch of these social welfare schemes is as follows:
Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was launched in 1978 and implemented across all blocks of the country in 1980 to provide self-employment opportunities to the rural poor.
Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was launched on August 15, 1983, with the goal of ensuring at least 100 days of wage employment in a year to landless rural households.
Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (PMRY) was launched on October 2, 1993, to assist educated unemployed youth in setting up self-employment ventures in industry, service, and business sectors.
Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) was launched on April 1, 1995, under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) to promote self-employment and establish micro-enterprises in rural areas and small towns.
147Economy
Which of the following is not an indicator for the dimension of Standard of Living in India's National Multidimensional Poverty Index?
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Answer: (C) Years of schooling
Explanation
Indias National Multidimensional Poverty Index, developed by NITI Aayog, measures deprivations across three equally weighted dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living. The years of schooling indicator, along with school attendance, falls under the Education dimension of the index, rather than the Standard of Living dimension.
148Geography
With reference to the United Nations Climate Conferences, match the location where session of Conference Of Parties (COP) was/will be held:
Session Location
1. COP 27 A. Belem
2. COP 28 B. Baku
3. COP 29 C. Dubai
4. COP 30 D. Sharm El-Sheikh
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Answer: (D) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
Explanation
COP 27 was held in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt, in November 2022 to focus on climate implementation and establish the Loss and Damage Fund.
COP 28 took place in Dubai, United Arab Emirates, in December 2023, concluding the first Global Stocktake under the Paris Agreement.
COP 29 was hosted in Baku, Azerbaijan, in November 2024 with a primary focus on setting a new collective quantified goal on climate finance.
COP 30 is scheduled to be held in Belém, Brazil, in November 2025 to mark the tenth anniversary of the Paris Agreement and focus on updated Nationally Determined Contributions.
149Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Global Environment Facility (GEF)?
1. Pilot GEF was agreed to setup in 1990.
2. UNDP, UNEP and the World Bank were the initial partners in implementing GEF projects.
3. India is both donor and a recipient of GEF.
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Answer: (D) All of the above statements
Explanation
In November 1990, a group of 27 developed and developing countries met in Paris and agreed to establish a pilot Global Environment Facility (GEF) to fund projects addressing global environmental problems.
The GEF was launched as a three-year pilot initiative under a tripartite agreement between three initial implementing partners: the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and the World Bank.
India is one of the founding members of the GEF and holds a unique position. It functions as both a recipient country, receiving significant financial support to execute biodiversity, climate change, and land degradation projects, and a donor country, regularly contributing resources to the GEF Trust Fund.
150Polity and Governance
The 13th World Trade Organisation's Ministerial Conference (MC-13) was held in
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Answer: (B) Abu Dhabi
Explanation
The 13th World Trade Organisation's Ministerial Conference (MC-13) was held from 26 February to 2 March 2024 in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates. The Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO, which typically meets every two years under the Marrakesh Agreement. The conference was chaired by the UAE's Minister of State for Foreign Trade, Thani bin Ahmed Al Zeyoudi, and concluded with the adoption of the Abu Dhabi Ministerial Declaration.