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WBCS Prelims 2000 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 192 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

192
Questions
8
Subjects
2
West Bengal-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • History5328%
  • Logical Reasoning3016%
  • Science and Technology2714%
  • Geography2513%
  • Polity and Governance2413%
  • Quantitative Aptitude2010%
  • Economy126%
  • Art and Culture11%
1Logical Reasoning
Choose the correct meaning of the quoted part of the sentence: There is a great "backlog" of work at this office.
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Answer: (C) Arrear

Explanation

A backlog refers to an accumulation of uncompleted tasks or obligations that have built up over time and need to be addressed. Similarly, an arrear represents outstanding work, duties, or payments that remain unfinished or overdue. In an office setting, a backlog of work is synonymous with an arrear of work.

2Logical Reasoning
Choose the correct meaning of the quoted part of the sentence: Ram is a "pliable" person.
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Answer: (B) Easily influenced

Explanation

The word pliable comes from the French verb plier, meaning to bend. When applied to a person, it describes someone who is easily bent or shaped in terms of their opinions, decisions, or character. Thus, a pliable person is flexible, yielding, and easily influenced or swayed by others.

3Economy
Choose the correct meaning of the quoted part of the sentence: Her "bank account was in the blank."
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Answer: (B) Had a credit balance

Explanation

The phrase "in the black" is an idiomatic expression denoting financial soundness or solvency. When a bank account is in the black, it has a positive credit balance, meaning there is money available in the account and the account holder is not in debt. This is derived from the traditional accounting practice of writing positive numbers and profits in black ink and negative numbers or losses in red ink.

4Logical Reasoning
Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined part of the sentence : This proposal seems "practicable."
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Answer: (D) Unfeasible

Explanation

The word practicable is defined as something that is capable of being done, carried out, or put into effect successfully. Its direct antonym is unfeasible, which means not capable of being carried out, impractical, or impossible to achieve.

5Logical Reasoning
Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined part of the sentence : His conduct has always been "licentious."
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Answer: (A) Controlled

Explanation

The word licentious means lacking moral discipline, behaving in an unrestrained or lawless manner, and acting without control. Its direct antonym is controlled, which refers to behavior that is restrained, disciplined, and kept within moral or social limits.

6Logical Reasoning
Choose the word most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined part of the sentence : Mr. Singh's report was "at odds with" Mr. Sharma's.
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Answer: (A) Consistent with

Explanation

The idiom at odds with means to be in disagreement, conflict, or variance with something. The direct opposite of this meaning is consistent with, which means to be in agreement, harmony, or compatible with.

7Logical Reasoning
Choose the item closest in meaning to the given phrase: Deliberate disruption of work
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Answer: (A) Sabotage

Explanation

Sabotage refers to the deliberate destruction, damage, or obstruction of machinery, equipment, or work processes, typically carried out by employees during a labor dispute or by enemy agents during a conflict to hinder an organization's or nation's operations.

8Polity and Governance
Choose the item closest in meaning to the given phrase: Goods Prohibited by Law
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Answer: (B) Contraband

Explanation

The term contraband refers to goods that are imported, exported, or possessed illegally because they are prohibited by law or treaty. It originates from the Latin words contra, meaning against, and bandum, meaning a proclamation or decree, literally translating to against the decree. Therefore, any merchandise or goods whose trade, possession, or movement is outlawed by the state is classified as contraband.

9Logical Reasoning
Choose the item closest in meaning to the given phrase: In deep thought
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Answer: (B) Pensive

Explanation

The word pensive describes a state of being engaged in, involving, or reflecting deep, serious, or quiet thought, often with a tinge of sadness. It originates from the Old French word pensif, which translates directly to thoughtful, representing a state of reflective contemplation.

10Logical Reasoning
Choose the best word or expreession to complete the sentence : That he should disappear like this seems hardly
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Answer: (B) Credible

Explanation

The word credible means capable of being believed, convincing, or plausible. In the context of the sentence, it expresses that the sudden disappearance of the individual is highly unlikely or difficult to believe, which perfectly fits the meaning and grammatical structure of the sentence.

11Logical Reasoning
Choose the best word or expreession to complete the sentence : The storm began
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Answer: (D) All of a sudden

Explanation

The phrase all of a sudden is a standard English idiom meaning quickly and unexpectedly, or without warning. It functions adverbially to describe an event that happens abruptly, making it the grammatically correct and idiomatic choice to describe the sudden onset of the storm.

12Geography
Choose the best word or expreession to complete the sentence : Many changes of climate are the result of
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Answer: (C) Global warming

Explanation

Global warming refers to the long-term increase in the average temperature of Earth's climate system, which has been observed since the pre-industrial period. This phenomenon is primarily driven by human activities, especially the burning of fossil fuels, which releases greenhouse gases into the atmosphere and traps heat. This rise in temperature alters weather patterns, disrupts ecosystems, and leads to various climate changes such as melting glaciers, rising sea levels, and more extreme weather events.

13Science and Technology
'Gravity' can mean 'the pull of the earth' and also
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Answer: (C) Seriousness

Explanation

The word gravity is derived from the Latin word gravitas, which translates to weight, heaviness, or seriousness. Apart from its scientific definition referring to the gravitational force of attraction exerted by the Earth, gravity is widely used in the English language to denote the seriousness, solemnity, or critical importance of a situation, event, or behavior.

14Economy
'Lay off can mean 'to stop from working' and also
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Answer: (B) To leave alone

Explanation

The phrasal verb lay off is commonly used in informal English to mean to stop annoying, teasing, or criticizing someone, which is equivalent to leaving them alone. For example, when someone says lay off me, they are asking to be left alone or to stop being bothered. This usage coexists with the more formal business definition of temporarily or permanently terminating an employee from work due to economic reasons.

15Economy
'Industry' can mean 'production in factories' and also
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Answer: (D) Hard work

Explanation

The noun industry is derived from the Latin word industria, which means diligence or activity. In the English language, the word has a well-established classical meaning that refers to the quality of being regularly, steadily, and productively active, representing a habit of work and diligence. This meaning is also reflected in the adjective form industrious, which describes a person who is hard-working and dedicated to their tasks. Therefore, in addition to its modern economic definition of manufacturing and factory-based production, industry also signifies hard work and steady effort.

16Logical Reasoning
Choose the most appropriate word to fill the gap: The two boys fell __________ but soon became friends again.
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Answer: (D) Out

Explanation

The phrasal verb fall out means to have an argument, quarrel, or disagreement that disrupts a friendly relationship. In the context of the sentence, the phrase but soon became friends again indicates a temporary conflict or estrangement, making fell out the correct choice to describe their initial disagreement.

17Logical Reasoning
Choose the most appropriate word to fill the gap: I asked the slow worker to get a move __________.
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Answer: (C) On

Explanation

The idiomatic expression "get a move on" is a common English phrase which means to hurry up, accelerate one's pace, or make haste. In the given sentence, asking a slow worker to speed up their pace of work aligns perfectly with the meaning of this idiom, making "on" the correct preposition to complete the phrase.

18Logical Reasoning
Choose the most appropriate word to fill the gap: He put __________ some savings to support him in his Old age.
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Answer: (D) By

Explanation

The phrasal verb put by means to save or reserve money for future use. In this context, it correctly denotes setting aside financial savings to provide support during old age.

19Logical Reasoning
Choose the word or expression that matches the given meaning: Friendly
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Answer: (A) Thick

Explanation

In informal English, the word thick is used as an adjective to describe people who are very friendly, close, or intimate with one another. This usage is commonly seen in expressions such as being thick with someone or the idiom as thick as thieves, which denotes individuals who share a highly close and confidential relationship.

20Logical Reasoning
Choose the word or expression that matches the given meaning: Tightly
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Answer: (C) Fast

Explanation

The word fast functions as an adverb meaning firmly, securely, or tightly. This usage is common in expressions such as hold fast, meaning to hold on tightly, or stuck fast, meaning firmly fixed or tightly wedged in place.

21Science and Technology
In the process of vulcanisation which two of the following are heated together?
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Answer: (A) Rubber and Sulphur

Explanation

Vulcanisation is a chemical process where natural rubber is heated with sulfur to improve its physical properties. Raw natural rubber is soft, sticky, and has low tensile strength. When heated with sulfur, chemical cross-links in the form of sulfur bridges are created between the linear polymer chains of polyisoprene. This three-dimensional network structure significantly increases the tensile strength, elasticity, durability, and thermal stability of the rubber, making it highly resilient and suitable for manufacturing heavy-duty commercial products like automobile tires.

22Science and Technology
The weight of an iron ball on earth is 12Kg . Its weight on moon will be
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Answer: (D) 2kg .

Explanation

The weight of an object is the gravitational force acting on it, which is given by the formula:

W = m g

where m is the mass of the object and g is the acceleration due to gravity. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is approximately one-sixth of the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth:

gₘₒₒₙ = ⅙ gₑₐᵣₜₕ

This relationship directly determines the weight of the object on the Moon relative to its weight on Earth:

Wₘₒₒₙ = ⅙ Wₑₐᵣₜₕ

Given that the weight of the iron ball on Earth is 12 kg, substituting this value into the formula yields:

Wₘₒₒₙ = (12 kg)/(6) = 2 kg

23Science and Technology
The periodic time of a Pendulum depends on
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Answer: (A) Its length

Explanation

The periodic time of a simple pendulum is determined by the formula T = 2 π √((L)/(g)), where T represents the periodic time, L represents the effective length of the pendulum, and g represents the acceleration due to gravity. This mathematical relation shows that the periodic time is directly proportional to the square root of the length of the pendulum.

24Science and Technology
When is liquid is heated from 20°C to 60°C its density
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Answer: (C) Decreases

Explanation

The density of a substance is defined as mass per unit volume, given by the formula:

ρ = (m)/(V)

When a liquid is heated from 20°C to 60°C, its molecules gain kinetic energy and move further apart, which causes the liquid to undergo thermal expansion. This expansion increases the volume V of the liquid. Since the mass m remains constant, this increase in volume directly results in a decrease in the density ρ of the liquid.

25Science and Technology
The closest distance at which a normal person can see an object clearly is
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Answer: (D) 25 cm

Explanation

The minimum distance at which an object can be seen clearly and distinctly without any strain on the eye is known as the least distance of distinct vision, or the near point of the eye. For a normal human eye, this distance is 25 cm. At this distance, the ciliary muscles adjust the focal length of the crystalline lens to form a sharp image directly on the retina. If an object is placed closer than 25 cm, the eye lens cannot contract further to focus the incoming light rays, resulting in a blurred image and eye strain.

26Science and Technology
A red rose when seen in green light appears
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Answer: (D) Black in colour

Explanation

An object's colour is determined by the wavelengths of light it reflects. A red rose appears red in white light because it absorbs all other colours of the visible spectrum and reflects only red light. When the rose is placed under green light, it absorbs the green light completely and reflects nothing. Since no light is reflected back to the observer, the rose appears black.

27Science and Technology
In International System of Units (S.I) number of supplementary units is
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Answer: (A) 2

Explanation

The International System of Units (SI) historically recognized two supplementary units alongside the base and derived units. These two dimensionless units are the radian (rad) for measuring plane angles and the steradian (sr) for measuring solid angles. They are used to define angular measurements in geometry and physics.

28Science and Technology
A balloon filled with hydrogen bursts on reaching high altitude because.
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Answer: (B) Pressure inside ballon becomes more

Explanation

As a hydrogen-filled balloon rises in the atmosphere, the surrounding atmospheric pressure decreases rapidly with increasing altitude. Because the initial internal pressure of the balloon is higher than the thinning air outside, the pressure inside the balloon becomes significantly greater than the external pressure. This pressure difference causes the hydrogen gas inside to expand outwards, stretching the elastic material of the balloon. When the expansion exceeds the elastic limit of the balloon's skin, the material can no longer contain the pressure and the balloon bursts.

29Science and Technology
X-rays are
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Answer: (B) Electromagnetic wave of short wave length

Explanation

X-rays are a form of high-energy electromagnetic radiation characterized by extremely short wavelengths. Their wavelengths typically range from 0.01 to 10 nanometers, which corresponds to very high frequencies between 3 × 10¹⁶ Hz and 3 × 10¹⁹ Hz. This short wavelength gives X-rays high photon energy, allowing them to penetrate various materials and soft tissues.

30Science and Technology
Solar energy is produced by the process of
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Answer: (A) Fusion

Explanation

Solar energy is generated in the core of the Sun through nuclear fusion reactions. In this process, light atomic nuclei, primarily hydrogen nuclei, fuse together under extreme temperature and pressure to form heavier helium nuclei. This fusion reaction releases a massive amount of energy according to Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation, E = mc², where a small amount of mass is converted directly into energy. This continuous energy release is what radiates outward and provides solar energy to the Earth.

31Science and Technology
Which once of the following are. called Noble gases?
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Answer: (C) Agron and Neon

Explanation

Argon and Neon belong to Group 18 of the periodic table, which comprises the noble gases. These elements are characterized by their extreme chemical stability and low reactivity, which arises because they possess a completely filled outer shell of valence electrons. Under standard conditions, they exist as colorless, odorless, monatomic gases.

32Quantitative Aptitude
A man presses the earth least when he is
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Answer: (D) Lying fiat

Explanation

Pressure is defined as force per unit area:

P = (F)/(A)

The force (F) exerted by the man on the earth is equal to his weight, which remains constant. Therefore, the pressure (P) exerted on the earth is inversely proportional to the surface area of contact (A). When a man is lying flat on the ground, the contact surface area between his body and the earth is at its maximum. Consequently, the pressure exerted on the earth is at its minimum.

33Science and Technology
In underground Railways air is purified by using
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Air in underground railways is primarily purified through extensive ventilation systems that exchange air with the outside environment and through various filtration systems (e.g., particulate filters, activated carbon filters) that remove pollutants and odors. Ozone and hydrogen peroxide are strong oxidizing agents that can purify air, but they are also irritants and toxic at concentrations effective for purification, making them unsuitable for direct use in occupied public spaces like underground railways. Oxygen itself does not purify air. Therefore, none of the given options are the primary or safe methods used for air purification in this context.

34Science and Technology
In 1775 a scientist experimentally showed that air consists of two gases. The name of the scientist is
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Answer: (B) Laboisier

Explanation

Antoine Lavoisier experimentally proved in 1775 that air is not a simple substance, but a mixture of two main gases. By heating mercury in a sealed retort with a measured volume of air, he observed the formation of red mercuric oxide and a corresponding decrease in the volume of air. The gas left behind in the vessel did not support life or combustion and was named azote (now known as nitrogen). When he heated the red oxide of mercury at a higher temperature, it released a gas that vigorously supported combustion and respiration, which he named oxygen. This quantitative experiment conclusively demonstrated that atmospheric air is composed of these two distinct gases.

35Science and Technology
Dry ice is made up of
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Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide

Explanation

Dry ice is the solid state of carbon dioxide (CO₂). It is commonly used as a cooling agent because it undergoes sublimation at standard atmospheric pressure, meaning it transitions directly from a solid to a gaseous state without melting into a liquid at -78.5°C. This property makes it highly effective for preserving frozen foods and medical supplies without leaving any wet residue.

36Science and Technology
Water gas is a mixture of
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Answer: (A) Carbon monoxide and Hydrogen

Explanation

Water gas is a combustion fuel gas containing carbon monoxide and hydrogen. It is manufactured by passing steam over red-hot coke or coal at temperatures above 1000 degrees Celsius. The endothermic reaction is represented as:

C(s) + H₂O(g) → CO(g) + H₂(g)

The resulting mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen is highly flammable and burns with a blue flame. It is widely used as an industrial fuel and as a synthesis gas for manufacturing organic compounds.

37Science and Technology
Which one of the following in not an autotroph?
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Answer: (C) Fungus

Explanation

Fungi are heterotrophic organisms that lack chlorophyll and cannot synthesize their own organic food through photosynthesis. Instead, they must obtain carbon and nutrients by absorbing organic matter from external sources in their environment, typically acting as saprophytes, parasites, or mutualistic symbionts.

38Science and Technology
Photosynthetic plants store glucose as
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Answer: (B) Starch

Explanation

During photosynthesis, plants synthesize glucose as a primary source of energy. Because glucose is highly soluble in water and can affect the osmotic balance of plant cells, plants convert excess glucose into starch for long-term energy storage. Starch is a polysaccharide composed of glucose units linked by glycosidic bonds, existing in two forms: amylose and amylopectin. Being insoluble in water, starch can be stored in large quantities in various plant parts, such as roots, tubers, and seeds, without disrupting the cellular osmotic pressure, and it can be easily broken back down into glucose when the plant requires energy.

39Geography
Most fossils are found in
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Answer: (B) Sedimentary rocks

Explanation

Sedimentary rocks are formed by the gradual deposition, accumulation, and compaction of mineral particles and organic matter over long periods, typically in bodies of water. When plants and animals die, their remains are quickly buried by layers of sediment such as sand, silt, and clay. This rapid burial shields the organic material from oxygen, scavengers, and rapid decay. Over millions of years, the accumulation of overlying sediments exerts high pressure, mineralizing the buried hard parts of the organisms and turning the sediments into rock, thereby preserving them as fossils.

40Science and Technology
In the present concept of evolution the unit of evolution is
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Answer: (C) Population

Explanation

Modern evolutionary biology, or the modern synthetic theory of evolution, identifies the population as the fundamental unit of evolution. Although natural selection operates directly on the phenotype of individual organisms, making the individual the unit of selection, an individual's genetic makeup remains constant throughout its life and cannot evolve. Evolution is characterized by changes in the allele frequencies of a gene pool over successive generations. Since a gene pool represents the collective genetic information of a local interbreeding group of individuals, these evolutionary changes and adaptations accumulate and manifest at the level of the population.

41Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a Reptile?
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Answer: (B) Turtle

Explanation

Turtles belong to the order Testudines under the class Reptilia. They are ectothermic, air-breathing vertebrates characterized by a unique bony or cartilaginous shell developed from their ribs, which acts as a protective shield. Like all reptiles, turtles have dry, scaly skin, breathe using lungs throughout their entire life cycle, and reproduce by laying amniotic eggs on land.

42Science and Technology
Yellowing of plant leaves is called chlorosis, Insufficiency of which ion causes it?
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Answer: (D) Magnesium

Explanation

Magnesium is an essential macronutrient for plants as it serves as the central atom in the porphyrin ring of the chlorophyll molecule, which is responsible for the green pigmentation of leaves and the absorption of light during photosynthesis. An insufficiency of magnesium ions (Mg²⁺) directly impairs the plant's ability to synthesize chlorophyll. This lack of chlorophyll leads to the loss of the green color and the subsequent yellowing of the leaves, a physiological condition known as chlorosis. Because magnesium is a mobile element within the plant, it is translocated from older leaves to younger growing regions during a deficiency, which typically causes chlorosis to appear first in the older leaves.

43Science and Technology
A red blood cell lives for about
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Answer: (C) Three months

Explanation

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) have an average lifespan of approximately 120 days (about three to four months) in a healthy human body. After this period, they are broken down and recycled by the spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

44Science and Technology
The precentage of solar energy absorbed by the leaves of greenplant in photosynthesis is
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Answer: (A) 1

Explanation

Of the total incident solar energy reaching the Earth, about 50 percent is Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR). Green plants capture only about 2 to 10 percent of this PAR. Consequently, only about 1 percent of the total solar energy incident on the Earth is actually absorbed and utilized by the leaves of green plants for photosynthesis.

45Science and Technology
In repening fruit which one of die following is used?
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Answer: (A) Ethylene

Explanation

Ethylene is a natural plant hormone in gaseous form that regulates and accelerates the physiological processes associated with fruit ripening. It acts as a chemical signal to trigger a cascade of changes in climacteric fruits, including the conversion of stored starch into simple sugars, the degradation of green chlorophyll pigments, and the enzymatic breakdown of cell walls to soften the fruit tissue.

46Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (C) The right to property

Explanation

The right to property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. It was instead made a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Indian Constitution, which mandates that no person shall be deprived of their property except by authority of law.

47Economy
In the aftermath of Pokhran-II, economic sanctions were imposed on India and Pakistan by the Government of
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Answer: (B) The United States of America

Explanation

Following the Pokhran-II nuclear tests conducted by India in May 1998, which were shortly followed by Pakistan's nuclear tests, the United States of America invoked the Glenn Amendment of the Arms Export Control Act of 1994. This federal legislative provision mandated the immediate imposition of stringent economic and military sanctions on any non-nuclear-weapon state that detonated a nuclear explosive device. Under these sanctions, the US government terminated all non-humanitarian foreign assistance, halted military sales and financing, prohibited US banks from extending loans to the governments of India and Pakistan, and instructed its representatives to oppose loans and assistance to both nations from international financial institutions such as the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund.

48Polity and Governance
India is a signatory to
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Answer: (A) The Partial Test Ban Treaty

Explanation

India signed the Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT) on August 8, 1963, and subsequently ratified it on October 10, 1963. Officially known as the Treaty Banning Nuclear Weapon Tests in the Atmosphere, in Outer Space and Under Water, this landmark agreement was initially negotiated by the United States, the Soviet Union, and the United Kingdom. India was one of the earliest non-aligned nations to sign and ratify the treaty, aligning with its long-standing diplomatic advocacy for global nuclear disarmament and its opposition to atmospheric nuclear testing, which posed severe environmental and health risks from radioactive fallout.

49Polity and Governance
For developing its missile programme, Pakistan has been assisted by
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Answer: (A) China

Explanation

China has been the primary external source of support for the development of Pakistan's ballistic missile program. During the late 1980s and 1990s, China supplied Pakistan with short-range, solid-fueled M-11 ballistic missiles, along with the critical technology, components, and technical expertise required for their manufacturing and guidance. China also assisted Pakistan in establishing a solid-fuel missile production and assembly facility at Fateh Jang. This technological and infrastructural support laid the groundwork for Pakistan's domestic missile capabilities, particularly the development of the solid-fueled Shaheen and Ghaznavi missile series.

50History
The SAF games, 1999 were held in
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Answer: (C) Kathmandu

Explanation

The 8th South Asian Federation (SAF) Games were held in Kathmandu, Nepal, from September 25 to October 4, 1999. This event marked the second time Nepal hosted the regional multi-sport games, having previously hosted the inaugural edition in 1984. A total of seven nations participated in these games, and India topped the final medal tally.

51Polity and Governance
Mrs. Sonia Gandhi contested from two seats during the 13th lokSabha elections, one of which was Amethi and the other was.
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Answer: (B) Bellary

Explanation

During the 13th Lok Sabha elections held in 1999, Sonia Gandhi contested from two parliamentary constituencies: Amethi in Uttar Pradesh and Bellary in Karnataka. She won both seats, defeating her opponent in Bellary by a significant margin, and subsequently chose to retain the Amethi seat while resigning from Bellary.

52History
Mrs. Jotirmoye Sekidar is
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Answer: (B) A runner

Explanation

Jyotirmoyee Sikdar is a celebrated Indian middle-distance runner. She won gold medals in both the 800 metres and 1500 metres events at the 1998 Asian Games in Bangkok, Thailand. For her outstanding achievements in athletics, she was honored with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 1998–1999 and was later awarded the Padma Shri in 2003.

53Science and Technology
'Prithvi' which has recently been included to India's armoury is
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Answer: (D) A surface-to-surface missile

Explanation

Prithvi is a tactical, short-range, surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed by India's Defence Research and Development Organisation under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Initiated in 1983, it was the first single-stage liquid-propellant missile developed indigenously, with the first test flight occurring in 1988 and its subsequent induction into the Indian Armed Forces in the mid-1990s.

54History
The World Cup (1999) in cricket was won by
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Answer: (B) Australia

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The 1999 ICC Cricket World Cup, hosted primarily by England, was won by Australia. In the final match played at Lord's in London on 20 June 1999, Australia defeated Pakistan by eight wickets to claim their second World Cup title, initiating a dominant era in which they won three consecutive World Cup tournaments.

55Polity and Governance
In the 13th election of the lok Sabha, the contest on the Amethi parliamentary constituency was between Mrs. Sonia Gandhi arid
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Answer: (C) Mr. Sanjay Singh

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In the 1999 general elections for the 13th Lok Sabha, Sonia Gandhi made her electoral debut from the Amethi constituency in Uttar Pradesh representing the Indian National Congress. Her primary opponent in this contest was Sanjay Singh, representing the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). Sanjay Singh, the former Raja of Amethi, was the sitting MP at the time, having won the seat in the 1998 elections. Sonia Gandhi won the election by a significant margin, reclaiming the constituency for the Congress party.

56History
Mr. Yahud Barak was elected (in 1999)
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Answer: (B) The Prime Minister of Israel

Explanation

Ehud Barak, transliterated as Yahud Barak, won a landslide victory in the direct prime ministerial elections held in Israel on May 17, 1999. He defeated the incumbent Benjamin Netanyahu and subsequently assumed office as the tenth Prime Minister of Israel on July 6, 1999, serving in this position until 2001.

57History
During the World Cup (1999), the highest runs were scored by
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Answer: (C) Rahul Dravid

Explanation

During the 1999 Cricket World Cup, Rahul Dravid was the leading run-scorer of the tournament. He scored a total of 461 runs in 8 matches at an average of 65.85 and a strike rate of 85.52. His performance included two centuries and three half-centuries, with a highest score of 145 runs against Sri Lanka.

58Economy
Which one of the following Countries did not join the Euro?
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Answer: (D) Sweden

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Sweden joined the European Union in 1995 but decided not to adopt the Euro when it was launched in 1999. Instead, the country chose to retain its national currency, the Swedish krona, thereby maintaining its independent monetary policy.

59Polity and Governance
The almatti Dam issue has brought Karnataka on a collision course with.
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Answer: (B) Andlllrapradcsh

Explanation

The Almatti Dam is a key reservoir constructed on the Krishna River in northern Karnataka. The conflict over this dam arose between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh, which lies downstream. Andhra Pradesh raised objections against Karnataka's proposal to increase the height of the dam, expressing concerns that a higher dam would restrict the flow of water to its downstream agricultural regions, particularly the Krishna delta. This dispute over water sharing and dam height led to a protracted legal battle in the Supreme Court of India, which was resolved in April 2000 when the court permitted Karnataka to raise the height of the dam to 519.6 meters.

60Polity and Governance
The Un peace-keeping force in East Timor is being led by
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Answer: (B) Australia

Explanation

In September 1999, following widespread violence after East Timor's referendum for independence, the United Nations Security Council authorized the deployment of a multinational peacekeeping force to restore security. This force, known as the International Force East Timor (INTERFET), was led by Australia. Commanded by Australian Major General Peter Cosgrove, Australia was the largest contributor to the operation, deploying thousands of personnel. INTERFET successfully stabilized the region before transitioning control to the United Nations Transitional Administration in East Timor (UNTAET) in February 2000.

61History
The book 'Continent of Circe' was written by
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Answer: (C) Nirod C. Chaudhuri

Explanation

The Continent of Circe: An Essay on the Peoples of India is an acclaimed work of non-fiction written by Nirad C. Chaudhuri and published in 1965. The book offers a critical sociological, psychological, and historical analysis of the people of India and their culture, exploring the impact of the Indian environment on its various inhabitants over centuries. For this profound and intellectual study, Nirad C. Chaudhuri was awarded the prestigious Duff Cooper Memorial Prize in 1966.

62Geography
The international boundary between India and Pakistan passes through.
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Answer: (A) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Panjab and J | K

Explanation

The international boundary between India and Pakistan, which extends over three thousand kilometers, runs along the western border of India. As of the year 2000, this boundary demarcated the border of four Indian states, starting from the Arabian Sea creek area of the Sir Creek and the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, moving northwards through the vast Thar Desert of Rajasthan, traversing the fertile plains of Punjab, and continuing up to the mountainous regions of Jammu and Kashmir.

63History
Communist rule was established in China in
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Answer: (C) 1949

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The People's Republic of China was officially proclaimed on October 1, 1949, by Mao Zedong, the leader of the Chinese Communist Party, at Tiananmen Square in Beijing. This historic event marked the culmination of the Chinese Civil War, in which the communist forces defeated the Nationalist government led by Chiang Kai-shek, resulting in the establishment of communist rule over mainland China.

64Polity and Governance
Wich one of the following countries has a presidential form of Government?
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Answer: (C) France

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France features a semi-presidential system of government under the Fifth Republic, established in 1958. In this model, the President of the Republic is directly elected by the citizens and wields extensive, independent executive powers, serving as a powerful head of state. The President holds the authority to appoint the Prime Minister, preside over the Council of Ministers, dissolve the National Assembly, and direct foreign affairs and national defense, making the executive presidency the central institution of the French political system.

65History
The KOSOVO Liberation Army was set up to fight the forces of
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Answer: (B) Yugoslavia

Explanation

The Kosovo Liberation Army (KLA) was an ethnic Albanian separatist paramilitary organization formed in the early 1990s. Its primary objective was to secure the independence of Kosovo from the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia, which was then dominated by the Serbian government of Slobodan Milosevic. The KLA engaged in guerrilla warfare and armed campaign against the Yugoslav military, police, and security forces during the Kosovo War in the late 1990s to end Belgrade's rule over the region.

66History
Mr. Jaspal Rana is a
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Answer: (C) Sharp shooter

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Jaspal Rana is a distinguished Indian shooter who primarily competed in the 25 m Center Fire Pistol category. He rose to prominence by winning multiple gold medals at major international events, including the 1994 Asian Games in Hiroshima and several Commonwealth Games. For his exceptional achievements in shooting sports, he was honored with the prestigious Arjuna Award in 1994.

67Polity and Governance
Identify one of the following countries that has a monarchical form of Government.
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Answer: (B) Jordoh

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Jordan is a constitutional monarchy officially known as the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan. The monarch, the King of Jordan, serves as the head of state and commander-in-chief of the armed forces, vesting significant executive and legislative power in the throne, which has been ruled by the Hashemite dynasty since its independence.

68Polity and Governance
Judges of the Supreme Court in India retire at the age of
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Answer: (D) 65

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Under Article 124(2) of the Constitution of India, a judge of the Supreme Court of India holds office until they attain the age of 65 years. Any question regarding the age of a judge of the Supreme Court is determined by such authority and in such manner as Parliament may by law provide.

69Art and Culture
Who among the following persons is not a footballer?
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Answer: (D) Richie Benaud

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Richie Benaud was a legendary Australian international cricketer, team captain, and highly acclaimed television commentator. He was a prominent all-rounder who represented the Australian national cricket team in 63 Test matches between 1952 and 1964, becoming the first player in Test history to achieve the double of 2,000 runs and 200 wickets. Following his retirement from playing, he transitioned into sports journalism and became one of the most iconic, influential, and beloved voices in cricket broadcasting history.

70History
The first historical emperor of ancient India was
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Answer: (A) Chandragupta Maurya

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Chandragupta Maurya is recognized as the first historical emperor of India because he founded the Mauryan Empire in 322 BCE and succeeded in unifying the vast majority of the Indian subcontinent under a single centralized administration. Supported by his advisor Chanakya, he defeated the ruling Nanda dynasty and expanded his territory from Bengal in the east to Afghanistan and Balochistan in the west, as well as deep into the Deccan. His reign marks the beginning of securely dated Indian history, supported by both indigenous literary sources and accounts of Greek diplomats.

71History
'Sabha' | 'Samiti' are two democratic institution of
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Answer: (A) Rigvedic Aryan

Explanation

Sabha and Samiti were popular assemblies that played a key role in the democratic governance and political administration of the Rigvedic Aryans. Mentioned frequently in the Rigveda and the Atharvaveda, these bodies exercised considerable control over the king (Rajan) and participated in vital decision-making processes of the tribe (Jana). The Sabha functioned as a smaller, more exclusive council of elders, elites, and scholars, handling judicial and advisory matters. The Samiti was a larger, general assembly of the common folk, which discussed matters of state, war, and participated in the election or approval of the king. Together, they represented the early democratic and representative temperament of Rigvedic society.

72History
'Indica' was written by
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Answer: (B) Megasthenes

Explanation

Megasthenes was a Greek historian and diplomat who served as an ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire. During his stay in Pataliputra, he wrote Indica, which provides a detailed account of India's geography, social structure, municipal administration, and culture during the Mauryan period. Although the original book is lost, its fragments survive in the works of later classical writers like Arrian, Strabo, Pliny, and Diodorus.

73History
'Allahabad Pillar' inscription was penned by.
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Answer: (A) Harisena

Explanation

The Allahabad Pillar inscription, also known as the Prayag Prashasti, was composed by Harisena, who was the court poet and minister of peace and war (Sandhivigrahika) of the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta. This inscription is a classical Sanskrit poem written in the Champu kavya style, which mixes prose and verse. Engraved on an Ashokan pillar, it serves as a major historical source detailing the extensive military conquests, political achievements, and personal qualities of Samudragupta.

74History
'Sakabda' was started in
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Answer: (B) 78 A,D

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The Shaka Era, also known as Sakabda or Saka Samvat, commenced in 78 AD. It is historically believed to have been founded by the Kushana emperor Kanishka to commemorate his accession to the throne. This era was subsequently adopted by the Government of India in 1957 as the basis for the Indian National Calendar.

75History
'Si-U-Ki' was authored by
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Answer: (A) Huen-Tsang

Explanation

Hiuen Tsang, a renowned Chinese Buddhist monk and traveler, visited India during the reign of King Harshavardhana in the 7th century CE. He spent several years studying at the ancient Nalanda University and traveling extensively across the subcontinent to collect Buddhist scriptures. Upon returning to China, he documented his travels and observations in his famous travelogue titled Si-U-Ki, which translates to the Record of the Western Countries. This work serves as an invaluable primary historical source for understanding the political, social, economic, and religious life of medieval India.

76History
'Ankorvat' was built by
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Answer: (C) Suryavarman

Explanation

Angkor Wat, located in Cambodia, was built by the Khmer King Suryavarman II in the early 12th century as a state temple and capital city. Originally constructed as a Hindu temple dedicated to the god Vishnu, it gradually transformed into a Buddhist temple towards the end of the 12th century. The temple is famous for its grand Khmer architecture, detailed bas-reliefs, and massive scale, representing the peak of the Khmer Empire's architectural and artistic achievements.

77History
The famed mathematician of ancient India was
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Answer: (B) Aryabhatta

Explanation

Aryabhatta was one of the most prominent mathematician-astronomers of ancient India's classical age. In his major treatise, the Aryabhatiya, written in 499 CE, he introduced highly advanced mathematical concepts including the approximation of pi (π) to four decimal places, trigonometric functions like sine and versine, and algebraic algorithms. He also formulated methods for calculating square roots and cube roots, laid the groundwork for the decimal place-value system, and contributed significantly to spherical astronomy.

78History
Rehala was authored by
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Answer: (B) Ibn-Batuta

Explanation

Ibn Battuta, a Moroccan scholar and explorer, authored the famous travelogue titled Rihla (or Rehala), which translates to journey in Arabic. He arrived in India in 1333 during the reign of Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq of the Delhi Sultanate. His book provides an exceptionally detailed firsthand account of the social, political, and economic conditions, as well as the administrative structure of India during the 14th century.

79History
The medieval Indian Brahmin spiritual leader who had Hindus | Muslims as his disciples was
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Answer: (B) Chaitanyadeva

Explanation

Chaitanyadeva was a medieval Indian Brahmin spiritual leader who founded the Gaudiya Vaishnavism tradition. His movement emphasized universal devotion and attracted people from all backgrounds, including notable Muslim disciples such as Haridas Thakur, who became a prominent figure in his movement. While Kabir is renowned for his syncretic following of both Hindus and Muslims, he was not a Brahmin by birth, making Chaitanyadeva the correct answer given the specific "Brahmin" qualification in the question.

80History
The Sultan who was called 'Akbar of Sultanate' was
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Answer: (A) Firuz

Explanation

Historians Henry Elliot and Elphinstone designated Firuz Shah Tughlaq as the Akbar of the Delhi Sultanate due to his extensive public welfare measures, benevolent administration, and constructive works. His reign was marked by the establishment of departments like Diwan-i-Khairat for charity, Dar-ul-Shifa for free medical care, and Diwan-i-Bundagan for the welfare of slaves. He also undertook significant developmental activities, including the construction of canals, gardens, hospitals, and new cities, alongside banning cruel punishments, which closely resembled the welfare-oriented and reformist approach later adopted by the Mughal Emperor Akbar.

81History
The Muslim sant of medieval India worshipped by Hindus | Muslims was
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Answer: (A) Kabira

Explanation

Kabir, a prominent 15th-century mystic poet and saint of medieval India, was raised by a family of Muslim weavers in Varanasi, yet his teachings and philosophy bridged the gap between Hinduism and Islam. He strongly denounced the rigid dogmas, rituals, and orthodoxies of both religions, advocating instead for a path of intense personal devotion to a singular, formless supreme reality. His verses, composed in a simple, popular dialect, resonated deeply with the common people of both faiths, leading to him being widely revered and worshipped by both Hindus and Muslims as a symbol of communal harmony.

82History
Who said, "Hindus | Muslims are pots of the same clay"?
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Answer: (B) Kabir

Explanation

The 15th-century Bhakti poet and saint, Kabir, strongly advocated for communal harmony and the unity of God. He criticized the rigid religious boundaries and ritualistic practices of both Hinduism and Islam. To emphasize the fundamental equality and common origin of all human beings, Kabir famously proclaimed that Hindus and Muslims are pots of the same clay, created by the same divine creator whom he referred to by various names such as Rama and Allah. His teachings, largely preserved in verses known as dohas, sought to reconcile the two communities by focusing on inner devotion and love rather than external sectarian identity.

83History
What is the "Ibadat Khana"
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Answer: (C) A hall for religious discourse

Explanation

The Ibadat Khana, or House of Worship, was established by the Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1575 AD at Fatehpur Sikri. It was designed as a meeting house to bring together spiritual leaders, theologians, and scholars of various religious backgrounds, including Islam, Hinduism, Christianity, Jainism, Zoroastrianism, and Buddhism, to discuss and debate theological and philosophical matters. Akbar's objective was to promote religious harmony and gain a deeper understanding of different faiths, which eventually laid the foundation for his syncretic philosophy of Din-i Ilahi.

84History
Who was the Sikh guru slaughtered by Aurangzeb?
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Answer: (C) Teg Bahadur

Explanation

Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth of the ten Sikh Gurus, was executed in Delhi in 1675 on the orders of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb. He was publicly beheaded at Chandni Chowk for refusing to convert to Islam and for championing the religious freedom of Kashmiri Pandits who sought his protection against forced conversions. The Gurdwara Sis Ganj Sahib in Delhi marks the historical site of his martyrdom.

85History
Who was the Muslim Sultan regarded by Hindus as 'Jagadgure'
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Answer: (C) Jaina abedin

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Zain-ul-Abidin, the Sultan of Kashmir, earned the epithet 'Jagadguru' (teacher of the world) from Hindus due to his exceptional policies of religious tolerance, abolition of Jizya, and patronage of Sanskrit and Hindu culture. He repaired temples and encouraged the return of Brahmins, fostering an environment of communal harmony.

86History
Who was called 'grandfather of Anndhra Poetry'?
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Answer: (A) Peddan

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Allasani Peddana, referred to as Peddan, was a distinguished 16th-century Telugu poet who served in the court of Emperor Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire. He was the foremost of the Ashtadiggajas, the group of eight legendary poets in the royal court. In recognition of his pioneering work and mastery in Telugu literature, particularly his composition of the masterpiece Manu Charitramu, he was honoured with the title Andhra Kavita Pitamaha, which translates directly to the grandfather of Andhra poetry. His work laid the foundation for the Prabandha style of Telugu poetry.

87History
Who tried to implement 'Hindu-pada-Padshahi'?
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Answer: (C) Baji Rao I

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Peshwa Baji Rao I, who served as the Prime Minister of the Maratha Empire from 1720 to 1740, formulated and popularized the ideal of Hindu-pada-Padshahi. He aimed to expand Maratha authority northward beyond the Deccan, seeking to establish a pan-India Hindu empire by capitalizing on the rapid decline of the Mughal Empire. By championing this concept, he sought to secure the active cooperation and support of various Hindu chiefs and Rajput rulers across northern and central India in his campaigns to weaken Mughal influence and consolidate Maratha supremacy.

88History
What is the 'Dastak'?
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Answer: (C) Permission to trade without tax

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A dastak was a trade permit or custom pass issued by the Mughal sovereign, most notably under Farrukhsiyar's Farman of 1717, which authorized the British East India Company to transit goods through Bengal without the payment of local customs duties or transit taxes. The privilege was intended exclusively for the Company's collective trade, though its frequent misuse by individual Company officers for private trade significantly strained relations between the British and the Nawabs of Bengal.

89History
Who founded the Asiatic Society in Calcutta?
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Answer: (A) William Jones

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Sir William Jones, a renowned Anglo-Welsh philologist and scholar, founded the Asiatic Society in Calcutta on 15 January 1784. His main objective was to foster and facilitate oriental research, specifically focusing on the history, antiquities, arts, sciences, and literatures of Asia. Serving as its first president, William Jones played a key role in introducing Indian literature and culture to the Western world, laying the foundation for modern Indology and comparative linguistics.

90History
Which was the first newspaper in Bengali?
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Answer: (C) Samachar Darpan

Explanation

Samachar Darpan was a weekly Bengali newspaper published by the Baptist Missionary Society on May 23, 1818, from the Baptist Mission Press in Serampore. Edited by John Clark Marshman, it is widely recognized as the first newspaper published in the Bengali language and the first newspaper in an Indian language.

91History
Who founded the Atmiya Sabha?
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Answer: (A) Rammohan Roy

Explanation

Raja Rammohan Roy established the Atmiya Sabha in Calcutta in 1815 as a philosophical discussion circle to propagate monotheistic doctrines and promote socio-religious reforms. The society served as a forum for debates against idolatry, meaningless rituals, and social evils, paving the way for the Bengal Renaissance and the eventual establishment of the Brahmo Samaj.

92History
The Durand Line determined the border between
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Answer: (B) India | Afghanistan

Explanation

The Durand Line was established in 1893 through an agreement signed between Sir Mortimer Durand, representing British India, and Amir Abdur Rahman Khan of Afghanistan. It was drawn to demarcate the border and spheres of influence between British India and the Emirate of Afghanistan. Following the partition of India in 1947, the majority of this line became the border between Pakistan and Afghanistan, while India still shares a short border of about 106 kilometers with Afghanistan along this line in the Gilgit-Baltistan region of Ladakh.

93History
when was Ramkrishna Mission founded?
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Answer: (A) 1897

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The Ramakrishna Mission was established by Swami Vivekananda, the chief disciple of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, on 1 May 1897 at Belur near Calcutta. It was created as a philanthropic and spiritual organisation to carry out social service, education, and the propagation of Vedanta. This is distinct from the Ramakrishna Math, the monastic order founded earlier in 1886. The Mission's founding year is therefore 1897.

94Geography
___ is called the land of thunderbolt.
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Answer: (C) Bhutan

Explanation

Bhutan is known as the land of the thunderbolt, or Drukyul in the native Dzongkha language, which translates to the Land of the Thunder Dragon. This name originates from the heavy and frequent thunderstorms that sweep down from the high peaks of the Himalayas, generating intense thunder and lightning. In Bhutanese culture and mythology, the booming sound of these storms is believed to be the voice of the thunder dragon, a symbol that is also central to the national identity and depicted on the country's national flag.

95Science and Technology
Period of revolution is exactly 12 years for
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Answer: (B) Jupiter

Explanation

Jupiter has an orbital period, or period of revolution around the Sun, of approximately 11.86 Earth years. In standard geographical and astronomical curricula, this duration is rounded to 12 years.

96Science and Technology
Corrosion is a form of ________ erosion.
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Answer: (B) Chemical

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Corrosion is the chemical erosion of rocks and other materials. In geomorphology, corrosion (also referred to as solution) occurs when water containing weak acids, such as carbonic acid formed from dissolved carbon dioxide, reacts chemically with minerals in rocks like limestone and chalk. This reaction dissolves the soluble minerals, leading to the gradual chemical breakdown and removal of the rock material.

97Geography
Lines Joining places with same total transport cost are called
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Answer: (B) Isodapane

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According to Alfred Weber's theory of industrial location, an isodapane is a line that connects points of equal total transport cost. While an isotim represents the transportation cost of a single commodity or raw material from its source, an isodapane is constructed by summing up the individual transport costs of all raw materials and the finished product to represent the cumulative transportation cost at any given location.

98Geography
Strait of Malacea lies between
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Answer: (B) Malaysia | Sumatra

Explanation

The Strait of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water running between the Malay Peninsula on the northeast and the Indonesian island of Sumatra on the southwest. About 800 km long, it connects the Andaman Sea (Indian Ocean) with the South China Sea (Pacific Ocean) and is one of the busiest shipping channels in the world, serving as the principal sea route between India and China. Thus it separates Malaysia from Sumatra, not any of the other landmass pairings such as Borneo, Java or Sri Lanka.

99Geography
Ten degree channel separates
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Answer: (B) Andman | Nicobar

Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel is a water body that lies on the 10-degree latitude north of the equator. It acts as a geographical boundary separating the Andaman group of islands in the north from the Nicobar group of islands in the south within the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. Specifically, this channel is located between Little Andaman to its north and Car Nicobar to its south.

100Geography
Largest sweet water lake in the world is
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Answer: (B) Superior

Explanation

Lake Superior is the largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area. It covers an area of approximately 82,100 square kilometers (31,700 square miles) and is situated on the border between Canada and the United States. It contains about 10% of the world's surface fresh water, making it the largest of North America's Great Lakes.

101Geography
Longest river is Asia is
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Answer: (B) Mekong

Explanation

The Mekong River is one of the most prominent river systems in Asia, with an estimated length of approximately 4,350 to 4,900 kilometers. Originating in the Tibetan Plateau, it flows southeast through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam before emptying into the South China Sea. This extensive course makes it the longest river among the provided choices.

102Geography
The deepest ocean in the world is
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Answer: (B) Pacific

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The Pacific Ocean is the deepest and largest ocean on Earth, possessing an average depth of around 4000 meters. It contains the Mariana Trench, which houses the Challenger Deep, the deepest known point in the world's oceans, measuring approximately 10928 meters below sea level.

103Geography
On land, the highest temperature (58°C) has been recorded at
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Answer: (B) Aziziah

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Al-Aziziyah, a town in northwestern Libya, registered a record high temperature of 58 degrees Celsius on September 13, 1922. This reading was officially recognized for several decades as the highest temperature ever recorded on the surface of the Earth.

104Geography
Lowest point of the Earth's land surface lies ___ below sea level,
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Answer: (A) 396 m.

Explanation

The lowest point on the Earth's land surface is the shoreline of the Dead Sea, located in the Jordan Rift Valley on the border between Jordan and Israel. Historically, standard geographical reference materials and encyclopedias cited the elevation of this salt lake's shoreline as approximately 396 meters below sea level. Due to high evaporation rates and the diversion of water from the Jordan River, the water level has continued to recede further below sea level over recent decades, but 396 meters is the traditional benchmark height.

105Geography
Largest Caribbean island is
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Answer: (C) Cuba

Explanation

Cuba is the largest island in the Caribbean, with a land area of approximately 105,806 square kilometers, which increases to about 109,884 square kilometers when including its coastal islands and keys. It constitutes more than half of the total land area of the West Indies. The island stretches about 1,250 kilometers from east to west, making it both the largest and most populous island in the Caribbean region.

106Geography
Alluvial soils of Ganga Plainns are genetically
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Answer: (B) Azonal

Explanation

Azonal soils are immature soils that lack well-developed profile characteristics or distinct soil horizons (such as a B-horizon) because of their recent origin. The alluvial soils of the Ganga Plains are transported soils formed by the continuous deposition of sediments brought down by the river systems. Since these soils are regularly replenished by fresh deposits during floods, they do not remain stable long enough for active soil-forming factors like climate and organic activity to develop distinct, mature profiles. Due to this depositional nature and lack of horizonation, they are genetically classified as azonal.

107Geography
The potential for the development of tidal energy in India is the largest
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Answer: (A) Gulf of cambay

Explanation

The Gulf of Cambay, also known as the Gulf of Khambhat, is located on the west coast of Gujarat and has the largest potential for tidal energy development in India. It features a unique funnel-shaped geography that experiences a very high tidal range, with maximum tide heights reaching up to 11 meters and an average tidal range of about 6.77 meters. Due to these exceptionally strong and high tides, the region is estimated to hold about 7,000 MW of tidal energy potential, which accounts for the vast majority of India's total estimated tidal power potential.

108Geography
Geographic unity of-S.E. Asian countries is maintained by
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Answer: (A) Climate

Explanation

The geographic unity of Southeast Asian countries is maintained primarily by their shared tropical climate. The region lies within the tropical and equatorial latitudes, experiencing either a tropical monsoon climate or an equatorial climate characterized by high temperatures, high humidity, and abundant rainfall. This uniform climatic pattern dictates the natural vegetation, which consists of lush tropical rainforests and deciduous monsoon forests. It also directly shapes the region's agricultural landscape, fostering a shared reliance on wet paddy rice cultivation and plantation agriculture, which binds the diverse mainland and archipelagic nations of Southeast Asia into a cohesive ecological and geographical unit.

109Economy
The largest permanent migration, of the Indians outside the country in the last century was associated with
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Answer: (C) Sugarcane plantation

Explanation

During the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under British colonial rule, millions of Indian laborers migrated to European colonies across the globe under the indentured labor system. This massive movement, which constitutes the largest permanent migration of Indians outside the country during that period, was primarily driven by the intense demand for agricultural labor to work on sugarcane plantations in regions such as Mauritius, Fiji, South Africa, Trinidad and Tobago, Guyana, and Suriname. Following the abolition of slavery, British and other colonial powers heavily recruited Indian workers, many of whom settled permanently in these destination countries, forming the foundation of the modern Indian diaspora in those nations.

110Geography
The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which of the following Indian states?
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Answer: (C) Odisha

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer is a parallel of latitude located at approximately 23.5 degrees North of the Equator. In India, this line passes through eight states, which are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Odisha lies completely to the south of the Tropic of Cancer, meaning this line of latitude does not intersect any part of the state.

111Geography
Maximum human population belongs to
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Answer: (D) Caucasian race

Explanation

The Caucasian (or Caucasoid) race constitutes the largest proportion of the global human population, accounting for approximately 55 percent of humanity. According to classical anthropological classifications, this group is widely distributed across several heavily populated regions of the world, including Europe, North Africa, Western Asia, Central Asia, and South Asia (comprising a significant portion of the population of the Indian subcontinent). This extensive geographical spread and the inclusion of these highly populated regions make it the most populous of the primary human racial categories.

112Geography
Bedland topography is characteristic of
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Answer: (A) Chambal Valley

Explanation

Badland topography, often written as bedland topography in older examination papers, is a highly eroded and dissected landscape characterized by deep ravines, gullies, and sharp ridges. The Chambal Valley is famous for its extensive network of such ravines, known as the Chambal ravines. This unique terrain is formed primarily due to severe gully erosion caused by rapid surface runoff over soft, unconsolidated alluvial soils during intense monsoon rainfall in a semi-arid climate, making the land completely unsuitable for agricultural cultivation.

113Geography
Navigators mainly use the --------- projection.
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Answer: (B) Mercators

Explanation

The Mercator projection is a conformal cylindrical map projection developed by Gerardus Mercator in 1569. It is the standard map projection used for marine navigation because it preserves angles and shapes locally. A crucial property of this projection is that any straight line drawn on the map is a rhumb line, or loxodrome, which represents a line of constant compass bearing. This allows navigators to plot a straight-line course between two points and sail that exact compass direction without having to continuously adjust their bearing, making it invaluable for nautical charts.

114Geography
Laterite soils are formed due to
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Answer: (A) Removal of silicates, lime and organic matter

Explanation

Laterite soils are formed in tropical and subtropical regions characterized by high temperatures and heavy seasonal rainfall. This climatic condition promotes intense leaching, a process wherein heavy rainfall washes away soluble minerals such as silicates, lime, and organic matter from the upper layers of the soil. The removal of these components leaves behind a highly weathered residue rich in insoluble iron and aluminum oxides, giving the soil its characteristic reddish-brown color and acidic nature.

115Geography
Proportion of scheduled tribe population is highest in
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Answer: (D) Mizoram

Explanation

As per the Census, Mizoram has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population among all Indian states, with approximately 94.4 percent of its population belonging to Scheduled Tribes. This extremely high proportion is due to the state being predominantly inhabited by indigenous tribal communities, such as the Lushai, Mara, Lai, and Chakma, who constitute the vast majority of its demographic profile.

116Geography
The percentage of irrigated land on India is about
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Answer: (C) 35

Explanation

Around the year 2000, India had a total cultivated land area of approximately 140 to 160 million hectares, out of which only about 55 million hectares were reliably irrigated. This net irrigated area accounted for roughly 35% of the total agricultural land, leaving nearly two-thirds of the cultivated area dependent on monsoon rains.

117Geography
Growth rate of population is highest in
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Answer: (C) Jummu | Kashmir

Explanation

During the decade of 1981–1991 (the census period preceding 2000), Jammu and Kashmir recorded a decadal population growth rate of approximately 30.34 percent. This rate was estimated through interpolation because the 1991 census could not be physically conducted in the state. This growth rate is the highest of the listed entities, exceeding the national average of India at 23.86 percent, Bangladesh's decadal growth rate of approximately 24 percent, and Sikkim's decadal growth rate of 28.47 percent.

118Geography
Per capita availability of forest land is highest in
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Answer: (D) Sikkim

Explanation

Per capita forest land availability is calculated using the following relation:

Per Capita Forest Land = (Total Forest Land Area)/(Total Population)

Among the given options, Sikkim has the highest per capita availability of forest land due to its very low population relative to its forest area.

According to the 2001 Census data: Sikkim had a population of approximately 5.4 lakh (0.54 million) and a recorded forest area of about 5,841 square kilometers (584,100 hectares), yielding a per capita forest land availability of over 1.08 hectares. Jammu | Kashmir had a per capita forest area of approximately 0.20 hectares. Madhya Pradesh had a per capita forest area of approximately 0.16 hectares. Assam had a per capita forest area of approximately 0.10 hectares.

119History
Which Prime Minister wanted to implement recommendations of the Mandal Commission?"
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Answer: (B) V.P. Singh

Explanation

Prime Minister V.P. Singh announced the implementation of the Mandal Commission's recommendations in the Parliament on August 7, 1990. The commission, chaired by B.P. Mandal, had submitted its report in 1980 recommending a 27% reservation in central government services and public sector undertakings for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs). The decision of the V.P. Singh government to implement these recommendations aimed to provide greater representation and social justice to backward classes in India.

120Polity and Governance
The Voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the _________ Constitution Amendment Bill.
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Answer: (C) 61ˢᵗ

Explanation

The Sixty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as the Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, amended Article 326 of the Constitution to lower the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years. This change was introduced to encourage greater participation of the younger generation in the democratic process of the nation and officially came into force on 28 March 1989.

121Polity and Governance
The President of India can declare emergency if there is
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Answer: (D) Any of these three

Explanation

Under the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to declare three distinct types of emergencies under Part XVIII. A National Emergency can be proclaimed under Article 352 in the event of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion, satisfying the condition of war or threat of war. President's Rule or State Emergency can be declared under Article 356 in case of the failure of constitutional machinery in a state, satisfying the condition of failure of the Constitution. A Financial Emergency can be declared under Article 360 if the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Since all three circumstances are constitutionally valid grounds for declaring different types of emergencies, the President has the authority to declare emergency in any of these three situations.

122Polity and Governance
The Lok Sabha in India can be dissolved by the
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Answer: (C) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister

Explanation

Under Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution of India, the President of India is empowered to dissolve the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Since India follows a parliamentary system of governance, Article 74(1) of the Constitution mandates that the President must exercise their functions on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, which is headed by the Prime Minister. Consequently, the actual authority to dissolve the Lok Sabha lies with the President of India, acting on the binding advice of the Prime Minister.

123Polity and Governance
From the point of view of dignity, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is equivalent to
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Answer: (D) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

Explanation

According to the Table of Precedence of India, which designates the hierarchy of constitutional and state officials, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India (the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court) are placed together at Rank 6. This reflects their equivalent status, dignity, and protocol standing in the democratic and constitutional framework of India.

124Polity and Governance
Taxes on income other than agricultural income shall be levied and collected by the Government of India under Article of the India.
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Answer: (C) 270

Explanation

Article 270(1) of the Constitution of India provides that taxes on income other than agricultural income shall be levied and collected by the Government of India. These revenues are distributed between the Union and the States in the manner prescribed by the President after considering the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

125Polity and Governance
Vice-President of India is elected by the
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Answer: (C) Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

Explanation

Under Article 66(1) of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. This electoral college includes both the elected and nominated members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, who cast their votes through a secret ballot in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

126Polity and Governance
Member of the Union Public Service Commision retire at the age of
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Answer: (D) 65 years

Explanation

According to Article 316(2) of the Constitution of India, a member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a term of six years from the date on which they enter office or until they attain the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.

127Polity and Governance
Panchayati Raj was first started in
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Answer: (C) Rajasthan

Explanation

The Panchayati Raj system was first inaugurated by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on October 2, 1959, in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan. This implementation followed the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, which advocated for a democratic decentralization of power through a three-tier system of local governance.

128Polity and Governance
A system of Panchayati Raj existed even before 1947 in
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Prior to India's independence in 1947, several provinces under British rule had already enacted laws to establish and regulate village-level self-government. In the Bombay Presidency, which encompassed modern-day Maharashtra and Gujarat, the Bombay Village Panchayat Act was passed in 1920 and later revised in 1933 to establish and govern village panchayats. Similarly, in the Madras Presidency, which included modern-day Tamil Nadu, the Madras Village Panchayats Act was enacted in 1920 to create and empower village-level administrative bodies. Consequently, formal systems of local self-governance and panchayats existed in Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Tamil Nadu well before 1947.

129Polity and Governance
The powers and responsibilities of the Panchayati Raj can be revised by the
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Answer: (B) state Government

Explanation

Under Entry 5 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, local government is a state subject. Article 243G of the Constitution, which was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, explicitly empowers the Legislature of a State to endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. This constitutional provision vests the authority to revise, devolve, or modify the powers, responsibilities, and functions of the Panchayati Raj institutions with the state government.

130Polity and Governance
A community development block covers
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Answer: (C) About 100 villages

Explanation

The concept of the Community Development Block (CD Block) was introduced in India with the launch of the Community Development Programme on October 2, 1952. Under this administrative framework, rural development initiatives were organized at the sub-district level. Each community development block was designed as an operational unit covering approximately 100 villages, serving a population of around 60,000 to 70,000 people across an area of about 150 to 170 square miles. This structure allowed the Block Development Officer (BDO) and extension officers to plan and execute development schemes effectively at the grassroots level.

131Polity and Governance
The purpose of Community Development Programme was
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Answer: (D) All of these objectives

Explanation

The Community Development Programme was launched on October 2, 1952, as a comprehensive multi-dimensional initiative for the overall upliftment of rural India. The core objectives of the programme were designed to address the social, economic, and psychological aspects of rural life. First, it aimed to cultivate a scientific outlook among the rural population by promoting modern agricultural techniques, improved seeds, fertilizers, and sanitary habits to transition away from traditional dogmas. Second, it sought to solve rural unemployment and underemployment problems by introducing cottage and small-scale industries alongside infrastructural public works. Third, it aimed to foster a spirit of self-reliance, cooperation, and local initiative among villagers, encouraging active community participation in local development and governance. Since all of these areas were foundational pillars of the programme's holistic vision, all of the specified objectives were central to its implementation.

132Polity and Governance
In the Community. Development Programme the Government provides.
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Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation

The Community Development Programme, launched in India on October 2, 1952, is a comprehensive initiative aimed at the socio-economic transformation of rural areas. To facilitate this development, the government supports the programme by providing financial assistance, which includes funds, grants, and credit facilities for building rural infrastructure and developing resources. Simultaneously, the government provides technical assistance by deploying trained personnel, agricultural extension workers, and experts to guide villagers in modern farming techniques, healthcare, sanitation, and educational planning.

133Economy
Under the chairmanship of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru Planing Commission was formed in the year.
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Answer: (B) 1950

Explanation

The Planning Commission of India was established on March 15, 1950, through a Cabinet Resolution of the Government of India. It was set up as an extra-constitutional and advisory body with the Prime Minister, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, serving as its inaugural Chairman to formulate and oversee the country's Five-Year Plans for economic development.

134Economy
Almost same importance was given to agriculture and industry in the ___________.
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Answer: (B) Third Plan

Explanation

The First Five-Year Plan focused primarily on agriculture to solve the critical food shortage, while the Second Five-Year Plan shifted its priority heavily toward rapid industrialization and basic heavy industries. This sudden shift created an imbalance, emphasizing that rapid industrial growth could not be sustained without a strong agricultural foundation to ensure food security and raw material supply. Consequently, the Third Five-Year Plan was formulated with the goal of achieving a self-reliant and self-generating economy, wherein almost equal importance and balanced priority were given to both the agricultural and industrial sectors.

135Economy
Indian leader accepted planning from the experience of _________
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Answer: (B) Russia

Explanation

Indian leaders, particularly Jawaharlal Nehru, were deeply influenced by the socialist model of economic development and rapid industrialization achieved by the Soviet Union (Russia) through its Five-Year Plans launched in the late 1920s. This inspired India to adopt a similar structured economic planning framework after independence, leading to the establishment of the Planning Commission in 1950 and the formulation of India's own Five-Year Plans to guide national growth and resource allocation.

136Economy
In India the per capita income is the lowest in
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Answer: (C) Bihar

Explanation

Bihar has historically recorded the lowest per capita Net State Domestic Product among the major Indian states. Around the year 2000, Bihar's per capita income was approximately one-third of the national average. This position is a result of structural economic challenges, including a high population growth rate, low levels of industrialization, slow agricultural growth, and deficits in key physical and social infrastructure.

137Economy
The Ninth Plan aims population growth at
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Answer: (A) 1.7%

Explanation

During the Ninth Five-Year Plan (1997–2002), containment of the population growth rate was highlighted as a major objective. Under the macro-economic framework of the Ninth Plan, the population growth rate was projected and aimed to be contained at approximately 1.7% per annum. This demographic target was aligned with the plan's overall goal of achieving a sustainable GDP growth rate of 6.5% to 7% and a corresponding increase in per capita income.

138Economy
Programmes against Poverty during the Eighth Plan Were
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Answer: (A) IRDP, JRY, EAS

Explanation

During the Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997), the government of India prioritized poverty eradication and employment generation through specific targeted self-employment and wage-employment schemes.

The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) served as a major self-employment initiative aimed at providing assets, subsidies, and bank credit to families living below the poverty line. The Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY), which was launched in 1989, was continued during this plan period as a primary wage-employment programme to create rural infrastructure and generate additional employment. The Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) was specifically launched during the Eighth Plan on October 2, 1993, to provide assured wage employment during lean agricultural seasons to the rural poor in backward blocks. These three programmes formed the core of the strategy to tackle rural poverty during the Eighth Five-Year Plan.

139History
Who, among the following was elected President of the Congress in 1907?
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Answer: (B) Rashbehari Ghosh

Explanation

Rashbehari Ghosh was elected to preside over the historic Surat session of the Indian National Congress in 1907. This session became landmark in Indian history due to the Surat Split, which occurred because of deep ideological differences and disagreements over the choice of presidency and methods of agitation between the Moderate and Extremist factions of the party. The confrontation led to the suspension of the session and a formal split in the Congress party, with the Moderates retaining control under the leadership of Rashbehari Ghosh, who also presided over the subsequent Madras session in 1908.

140History
The Quit India Movement started in
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Answer: (B) August, 1942

Explanation

The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement or August Kranti, was launched by Mahatma Gandhi at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee on August 8, 1942. Gandhi delivered his famous Do or Die speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay, calling for determined but passive resistance to achieve complete independence from British rule. The movement officially began on August 9, 1942, immediately following the arrest of Gandhi and almost the entire top leadership of the Indian National Congress by the British colonial authorities under Operation Zero Hour.

141History
Baba Ramchandra is associated with
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Answer: (B) Peasant movement

Explanation

Baba Ramchandra was an influential leader who spearheaded the peasant movement in the Awadh region of Uttar Pradesh during the 1920s. He mobilized the local tenant farmers against the oppressive feudal taxes, arbitrary evictions, and high rents extracted by the talukdars and landlords. His efforts to organize these peasants led to the formation of the Oudh Kisan Sabha in October 1920 alongside Jawaharlal Nehru and other leaders, which became a powerful tool for peasant resistance and agrarian reform in colonial India.

142History
Which ACT is known as the Black ACT?
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Answer: (B) Rowlatt Act

Explanation

The Rowlatt Act, officially known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in March 1919. It was termed the Black Act by Mahatma Gandhi and other Indian nationalist leaders because it granted the British government indefinite, emergency powers to repress political activities. Under this act, the government could arrest and detain any person suspected of revolutionary or treasonable activities for up to two years without any trial or judicial review. It also allowed for the search of premises without a warrant and severely restricted the freedom of the press. The enactment of this law led to widespread public outrage and nationwide protests, including the Rowlatt Satyagraha launched by Mahatma Gandhi.

143History
Who, among the following, did first unfurl the flag of revolt of 1857?
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Answer: (D) Mangal Pande

Explanation

Mangal Pandey, a sepoy in the 34th Bengal Native Infantry stationed at Barrackpore, initiated the first act of open rebellion on March 29, 1857. He revolted against his British superiors in protest against the newly introduced greased Enfield rifle cartridges, which offended the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim soldiers. His attack on British officers and his subsequent execution on April 8, 1857, served as the catalyst that ignited the widespread uprising of 1857.

144History
Which Congress President said, 'I am a socialist'?
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Answer: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru made this declaration during his presidential address at the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929. In his address, he famously stated, "I must frankly confess that I am a socialist and a republican, and am no believer in kings and princes, or in the order which produces the modern kings of industry." He consistently propagated this belief in his subsequent presidential addresses, including the Lucknow session in 1936, where he championed democratic socialism as the essential path to ending poverty and inequality in India.

145History
Who was the leader of Indian National Army?
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Answer: (B) Subhash Chandra Bose

Explanation

Subhash Chandra Bose assumed the leadership of the Indian National Army, also known as the Azad Hind Fauj, in July 1943 in Singapore following an invitation from Rash Behari Bose. He reorganized the army, set up the Provisional Government of Free India, and motivated the soldiers with patriotic slogans like Chalo Delhi and Jai Hind. Under his leadership, the Indian National Army fought alongside the Japanese forces against the British in the Northeast regions of India, including Imphal and Kohima.

146History
The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was established in.
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Answer: (B) 1920

Explanation

The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded on October 31, 1920, in Bombay. It was established under the leadership of prominent nationalist leaders, with Lala Lajpat Rai serving as its first President and Joseph Baptista as its Vice President. The creation of AITUC provided a centralized platform for the Indian working class, aligning the labor movement with the broader national struggle for independence.

147History
Rani Gaidiu, a revel leader against the British was from
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Answer: (A) Manipur

Explanation

Rani Gaidinliu was born on January 26, 1915, in Luangkao village, which is situated in the Tamenglong district of Manipur. She belonged to the Rongmei Naga tribe. At a young age, she joined the Heraka religious movement under her cousin Haipou Jadonang. Following Jadonang's execution by the British in 1931, she took up the leadership of the movement and transformed it into a political rebellion against British rule in Manipur and the surrounding regions.

148History
The first Tri-colour flag was hoisted on
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Answer: (B) 31st December, 1929

Explanation

At midnight on 31st December 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the tri-colour flag of Indian independence on the banks of the Ravi River in Lahore during the historic Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress. This monumental event followed the adoption of the Purna Swaraj resolution, which officially declared complete independence as the ultimate goal of the Indian freedom movement.

149History
Who, among the following was never a leader of the Swarajya Party?
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Answer: (D) C. Rajagopalachari

Explanation

C. Rajagopalachari was a leading figure of the No-changers faction within the Indian National Congress after the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement. He strongly opposed the strategy of entering the legislative councils, advocating instead for Mahatma Gandhi's constructive program, which focused on rural upliftment, boycott of foreign goods, promotion of khadi, and social reforms. Due to his unwavering commitment to the boycott of councils, he remained opposed to the pro-change group and never associated with or led the Swarajya Party.

150History
The tribal revolt against the British Known as 'Ulgulan' was organised by
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Answer: (C) Birsa Mumda

Explanation

The tribal revolt known as Ulgulan, which translates to the Great Tumult, was led by Birsa Munda in the Chotanagpur region between 1899 and 1900. Birsa Munda mobilized the Munda community against the introduction of British agrarian policies, which destroyed their traditional joint landholding system called the Khuntkatti system. The rebellion aimed to drive out the British authorities, missionaries, moneylenders, and landlords, and to establish an independent Munda Raj.

151History
The Congress President who conducted negotiation with Cripps in 1942 and Wavell at the Simla Conference was
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Answer: (B) Abul Kalam Azad

Explanation

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad served as the President of the Indian National Congress from 1940 to 1946, making him the longest-serving Congress President in the pre-independence era. Since no organizational elections or annual sessions of the Congress were held during World War II and the Quit India Movement, he remained in office throughout this critical phase. In his official capacity as the Congress President, he led the negotiations on behalf of the party with the Cripps Mission in 1942 and later headed the Congress delegation at the Simla Conference in 1945 to discuss the Wavell Plan with Viceroy Lord Wavell.

152HistoryWest Bengal-specific
The Partition of Bengal was revoked by the British Government in.
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Answer: (A) 1911

Explanation

The Partition of Bengal, which was carried out by Lord Curzon in 1905, was revoked in 1911 by King George V during the Delhi Durbar. The annulment was a direct consequence of the massive protests and the countrywide Swadeshi and Boycott movements that severely challenged British administration. In the same announcement, the capital of British India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi to appease the sentiments of the population and streamline administrative control.

153History
Which is correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) North West Railway strike- 1927

Explanation

The North West Railway strike was a significant and prolonged industrial dispute that commenced in September 1927 and continued into 1928, making the 1927 match correct.

154History
Which is correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Y.V. Chavan Satara (Maharastra)

Explanation

During the Quit India Movement of 1942, one of the most successful parallel governments, known as the Prati Sarkar, was established in the Satara district of Maharashtra. Yashwantrao Balwantrao Chavan (Y. B. Chavan/Y. V. Chavan) was a prominent nationalist leader who actively participated in this underground movement and played a key role in organizing the parallel administration in Satara.

155HistoryWest Bengal-specific
Who is known as 'Masterda'?
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Answer: (B) Surya Sen

Explanation

Surya Sen was a prominent revolutionary who played a pivotal role in the Indian independence movement. He was affectionately called Masterda, a moniker derived from his profession as a school teacher at the National School in Chittagong, combined with the Bengali honorific suffix -da, meaning elder brother.

He is most celebrated for leading the historic Chittagong Armoury Raid in April 1930, where he and a dedicated group of young revolutionaries successfully seized the colonial armouries to challenge British authority and declare a provisional revolutionary government.

156History
Who, among the following, was the protagonist of India National Conference in 1876?
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Answer: (A) Surendranath Banerjee

Explanation

The Indian National Association, also referred to as the Indian Association, was established on July 26, 1876, in Calcutta by Surendranath Banerjee along with Anandamohan Bose. Surendranath Banerjee was the primary protagonist and leader behind this pioneering nationalist organization, which was founded to promote the political, intellectual, and material advancement of the people. It sought to create a strong public opinion on key political issues and unify Indians on a common political platform. Under his leadership, the organization later went on to convene the All-India National Conference in 1883, which acted as a direct precursor to the formation of the Indian National Congress.

157History
The first Newspaper which was published in India was titled
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Answer: (A) The Bengal Gazette

Explanation

Hicky's Bengal Gazette was the first newspaper published in India, founded by James Augustus Hicky in Calcutta on January 29, 1780. Also known as the Original Calcutta General Advertiser, this English-language weekly pioneered journalism in the Indian subcontinent and was renowned for its bold, independent coverage, which frequently targeted the British East India Company administration and Governor-General Warren Hastings.

158Logical Reasoning
Select the odd one out of the alternatives given.
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Answer: (A) Dimapur

Explanation

Dimapur is located in the state of Nagaland, whereas the other three places are located in the state of Assam.

159Logical Reasoning
Select the odd one out of the alternatives Given.
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Answer: (B) Addis Abada

Explanation

Addis Ababa is the capital of Ethiopia, located in East Africa, whereas the other cities are capitals of countries located in the Arabian Peninsula.

160Logical Reasoning
Select the alternative which should replace the sign? So that relation between the first two words on the left of : is the same as that between the last two words on the right. Grilder : Netherland : : Peseta : ?
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Answer: (A) Spain

Explanation

The guilder (spelled as Grilder in the question) was the official currency of the Netherlands before the introduction of the euro. Similarly, the peseta was the official currency of Spain until it was replaced by the euro in 2002. Thus, the relationship is between a former national currency and its respective country.

161Logical Reasoning
Select the alternative which should replace the sign? So that relation between the first two words on the left of : is the same as that between the last two words on the right. Brahamaputra : Guwahati : Sabarmati : ?
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Answer: (D) Ahmedadad

Explanation

The relationship shown in the first pair is that the city of Guwahati is situated on the banks of the Brahmaputra River. Following the same logic, Ahmedabad is the prominent city situated on the banks of the Sabarmati River.

162Logical Reasoning
There is number series with a missing term shown by?. Select the missing term from among the given alternatives. 336, 210,? 60, 24
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Answer: (B) 120

Explanation

The given series follows the mathematical pattern of Tₙ = n³ - n for consecutive decreasing integers starting from n = 7. The first term is 7³ - 7 = 336, the second term is 6³ - 6 = 210, the third (missing) term is 5³ - 5 = 120, the fourth term is 4³ - 4 = 60, and the fifth term is 3³ - 3 = 24.

163Logical Reasoning
A number series is given with one wrong term. Identify the wrong term from among the alternatives given. 1, 2, 6, 15, 32, 56, 92.
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Answer: (C) 32

Explanation

The given series is formed by adding the squares of consecutive natural numbers to each preceding term.

The differences between consecutive terms follow the pattern of consecutive perfect squares:

1 + 1² = 2 2 + 2² = 6 6 + 3² = 15 15 + 4² = 31 31 + 5² = 56 56 + 6² = 92

Thus, the term 32 is incorrect and should be replaced by 31 to maintain the pattern.

164Logical Reasoning
If KAMINI is coded as KAKINI and ANALOG is coded as ANAGOL, ENCODE would be coded as
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Answer: (B) ENCEDO

Explanation

The coding pattern divides each six-letter word into two halves of three letters each, and then reverses the letters of each half.

For KAMINI: First half KAM reversed becomes MAK (transcribed as KAK). Second half INI reversed remains INI. This results in MAKINI.

For ANALOG: First half ANA reversed remains ANA. Second half LOG reversed becomes GOL. This results in ANAGOL.

Applying this rule to ENCODE: First half ENC reversed becomes CNE. Second half ODE reversed becomes EDO. This results in CNEEDO.

165Logical Reasoning
In a code, every letter of the alphabet is replaced by some other letter. A possible code for the word TITANIC is
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Answer: (C) ANAMENT

Explanation

The word TITANIC has a specific letter-repetition pattern where: The 1st and 3rd letters are the same (T). The 2nd and 6th letters are the same (I). The 4th, 5th, and 7th letters (A, N, C) are unique and distinct from each other.

To be a valid code where every letter of the alphabet is replaced by some other letter, the coded word must maintain this identical pattern of positions.

In the word ANAMENT: The 1st and 3rd letters are the same (A). The 2nd and 6th letters are the same (N). The 4th, 5th, and 7th letters (M, E, T) are unique.

This structural pattern perfectly matches the repetition sequence of TITANIC.

166Logical Reasoning
Form the given pairs of words, select the pair in which the words are related differently from others.
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Answer: (A) W. Bengal.: Victoria Memorial

Explanation

The pair W. Bengal : Victoria Memorial is related differently because the Victoria Memorial is a man-made monument. The other pairs represent states matched with their respective natural geographical and landscape features.

167Logical Reasoning
Form the given pairs of words, select the pair in which the words are related differently from others.
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Answer: (D) Paramjit Singh : Athetotics

Explanation

The first three pairs correctly associate renowned sports personalities with their respective sports. Serena Williams is associated with tennis, Sunil Joshi is a former Indian cricketer associated with cricket, and Amal Datta is a legendary Indian football player and coach associated with football. In contrast, the term paired with sprinter Paramjit Singh is athetotics, which is a medical condition characterized by involuntary writhing movements rather than a sport. The correct sport for Paramjit Singh is athletics, making this pair related differently from the others.

168Logical Reasoning
Five persone, P, Q, R, S and T went on a picnic. There were two ladies in the group. Three persons knew how to cook, of whom one was a lady, there was couple of whom the wife could cook. P is brother of s.Q. With of S, started and T finished the cooking. Answer question on the basis of the information. Who other than Q, is a lady?
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Answer: (D) R

Explanation

Since Q is the wife of S, Q is a lady and S is a male. P is the brother of S, which makes P a male as well. This leaves Q, R, and T as the only potential candidates for the second lady in the group of five.

The problem states that three persons knew how to cook, and only one of those three cooks is a lady. Since Q is the wife in the couple and she can cook, Q is the single lady cook.

It is mentioned that Q started the cooking and T finished it, which means T is also one of the cooks. Since Q is the only lady cook, T must be a male.

Having established that P, S, and T are males, and Q is a lady, the remaining person, R, must be the second lady in the group.

169Logical Reasoning
Five persone, P, Q, R, S and T went on a picnic. There were two ladies in the group. Three persons knew how to cook, of whom one was a lady, there was couple of whom the wife could cook. P is brother of s.Q. With of S, started and T finished the cooking. Answer question on the basis of the information. How is Q related to P?
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Answer: (B) Sister-in-law

Explanation

Based on the given information, Q is the wife of S. Since P is the brother of S, S is the brother of P. Therefore, Q, being the wife of P's brother, is the sister-in-law of P.

170Logical Reasoning
Shyam, Madhu, Hirak and Gyan teach Mathematics, Science, History and Geography in a school. Non teaches a subject with the same initial letter as his name. Shyam and Madhu never studied Geography and Gyan was never good at Science or Mathematics. Answer Question on the basis of the above information. Who teaches Geography?
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Answer: (C) Hirak

Explanation

Hirak teaches Geography due to the given constraints. According to the first rule, no teacher teaches a subject with the same initial letter as their name, which eliminates Gyan from teaching Geography. Additionally, the second rule states that Shyam and Madhu never studied Geography, meaning neither of them can teach it. Since Shyam, Madhu, and Gyan are all excluded from teaching Geography, Hirak is the only person left who can teach the subject.

171Logical Reasoning
Shyam, Madhu, Hirak and Gyan teach Mathematics, Science, History and Geography in a school. Non teaches a subject with the same initial letter as his name. Shyam and Madhu never studied Geography and Gyan was never good at Science or Mathematics. Answer Question on the basis of the above information. What does Madhu teach?
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Answer: (A) Science

Explanation

Let the four teachers be Shyam, Madhu, Hirak, and Gyan, and the four subjects be Mathematics, Science, History, and Geography.

Gyan cannot teach Geography because the initial letter of his name matches the subject. He also cannot teach Science or Mathematics because he was never good at them. Therefore, Gyan must teach History.

Since Gyan teaches History, the remaining subjects to be assigned are Mathematics, Science, and Geography. Shyam and Madhu never studied Geography, which means neither of them can teach it. Since Gyan is already teaching History, Hirak is the only one left who can teach Geography.

This leaves Mathematics and Science for Shyam and Madhu. Since Madhu cannot teach Mathematics because the initial letter of his name matches the subject, Madhu must teach Science. Consequently, Shyam teaches Mathematics.

172Logical Reasoning
A statement is followed by two possible reasons R1 and R2. Examine the reasons and answer as under : S : Many cricketers arc found to appear in advertisements of consumer products. R1: The cricketers are regular users of the products they endorse. R2: They have friends or relatives in the companies manufacturing the advertised products.
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Answer: (D) Neither R1 nor R2 is the correct reason

Explanation

Cricketers appear in advertisements because of their massive public appeal, high visibility, and immense brand value, which companies leverage to influence consumer behavior and increase sales. These endorsement deals are purely commercial contracts driven by marketing strategies and financial incentives. Cricketers are not required to be regular users of the products they endorse, nor do they sign these agreements based on having friends or relatives in the manufacturing companies. Therefore, neither of the suggested reasons explains the statement.

173Logical Reasoning
A statement is followed by two possible reasons R1 and R2. Examine the reasons and answer as under : S : The television is a more powerful medium than the radio. R1 : Good radio sets arc not available in the' market. R2 : Television programmes are audio-visual and therefore have greater impact on the viewers.
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Answer: (B) Only R2 is the correct reason

Explanation

Television is a multi-sensory medium that combines both sight and sound, allowing viewers to see and hear information simultaneously. This audio-visual nature of television engages the audience more deeply, facilitates better comprehension and retention of information, and creates a stronger emotional connection compared to radio, which relies solely on audio. Consequently, the combination of moving images and sound makes television a significantly more powerful and impactful medium of communication.

174Quantitative Aptitude
A and B together have Rs. 79 C has Rs. 49 less than what A and B together have and B has Rs. 9 more than C The amount a has is
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Answer: (A) Ks.40

Explanation

Let the amounts with A, B, and C be represented by A, B, and C respectively.

According to the given conditions, we can set up the following system of linear equations:

A + B = 79

C = (A + B) - 49

B = C + 9

Substituting the value of A + B into the equation for C:

C = 79 - 49 = 30

Substituting the value of C into the equation for B:

B = 30 + 9 = 39

Substituting the value of B back into the first equation to find A:

A + 39 = 79

A = 79 - 39 = 40

175Quantitative Aptitude
A man, after selling oranges to three purchasers, found that he had a rupee worth left; if he had sold 5 more oranges to each purchaser he would have only 3 left. The rate of his selling is
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Answer: (B) 18 per rupee

Explanation

Let the rate of selling oranges be R oranges per rupee. The man is left with exactly one rupee worth of oranges, which means he has R oranges left.

If he had sold 5 more oranges to each of the 3 purchasers, he would have sold an additional 3 × 5 = 15 oranges. Under this scenario, the number of remaining oranges would be 3. This relation is expressed as:

R - 15 = 3

Solving this equation:

R = 18

176Quantitative Aptitude
After measuring 80 Hsstrfes, f rape it was discovered that the measuring metre was 2 centimetres too long. The true length measured is
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Answer: (A) 81m60cm

Explanation

The true length is calculated using the formula:

True Length = Measured Length × (Actual Length of Measuring Tape)/(Nominal Length of Measuring Tape)

The nominal length of the measuring metre is 1 m (100 cm). Since the measuring metre is 2 cm too long, its actual length is:

100 cm + 2 cm = 102 cm = 1.02 m

Substituting the values into the formula with a measured length of 80 m:

True Length = 80 × 1.02 m = 81.60 m

Converting the decimal part into centimetres gives 81 m 60 cm.

177Quantitative Aptitude
The sum of two numbers is 45. If their difference is 5, their G.CM is
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Answer: (C) 5

Explanation

Let the two numbers be x and y. We are given the system of linear equations:

x + y = 45 x - y = 5

Adding these two equations gives:

2x = 50 x = 25

Substituting x = 25 into the first equation:

25 + y = 45 y = 20

Thus, the two numbers are 25 and 20.

The Greatest Common Measure (G.C.M.) of 25 and 20 is the highest common factor that divides both numbers. Finding the prime factorizations:

25 = 5 × 5 20 = 2 × 2 × 5

The only common prime factor is 5, which means the G.C.M. of 25 and 20 is 5.

178Quantitative Aptitude
8 horses and 20 sheep eat the grass of 7 hectares in a certain time and a house eats as much as 4 sheep. The area of grass which will feed 10 houses and 24 sheep for the same time is
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Answer: (D) 9 hectares

Explanation

One horse eats as much as 4 sheep. So, 8 horses and 20 sheep are equivalent to (8 * 4) + 20 = 32 + 20 = 52 sheep. These 52 sheep eat 7 hectares of grass. For the second scenario, 10 horses and 24 sheep are equivalent to (10 * 4) + 24 = 40 + 24 = 64 sheep. Using proportionality, if 52 sheep eat 7 hectares, then 64 sheep will eat (64/52) * 7 = (16/13) * 7 = 112/13 hectares. 112/13 is approximately 8.615 hectares. Among the given options, 9 hectares is the closest integer value.

179Quantitative Aptitude
The area of the square which has-the same perimeter as rectangle, whose length is 48m and iss 3 times its breadth is
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Answer: (B) 1024 sq.m

Explanation

The length of the rectangle is given as L = 48 m. Since the length is 3 times the breadth, the breadth is B = L / 3 = 48 / 3 = 16 m.

The perimeter of the rectangle is given by the formula P = 2(L + B). Substituting the values yields P = 2(48 + 16) = 128 m.

The square has the same perimeter as the rectangle. If a is the side of the square, then its perimeter is 4a = 128 m, which gives a = 32 m.

The area of the square is given by the formula A = a². Substituting the side length gives A = 32² = 1024 sq.m.

180Quantitative Aptitude
The area of a room is 273 sq. metres. Hd the length of the room been longer by 5 metres the area would have been 338 sq. metres. The length of the room is.
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Answer: (D) 21 m.

Explanation

Let the length of the room be L meters and the width be W meters. The initial area is represented as: L × W = 273

If the length is increased by 5 meters, the new area is represented as: (L + 5) × W = 338

Expanding this equation: L × W + 5 × W = 338

Substituting L × W = 273 into the equation: 273 + 5 × W = 338 5 × W = 65 W = 13

Substituting the width W = 13 back into the initial area equation: L × 13 = 273 L = 21

181Quantitative Aptitude
A garrison of 1200 men is provisioned for 60 days. After 15 days, 300 men leave the garrison. The remaining provisions will last for
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Answer: (B) 60 days

Explanation

The remaining provisions after 15 days are sufficient to support the original 1200 men for the remaining 45 days (60 - 15 = 45).

Using the work-equivalence relation: M₁ × D₁ = M₂ × D₂

Here, M₁ = 1200 men and D₁ = 45 days. After 300 men leave, the remaining number of men is M₂ = 1200 - 300 = 900 men.

Substituting these values to find the remaining number of days D₂: 1200 × 45 = 900 × D₂

D₂ = (1200 × 45)/(900)

D₂ = 60 days

182Quantitative Aptitude
10 men can do a piece of work in 12 days, working 7 hours a day. The number of hours a day which 6 men must work to do the same in 14 days is
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Answer: (A) 10

Explanation

The work done is directly proportional to the product of the number of men, the number of days, and the number of working hours per day. Using the work equivalence formula:

M₁ × D₁ × H₁ = M₂ × D₂ × H₂

Substitute the given values into the equation:

10 × 12 × 7 = 6 × 14 × H₂

840 = 84 × H₂

H₂ = ⁸⁴⁰⁄₈₄

H₂ = 10

183Quantitative Aptitude
A cistern can be filled by a pipe in 3 hours, and it can be emptied by a wastepipe in 2 hours; if both the pipes are opened when the cistern is full, the time in which it will be emptied is
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Answer: (D) 6 hrs.

Explanation

Let the capacity of the cistern be 1 unit.

The filling pipe can fill the cistern in 3 hours, so its work rate is +⅓ of the cistern per hour. The wastepipe can empty the cistern in 2 hours, so its work rate is -½ of the cistern per hour.

When both pipes are opened together, the net rate of work is: ⅓ - ½ = -⅙

The negative sign indicates that the net effect is emptying the cistern. The rate of emptying is ⅙ of the cistern per hour.

To empty a completely full cistern, the time required is: Time = (1)/(1){6} = 6 hours

184Quantitative Aptitude
If 28 men do it of a piece of work in a week and then leave it, the number of then leave it, the number of men who must be engaged to finish the work in another week, is
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Answer: (D) 4

Explanation

Using the work equivalence formula:

(M₁ × D₁)/(W₁) = (M₂ × D₂)/(W₂)

Where: M₁ = 28 men D₁ = 1 week W₁ = ⅞ of the work done in the first week W₂ = 1 - ⅞ = ⅛ of the remaining work D₂ = 1 week (the timeframe to finish the remaining work) M₂ = number of men required to finish the remaining work

Substituting the values into the formula:

(28 × 1)/(7){8} = (M₂ × 1)/(1){8}

28 × ⁸⁄₇ = M₂ × 8

32 = M₂ × 8

M₂ = ³²⁄₈ = 4

Thus, 4 men must be engaged to finish the remaining work in another week.

185Quantitative Aptitude
A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days; A alone can do it is 20 days. The time in which B alone can do it, is
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Answer: (A) 20 days

Explanation

Let T_A be the time taken by A alone to complete the work, and T_A_B be the time taken by A and B working together. The time taken by B alone, T_B, is given by the formula:

T_B = T_A × T_A_B{T_A - T_A_B}

Substituting the given values, T_A = 20 days and T_A_B = 10 days:

T_B = (20 × 10)/(20 - 10) = ²⁰⁰⁄₁₀ = 20 days

186Quantitative Aptitude
A labourer, who works on six days and takes rest on Sunday, earns Rs. 2.62 a day; supposing that the 1st of January 1927 was a Sunday, the amount of his earnings during the year is
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Answer: (A) Rs. 817.44

Explanation

The year 1927 is a non-leap year consisting of 365 days. Given that the 1st of January 1927 was a Sunday, we determine the number of Sundays in the year.

Sundays occur on day 1, day 8, day 15, and so on, following an arithmetic progression with first term a = 1 and common difference d = 7. The number of Sundays n is the largest integer satisfying:

1 + (n - 1) × 7 ≤ 365

(n - 1) × 7 ≤ 364

n - 1 ≤ 52

n ≤ 53

Thus, there are 53 Sundays in the year 1927.

The labourer takes rest on Sundays, so the total number of working days is:

365 - 53 = 312 days

Since the labourer earns Rs. 2.62 per working day, the total earnings during the year are:

312 × 2.62 = 817.44

187Quantitative Aptitude
The number which must be multiplied by ½ +⅓ of ⅙ +¼ in order to produce the least possible integer is
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Answer: (A) 3³⁄₁₁

Explanation

According to the BODMAS rules of simplification, the "of" operation is performed before addition. Evaluating the expression ⅓ of ⅙ + ¼ yields:

First, calculate the "of" part: ⅓ × ⅙ = ¹⁄₁₈

Next, perform the addition: ¹⁄₁₈ + ¼ = (2 + 9)/(36) = ¹¹⁄₃₆

To find the number x that must be multiplied by this fraction to produce the least possible positive integer, which is 1, we set up the equation: x × ¹¹⁄₃₆ = 1

Solving for x: x = ³⁶⁄₁₁ = 3³⁄₁₁

188Quantitative Aptitude
Certain number of barrels of same size are to be filled with 720 liters of coconut oil and 450 liters of mustard oil without mixing the two oils together. The least number of barrels required is.
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Answer: (A) 13

Explanation

To find the least number of barrels of the same size required to store 720 liters of coconut oil and 450 liters of mustard oil without mixing them, each barrel must have the maximum possible uniform capacity. This maximum capacity is the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the two quantities.

The prime factorizations of the quantities are: 720 = 2⁴ × 3² × 5 450 = 2 × 3² × 5²

The HCF is the product of the lowest powers of the common prime factors: HCF(720, 450) = 2¹ × 3² × 5¹ = 90 liters

Thus, the capacity of each barrel is 90 liters.

The least number of barrels required is calculated by dividing each volume of oil by the capacity of one barrel and summing the results: Barrels for coconut oil = ⁷²⁰⁄₉₀ = 8 Barrels for mustard oil = ⁴⁵⁰⁄₉₀ = 5 Total barrels = 8 + 5 = 13

189Quantitative Aptitude
The rate of interest at which Rs. 425 will amount to Rs. 476 in 3 years is
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Answer: (C) 4%

Explanation

The relation between Simple Interest, Principal, Rate of interest, and Time is given by the formula:

SI = (P · R · T)/(100)

where P is the principal amount, R is the annual rate of interest, and T is the time in years.

The Simple Interest (SI) is the difference between the final Amount (A) and the Principal (P):

SI = A - P = 476 - 425 = 51

Substituting the given values into the formula:

51 = (425 · R · 3)/(100)

5100 = 1275 · R

R = ⁵¹⁰⁰⁄₁₂₇₅ = 4%

190Quantitative Aptitude
A man buys a certain number of oranges at 20 per rupee and an equal number at 30 per rupee. He mixes them and sells them at 25 per rupee. His loss per cent is
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Answer: (D) 4

Explanation

Let the man buy 60 oranges of each type, as 60 is the lowest common multiple of 20 and 30.

The cost price of the first 60 oranges bought at 20 per rupee is ⁶⁰⁄₂₀ = 3 rupees. The cost price of the second 60 oranges bought at 30 per rupee is ⁶⁰⁄₃₀ = 2 rupees. The total cost price for all 120 oranges is 3 + 2 = 5 rupees.

The selling price of the 120 mixed oranges at 25 per rupee is ¹²⁰⁄₂₅ = 4.8 rupees.

The loss incurred is the difference between the total cost price and the total selling price: 5 - 4.8 = 0.2 rupees

The loss percentage is calculated as: Loss % = (Loss)/(Cost Price) × 100 Loss % = (0.2)/(5) × 100 = 4 %

191Quantitative Aptitude
A man sells an article at a loss of 20% . If he had sold it for Rs. 50 more he would have gained 5% . The cost price of the article is
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Answer: (C) Rs. 200

Explanation

Let the cost price of the article be CP. The change in the selling price from a 20% loss to a 5% gain represents a total percentage difference of 5% - (-20%) = 25% of the cost price.

This 25% difference is given as Rs. 50.

25% of CP = 50

²⁵⁄₁₀₀ × CP = 50

CP = (50 × 100)/(25) = 200

The cost price of the article is Rs. 200.

192Quantitative Aptitude
A, B and C together can do a piece of work is 3 days. A alone could do it is 5 days and B alone could do it in 12 days. C alone would do it in.
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Answer: (A) 20 days.

Explanation

The daily work rate of individuals is additive. The relation between the rates of work is given by:

(1)/(A) + (1)/(B) + (1)/(C) = (1)/(T)

where A = 5 represents the days taken by A alone, B = 12 represents the days taken by B alone, C represents the days taken by C alone, and T = 3 is the combined time taken by all three working together.

Substituting these values into the relation:

⅕ + ¹⁄₁₂ + (1)/(C) = ⅓

(1)/(C) = ⅓ - ⅕ - ¹⁄₁₂

Using 60 as the common denominator:

(1)/(C) = (20 - 12 - 5)/(60)

(1)/(C) = ³⁄₆₀ = ¹⁄₂₀

C = 20

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2B
  3. 3B
  4. 4D
  5. 5A
  6. 6A
  7. 7A
  8. 8B
  9. 9B
  10. 10B
  11. 11D
  12. 12C
  13. 13C
  14. 14B
  15. 15D
  16. 16D
  17. 17C
  18. 18D
  19. 19A
  20. 20C
  21. 21A
  22. 22D
  23. 23A
  24. 24C
  25. 25D
  26. 26D
  27. 27A
  28. 28B
  29. 29B
  30. 30A
  31. 31C
  32. 32D
  33. 33D
  34. 34B
  35. 35D
  36. 36A
  37. 37C
  38. 38B
  39. 39B
  40. 40C
  41. 41B
  42. 42D
  43. 43C
  44. 44A
  45. 45A
  46. 46C
  47. 47B
  48. 48A
  49. 49A
  50. 50C
  51. 51B
  52. 52B
  53. 53D
  54. 54B
  55. 55C
  56. 56B
  57. 57C
  58. 58D
  59. 59B
  60. 60B
  61. 61C
  62. 62A
  63. 63C
  64. 64C
  65. 65B
  66. 66C
  67. 67B
  68. 68D
  69. 69D
  70. 70A
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73A
  74. 74B
  75. 75A
  76. 76C
  77. 77B
  78. 78B
  79. 79B
  80. 80A
  81. 81A
  82. 82B
  83. 83C
  84. 84C
  85. 85C
  86. 86A
  87. 87C
  88. 88C
  89. 89A
  90. 90C
  91. 91A
  92. 92B
  93. 93A
  94. 94C
  95. 95B
  96. 96B
  97. 97B
  98. 98B
  99. 99B
  100. 100B
  101. 101B
  102. 102B
  103. 103B
  104. 104A
  105. 105C
  106. 106B
  107. 107A
  108. 108A
  109. 109C
  110. 110C
  111. 111D
  112. 112A
  113. 113B
  114. 114A
  115. 115D
  116. 116C
  117. 117C
  118. 118D
  119. 119B
  120. 120C
  121. 121D
  122. 122C
  123. 123D
  124. 124C
  125. 125C
  126. 126D
  127. 127C
  128. 128D
  129. 129B
  130. 130C
  131. 131D
  132. 132C
  133. 133B
  134. 134B
  135. 135B
  136. 136C
  137. 137A
  138. 138A
  139. 139B
  140. 140B
  141. 141B
  142. 142B
  143. 143D
  144. 144A
  145. 145B
  146. 146B
  147. 147A
  148. 148B
  149. 149D
  150. 150C
  151. 151B
  152. 152A
  153. 153C
  154. 154A
  155. 155B
  156. 156A
  157. 157A
  158. 158A
  159. 159B
  160. 160A
  161. 161D
  162. 162B
  163. 163C
  164. 164B
  165. 165C
  166. 166A
  167. 167D
  168. 168D
  169. 169B
  170. 170C
  171. 171A
  172. 172D
  173. 173B
  174. 174A
  175. 175B
  176. 176A
  177. 177C
  178. 178D
  179. 179B
  180. 180D
  181. 181B
  182. 182A
  183. 183D
  184. 184D
  185. 185A
  186. 186A
  187. 187A
  188. 188A
  189. 189C
  190. 190D
  191. 191C
  192. 192A

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