SSC CHSL2012General AwarenessPage 4 of 5

SSC CHSL Tier 1 2012 General Awareness Questions with Solutions

Questions from every shift of the year, grouped by section. Questions 151–200 of 248, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation.

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151General Awareness
Value added tax was first introduced in
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Answer: (A) France

Explanation

The concept of Value Added Tax (VAT) was first introduced and implemented in France in 1954. It was designed by Maurice Lauré, the joint director of the French tax authority (Direction générale des impôts). Initially applied to large businesses on April 10, 1954, to eliminate the cascading effect of the traditional turnover tax, it was later extended to all sectors of the French economy and subsequently adopted by countries worldwide.

152General Awareness
"Supply creates its own demand" is the
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Answer: (C) Law of Market

Explanation

The proposition "supply creates its own demand" is the core formulation of Say's Law of Markets, attributed to the French classical economist Jean-Baptiste Say. This economic principle asserts that the process of producing goods and services automatically generates an equivalent amount of income in the form of wages, interest, rent, and profit. Since this income is subsequently spent to purchase the goods and services produced, aggregate demand will always equal aggregate supply, preventing any long-term systemic overproduction or general glut in the market.

153General Awareness
Demand pull inflation is a situation of
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Answer: (B) Excess demand

Explanation

Demand-pull inflation occurs when aggregate demand for goods and services in an economy outpaces its aggregate supply. This creates a situation of excess demand, commonly described as too much money chasing too few goods. When the overall demand from consumers, businesses, and the government increases rapidly while the economy is already operating close to its full capacity, production cannot scale up fast enough to meet the demand. As a result, the shortage of supply relative to the high demand forces prices of goods and services upward, leading to inflation.

154General Awareness
Gandhi is known as
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Answer: (C) Philosophical anarchist

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi is recognized as a philosophical anarchist because he envisioned a stateless society based on non-violence and self-governance. He believed that the state represents an organized and concentrated form of violence which suppresses individual freedom and moral development. According to Gandhi, a truly democratic and non-violent society would be composed of self-sufficient, self-governing village republics, which he referred to as Ramarajya, where citizens rule over themselves without the need for a coercive state machinery.

155General Awareness
Indian Federalism is close to
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Answer: (A) Canada

Explanation

The Indian federal system is modeled on the Canadian federal system, which represents a quasi-federal structure with a strong central government. In both systems, the central authority is given paramount power over regional governments to maintain national unity and integrity. This similarity is reflected in key constitutional provisions, such as the preference for the term Union of States instead of federation, the vesting of residuary powers in the central legislature rather than the states, and the appointment of state governors by the central government.

156General Awareness
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which Part of the Indian Constitution ?
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Answer: (B) III

Explanation

Part III of the Constitution of India, spanning Articles 12 to 35, contains the Fundamental Rights guaranteed to the citizens of India. Often described as the Magna Carta of India, this section is deeply inspired by the Bill of Rights of the United States Constitution. These rights are essential for the personal, moral, and spiritual development of individuals and are justiciable, meaning they are directly enforceable by the judiciary through writs in case of any violation.

157General Awareness
Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides special status to Jammu and Kashmir ?
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Answer: (A) 370

Explanation

Article 370 of the Indian Constitution granted special autonomous status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Drafted in 1947 and incorporated into the Constitution as a temporary provision, this article permitted the state to draft its own separate constitution, fly its own state flag, and maintain independent decision-making powers over internal administration. Under this article, the Parliament of India required the concurrence of the state government to apply any central laws to Jammu and Kashmir, with exceptions only for defense, foreign affairs, finance, and communications.

158General Awareness
Which type of writs are not specifically provided in the Indian Constitution ?
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Answer: (A) Injunction

Explanation

An injunction is a preventive remedy and a judicial order, but it is not specifically provided as a constitutional writ under Article 32 or Article 226 of the Constitution of India. The Constitution explicitly names only five prerogative writs. In contrast, injunctions are statutory remedies primarily governed by civil laws such as the Specific Relief Act, 1963 and the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, rather than being codified as specific constitutional writs.

159General Awareness
Which of the following Fundamental Rights is only for the citizens of India ?
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Answer: (B) Freedom of expression

Explanation

Under the Indian Constitution, certain Fundamental Rights are exclusively reserved for the citizens of India, while others are available to both citizens and foreigners. The right to freedom of speech and expression, guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution, is one of these exclusive rights available only to Indian citizens. Article 19 guarantees six basic democratic freedoms, including freedom of speech and expression, peaceful assembly, forming associations, free movement, residence, and practicing any profession, none of which can be claimed by non-citizens.

160General Awareness
The origin of Indian music could be traced back to which of the following Vedic Samhitas ?
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Answer: (C) Sama Veda

Explanation

The Sama Veda is the primary Vedic Samhita associated with music and is widely considered the foundational source of Indian classical music. Often referred to as the Veda of Chants or Veda of Melodies, it consists of hymns arranged to be sung using specific musical notes, rhythms, and intonations during Vedic sacrifices. The seven basic musical notes, or Swaras, which form the bedrock of the Indian classical music system, are traced directly back to the musical structures and chanting patterns found in the Sama Veda.

161General Awareness
Which one of the following was the most famous center of learning during the Nanyan period ?
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Answer: (B) Taxila

Explanation

Taxila was the premier center of higher learning in ancient India, reaching its peak prominence during the Mauryan period. Located strategically in the Gandhara region, it attracted students and scholars from across the globe. It was highly renowned for its high standards of education in subjects like statecraft, law, medicine, military science, and the Vedas. Taxila is famously associated with the great strategist Chanakya, who was a professor there and mentored Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire.

162General Awareness
Kharvela, the Kalinga ruler patronized
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Answer: (B) Jainism

Explanation

King Kharavela, the famous ruler of the Mahameghavahana dynasty of Kalinga who ruled during the second or first century BCE, was a devout patron of Jainism. This is extensively recorded in his famous Hathigumpha inscription located on the Udayagiri Hills near Bhubaneswar, Odisha. The inscription begins with a traditional Jain invocation, paying obeisance to the Arihants and Siddhas. During his military campaigns, Kharavela defeated the ruler of Magadha and brought back the sacred idol of Kalinga Jina (the image of a Tirthankara), which had been taken away as a trophy by the Nanda king Mahapadma Nanda centuries earlier. Kharavela also patronized the construction of numerous rock-cut residential caves in the Udayagiri and Khandagiri hills to serve as peaceful shelters for Jain ascetics during the rainy season.

163General Awareness
Which of the following is not a reform measure adopted by Akbar ?
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Answer: (A) Iqta system

Explanation

The Iqta system was a centralized administrative and land revenue assignment system introduced in India by the rulers of the Delhi Sultanate, primarily organized and established by Sultan Shams ud-Din Iltutmish in the thirteenth century. Under this system, territories were distributed among military commanders and nobles in exchange for military service and revenue collection. Since the Iqta system was a characteristic administrative feature of the Delhi Sultanate and was replaced by different administrative frameworks by the time of the Mughal Empire, it was not a reform measure adopted by Akbar.

164General Awareness
The First Anglo-Maratha War came to an end by the treaty of
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Answer: (A) Salbai

Explanation

The First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–1782) was concluded with the Treaty of Salbai, signed on May 17, 1782, between the British East India Company and the Maratha Empire. Negotiated by Mahadji Shinde and Warren Hastings, the treaty brought an end to the hostilities. Under its terms, the British recognized Madhavrao II Narayan as the rightful Peshwa and restored all conquered territories to the Marathas, with the exception of Salsette. It also established a period of peace between the two powers that lasted for twenty years.

165General Awareness
The name of India's Permanent Research Station situated in the Antarctica is
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Answer: (B) Dakshin Gangotri

Explanation

Dakshin Gangotri was the first permanent scientific research station established by India in Antarctica. It was set up during the third Indian Expedition to Antarctica in 1983–84 and was located in the Queen Maud Land region. The station served as a crucial base for conducting scientific research in disciplines such as geology, glaciology, and atmospheric sciences before being decommissioned in 1990 after it was submerged in ice.

166General Awareness
The biggest copper producing country in Africa is
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Answer: (B) Zambia

Explanation

Zambia is historically one of the worlds largest producers of copper and has traditionally been the leading copper-producing nation in Africa. The countrys economy is heavily dependent on copper mining, which accounts for a major share of its export earnings. The Zambian Copperbelt, a large geological region spanning across northern Zambia and into the Democratic Republic of the Congo, contains some of the richest copper deposits globally. Significant mining centers such as Kitwe, Ndola, and Chingola form the core of Zambias copper production industry.

167General Awareness
Which of the following places is the destination of iron-ore (slurry) carried from Kudremukh through pipeline?
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Answer: (A) Mangalore

Explanation

The Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited (KIOCL) transported iron ore in the form of slurry from the Kudremukh mines in the Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka to the pelletisation plant and port facilities located at Mangalore (specifically Panambur, adjacent to the New Mangalore Port). The specialized pipeline was built to transport the low-grade magnetite iron ore efficiently across the challenging hilly terrain of the Western Ghats to the coastal city for processing and subsequent export.

168General Awareness
Which of the following geomorphical pairs is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Sinkholes - Wind

Explanation

Sinkholes are geological depressions or holes in the ground formed by the dissolution of soluble surface rocks, such as limestone, dolomite, or gypsum, through the chemical action of underground water. They are a signature feature of karst topography and are not created by the action of wind, which is primarily responsible for aeolian landforms like dunes and yardangs.

169General Awareness
Siderite is an ore of
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Answer: (B) Iron

Explanation

Siderite is an important mineral ore of iron, chemically known as iron(II) carbonate with the formula FeCO₃. In its pure state, it contains approximately 48.2% iron by mass. It typically forms in sedimentary environments, often found in association with clay, shale, or coal beds, and serves as a significant source for iron extraction.

170General Awareness
Common cold is caused by
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Answer: (C) Virus

Explanation

The common cold is an infectious disease of the upper respiratory tract that is primarily caused by viruses. Rhinoviruses are the most common viral agents responsible for this infection, accounting for the majority of cases. Other viral strains such as coronaviruses, adenoviruses, respiratory syncytial virus, and enteroviruses can also trigger the condition. These viral pathogens infect the nasal mucosa and throat, spreading rapidly through aerosol transmission from coughing or sneezing, as well as through direct contact with contaminated surfaces.

171General Awareness
Still roots are present in
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Answer: (D) Maize

Explanation

Stilt roots, often referred to as still roots, are a type of adventitious root modification that provides mechanical support to plants with long, slender, or weak stems. In maize, these roots develop from the lower nodes of the main stem and grow obliquely downwards into the soil. Once they penetrate the ground, they branch out to anchor the plant firmly, ensuring stability and preventing it from falling over under the weight of the crop or during strong winds.

172General Awareness
Vitamin D is essential for
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Answer: (A) absorption of calcium from diet

Explanation

Vitamin D plays a critical physiological role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body. Its active form, calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D), acts as a hormone that binds to vitamin D receptors in the small intestine. This binding stimulates the synthesis of calcium-binding proteins, such as calbindin, which actively facilitate the transport and absorption of dietary calcium across the intestinal mucosa into the bloodstream. Without adequate vitamin D, the body cannot efficiently absorb calcium from dietary sources, regardless of how much calcium is consumed.

173General Awareness
Which pair of structures are usually found in both plant and animal cells?
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Answer: (A) Endoplasmic reticulum and cell membrane

Explanation

Both plant and animal cells are eukaryotic cells that share several key cellular components. The cell membrane is a semi-permeable barrier composed of a phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the cytoplasm, protecting the internal environment of the cell and regulating the passage of molecules into and out of it. The endoplasmic reticulum is an interconnected network of membrane-bound tubules and sacs continuous with the nuclear outer membrane, functioning as a primary site for lipid synthesis, protein folding, and cellular transport. Both of these essential structures are universally present in plant and animal cells to maintain basic cellular functions and homeostasis.

174General Awareness
Which of the following are homologous organs?
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Answer: (B) Forelimb of horse and man

Explanation

Homologous organs are anatomical structures in different species that share a common evolutionary origin and basic skeletal pattern, even if they serve completely different functions. The forelimbs of a horse and a human are classic examples of homologous structures. Although a horse uses its forelimbs for running and a human uses its arms for grasping and manipulation, both limbs share the same fundamental bone design, consisting of the humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges. This structural similarity indicates a common ancestral heritage, where a basic limb template was modified over evolutionary time to suit different environmental needs and lifestyles.

175General Awareness
Which of the following algae is being used in space research?
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Answer: (B) Chlorella

Explanation

Chlorella is a unicellular green alga that is widely used in space research as part of bioregenerative life support systems. It is highly efficient at photosynthesis, allowing it to utilize carbon dioxide exhaled by astronauts and release oxygen to replenish the cabin atmosphere. Additionally, Chlorella grows extremely rapidly, is highly rich in essential nutrients like proteins, lipids, and vitamins, and can serve as a valuable source of food during extended space flights. Its ability to thrive in controlled liquid culture environments under various light conditions makes it an ideal organism for long-duration space missions.

176General Awareness
Which one of the following is not a green house gas?
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Answer: (C) Ethane

Explanation

Ethane (C₂H₆) is a saturated hydrocarbon that does not act as a direct greenhouse gas. It does not possess the strong infrared absorption properties in the atmospheric thermal window required to trap outgoing planetary radiation. Additionally, ethane has a very short atmospheric lifetime, typically lasting only a few months, because it is rapidly broken down by reacting with hydroxyl radicals in the troposphere. Consequently, it does not contribute directly to the greenhouse effect.

177General Awareness
Which two basic forces are able to provide an attractive force between two neutrons?
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Answer: (A) Gravitational and nuclear

Explanation

The gravitational force is a universal attractive force that exists between any two entities possessing mass. Since neutrons have a physical mass of approximately 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg, they exert a mutual gravitational attraction on one another. The strong nuclear force is a powerful, short-range attractive force that acts between nucleons (protons and neutrons) at subatomic distances of around 1 to 3 femtometers, binding them together within the atomic nucleus. Consequently, these two forces are responsible for providing an attractive force between two neutrons.

178General Awareness
Which of the following phenomenon cannot take place in sound waves?
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Answer: (D) Polarization

Explanation

Polarization is a phenomenon exclusive to transverse waves, where the wave oscillations occur in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Sound waves in fluids (like air or water) are longitudinal waves, where the particles of the medium vibrate back and forth parallel to the direction in which the wave travels. Since longitudinal waves only oscillate along a single axis aligned with their path of propagation, they cannot be restricted to vibrate in any other specific plane, making polarization impossible for sound waves.

179General Awareness
Identify the sequential-access media.
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Answer: (C) Magnetic tape

Explanation

Magnetic tape is a sequential-access storage medium because data is written and read in a continuous physical sequence, one record after another. To access a specific block of data, the drive must wind or unwind the tape from its current position past all the preceding data until it reaches the desired location. This linear access mechanism means the retrieval time depends heavily on the physical position of the data on the medium.

180General Awareness
Which one of the following is more suitable for objective type examination?
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Answer: (C) Optical Mark Reading and Recognition

Explanation

Optical Mark Reading and Recognition is highly suitable for objective-type examinations because it is designed to detect the presence or absence of a mark on a specific pre-printed position on a paper sheet. In objective exams, candidates select their answers by darkening bubbles or boxes on an OMR sheet. The OMR scanner captures these marks by measuring reflected light, allowing for extremely fast, automated, and highly accurate grading of thousands of answer sheets within a short timeframe.

181General Awareness
The service allows a group of Internet users to exchange their views on some common topic.
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Answer: (B) Usenet

Explanation

Usenet is a worldwide distributed discussion system that allows groups of Internet users to post messages, read articles, and exchange views on a vast array of common topics. Developed in 1979, it organizes these discussions into categorized newsgroups, enabling people with similar interests from all over the world to converse, share information, and collaborate in a public forum environment.

182General Awareness
In graphite, layers are held together by
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Answer: (C) van der Waals forces

Explanation

Graphite has a layered structure consisting of hexagonal rings of carbon atoms. While the carbon atoms within a single layer are strongly bound by covalent bonds, the individual layers themselves are held together by weak van der Waals forces. These weak intermolecular forces allow the layers to slide past each other easily, which explains why graphite is soft and can act as a lubricant.

183General Awareness
Fullerene, a newly discovered crystalline carbon allotrope, contains
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Answer: (A) 60 C atoms

Explanation

Buckminsterfullerene, commonly known as fullerene, is a cage-like fused-ring structure resembling a soccer ball that is composed of 60 carbon atoms. It is represented by the chemical formula C₆₀. In this hollow sphere, the carbon atoms are sp² hybridized and arranged in a pattern of 20 hexagons and 12 pentagons, where each carbon atom is covalently bonded to three others.

184General Awareness
The metal which is protected by a layer of its own oxide is
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Answer: (A) Aluminium

Explanation

Aluminium reacts rapidly with atmospheric oxygen to form a thin, highly stable, and non-porous layer of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) on its surface. This natural passivation process creates a physical barrier that adheres tightly to the metal, preventing further contact between the underlying aluminium and moisture or oxygen, which protects the metal from deep corrosion.

185General Awareness
Filaria is caused by
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Answer: (C) Wuchereria bancrofti

Explanation

Filaria, also known as lymphatic filariasis, is a parasitic disease caused by microscopic, thread-like roundworms. The major causative agent of this disease in humans is the nematode parasite Wuchereria bancrofti, which accounts for approximately 90% of all lymphatic filariasis cases. These worms reside in the lymphatic system, where they can obstruct lymph flow and cause severe swelling, commonly known as elephantiasis.

186General Awareness
The maximum moisture content of the composting mixture for vermicomposting is
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Answer: (D) 65%

Explanation

In vermicomposting, moisture plays a vital role because earthworms breathe through their skin and require a wet environment to survive, feed, and reproduce. The ideal moisture content in the composting mixture or beds is maintained between 60% and 70%. If the moisture content falls below 50%, the activity of earthworms declines significantly, and they can dry out and die. Conversely, excess moisture can lead to waterlogging, resulting in anaerobic conditions, foul odors, and reduced oxygen availability. Keeping the moisture content at around 65% ensures optimal microbial action, proper aeration, and the overall health and growth of the earthworms.

187General Awareness
The process of ozonation in winter treatment is known as
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Answer: (B) Disinfection

Explanation

The process of ozonation in water treatment is known as disinfection. Ozonation involves injecting ozone (O₃), a highly reactive gas and powerful oxidizing agent, into water. During this process, ozone destroys and inactivates pathogenic microorganisms—including bacteria, viruses, and protozoa—by oxidizing their outer cell walls and disrupting their internal cellular structures. This makes ozonation one of the most effective chemical-free methods for disinfecting drinking water and wastewater, leaving no harmful chemical residues or chlorinated disinfection byproducts.

188General Awareness
Permissible concentration of residual chlorine in drinking water in mg/L is
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Answer: (A) 0-2

Explanation

As per water quality standards like IS 10500, drinking water that has undergone chlorination must maintain a minimum free residual chlorine concentration of 0.2 mg/L (represented as 0-2) at the consumer end. This residual concentration is essential to provide continued protection against potential microbial contamination and pathogen regrowth within the water distribution system.

189General Awareness
Lead poisoning in vertebrates is not characterized by
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Answer: (D) Methemoglobinemia

Explanation

Methemoglobinemia is a blood disorder characterized by elevated levels of methemoglobin, in which the iron in the heme group of hemoglobin is oxidized from the normal ferrous state (Fe²⁺) to the ferric state (Fe³⁺), preventing it from releasing oxygen effectively to tissues. This pathological state is typically triggered by exposure to oxidizing chemicals and drugs—such as nitrites, nitrates, chlorates, and local anesthetics like benzocaine—or genetic mutations affecting methemoglobin reductase enzymes, rather than exposure to heavy metals like lead.

190General Awareness
Who is the Chief of the Indian Army?
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Answer: (B) Gen. Bikram Singh

Explanation

General Bikram Singh assumed office as the 24th Chief of the Army Staff of the Indian Army on 31 May 2012 and served in this position until his retirement on 31 July 2014. Commissioned into the Sikh Light Infantry in March 1972, he previously held key leadership roles, including serving as the General Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Eastern Army Command. As of October 2012, he was the active Chief of the Indian Army.

191General Awareness
India is not a member of
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Answer: (D) G-8

Explanation

The Group of Eight (G-8) was an intergovernmental political forum of highly industrialized nations comprising the United States, the United Kingdom, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Canada, and Russia. India has never been a member of this exclusive group, although it has occasionally participated in some G-8 summits as an invited outreach partner.

192General Awareness
Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers received "NISHAN-E-PAKISTAN" the highest civilian award in Pakistan?
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Answer: (C) Morarji Desai

Explanation

Morarji Desai, who served as the fourth Prime Minister of India from 1977 to 1979, was honored with the Nishan-e-Pakistan on May 19, 1990. This is the highest civilian award of Pakistan. He received this prestigious award in recognition of his significant contributions and outstanding efforts to promote peace, mutual understanding, and the normalization of bilateral relations between India and Pakistan. He remains the only Indian citizen to be conferred with this distinction.

193General Awareness
Mohammed Azharuddin, former Indian Cricket Team Captain, represents constituency of Uttar Pradesh in the Lok Sabha.
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Answer: (D) Moradabad

Explanation

Mohammed Azharuddin, the former captain of the Indian cricket team, entered politics in 2009 by joining the Indian National Congress. In the 2009 general elections, he contested from the Moradabad Lok Sabha constituency in Uttar Pradesh and was successfully elected as a Member of Parliament to the 15th Lok Sabha.

194General Awareness
Which country won the Gold in Sultan Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament in 2012?
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Answer: (C) New Zealand

Explanation

New Zealand won the 2012 Sultan Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament, securing their first-ever gold medal in the history of the competition. The 21st edition of the annual invitational international men's field hockey tournament was held in Ipoh, Malaysia, from May 24 to June 3, 2012, where they clinched the championship title with a 1-0 victory in the final match.

195General Awareness
Where is Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports?
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Answer: (A) Patiala

Explanation

The Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports, commonly known as the National Institute of Sports, is situated in Patiala, Punjab. Established on May 7, 1961, it is Asia's largest sports institute. The institute is housed in the magnificent Moti Bagh Palace, which was the palace of the erstwhile Maharaja of Patiala. It serves as the academic wing of the Sports Authority of India and was renamed in honor of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in 1973.

196General Awareness
The only leader who got the Bharat Ratna award while holding the office of the Union Home Minister is
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Answer: (B) Govind Ballabh Pant

Explanation

Govind Ballabh Pant served as the Union Home Minister of India from 1955 until his death in 1961. He was awarded India's highest civilian honor, the Bharat Ratna, in 1957 while actively holding this cabinet portfolio. His tenure was marked by significant contributions to the nation, including his leadership during the reorganization of Indian states along linguistic lines.

197General Awareness
Mullaperiyar Dam is a disputed issue between
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Answer: (A) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Explanation

The Mullaperiyar Dam is located on the Periyar River in the Idukki district of Kerala, but it is operated and maintained by Tamil Nadu under a 999-year lease agreement signed in 1886. The long-standing dispute between Kerala and Tamil Nadu centers on the safety and water levels of this century-old gravity dam. Kerala raises concerns over its structural stability and safety for the millions of people living downstream, advocating for the construction of a new dam. Tamil Nadu, on the other hand, maintains that the structure is safe and seeks to increase the reservoir's water level to support irrigation and drinking water needs in its southern districts.

198General Awareness
Smt. Margaret Alva is the Governor of
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Answer: (D) Uttarakhand

Explanation

Smt. Margaret Alva served as the fourth Governor of Uttarakhand from 6 August 2009 to 14 May 2012. Appointed by the President of India, she made history as the first female Governor of Uttarakhand. During her tenure in the state, she administered the oath of office to Chief Ministers including Ramesh Pokhriyal, B. C. Khanduri, and Vijay Bahuguna.

199General Awareness
The Union Territory of Puducherry does not have a common border with
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Answer: (C) Karnataka

Explanation

Karnataka is located in the southwestern region of India, primarily on the Deccan Plateau and the Konkan coast. The Union Territory of Puducherry comprises four geographically separated districts: Puducherry, Karaikal, Yanam, and Mahe. Since these enclaves are situated entirely along the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal and the Malabar Coast of the Arabian Sea, Karnataka does not share a land border with any part of the Union Territory of Puducherry.

200General Awareness
Which of the following is an extra-constitutional body ?
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Answer: (A) Planning Commission

Explanation

The Planning Commission was established on 15 March 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of India. It was not created by the Constitution of India nor by any Act of Parliament, making it an extra-constitutional and non-statutory body designed to formulate India's Five-Year Plans and coordinate economic development.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 151A
  2. 152C
  3. 153B
  4. 154C
  5. 155A
  6. 156B
  7. 157A
  8. 158A
  9. 159B
  10. 160C
  11. 161B
  12. 162B
  13. 163A
  14. 164A
  15. 165B
  16. 166B
  17. 167A
  18. 168B
  19. 169B
  20. 170C
  21. 171D
  22. 172A
  23. 173A
  24. 174B
  25. 175B
  26. 176C
  27. 177A
  28. 178D
  29. 179C
  30. 180C
  31. 181B
  32. 182C
  33. 183A
  34. 184A
  35. 185C
  36. 186D
  37. 187B
  38. 188A
  39. 189D
  40. 190B
  41. 191D
  42. 192C
  43. 193D
  44. 194C
  45. 195A
  46. 196B
  47. 197A
  48. 198D
  49. 199C
  50. 200A

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